Punjab Mdcat 2022 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Synonym of the word "Capricious" is:

• A. Fickle✓
• B. Predictable
• C. Uniform
• D. Invariable

Explanation: Capricious means unpredictable or subject to hidden changes in behavior or mood. Fickle also carries a similar meaning, referring to someone or something that is not constant or reliable and may change their opinions or decisions frequently.

Q2. Diseases like diabetes are supposed to be taken seriously or they can be _ Which of the following words will fill in the blank most appropriately?

• A. Cursing
• B. Healthy
• C. Fatal✓
• D. Impersonating

Explanation: Diseases like diabetes are serious and can have severe consequences if not properly managed. The term "fatal" implies that the disease can potentially lead to death if not treated or controlled effectively.

Q3. Choose the most appropriate antonym for "abandonment":

• A. Cessation
• B. Stoppage
• C. Halt
• D. Extension✓

Explanation: Abandonment: As previously explained, "abandonment" refers to the act of leaving or deserting something or someone completely, often with no intention of returning or resuming any responsibility or care. Extension: The word "extension" can mean an act of extending, prolonging, or continuing something. It involves expanding or elongating a particular situation or period. The relationship between "extension" and "abandonment" as potential antonyms lies in their opposite implications: "Abandonment" involves leaving or discontinuing something. "Extension" involves prolonging or continuing something. In this sense, "abandonment" and "extension" can be seen as opposites, making "extension" a valid antonym for "abandonment."

Q4. Fill in the blank with the correct word. The shepherd ploughed this mountain with cattle the first time it _ ever ploughed.

• A. was✓
• B. was been
• C. had
• D. had been

Explanation: The sentence is referring to a past event, indicating that the shepherd ploughed the mountain with cattle for the first time. The use of the past tense "was" is appropriate to describe the action that occurred in the past. Therefore, the correct sentence is: "The shephard ploughed this mountain with cattle for the first time it was ever ploughed."

Q5. To give one some idea of Rabies' horrors, one _ only read such descriptions as the following: spasms, restlessness, shudders at the least breath of air an ardent thirst, convulsive movements, and fits of furious age.

• A. needs
• B. need✓
• C. needed
• D. has needed

Explanation: The sentence is expressing a general statement about what someone needs to do to get an idea of the horrors of rabies. The verb "need" should be used in the base form without the auxillary verb "has" or the past tense "needed." Therefore, the correct form is "one need only read."

Q6. By 2030, people _ been reading the works of Charles Dickens for more than 190 years.

• A. Had
• B. will
• C. have
• D. will have✓

Explanation: "Will have" is the correct answer as it accurately expresses the future perfect continuous tense and indicates that by 2030, people will have been reading the works of Charles Dickens for more than 190 years.

Q7. Choose the most suitable or appropriate sentence out of the following:

• A. Penny did not let me to get my book.
• B. Penny was not leaving me to get my book.
• C. Penny did not let me get my book.✓
• D. Penny had not left me get my book

Explanation: This option is correct because it conveys the meaning that Penny prevented or refused to allow the speaker to obtain their book. Therefore, the correct sentence is: "Penny did not let me get my book."

Q8. Which one of the following is correct?

• A. V0=1.414 Vrms✓
• B. Irms=1.414 Io
• C. V0=10.70 Vrms
• D. Both A and B

Explanation: This statement is correct. V0 represents the peak value of an alternating voltage, while Vrms represents the root mean square (RMS) value of that voltage. The relationship between the peak value and RMS value in an ideal sinusoidal waveform is V0 = 1.414 Vrms. This is a fundamental relationship in A.C. circuit analysis. Vrms=0.707V0 So V0=1/0.707 Vrms=1.414 Vrms

Q9. Which of the following sentences is correct?

• A. I want to live near my parents live
• B. I want to live where my parents live✓
• C. I want to live where, my parents live
• D. I want to live where: my parents live

Q10. Choose the sentence with the correct use of the article.

• A. Natasha can play a piano and a violin.
• B. Natasha can play the piano and the violin.✓
• C. Natasha can play the piano and a violin.
• D. Natasha can play piano and violin.

Explanation: This correct Option is B as it uses the definite article "the" before both piano and violin, indicating that Natasha can play a specific piano and a specific violin. Therefore, the correct sentence is: "Natasha can play the piano and the violin."

Q11. Distribute the handouts _ the candidates. The correct preposition to be filled in

• A. into
• B. among✓
• C. in
• D. on

Explanation: When distributing something to multiple individuals, the preposition "among" is used. Therefore, the correct sentence would be: "Distribute the handouts among the children."

Q12. Choose the correct sentence:

• A. Samar bought an apple, an orange and an pear.
• B. Samar bought an apple a orange and a pear.
• C. Samar bought an apple, an orange, and a pear.✓
• D. Samar bought a apple, an orange and a pear.

Explanation: Option A: This sentence is missing a comma before "and." It should be "an orange, and a pear." The absence of the comma makes the sentence grammatically incorrect.Option B: This sentence is also missing a comma before "and." Similar to option A, it should be "an orange, and a pear." The lack of a comma makes this sentence grammatically incorrect as well.Option C: This sentence is correctly punctuated with commas. It uses the comma before "and" when listing three items. Each item in the list is separated by a comma, and the final comma (known as the Oxford comma) is used before "and." This option is grammatically correct.Option D: Similar to options A and B, this sentence is missing a comma before "and." It should be "an orange, and a pear." The absence of a comma makes this sentence grammatically incorrect.

Q13. Identify the sentence, out of the following, that is error-free:

• A. I do not enjoy being laughed at by other people✓
• B. I did not enjoy laughing by other people
• C. 1 am not enjoying laughing by other people
• D. I do not enjoying being laughed at other people

Explanation: The error-free sentence is: "I do not enjoy being laughed at by other people."

Q14. Choose the sentence that is grammatically correct.

• A. We agreed that the play was rather boring so we felt bored✓
• B. We agreed that the play was rather bored so we felt boring
• C. We agreed that the play was rather bore so we felt bores
• D. We agreed that the play was rath bores so we felt bored

Explanation: The grammatically correct sentence is: "We agreed that the play was rather boring so we felt bored."

Q15. I decided to sell the piece of land when I was offered more _ price. The most appropriate word to be filled in here is:

• A. True
• B. Realistic✓
• C. Exact
• D. Perfect

Explanation: In this sentence, the speaker is referring to selling a piece of land when they are offered a higher price. The word "realistic" fits well in that context, indicating that the price offered was practical, reasonable, or in line with what could be expected.

