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Punjab Biology 2021 Paper 2 — Solved Past Paper with Answers
All 17 MCQs from Punjab Biology 2021 Paper 2, solved with the correct answer highlighted and a full explanation for every question. This is a free MDCAT Punjab / UHS past paper — no signup, no ads. Practise it interactively in timed mode, drill more with free MDCAT MCQs, or browse all Punjab / UHS papers.
Attempt this paper interactively →Q1. The central station of metabolism and metabolic clearing house of the body is:
- A. Liver✓
- B. Stomach
- C. Hypothalamus
- D. Pancreas
Explanation: The liver is often referred to as the central station of metabolism because it plays a crucial role in various metabolic processes. It metabolizes nutrients from the digestive system, regulates blood glucose levels by storing or releasing glycogen, synthesizes proteins, processes fats, detoxifies harmful substances, and produces bile for fat digestion.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. While the stomach is involved in the initial digestion of food through the action of stomach acids and enzymes, it is not typically considered the central station of metabolism. Its main function is to break down food mechanically and chemically before further digestion and absorption occur in the small intestine.
- C. The hypothalamus is a region of the brain involved in regulating various bodily functions, including metabolism, by controlling the release of hormones from the pituitary gland. However, it is not the primary metabolic clearinghouse of the body.
- D. The pancreas plays a critical role in metabolism by producing insulin and glucagon, hormones that regulate blood sugar levels. It also secretes digestive enzymes into the small intestine to aid in the digestion of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. However, it is not typically referred to as the central station of metabolism.
Q2. Urine leaves the body through:
- A. Pelvis
- B. Ureter
- C. Urinary bladder
- D. Urethra✓
Explanation: The urethra is the tube that carries urine from the urinary bladder to the outside of the body during urination. In males, it also serves as the passage for semen during ejaculation.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The pelvis is a basin-shaped structure in the lower part of the trunk of many vertebrates, formed by the pelvic girdle, sacrum, and coccyx. It houses various organs including the urinary bladder and parts of the ureters, but urine itself does not leave the body through the pelvis.
- B. The ureters are muscular tubes that carry urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder. They do not directly expel urine from the body but rather transport it to the bladder.
- C. The urinary bladder is a hollow, muscular organ that stores urine until it is expelled from the body. When the bladder is full, it contracts, and urine flows out through the urethra.
Q3. Which of these are bone forming cells?
- A. Osteoblasts✓
- B. Osteoclasts
- C. Osteocytes
- D. Chondrocytes
Explanation: Osteoblasts are bone-forming cells responsible for synthesizing and secreting the matrix of bone tissue. They play a crucial role in bone formation during growth and repair processes by depositing minerals, primarily calcium and phosphate, onto the bone matrix.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Osteoclasts, on the other hand, are bone-resorbing cells. They break down bone tissue by secreting acids and enzymes, thereby aiding in bone remodeling, repair, and calcium homeostasis.
- C. Osteocytes are mature bone cells derived from osteoblasts. They are embedded within the bone matrix and are involved in regulating bone remodeling and responding to mechanical stresses.
- D. Chondrocytes are cartilage cells, not bone cells. They are found in cartilage tissue and are responsible for producing and maintaining the extracellular matrix of cartilage. Chondrocytes play a vital role in cartilage growth, maintenance, and repair.
Q4. Which one is needed to break the link between myosin bridge and actin?
- A. Glucose
- B. ATP✓
- C. Creatine
- D. Creatine phosphate
Explanation: ATP is the primary energy currency of cells and is required for various cellular processes, including muscle contraction. ATP binds to myosin heads, providing the energy needed for the cross-bridge cycle to occur. When ATP is hydrolyzed to ADP (adenosine diphosphate) and inorganic phosphate (Pi), it provides the energy required for the myosin head to detach from actin, allowing muscle relaxation to occur.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Glucose is a sugar molecule that serves as a primary source of energy for cells. However, glucose alone cannot directly break the link between myosin and actin during muscle contraction.
- C. Creatine is a nitrogenous organic acid that plays a role in providing rapid energy during high-intensity, short-duration activities, such as sprinting or weightlifting. However, creatine itself does not directly break the link between myosin and actin during muscle contraction.
- D. Creatine phosphate (phosphocreatine) is a high-energy molecule that can rapidly regenerate ATP from ADP during short bursts of intense muscle activity. While it contributes to ATP regeneration, it does not directly break the link between myosin and actin during muscle contraction; rather, it helps replenish ATP levels for continued muscle function.
