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Punjab Biology 2022 — Solved Past Paper with Answers
All 17 MCQs from Punjab Biology 2022, solved with the correct answer highlighted and a full explanation for every question. This is a free MDCAT Punjab / UHS past paper — no signup, no ads. Practise it interactively in timed mode, drill more with free MDCAT MCQs, or browse all Punjab / UHS papers.
Attempt this paper interactively →Q1. The vernolic acid and ricinolic acid can be used as hardness in
- A. Paints
- B. Plastic
- C. Paints and plastic✓
- D. Rubber
Explanation: Vernolic acid and ricinoleic acid, derivatives of oleic acid that can be used as hardeness in paints and plastics.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Vernolic acid and ricinoleic acid, derivatives of oleic acid that can be used as hardeness in paints and plastics.
- B. Vernolic acid and ricinoleic acid, derivatives of oleic acid that can be used as hardeness in paints and plastics.
- D. Vernolic acid and ricinoleic acid, derivatives of oleic acid that can be used as hardeness in paints and plastics.
Q2. Darwin's "Origin of species" was published in
- A. 1840
- B. 1859✓
- C. 1865
- D. 1890
Explanation: On November 24, 1859, Charles Darwin's On the origin of species by means of natural selection… was published in London. From the beginning, the book was popular and the first edition sold out on the first day.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. On November 24, 1859, Charles Darwin's On the origin of species by means of natural selection… was published in London. From the beginning, the book was popular and the first edition sold out on the first day.
- C. On November 24, 1859, Charles Darwin's On the origin of species by means of natural selection… was published in London. From the beginning, the book was popular and the first edition sold out on the first day.
- D. On November 24, 1859, Charles Darwin's On the origin of species by means of natural selection… was published in London. From the beginning, the book was popular and the first edition sold out on the first day.
Q3. The study of relationships of different communities to the environment is called
- A. Synecology✓
- B. Autecology
- C. Embryology
- D. Zoology
Explanation: Synecology is the ecological study of whole plant or animal communities. It deals with the relation between natural communities or species with their environment. So, the correct answer is 'synecology'
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Autecology is the study of individual organisms. The approach originally focused on the adaptiveness of an organism׳s physiology to the environment but has since been expanded to include the study of the distribution and dynamics of populations.
- C. Embryology is the study of development of an embryo from the stage of ovum fertilization through to the fetal stage. The ball of dividing cells that results after fertilization is termed an “embryo” for eight weeks and from nine weeks after fertilization, the term used is “fetus.”
- D. Zoology, branch of biology that studies the members of the animal kingdom and animal life in general.
Q4. Which one is not a desert?
- A. Thal
- B. Thar
- C. Sahara
- D. Taiga✓
Explanation: The taiga is a forest of the cold, subarctic region. The subarctic is an area of the Northern Hemisphere that lies just south of the Arctic Circle. The taiga lies between the tundra to the north and temperate forests to the south. Alaska, Canada, Scandinavia, and Siberia have taigas.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The Thal desert is situated at 31°10’ N and 71°30’ E in the province of Punjab, Pakistan. Located near the Pothohar Plateau, the area falls under the Indomalayan biogeographic realm and stretches for a length of approximately 190 miles with a maximum breadth of 70 miles.
- B. The Thar Desert, also known as the Great Indian Desert, is an arid region in the north-western part of the Indian subcontinent that covers an area of 200,000 km² in India and Pakistan. It is the world's 18th-largest desert, and the world's 9th-largest hot subtropical desert.
- C. The Sahara is a desert spanning across North Africa. With an area of 9,200,000 square kilometres, it is the largest hot desert in the world and the third-largest desert overall, smaller only than the deserts of Antarctica and the northern Arctic.
Q5. The steady internal state of homeostasis is known as
- A. Disorder
- B. Disease
- C. Normal health✓
- D. Abnormal health
Explanation: Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity and the steady state of hemostasis is also known as normal health.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Disorder – An illness that disrupts normal physical or mental functions. Oxford English Dictionary. A disorder could be defined as a set of problems, which result in causing significant difficulty, distress, impairment and/or suffering in a person's daily life.
- B. A simple definition of disease is an 'illness or sickness characterised by specific signs or symptoms'.
- D. Describes a state, condition, or behavior that is unusual or different from what is considered normal. In medicine, an abnormal lesion or growth in or on the body may be benign (not cancer), precancerous or premalignant (likely to become cancer), or malignant (cancer). Also called atypical.
Q6. Pressure filtration is associated with the
- A. Glomerular part✓
- B. Collecting tubule
- C. Distal convulated tabule
- D. Collecting duct
Explanation: Blood passing through glomerulus is filtered into Bowman’s capsule. It is specifically filtered here, unlike at the other parts of the vessels, because glomerulus walls are porous, and the fraction of the blood pressure reaching here provides the filtration pressure.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. Blood passing through glomerulus is filtered into Bowman’s capsule. It is specifically filtered here, unlike at the other parts of the vessels, because glomerulus walls are porous, and the fraction of the blood pressure reaching here provides the filtration pressure.