Q16. "To cut off the head". idiom means:

• A. Defrock
• B. Decapitate✓
• C. Impaled
• D. Urbanite

Explanation: The phrase "to cut off the head" means decapitate. It is a literal expression that refers to the act of severing or removing the head from a person or creature. It is commonly used to describe the action of beheading or executing someone by cutting off their head, so the correct option is decapitate.

Q17. Wasim was so good at Mathematics that people considered him to be a _. Fill in the blank with the correct response.

• A. Prodigy✓
• B. Prodigal
• C. Primeval
• D. Profligate

Explanation: The word "prodigy" fits well in this sentence, as it refers to a person, especially a young one, who demonstrates exceptional abilities or talents in a particular field, such as Mathematics. So, the correct sentence is: "Wasim was so good at Mathematics that people considered him to be a prodigy."

Q18. The newly elected president and CEO for the newly established branch of our company _arrived recently. Fill in the blank with the appropriate choice:

• A. have
• B. having
• C. have been
• D. has✓

Explanation: "The newly elected president and CEO" refers to one person who holds both titles.Therefore, the subject is singular."Has" is the correct form of the verb to match the singular subject: "The newly elected president and CEO has arrived recently."

Q19. What does the term bacteriophage refer to?

• A. A virus that infects bacteria✓
• B. A bacterium that infects virus
• C. A virus which behaves as bacteria
• D. Combination of Bacterium & Virion

Explanation: A bacteriophage is a type of virus that specifically infects bacteria. It attaches to the surface of bacterial cells and injects its genetic material into the host, taking over the bacterial machinery to replicate itself.

Q20. What of the following virus contains single stranded DNA?

• A. Adena virus
• B. Herpes virus
• C. Parvo virus✓
• D. Pox virus

Explanation: Parvoviruses are a family of viruses that contain single-stranded DNA.

Q21. How may tail fibrils are attached to the end plate of a bacteriophage?

• A. 2
• B. 4
• C. 6✓
• D. 8

Explanation: Bacteriophages typically have tail fibers attached to the end plate. These tail fibers help the phage attach to specific receptors on the surface of the bacterial host cell. There are six long tail fibers attached to the end plate of a bacteriophage.

Q22. The enzymes integrase, protease and reverse transcriptase are found in which virus?

• A. Hepatitis A virus
• B. Herpes virus
• C. Influenza virus
• D. Human immunodeficiency virus✓

Explanation: Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a retrovirus, and it contains integrase, protease, and reverse transcriptase enzymes. Integrase helps integrate viral DNA into the host cell genome, protease cleaves viral polyproteins to produce functional viral proteins, and reverse transcriptase synthesizes DNA from the viral RNA genome.

Q23. What is the end product of gIucose by yeast in anaerobic respiration?

• A. Ethanol and oxygen
• B. Ethanol and water
• C. Ethanol and CO2✓
• D. Lactic acid and CO2

Explanation: During anaerobic respiration in yeast, glucose is converted into ethanol and carbon dioxide (CO2). This process, known as alcoholic fermentation, is utilized by yeast and some bacteria when oxygen is not available.

Q24. Each carrier in Electron Transport Chain is first _ and then _.

• A. Broken-down, Regenerate
• B. Generated, Broken-down
• C. Oxidized, Reduced
• D. Reduced, Oxidized✓

Explanation: In the electron transport chain, the carriers are responsible for shuttling electrons from one component to another. They first accept electrons, which results in their reduction (gain of electrons), and then pass those electrons along to the next carrier, which leads to their oxidation (loss of electrons). This process of sequential reduction and oxidation reactions is essential for the transfer of energy and the generation of ATP in cellular respiration. The electrons are eventually passed to the final electron acceptor, which is typically oxygen, and are used in the production of water.

Q25. Electron transport chain explains:

• A. Photophosphorylation
• B. Z-Scheme
• C. Photolysis
• D. Mechanism of ATP synthesis✓

Explanation: The electron transport chain is a key component in the mechanism of ATP synthesis. During oxidative phosphorylation, which is the final stage of cellular respiration, the electron transport chain creates a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane. This gradient drives the synthesis of ATP through the action of ATP synthase.

Q26. What is the colour of Chlorophyll-b molecule?

• A. Blueish green
• B. Yellowish green✓
• C. Dark Green
• D. Reddish green

Explanation: Chlorophyll-b is a secondary pigment that absorbs light primarily in the blue and red-orange wavelengths, giving it a yellowish-green colour.

Q27. Upon initial hydrolysis starch yields:

• A. glucose
• B. maltose✓
• C. Sucrose
• D. Mannose

Explanation: When starch is ultimately broken down into glucose molecules, this occurs after further hydrolysis of maltose or other intermediates. The initial hydrolysis of starch yields maltose, not glucose.

Q28. Human Bone cells contain _ % of water?

• A. 20✓
• B. 40
• C. 85
• D. 90

Explanation: Bone is a complex and rigid connective tissue that contains various components, including cells, fibres, and minerals. Human bone cells contain around 20% water content. This water is present within the extracellular matrix, filling the spaces between the collagen fibers and mineralized crystals.

Q29. Unique three-dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide, constitutes:

• A. Primary structure of protein
• B. Secondary structure of protein
• C. Tertiary structure of protein✓
• D. Quaternary structure of protein

Explanation: Tertiary structure of protein represents the unique three-dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide.

Q30. Butyric acid is a _ carbon fatty acid.

• A. 6
• B. 2
• C. 4✓
• D. 8

Explanation: Fatty acids are organic molecules consisting of a hydrocarbon chain with a carboxylic acid group (-COOH) at one end. The number of carbon atoms in a fatty acid chain determines its classification. Butyric acid refers to a fatty acid with 4 carbon atoms. The name "butyric" comes from the Greek word "butyron," which means butter, and it is naturally found in butter and other dairy products. Its chemical formula is: CH3-CH2-CH2-COOH

Q31. Which of the following is a conjugated molecule?

• A. Protein
• B. Lipid
• C. Glycoproteins✓
• D. Vitamins

Explanation: Glycoproteins are proteins that have carbohydrate chains (glycans) attached to them. These carbohydrate chains can have various functions, such as aiding in protein folding, cell recognition, and cell signaling. Glycoproteins are examples of conjugated molecules.

Q32. Hydrolysis process is a reverse of _ process.