Q5. Excess thyroxine produces a condition called:
- A. Cretinism
- B. Dwarfism
- C. Grave's disease✓
- D. Cushing's disease
Explanation: Grave's disease is an autoimmune disorder that leads to hyperthyroidism, a condition characterized by excessive production of thyroid hormones, including thyroxine. Symptoms of Grave's disease can include weight loss, rapid heartbeat, tremors, sweating, and protruding eyes (exophthalmos). Excess thyroxine is a hallmark feature of Grave's disease.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Cretinism is a condition that results from severe hypothyroidism during fetal development or infancy. It is characterized by stunted growth, intellectual disability, delayed skeletal development, and other physical and mental abnormalities. Excess thyroxine does not cause cretinism; rather, it is associated with inadequate levels of thyroid hormone.
- B. Dwarfism refers to a condition characterized by significantly shorter stature than average. It can result from various factors, including genetic mutations, hormonal imbalances, or skeletal dysplasias. Excess thyroxine is not typically associated with dwarfism.
- D. Cushing's disease is a condition caused by prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol, a steroid hormone produced by the adrenal glands. It leads to a variety of symptoms, including weight gain, muscle weakness, fatigue, high blood pressure, and changes in appearance such as a rounded face and increased body fat in the abdomen. Excess thyroxine does not cause Cushing's disease.
Q6. Placental lactogen in human females is secreted by:
- A. Pituitary gland
- B. Ovary
- C. Corpus luteum
- D. Placenta✓
Explanation: The placenta, a temporary organ that develops during pregnancy, is responsible for supplying oxygen and nutrients to the fetus and removing waste products. It also produces several hormones essential for maintaining pregnancy, including placental lactogen.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The pituitary gland secretes various hormones, but placental lactogen is not one of them. Instead, the pituitary gland produces hormones like growth hormone, prolactin, and luteinizing hormone, among others.
- B. The ovary is primarily responsible for producing and releasing eggs (oocytes) during ovulation and secreting hormones like estrogen and progesterone. Placental lactogen is not produced by the ovary.
- C. The corpus luteum forms from the ruptured follicle after ovulation and produces progesterone to support the early stages of pregnancy. Placental lactogen is not secreted by the corpus luteum.
Q7. Notochord is one of the few prominent structures seen in the embryo of:
- A. 24 hours
- B. 22 hours
- C. 20 hours
- D. 18 hours✓
Explanation: In chick embryo of about 18 hours, notochord is one of the few prominent structural features.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. In chick embryo of about 18 hours, notochord is one of the few prominent structural features.
- B. In chick embryo of about 18 hours, notochord is one of the few prominent structural features.
- C. In chick embryo of about 18 hours, notochord is one of the few prominent structural features.
Q8. Grey vegetal cytoplasm of ascidian egg gives rise to:
- A. Notochord
- B. Muscle cells
- C. Gut✓
- D. Epidermis
Explanation: The fertilized egg of an ascidian contains cytoplasm of five different colours that is segregated into different blastomeres.1. Clear cytoplasm: It produces larval epidermis.2. Yellow cytoplasm: It gives rise to muscle cells.3. Gray vegetal cytoplasm: It gives rise to gut.4. Grey equatorial cytoplasm: It produces notochord and neural tube.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The fertilized egg of an ascidian contains cytoplasm of five different colours that is segregated into different blastomeres.1. Clear cytoplasm: It produces larval epidermis.2. Yellow cytoplasm: It gives rise to muscle cells.3. Gray vegetal cytoplasm: It gives rise to gut.4. Grey equatorial cytoplasm: It produces notochord and neural tube.
- B. The fertilized egg of an ascidian contains cytoplasm of five different colours that is segregated into different blastomeres.1. Clear cytoplasm: It produces larval epidermis. 2. Yellow cytoplasm: It gives rise to muscle cells. 3. Gray vegetal cytoplasm: It gives rise to gut. 4. Grey equatorial cytoplasm: It produces notochord and neural tube.
- D. The fertilized egg of an ascidian contains cytoplasm of five different colours that is segregated into different blastomeres.1. Clear cytoplasm: It produces larval epidermis.2. Yellow cytoplasm: It gives rise to muscle cells.3. Gray vegetal cytoplasm: It gives rise to gut.4. Grey equatorial cytoplasm: It produces notochord and neural tube.