- C. Blood passing through glomerulus is filtered into Bowman’s capsule. It is specifically filtered here, unlike at the other parts of the vessels, because glomerulus walls are porous, and the fraction of the blood pressure reaching here provides the filtration pressure.
- D. Blood passing through glomerulus is filtered into Bowman’s capsule. It is specifically filtered here, unlike at the other parts of the vessels, because glomerulus walls are porous, and the fraction of the blood pressure reaching here provides the filtration pressure.
Q7. The diameter of thick filament in muscle is
- A. 7-8 nm
- B. 4 nm
- C. 16 nm✓
- D. 10 nm
Explanation: The thick filament which is about 16 nm in diameter is composed of myosin.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The thick filament which is about 16 nm in diameter is composed of myosin.
- B. The thick filament which is about 16 nm in diameter is composed of myosin.
- D. The thick filament which is about 16 nm in diameter is composed of myosin.
Q8. At the place of attachment of leaf with the shoot the swollen part is called
- A. Pitch
- B. Pit
- C. Cortex
- D. Pulvinus✓
Explanation: The place of attachment of leaf with the shoot, pulvinus, is swollen portion of the petiole composed of parenchymatous cells with relatively large inter cellular spaces and central strand of vascular tissues.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Pitch is a viscoelastic polymer which can be natural or manufactured, derived from petroleum, coal tar, or plants. Various forms of pitch may also be called tar, bitumen, or asphalt. Pitch produced from plants is also known as resin. Some products made from plant resin are also known as rosin.
- B. Pits are thin areas on the secondary cell walls of plants. They look like depressions on the walls. Also, they aid in the transport of minerals and water between the cells. Usually, a pit has a complementary depression in its neighbouring cell. These are termed 'pit pairs'.
- C. In botany, a cortex is an outer layer of a stem or root in a vascular plant, lying below the epidermis but outside of the vascular bundles. The cortex is composed mostly of large thin-walled parenchyma cells of the ground tissue system and shows little to no structural differentiation.
Q9. Intelligence is under the control of
- A. Cerebellum
- B. Cerebrum✓
- C. Thalamus
- D. Hypothalamus
Explanation: Cerebrum. The largest part of the brain, the cerebrum has two hemispheres (or halves). The cerebrum controls movement, speech, intelligence, emotion, and what we see and hear.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The cerebellum, one of three main parts that make up your brain, is responsible for coordinating movement and balance. Also known as the “little brain,” it plays a vital role in language and attention and can assist people with vision and eye movement.
- C. Your thalamus is your body's information relay station. All information from your body's senses (except smell) must be processed through your thalamus before being sent to your brain's cerebral cortex for interpretation. Your thalamus also plays a role in sleep, wakefulness, consciousness, learning and memory.
- D. The hypothalamus helps manage your body temperature, hunger and thirst, mood, sex drive, blood pressure and sleep.
Q10. Diploid parthenogenesis may occur in
- A. Bees
- B. Aphid✓
- C. Wasp
- D. Honey bee
Explanation: Diploid parthenogenesis occurs in insects such as aphids as well as in some rotifers and flowering plants (see animal reproductive system and plant reproductive system).
Why the other options are wrong
- A. In haploid parthenogenesis, a rare form of parthenogenesis that occurs in a few species of bees, nematodes, and plants, offspring develop from haploid eggs to produce haploid adults.
- C. In haploid parthenogenesis, a rare form of parthenogenesis that occurs in a few species of bees, nematodes, and plants, offspring develop from haploid eggs to produce haploid adults.
- D. In haploid parthenogenesis, a rare form of parthenogenesis that occurs in a few species of bees, nematodes, and plants, offspring develop from haploid eggs to produce haploid adults.
Q11. The hypoblast is mainly presumptive
- A. Endoderm✓
- B. Epiderm
- C. Mesoderm
- D. Blastoderm
Explanation: The hypoblast is mainly presumptive endoderm because hypoblast cells grow outward over the surface of the yolk, then downward around it to form the endodermal lining of a yolk sac.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. The hypoblast is mainly presumptive endoderm because hypoblast cells grow outward over the surface of the yolk, then downward around it to form the endodermal lining of a yolk sac.
- C. The hypoblast is mainly presumptive endoderm because hypoblast cells grow outward over the surface of the yolk, then downward around it to form the endodermal lining of a yolk sac.
- D. The hypoblast is mainly presumptive endoderm because hypoblast cells grow outward over the surface of the yolk, then downward around it to form the endodermal lining of a yolk sac.
Q12. It is one of the prominent structure in the chick embryo of 18 hours
- A. Primitive streak
- B. Neurocoel
- C. Notochord✓
- D. Coelom
Explanation: In chick embryo of about 18 hours, notochord is one of the few prominent structural features.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. Gastrulation starts when cells that will form the future mesendoderm move into the midline of the embryo to form the primitive streak. The primitive streak is macroscopically visible as a darker area formed by local stacking of epiblast cells on top of each other.
- B. The cavity or system of cavities in the interior of the vertebrate central nervous system comprising the central canal of the spinal cord and the ventricles of the brain.