• A. Photolysis
• B. Condensation✓
• C. Deduction
• D. Convection

Explanation: Condensation is a chemical reaction where two molecules combine to form a larger molecule, typically accompanied by the release of water. Hydrolysis, on the other hand, is the process of breaking down a molecule by adding water. Hydrolysis is the reverse of condensation, as it breaks a larger molecule into smaller components by adding water molecules.

Q33. Proteins are the main _ of the cell?

• A. Physiological components
• B. Functional components
• C. Structural components✓
• D. Biological components

Explanation: Proteins play a crucial role as the main structural components of the cell. They contribute to the structural integrity and organization of cells and tissues. Proteins are involved in forming the cytoskeleton, which provides structural support and helps maintain cell shape. They are also responsible for the structure and function of organelles within the cell, such as the cell membrane, nucleus, mitochondria, and endoplasmic reticulum.

Q34. Cell wall may be absent in which of the following?

• A. Plant & Algae
• B. Algae & Fungi
• C. Fungi & Archaea
• D. Bacteria & Archaea✓

Explanation: Bacteria and Archaea are the groups where cell walls may be absent. While many bacteria have cell walls, there are some bacteria such as Mycoplasma species, that lack a rigid cell wall. Archaea also have diverse cell envelope structures, and not all of them have a cell wall.

Q35. _ are the structures formed by invagination of the plasma membrane and have been associated with cell division and DNA replication in prokaryotic cells.

• A. Lysosomes
• B. Mesosomes✓
• C. Golgi bodies
• D. Phragmoplasts

Explanation: Mesosomes are the structures formed by invagination of the plasma membrane and have been associated with cell division and DNA replication in prokaryotic cells.

Q36. Which of the following are single membranous organelles?

• A. Mitochondria and ribosomes
• B. Cytosol, mitochondria and ribosomes
• C. Golgi bodies, Lysosome and ER✓
• D. Golgi bodies, lysosome and mitochondria

Explanation: The Golgi bodies, lysosomes, and endoplasmic reticulum are all examples of single membranous organelles. The Golgi bodies are involved in processing and modifying proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates. Lysosomes contain digestive enzymes and are involved in breaking down cellular waste. The endoplasmic reticulum is involved in protein synthesis and lipid metabolism.

Q37. Movement of molecules against the concentration gradient is?

• A. Passive transport
• B. Active transport✓
• C. Facilitated diffusion
• D. Filtration

Explanation: Active transport requires the expenditure of energy in the form of ATP to move molecules against their concentration gradient, from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration. This process is performed by specific transport proteins embedded in the cell membrane.

Q38. The digestive vacuoles and autophagosomes are also known as?

• A. Phagocytosis
• B. Primary lysosome and autophagy
• C. Secondary lysosome✓
• D. Peroxisome

Explanation: Digestive vacuoles and autophagosomes eventually fuse with lysosomes, forming secondary lysosomes. Secondary lysosomes contain the contents of the digestive vacoules or autophagosomes along with lysosomal enzymes for the breakdown and digestion of the engulfed material.

Q39. The cell wall of Bacteria is made up of:

• A. Chitin
• B. Murein✓
• C. Cellulose
• D. Hemicellulose

Explanation: Murein, also known as peptidoglycan, is the main component of bacterial cell walls. Murein provides rigidity and shape to the bacterial cell.

Q40. Which one is common in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

• A. Cytoplasmic streaming movement
• B. Ribosome✓
• C. Binary fission
• D. Nuclear envelope

Explanation: Ribosomes are cellular structures responsible for protein synthesis. They are found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells and play a crucial role in translating genetic information into proteins

Q41. There is no clear difference between dendrites ar;id axons in sensory neurons, except:

• A. Thickness
• B. Length
• C. Terminal portions✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The main difference between dendrites and axons lies in their terminal portions. Dendrites have numerous branches at their terminals, which receive signals from other neurons and transmit them towards the cell body. Axons, on the other hand, have a single branch called the axon terminal, which transmits signals away from the cell body to other neurons or effector cells.

Q42. The neurotransmitter active outside the CNS {Central Nervous System) is:

• A. Acetylcholine✓
• B. Dopamine
• C. Glutamate
• D. Serotonin

Explanation: Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that is active both in the central nervous system (CNS) and outside the CNS. It is involved in various functions, including muscle contraction, autonomic nervous system regulation, and cognitive processes.

Q43. A hormone that plays a major role in social bonding, childbirth, milk ejection and sexual reproduction is:

• A. Estrogen
• B. Oxytocin✓
• C. Prolactin
• D. Secretin

Explanation: Oxytocin is a hormone that plays a major role in social bonding, childbirth, milk ejection, and sexual reproduction. During childbirth, oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions. It also promotes milk ejection during breastfeeding and is involved in sexual arousal.

Q44. Hormone produced by placenta is:

• A. Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
• B. Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
• C. Progesterone✓
• D. Testosterone

Explanation: Progesterone is a hormone produced by the corpus leuteum in the ovaries during the menstrual cycle and by the placenta during pregnancy. It is essential for the maintenance of pregnancy by supporting the thickening of the uterine lining and preventing further ovulation.

Q45. The middle layer of meninges is:

• A. Arachnoid mater✓
• B. Pia mater
• C. Dura mater
• D. Cranium

Explanation: The arachnoid mater is the middle layer of the meningies. It is thin and delicate membrane that lies between the dura mater (outer layer) and pia mater (inner layer). The arachnoid mater has a web-like appearance and is named after its resemblance to a spider's web.

Q46. The part of brain which guides smooth and accurate motions and maintains body position is:

• A. Cerebrum
• B. Cerebellum✓
• C. Pons
• D. Medulla

Explanation: The cerebellum is located at the back of the brain, beneath the cerebrum. It is primarily involved in coordinating and regulating voluntary movements, fine motor skills, balance, and posture. It helps ensure smooth and accurate movements and plays a crucial role in maintaining body position.

Q47. Water vascular system or ambulacral system is a unique and complex system specially present in?

• A. Sponges
• B. Arthropods
• C. Echinoderms✓
• D. Fishes

Explanation: Echinoderms, which include organisms like starfish, sea urchins, and sea cucumbers, possess a unique and complex system called the water vascular system or ambulacral system. This system consists of a network of fluid-filled canals and appendages called tube feet, which are used for locomotion, feeding, and respiration.

Q48. Round worms belong to which phylum?

• A. Annelida
• B. Coelenterata
• C. Nematoda✓
• D. Platyhelminthes

Explanation: Roundworms belong to the phylum Nematoda. Roundworms, also known as nematodes, are unsegmented, cylindrical worms that can be found in a wide range of habitats. They are one of the most abundant diverse animal groups on Earth.