Q9. TTGACA binding site in prokaryotes is called:
- A. -25 sequence
- B. -35 sequence✓
- C. -10 sequence
- D. -75 sequence
Explanation: This sequence is located about 35 base pairs upstream of the transcription start site and contains the TTGACA sequence, which is recognized by the sigma subunit of RNA polymerase during transcription initiation. It plays a crucial role in positioning RNA polymerase and initiating transcription.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The -25 sequence is not directly associated with the TTGACA binding site. It refers to a region in the promoter sequence of prokaryotic genes where the DNA double helix starts unwinding during transcription initiation.
- C. The -10 sequence, also known as the Pribnow box, is another important promoter element in prokaryotes. It is located about 10 base pairs upstream of the transcription start site and contains the TATAAT sequence, which is also recognized by RNA polymerase and helps in the initiation of transcription.
- D. There is no commonly recognized promoter sequence referred to as the -75 sequence in prokaryotes. Promoter sequences are typically denoted by their positions relative to the transcription start site (-1), such as -10 and -35 sequences.
Q10. The paired chromosomes start to separate during:
- A. Diakinesis
- B. Diplotene✓
- C. Pachytene
- D. Zygotene
Explanation: The paired chromosomes repel each other and begin to separate during diplotene. Separation however, is not complete, because homologous chromosomes remain united by their point of interchange (chiasmata). Each bivalent has at least one such point, the chromatids otherwise are separated.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. This is the final substage of prophase I of meiosis. During diakinesis, the paired chromosomes (also known as tetrads) continue to condense, and the nucleolus and nuclear envelope disappear. However, the chromosomes do not start to separate during diakinesis.
- C. This is the third substage of prophase I of meiosis. Pachytene is characterized by the completion of pairing of homologous chromosomes, forming tetrads, and the beginning of genetic recombination through crossing over. However, the chromosomes are still closely associated and have not started to separate.
- D. This is the second substage of prophase I of meiosis. During zygotene, homologous chromosomes begin to pair up and become aligned, a process known as synapsis. This pairing sets the stage for genetic recombination. However, the chromosomes are still closely associated and have not started to separate.
Q11. Individuals having 45 chromosomes with one missing "X" chromosome are affected by:
- A. Down's syndrome
- B. Klinefelter's syndrome
- C. Turner's syndrome✓
- D. Edward's syndrome
Explanation: Turner's syndrome is a genetic condition that affects females and is characterized by the complete or partial absence of one X chromosome. Instead of the usual 46 chromosomes, individuals with Turner's syndrome have only 45 chromosomes, with one missing X chromosome.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Down's syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. Individuals with Down's syndrome typically have 47 chromosomes instead of the usual 46.
- B. Klinefelter's syndrome is a condition in males that results from an extra X chromosome. Typically, males have one X and one Y chromosome (XY), but individuals with Klinefelter's syndrome have at least two X chromosomes and one Y chromosome, resulting in a total of 47 chromosomes.
- D. Edward's syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 18. Individuals with Edward's syndrome typically have 47 chromosomes instead of the usual 46.
Q12. MN blood type is an example of:
- A. Codominance✓
- B. Over dominance
- C. Incomplete dominance
- D. Complete dominance
Explanation: In codominance, both alleles in a heterozygote are fully expressed. In the case of MN blood type, codominance means that both M and N alleles are expressed equally, resulting in individuals with both M and N antigens on their red blood cells.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Overdominance, also known as heterozygote advantage, occurs when the heterozygous genotype has a higher fitness than either of the homozygous genotypes. This doesn't apply to MN blood type because there's no advantage or disadvantage associated with being heterozygous for the M and N alleles.
- C. In incomplete dominance, the phenotype of the heterozygote is intermediate between the phenotypes of the two homozygotes. For MN blood type, neither M nor N allele is dominant over the other, so neither allele is fully expressed in the heterozygote. Instead, individuals with MN blood type express both M and N antigens on their red blood cells, resulting in an intermediate phenotype.
- D. In complete dominance, one allele is completely dominant over another, so only the dominant allele is expressed in the phenotype of the heterozygote. This doesn't apply to MN blood type because both M and N alleles are expressed in the phenotype of heterozygotes.
Q13. Plasmids were discovered while studying the sex life of:
- A. E.Coli✓
- B. Hyphomicrobium
- C. Vibrio
- D. Mycobacterium
Explanation: Plasmids were discovered by investigators studying the sex life of the intestinal bacterium Escherichia coli.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Plasmids were discovered by investigators studying the sex life of the intestinal bacterium Escherichia coli.