- D. A coelom is a hollow, fluid-filled cavity found in many living things, where it acts as a protective cushion for their internal organs. In some animals, such as worms, the coelom acts as a skeleton. The coelom also allows the internal organs to move and grow independently of the outer layer of the body wall.
Q13. Initiation codes for every protein coding gene is AUG which encodes for
- A. Leucine
- B. Serine
- C. Alanine
- D. Methionine✓
Explanation: The ribosome reads the mRNA in three nucleotide codons, beginning with the start codon, AUG, which codes for the amino acid methionine. The order of the bases within the codons determines which amino acid will be added to the growing protein by the ribosome.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The ribosome reads the mRNA in three nucleotide codons, beginning with the start codon, AUG, which codes for the amino acid methionine. The order of the bases within the codons determines which amino acid will be added to the growing protein by the ribosome.
- B. The ribosome reads the mRNA in three nucleotide codons, beginning with the start codon, AUG, which codes for the amino acid methionine. The order of the bases within the codons determines which amino acid will be added to the growing protein by the ribosome.
- C. The ribosome reads the mRNA in three nucleotide codons, beginning with the start codon, AUG, which codes for the amino acid methionine. The order of the bases within the codons determines which amino acid will be added to the growing protein by the ribosome.
Q14. The term Bivalent means
- A. One chromosome
- B. Two chromosomes✓
- C. Two chromatids
- D. Four chromosomes
Explanation: During the prophase of meiosis I, homologous chromosomes pair and form synapses. The paired chromosomes are called bivalents. The bivalent has two chromosomes and four chromatids, with one chromosome coming from each parent.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. During the prophase of meiosis I, homologous chromosomes pair and form synapses. The paired chromosomes are called bivalents. The bivalent has two chromosomes and four chromatids, with one chromosome coming from each parent.
- C. During the prophase of meiosis I, homologous chromosomes pair and form synapses. The paired chromosomes are called bivalents. The bivalent has two chromosomes and four chromatids, with one chromosome coming from each parent.
- D. During the prophase of meiosis I, homologous chromosomes pair and form synapses. The paired chromosomes are called bivalents. The bivalent has two chromosomes and four chromatids, with one chromosome coming from each parent.
Q15. Mongolism is phenotypically
- A. Male✓
- B. Female
- C. Male or female
- D. None
Explanation: It is one of the consequences of autosomal non-disjunction in man, during which 21st pair of chromosome fails to segregate, resulting in gamete with 24 chromosome.
Why the other options are wrong
- B. It is one of the consequences of autosomal non-disjunction in man, during which 21st pair of chromosome fails to segregate, resulting in gamete with 24 chromosome.
- C. It is one of the consequences of autosomal non-disjunction in man, during which 21st pair of chromosome fails to segregate, resulting in gamete with 24 chromosome.
- D. It is one of the consequences of autosomal non-disjunction in man, during which 21st pair of chromosome fails to segregate, resulting in gamete with 24 chromosome.
Q16. How many possible alleles of ABO blood group are present in an individual?
- A. 1
- B. 2
- C. 3✓
- D. 300
Explanation: The ABO blood group antigens are encoded by one genetic locus, the ABO locus, which has three alternative (allelic) forms—A, B, and O. A child receives one of the three alleles from each parent, giving rise to six possible genotypes and four possible blood types (phenotypes).
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The ABO blood group antigens are encoded by one genetic locus, the ABO locus, which has three alternative (allelic) forms—A, B, and O. A child receives one of the three alleles from each parent, giving rise to six possible genotypes and four possible blood types (phenotypes).
- B. The ABO blood group antigens are encoded by one genetic locus, the ABO locus, which has three alternative (allelic) forms—A, B, and O. A child receives one of the three alleles from each parent, giving rise to six possible genotypes and four possible blood types (phenotypes).
- D. The ABO blood group antigens are encoded by one genetic locus, the ABO locus, which has three alternative (allelic) forms—A, B, and O. A child receives one of the three alleles from each parent, giving rise to six possible genotypes and four possible blood types (phenotypes).
Q17. Dopamine producing cells can be grafted in the brain in order to cure
- A. Hemophilia
- B. Epilepsy
- C. Parkinson's disease✓
- D. Alzheimer's
Explanation: Cell grafting has been considered a therapeutic approach for Parkinson's disease (PD) since the 1980s. The classical motor symptoms of PD are caused by the loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta, leading to a decrement in dopamine release in the striatum.
Why the other options are wrong
- A. The best way to treat hemophilia is to replace the missing blood clotting factor so that the blood can clot properly. This is typically done by injecting treatment products, called clotting factor concentrates, into a person's vein.
- B. Seizures in epilepsy result from excessive electrical discharges in the brain's cells. Epilepsy is a chronic noncommunicable disease of the brain.
- D. Galantamine, rivastigmine, and donepezil are cholinesterase inhibitors that are prescribed for mild to moderate Alzheimer's symptoms. These drugs may help reduce or control some cognitive and behavioral symptoms.
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