Q49. Silver fish is a/an?

• A. Insect✓
• B. Mollusc
• C. Jawless fish
• D. Cartilaginous fish

Explanation: Silverfish is an insect. It is a small, wingless insect with a silver-gray color and a distinctive fish-like shape.

Q50. Tissue are not found in the following animal?

• A. Flat worms
• B. Sponges✓
• C. Cnidarians
• D. Round worms

Explanation: Sponges, also known as Porifera, are the simplest multicellular animals. They lack true tissues and organ systems. Instead, they are made up of specialized cells that perform specific functions but donot form tissues.

Q51. Enzymes lower the activation energy by stabilizing the transition state of a metabolic reaction due to?

• A. Changing conditions within the active site✓
• B. Changing conditions within the protein framework
• C. Rearranging the fatty acids in active site
• D. Distorting the molecules in the allosteric site

Explanation: Enzymes lower the activation energy by changing conditions within the active site. The active site of an enzyme is the specific region where the substrate binds and the catalytic reaction takes place. Enzymes can alter the local environment within the active site to create optimal conditions for the reaction to occur. This may involve providing specific chemical groups or ions, adjusting pH or temperature, or creating a suitable 3D arrangement of the substrate molecules. By modifying these conditions, enzymes stabilize the transition state of the reaction, making it easier for the reaction to proceed.

Q52. Competitive inhibitors compete with?

• A. Enzyme
• B. Substrate✓
• C. Product
• D. Coenzyme

Explanation: Competitive inhibitors compete with the substrate for binding to the active site of an enzyme. They have a similar chemical structure to the substrate and can bind to the active site of the enzyme, preventing the substrate from binding and the catalytic reaction from occuring.

Q53. Non-competitive inhibitor molecules have:

• A. A similar structure to the normal substrate molecule
• B. A quite different structure from the substrate molecule✓
• C. A different conformation but fit into the active site
• D. A similar conformation but does not fit into the active site

Explanation: Non-competitive inhibitor molecules have a quite different structure from the substrate molecules.

Q54. Zinc ion is attached at the active site of the enzyme carboxypeptidase. The zinc ion functions as:

• A. A coenzyme molecule
• B. An activator✓
• C. An inhibitor molecule
• D. Controller of Allosteric site

Explanation: The zinc ion serves as an activator in the case of carboxypeptidase. Carboxypeptidase is a metalloenzyme, which means it requires a metal ion cofactor for its catalytic activity. In the case of carboxypeptidase, the zinc ion is essential for the enzyme's function.

Q55. What is the best physiological pH for optimum functioning for most of the cellular enzymes of human?

• A. 2-3 pH
• B. 3-5 pH
• C. 6-8 pH✓
• D. 8-10 pH

Explanation: The best physiological pH for optimum functioning for most of the cellular enzymes in humans is in the range of 6-8. This pH range is slightly acidic to slightly alkaline, which corresponds to the typical pH range found in various cellular compartments and tissues of the human body.The best physiological pH for optimum functioning for most of the cellular enzymes in humans is in the range of 6-8. This pH range is slightly acidic to slightly alkaline, which corresponds to the typical pH range found in various cellular compartments and tissues of the human body.

Q56. Adaptations that an organism acquires by its own actions during its fife span without modifying its genome are:

• A. Heritable
• B. Non-heritable✓
• C. Can be made heritable through so modification
• D. Sometimes heritable and othertim non-heritable

Explanation: Adaptations that an organism acquires by its own actions during its lifespan without modifying its genome are non-heritable. These adaptations are often the result of changes in an individual organism's phenotype or behavior in response to environmental factors or experiences. However, they are not passed on to future generations through genetic inheritance.

Q57. For evolutionary process to occur, which of the following is NOT a geographical barrier?

• A. Ocean
• B. River
• C. Mountain
• D. Atmosphere✓

Explanation: The atmosphere is not considered a geographical barrier in evolutionary processes. Geographical barriers refer to physical features of the Earth's surface that can impede the movement or gene flow of organisms, leading to the potential for genetic differentiation.

Q58. According to the Biogenetic Law of Ernst Haeckel:

• A. There is survival of the fittest
• B. There is use and disuse of organs
• C. Phylogeny recapitulates ontogeny
• D. Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny✓

Explanation: This concept, proposed by Ernst Haeckel, suggests that the development of an individual organism (ontogeny) follows the same sequence of evolutionary changes seen in the evolutionary history of the species (phylogeny). According to this idea, an organism goes through stages during its development that resemble the adult forms of its evolutionary ancestors.

Q59. The animal species on Galapagos resemble species living on the:

• A. Northern Europe
• B. Great Britain
• C. North American mainland
• D. South American mainland✓

Explanation: The animals species on the Galapagos islands resemble species living on the South American mainland. This is because the Galapagos islands are located about 600 miles off the coast of Ecuador in South America. The islands were formed by volcanic activity, and over time, various animal species migrated to the islands from the mainland.

Q60. Digested food from intestine is carried to the liver by?

• A. Hepatic artery
• B. Hepatic vein
• C. Hepatic portal vein✓
• D. Hepatic portal artery

Explanation: The hepatic portal vein is the vessel that carries nutrient-rich blood containing digested food from the small intestine to the liver. The blood passes through the liver before entering the general circulation.

Q61. _ proteins are produced by WBC in response to _ and provide immunity?

• A. Antibiotics, antigen
• B. Antibodies, RBC
• C. Globulin, histamine
• D. Antibodies, antigen✓

Explanation: Antibodies, also known as immunoglobulins, are proteins produced by white blood cells in response to antigens, and they play a crucial role in providing immunity. Antigens are foreign substances that trigger an immune response. Antibodies bind to specific antigens to neutralize or eliminate them, providing immunity against diseases.

Q62. The lymphatic vessels of the body empty the lymph into blood stream at?

• A. Abdominal vein
• B. Jugular vein
• C. Subclavian vein✓
• D. Bile duct

Explanation: The lymphatic vessels of the body empty the lymph into bloodstream at subclavian vein. The subclavian veins are located near the collarbone and receive lymphatic fluid from the lymphatic vessels, returning it to the bloodstream.

Q63. Flow of blood in the capillaries is adjusted by?

• A. Heart directly
• B. Pre-capillary sphincters✓
• C. Meta-arterioles
• D. Valves

Explanation: The flow of blood in the capillaries is primarily adjusted by pre-capillary sphincters, which regulate the entry of blood into the capillary network based on tissue needs.