- C. Plasmids were discovered by investigators studying the sex life of the intestinal bacterium Escherichia coli.
- D. Plasmids were discovered by investigators studying the sex life of the intestinal bacterium Escherichia coli.
Q14. A respiratory protein found in all aerobic species is:
- A. Cytochrome 'a'
- B. Cytochrome 'b'
- C. Cytochrome' c'✓
- D. Cytochrome 'f'
Explanation: For instance, cytochrome c, a respiratory protein is found in all aerobic species.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. For instance, cytochrome c, a respiratory protein is found in all aerobic species.
- B. For instance, cytochrome c, a respiratory protein is found in all aerobic species.
- D. For instance, cytochrome c, a respiratory protein is found in all aerobic species.
Q15. The actual location of an organism is called:
- A. Niche
- B. Habitat✓
- C. Ecosystem
- D. Biosphere
Explanation: Habitat refers to the specific place or type of environment where an organism lives. It encompasses both biotic (living) and abiotic (non-living) factors, such as the type of soil, climate, vegetation, and other organisms present in the area. For example, a habitat could be a forest, a pond, a desert, or even a human-made environment like a city.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. This refers to the role or function of an organism within its environment, including its interactions with other organisms and its physical surroundings. It includes factors like what the organism eats, how it obtains its food, where it lives, and how it reproduces.
- C. An ecosystem is a community of organisms (including plants, animals, and microorganisms) interacting with each other and their physical environment. It includes both living (biotic) and non-living (abiotic) components. Ecosystems can vary in size and complexity, ranging from a small pond to a vast rainforest.
- D. The biosphere is the global sum of all ecosystems on Earth. It includes all living organisms and their interactions with each other and their physical environment, such as the atmosphere, hydrosphere (water), and lithosphere (rock and soil). Essentially, the biosphere is the zone of life on Earth.
Q16. The coniferous forests located at high altitudes are called:
- A. Alpine✓
- B. Boreal
- C. Taiga
- D. Savanna
Explanation: Alpine forests are found in mountainous regions at high altitudes, typically above the tree line where temperatures are cooler and conditions are harsher. These forests are characterized by coniferous trees adapted to cold temperatures and rocky terrain. Alpine ecosystems are often diverse and can include a variety of plant and animal species adapted to the challenging conditions of high elevations.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Boreal forests, also known as taiga, are found in subarctic regions of the Northern Hemisphere, primarily in Canada, Russia, and Scandinavia. These forests are dominated by coniferous trees such as spruce, pine, and fir, adapted to cold temperatures and long winters. Boreal forests are important habitats for wildlife such as moose, bears, wolves, and migratory birds.
- C. Taiga is another term for boreal forests, as mentioned above. It refers to the vast expanse of coniferous forests found in subarctic regions, characterized by cold temperatures, short growing seasons, and acidic soils. The taiga biome plays a crucial role in regulating the Earth's climate and is home to a wide range of plant and animal species adapted to cold environments.
- D. Savannas are tropical or subtropical grasslands with scattered trees and shrubs. They are typically found in regions with a pronounced dry season and are characterized by grassland vegetation interspersed with patches of trees. Savannas are found in Africa, South America, Australia, and parts of Asia. Unlike coniferous forests, savannas do not typically have high-altitude locations or coniferous tree dominance.
Q17. Which of these is a green house gas?
- A. Sulphur dioxide
- B. Nitric oxide
- C. Carbon monoxide
- D. Carbon dioxide✓
Explanation: Carbon dioxide is the primary greenhouse gas emitted through human activities such as burning fossil fuels, deforestation, and industrial processes. It's the most significant driver of global warming and climate change, trapping heat in the Earth's atmosphere.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. While it is a pollutant emitted from burning fossil fuels, it's not considered a significant greenhouse gas. It contributes to acid rain and respiratory issues but doesn't have a notable impact on global warming.
- B. Similar to sulphur dioxide, nitric oxide is a pollutant but not a significant greenhouse gas. It plays a role in air pollution and the formation of smog but doesn't have a significant impact on climate change.
- C. Carbon monoxide is not a greenhouse gas. It's a toxic gas produced from incomplete combustion of fossil fuels and biomass. It's harmful to human health but doesn't contribute directly to global warming.
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