Q64. The pressure exerted by a solution separated by a semipermeable membrane from pure water is _?

• A. Osmotic Pressure✓
• B. Soil potential
• C. Solute potential
• D. Solvent potential

Explanation: Osmotic pressure is the pressure exerted by a solution when it is separated by a semi-permeable membrane from pure water. It is caused by the movement of solvent molecules across the membrane, from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration.

Q65. Which of the following is NOT a consequence of anaerobic respiration In humans muscles cells?

• A. Cramps
• B. High consumption of energy✓
• C. Pain
• D. Tiredness

Explanation: Anaerobic respiration is a less efficient process compared to aerobic respiration, which occurs in the presence of oxygen. Anaerobic respiration produces less energy, so it does not result in high energy consumption.

Q66. The respiratory surfaces exhibit following characteristic?

• A. It must be permeable✓
• B. It must be thick for low diffusion
• C. It should be non-vascularized
• D. It should have low ventilation mechanism

Explanation: Respiratory surfaces, such as the alveoli in the lungs, must be permeable to allow the exchange of gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide) through diffusion. This permeability allows gases to pass through the respiratory surface and be exchanged with the surrounding environment.

Q67. Which of the following is a prokaryote?

• A. Protista
• B. E.coli✓
• C. Amoeba
• D. Fungi

Explanation: Escherichia coli (E.coli) is a species of bacteria that belongs to the prokaryotes.

Q68. Number of layers present in Gram-negative bacterial cell wall:

• A. one
• B. two✓
• C. three
• D. four

Explanation: The Gram-negative cell wall consists of 2 interconnected layers of peptidoglycan surrounded by an outer membrane. Peptidoglycan prevents osmotic lysis in the hypotonic environment in which most bacteria live

Q69. The division of cocci in three planes form Sarcina, which is a cube of _ Cocci?

• A. 02
• B. 04
• C. 08✓
• D. 16

Explanation: Sarcina is a genus of bacteria that divides in three planes, resulting in the formation of packets of cells arranged in a cube-like structure. These packets, known as tetrads, consist of eight cells arranged in a 3-dimensional cubic configuration. Each of the three planes of division produces four daughter cells, resulting in a total of eight cells in the sarcina packet. Therefore, the cube of cells formed by the division of cocci in three planes is composed of eight individual cells.

Q70. Which of the following statement is correct?

• A. Inspiration is an active process✓
• B. Expiration is an active process
• C. Inspiration is a passive process
• D. Both expiration and inspiration are passive processes

Explanation: Inspiration occurs via active contraction of muscles so, is an active process.

Q71. Nitrifying bacteria are the examples of:

• A. Heterotrophic bacteria
• B. Chemosynthetic bacteria✓
• C. Saprophytic bacteria
• D. Parasitic bacteria

Explanation: Nitrifying bacteria are the examples of chemosynthetic bacteria. Nitrifying bacteria are a group of bacteria that plays a crucial role in the nitrogen cycle by converting ammonia into nitrites, and further into nitrates. These bacteria obtain energy for their metabolic processes through chemosynthesis, which involves the oxidation of inorganic compounds.

Q72. Each human, testis is divided into:

• A. 50-100 lobules
• B. 150-200 lobules
• C. 200-300 lobules
• D. 250-300 lobules✓

Explanation: Each human testis is divided into approximately 250-300 lobules. These lobules are small compartments or sections within the testis that are responsible for producing and storing sperm. They are surrounded by connective tissue and contain seminiferous tubules, which are the site of sperm production. There lobules are interconnected and form a complex network within the testis.

Q73. Which cells In the human males are responsible for the release of testosterone?

• A. Pituitary Gland
• B. Hypothalamus
• C. Sertoli cells
• D. Leydig cells or interstitial cells✓

Explanation: Leydig cells, also known as interstitial cells, are responsible for the production and release of testosterone in males. These cells are located in the Interstitial spaces between the seminiferous tubules within the testes.

Q74. Fertilized ovum is implanted and undergoes further development in the:

• A. Ovary
• B. Uterus✓
• C. Oviduct
• D. Cervix

Explanation: After fertilization, the fertilized ovum, also known as the zygote, undergoes further development and implantation in the uterus. The uterus, or womb, is a female reproductive organ located in the pelvic region. It provides a suitable environment for the implantation of the fertilized ovum and supports the development of the embryo or foetus.

Q75. Level of luteinizing hormone {LH) is maximum in blood during which stage of menstrual cycle?

• A. Menstrual stage
• B. Proliferative stage
• C. Ovulation stage✓
• D. Secretory stage

Explanation: The ovulation stage is when the mature egg is released from the ovary. Leutinizing hormone (LH) levels surge dramatically just before ovulation. This surge in LH triggers the reslease of the egg from the ovary, allowing it to travel through the fallopian tube for potential fertilization. Thus, the level of LH is maximum during the ovulation stage.

Q76. Major source of transmission of syphilis is:

• A. Blood transfusion
• B. Insect bite
• C. contaminated water
• D. Sexual contact✓

Explanation: The major source of transmission for syphilis is through sexual contact, specifically through direct contact with syphilis sores or mucous membranes of an infected person during vaginal, anal, or oral sex. Syphilis is primarily a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum.

Q77. What is FALSE about cartilage?

• A. There are many blood vessels in cartilage✓
• B. It is a form of connective tissue
• C. It covers ends of the bones at joints
• D. It is much softer than bone

Explanation: This statement is false. Cartilage is avascular, meaning it does not contain blood vessels. Instead, it receives nutrients and oxygen through diffusion from the surrounding tissues.

Q78. Which of the following is a muscle component that act as store for energy?

• A. ATP
• B. Creatine-P04✓
• C. Myoglobin
• D. Creatinine-P04

Explanation: Creatine-PO4, also known as phosphocreatine, is a muscle component that acts as a store for energy. During intense physical activity or muscle contraction, the breakdown of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) provides immediate energy. However, the availability of ATP is limited. Creatine-PO4 helps replenish ATP levels by donating its high-energy phosphate group to ADP, forming ATP. This process allows for a rapid regeneration of ATP, providing a quick source of energy for muscle contraction.

Q79. Which of the following is NOT found in skeletal muscle fibers in human?

• A. Multiple nuclei
• B. Multiple mitochondria
• C. Large amount of myoglobin
• D. Large amount of hemoglobin✓

Explanation: Skeletal muscle fibers in humans donot contain a large amount of hemoglobin. Haemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that is responsible for transporting oxygen throughout the body. While skeletal muscle fibers have a rich blood supply to support their metabolic needs, they donot typically contain a significant amount of hemoglobin within the fibers themselves.

Q80. Hinge joint is present between which of the following bones?

• A. Humerus and radio-ulna✓
• B. Femur and pectoral girdle
• C. Femur and acetabulum
• D. Humerus and pectoral girdle

Explanation: A hinge joint is a type of synovial joint that allows movement in only one plane, like the opening and closing of a door. It is characterized by the convex surface of one bone fitting into the concave surface of another bone. In this case, the hinge joint is present between the humerus (upper arm bone) and the radio ulna (forearm bones).

Q81. Test cross is made to check the genotype of a trait. Which of the following crosses is a test cross?

• A. Unknown x At
• B. Unknown x tt✓
• C. Unknown x AB
• D. Unknown x TT

Explanation: A test cross is a cross between an individual with an unknown genotype for a particular trait and an individual that is homozygous recessive for that trait. The purpose of the test cross is to determine the genotype of the unknown individual by observing the phenotypic ratios of the offspring. This cross involves a homozygous recessive individual (tt), which is the test cross. The offspring from this cross will reveal the genotype of the unknown individual.

Q82. What happens when a Rh -ve woman, married to a Rh +ve man conceivesa child who is Rh +ve?

• A. Maternal-foetal incompatibility✓
• B. Paternal-foetal incompatibility
• C. Cancer of fetus
• D. Death of mother

Explanation: When an Rh-negative woman is married to an Rh-positive man and conceives a Rh-positive child, there can be a potential for maternal-fetal incompatibility. This occurs when the Rh-positive antigens from the fetus enters the bloodstream of the Rh-negative mother during pregnancy or childbirth. The mother's immune system may recognize the Rh-positive antigens as foreign and produce antibodies against them. These antibodies can cross the placenta and attack the red blood cells of the Rh-positive fetus, leading to various complications.

Q83. DNA stores biological information in discrete units termed as:

• A. Genes✓
• B. Phenotypes
• C. Karyotypes
• D. Cells

Explanation: DNA stores biological information in discrete units called genes. Genes are segments of DNA that contain the instructions for building and maintaining an organism. They provide the information needed to produce proteins, which are essential for various biological processes and traits.

Q84. To study sex linkages in Drosophila, Morgan mated white eyed males with wild type red eyed females. What will be the phenotye of offspring?

• A. All red eyed males and females✓
• B. Red eyed females and white eyed males
• C. White eyed females and red eyed males
• D. All white eyed females and males

Explanation: In Drosophila melanogaster, the gene for eye color is located on the X chromosome, and the white-eyed trait is a recessive mutation. The wild type, or normal, eye color in Drosophila is red, which is the dominant trait. When white-eyed males (homozygous for the recessive trait) are mated with wild type red-eyed females (homozygous for the dominant trait), the offspring will inherit one X chromosome from each parent. Since the white-eyed trait is recessive, the presence of a dominant red-eyed allele on the other chromosome will result in the offspring having red eyes. Therefore, all the offspring, both males and females, will have red eyes.

Q85. Which one of the following is X Linked Dominant disorder?

• A. Haemophilia
• B. Color blindness
• C. Hypophosphatemic rickets✓
• D. Becker muscular dystrophy

Explanation: Hypophosphatemic rickets is an X-linked dominant disorder. X-linked dominant disorders are genetic conditions caused by mutations in genes located on the X chromosome.

Q86. Mode of Inheritance in humans can be traced through:

• A. Experimental Mating
• B. Chi Square Chart
• C. Pedigree analysis✓
• D. Probability analysis

Explanation: Pedigree analysis is the most commonly used method to trace the mode of inheritance in humans. It involves the construction of a family tree or pedigree that tracks the occurrence of a trait through generations.

Q87. One a. m .u stands for

• A. An atom of C - 12
• B. 1/12th of a carbon✓
• C. 1/12th of H
• D. 1 atom of all the elements

Explanation: The atomic mass unit (amu) is a unit of mass used to express the mass of atomic and subatomic particles. It is defined as 1/12th of the mass of a carbon-12 atom. Carbon-12 is specifically chosen as the reference because it has a mass of exactly 12 atomic mass units.

Q88. A compound of sodium oxide has 74.2% of sodium and 25.8% of Oxygen. The empirical formula of the compound is?

• A. Nao
• B. NaO2
• C. Na2O✓
• D. Na2O2

Explanation: To determine the empirical formula of a compound, we need to find the simplest whole number ratio between the elements present in a compound. Given that the compound contains 74.2% sodium (Na) and 25.8% oxygen (O), we can assume we have 100 grams of the compound. To find the number of moles of each element, we divide the mass of each element by its molar mass. The molar mass of sodium is 22.99 g/mol, and the molar mass of oxygen is 16 g/mol. For Sodium: (74.2 g Na) / (22.99 g/mol) = 3.23 mol Na For Oxygen: (25.8 g O) / (16 g/mol) = 1.61 mol Oxygen Next, we divide the number of moles of each element by the smallest number of moles to obtain the simplest whole number ratio. In this case, the smallest number of moles is 1.61 mol. For Sodium: (3.23 mol Na) / (1.61 mol O) = 2 For Oxygen: (1.61 mol O) / (1.61 mol O) = 1 The resulting ratio is Na2O, which means the emperical formula of the compound is Na2O.

Q89. 30 grams of 2-propanol were mixed with excess acidified K2Cr2O7 and boiled under reflux for 20 minutes. The organic product was then collected by distillation. The yield of product was 75.0%. What is the mass of product produced?

• A. 1.74g
• B. 21.75g✓
• C. 2.74g
• D. 29 g

Explanation: To calculate the mass of the product produced, you can use the yield percentage. The yield percentage is calculated as follows: Yield (%) = Actual Yield / Theoretical Yield × 100 In this case, the yield is given as 75.0%, and mass of 2-propanol is 30 grams. The molecular formula of 2-propanol (isopropanol) is C3H8O. Molar mass of C3H8O = (3 * 12.01 g/mol) + (8 * 1.01 g/mol) + (1 * 16.00 g/mol) = 60.03 g/mol Theoretical Yield = (Mass of 2-propanol) × (Theoretical Yield / Molar Mass of 2-propanol) Theoretical Yield = (30 g) × (1 mol / 60.03 g) = 0.4999 mol Now, calculate the actual yield using the given yield percentage: Yield (%) = (Actual Yield / Theoretical Yield) × 100 75.0% = (Actual Yield / 0.4999 mol) × 100 Actual Yield = (75.0% / 100) × 0.4999 mol = 0.3749 mol Now, convert the actual yield from moles to grams using the molar mass of the product you expect to obtain. Actual Yield (grams) = 0.3749 mol × 60.03 g/mol = 22.51 g So, the mass of the product produced is approximately 22.51 grams, which is closest to option (b) 21.75g.

Q90. According to which scientist, the probability of finding an electron at a certain position is possible?

• A. Bohr's
• B. De-Broglie
• C. Hund's
• D. Schrodinger✓

Explanation: The concept of the probability of finding an electron at a certain position is a fundamental principle of quantum mechanics. It was formulated by Austrian physicist Erwin Schrödinger. He developed the Schrödinger equation, which describes the wave-like behavior of particles, including electrons.

Q91. Which gas in the discharge tube produces lightest canal ray particles?

• A. Ar
• B. He
• C. H2✓
• D. Ne

Explanation: Canal rays are positively charged ions that are produced in a discharge tube when a high voltage is applied across a gas at low pressure. These rays are defected by electric and magnetic fields, and their deflection depends on their charge-to-mass ratio. Hydrogen has the lowest atomic mass compared to Ar, Me, and He. Since, the mass-to-charge ratio determines the deflection of canal rays, the lighter the particles, the greater their deflection. Therefore, H2 produces the lightest canal ray particles among the given options.

Q92. Which element has the ground state electronic configuration of 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6?

• A. Ar✓
• B. Cl
• C. Na
• D. S

Explanation: The ground state electronic configuration given as 1s², 2s², 2p6, 3s², 3p6, corresponds to the electronic configuration of the element Argon.

Q93. What is the proton (atomic number) of an element that has four unpaired electrons in its ground state?

• A. 6
• B. 14
• C. 22
• D. 26✓

Explanation: The number of unpaired electrons in an element's ground state corresponds to the element's atomic number, which is the number of protons in its nucleus. In this case, an element with four unpaired electrons would have an atomic number of 26. Iron has an atomic number of 26, it has four unpaired electrons in its ground state electronic configuration: 1s², 2s², 2p6, 3s², 3p6, 4s², 3d6

Q94. A gaseou mixture contains 9.6% NH3, 22.6% N2 and 67.8% H2 gases. If the total pressure Is 5O atm, then the partial pressure of H2 is

• A. 67.8 x100 / 50
• B. 50 x 100 / 100
• C. 67.8 X 50/ 100✓
• D. 67.8 +50/ 100

Explanation: To find the partial pressure of H2, we need to calculate the pressure contributed by H2 gas based on its percentage in the mixture. Given: Percentage of H2 = 67.8% Total pressure = 50 atm To find the partial pressure of H2, we multiply the percentage of H2 by the total pressure and divide by 100: Partial pressure of H2 = (67.8 × 50) / 100 Or Partial pressure of H2 = 33.9 atm

Q95. If we want to raise the temperature of one mole of an ideal gas by one kelvin we have to provide how much amount of energy?

• A. 0.0821 joules
• B. 8.314 dm3-atm
• C. 0.0821 KJ
• D. 0.0821 dm³-atm✓

Explanation: One mole of an ideal gas at 273.16 K and one atmospheric pressure and its temperature is increased by 1K, then it will absorb 0.0821 dm³-atm of energy, dm³-atm is the unit of energy in this situation.

Q96. The process of heat flow between hotter and colder gases remains continued until all the molecules have equal

• A. Average translational kinetic energy✓
• B. Average rotational kinetic energy
• C. Average translational potential energy
• D. Average vibrational kinetic energy

Explanation: Heat flow between hotter and colder gases continues until all the molecules have an equal average translational kinetic energy due to the principle of thermal equilibrium. In this state, there is no net transfer of heat between the gases, as they reach the same temperature. The process continues until thermal equilibrium is achieved, ensuring that energy is distributed uniformly among the molecules, resulting in a balanced and stable system.

Q97. In liquid, with the change in dipole -dipole forces, there is a change in some physical properties. select the property which Is not affected by the strength of dipole-dipole forces?

• A. boiling point
• B. heat of vaporization
• C. heat of sublimation
• D. moles✓

Explanation: The number of moles of a substance does not depend on the strength of dipole-dipole forces. The number of moles is determined by the amount of substance present, which is independent of the intermolecular forces.

Q98. Which of the following factor does not affect the magnitude of vapor pressure?

• A. amount of liquid✓
• B. size of molecule
• C. temperature of liquid
• D. intermolecular forces

Explanation: The amount of liquid does not affect the magnitude of vapor pressure. Vapor pressure is primarily determined by the temperature of the liquid, the intermolecular forces between the molecules in the liquid, on the size of the molecules.

Q99. A small building block which belongs to whole information about crystal structure is called?

• A. Cell
• B. Unit Cell✓
• C. Crystal lattice
• D. Crystal unit

Explanation: A unit cell is the smallest repeating unit of a crystal lattice that contains all the information about the crystal's structure. It is a three dimensional parallelepiped (a box-like shape) with defined edges and angles. The arrangement of unit cells forms the crystal lattice.

Q100. Which type of solid ls called as atomic solid?

• A. Covalent solids✓
• B. Ionic solids
• C. Metallic solids
• D. Molecular solids

Explanation: Covalent solids is called as atomic solid because covalent solids are composed of atoms held together by covalent bonds. In these solids, the atoms share electrons to form a network structure, creating a strong and directional bonding.

Q101. The decrease in solubility of the salt in a solution that already contains an ion common to that salt Is known as:

• A. Le Chatelier's principle
• B. Solubility Product
• C. Common ion effect✓
• D. Ksp

Explanation: The decrease in solubility of a salt in a solution that already contains an ion common to the salt is known as the common ion effect. This effect occurs because the presence of the common ion reduces the solubility of the salt by shifting the equilibrium towards the solid form.

Q102. The precipitation occurs if the ionic concentration is:

• A. Less than ksp
• B. More than ksp✓
• C. Equal to ksp
• D. Present in any amount

Explanation: Precipitation occurs when the ionic concentration in a solution exceeds the solubility product of the compound. The solubility product is a constant that represents the maximum concentration of ions that can exist in a saturated solution at a given temperature. If the ionic concentration exceeds this maximum value, the excess ions will come together and form a solid precipitate.

Q103. One can estimate the direction in which equilibrium will shift with the help of:

• A. Le Chatelier's principle✓
• B. Law of mass action
• C. Hess's law
• D. Law of heat of formation

Explanation: Le-Chatelier's principle is a concept that helps in predicting the direction in which a system at equilibrium will shift in response to a change in conditions.

Q104. What is the overall order of this rate equation? Rate =k[H2][NO2]2

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3✓
• D. 4

Explanation: The overall order of a rate equation is determined by adding up the individual orders of all the reactants involved. In this case, the rate equation is given as: Rate = k[H2][NO2]² The individual orders for the reactants are: [H2] has an order of 1. [NO2] has an order of 2. To find the overall order, we add up these individual orders: 1+2 = 3 Therefore, the overall order of the rate equation is 3.

Q105. The catalysis in which the catalyst and the reactants are In the same phase is known?

• A. Heterogeneous catalyst
• B. Homogeneous catalyst✓
• C. Slow
• D. Fast

Explanation: In homogeneous catalysis, the catalyst and the reactants are in the same phase, typically a liquid or gas. The catalyst molecules can directly interact with the reactant molecules, facilitating the reaction without forming a distinct phase or boundary between them.

Q106. Born-Haber cycle is used to determine the Lattice energy of Ionic compounds. It Is the application of

• A. Henry's law
• B. Le - Chatleir's Principle
• C. Hess's law✓
• D. Common Ion effect

Explanation: The Born-Haber cycle is a thermodynamic cycle used to determine the lattice energy of ionic compounds, which is the energy required to convert an ionic solid into its constituent ions in the gas phase. It is the application of Hess's law.

Q107. Which of the following term is state function?

• A. Freezing
• B. Decomposition
• C. Sublimation
• D. Enthalpy✓

Explanation: Enthalpy is a state function. State functions are properties that depend only on the current state of a system and are independent of the path taken to reach that state. Enthalpy is a measure of the heat energy of a system and is expressed as ∆H.

Q108. An electrochemical cell is based upon which reaction?

• A. Acid-base reaction
• B. Redox reaction✓
• C. Nuclear reaction
• D. Neutralization reaction

Explanation: An electrochemical cell is based on a redox reaction. Redox reactions involve the transfer of electrons between species. In an electrochemical cell, this transfer of electrons is facilitated through the separation of the oxidation and reduction half-reactions, which occur at different electrodes.

Q109. In which of the following, oxygen shows fractional oxidation number?

• A. OF2
• B. Na2O2
• C. KO2✓
• D. Cl2O7

Explanation: In KO2 (potassium superoxide), oxygen shows a fractional oxidation number. The oxidation number of oxygen in most compounds is -2. However, in KO2, each oxygen atom has an oxidation number of -½, due to the presence of superoxide ion.

Q110. Which of the following element has smaller size?

• A. Na
• B. K
• C. Rb
• D. Li✓

Explanation: Sodium, potassium and rubidium are all in the same group, but sodium is larger than lithium, potassium is larger than sodium and rubidium is larger than potassium beacuse atomic sizes increase as we move down the group.

Q111. Among LiCI, BeCl2, NaCl, CsCI, the compounds with the greatest and the least ionic character respectively are:

• A. LiCl and CsCI
• B. NaCl and LiCI
• C. CsCI and NaCl
• D. CsCI and BeCl2✓

Explanation: To determine the compounds with the greatest and the least ionic character, we need to consider the electronegativity difference between the elements involved. Compounds with a larger electronegativity difference tend to have a greater ionic character, while compounds with a smaller electronegativity difference tend to have a greater covalent character. The electronegativity difference between Cs and Cl is larger than that between Be and Cl. Therefore, CsCl has the greatest ionic character, and BeCl2 has the least ionic character.

Q112. Which statement describes the conversion of magnesium atoms to magnesium ions for ionic bond formation with chlorine?

• A. The change is reduction, because there has been a gain of electrons
• B. The change is oxidation, because there has been a loss of electrons✓
• C. The change is reduction, because there has been a loss of electrons
• D. The change is oxidation, because there has been a gain of electrons

Explanation: In the formation of an ionic bond between magnesium and chlorine, magnesium atoms lose two electrons to achieve a stable electronic configuration. The loss of electrons is called oxidation. Magnesium has an electronic configuration of 2, 8, 2. By losing two electrons, it forms Mg2+ ions with a stable electronic configuration of 2, 8. This process involves the loss of electrons, which is characteristic of oxidation. Therefore, during the formation of an ionic bond between magnesium and chlorine, the change in magnesium atoms is oxidation because there is a loss of electrons.

Q113. AB4 Type with no lone Pairs geometry enables to form which shape of molecule?

• A. Trigonal
• B. Regular tetrahedron✓
• C. Regular octahedron
• D. Regular pyramidal

Explanation: In AB4-type molecules, the central atom (A) is bonded to four identical atoms (B) with no lone pairs of electrons on the central atom. In this case, the geometry of the molecule is tetrahedral, which means the four B atoms are arranged around the central A atom in a regular tetrahedral shape.

Q114. Why dimer of Aluminum chloride Is formed

• A. Aluminum is electron rich
• B. Aluminum is having lone pair of electron
• C. Aluminum donates lone Pair to form bridge
• D. Aluminum forms coordinate bonds with chlorine to complete Its octet✓

Explanation: The dimer of aluminum chloride is formed through the formation of coordinate bonds. Aluminum has an incomplete octet in its valence shell, as it has only three electrons in its outermost shell. In order to achieve a stable octet configuration, aluminum can form coordinate bonds with chlorine atoms.

Q115. Which group of the periodic table contain non-metals, metalloids and metals

• A. I B
• B. VII A
• C. IV A✓
• D. VI A

Explanation: Group IV-A of the periodic table, also known as Group 14, contains elements that include non-metals, metalloids, and metals.

Q116. Which of the following sulfate compound is insoluble In water?

• A. BeSO4
• B. BaSO4✓
• C. MgSO4
• D. CaSO4

Explanation: BaSO4 (barium sulfate) is insoluble in water. When BaSO4 is added to water, it does not readily dissolve and remains as a solid precipitate.

Q117. Which of the following complex show a tetrahedral geometry?

• A. [Fe(CO)5)
• B. [Cu(CN)4)-2✓
• C. [Au(Cl)4]-
• D. [Pt(NH3)4]+2

Explanation: [Cu(CN)4]-2 has a tetrahedral geometry. The four cyanide (CN-) ligands are arranged symmetrically around the central copper (Cu) ion, forming a regular tetrahedron.

Q118. In which pair one has all Unpaired d orbitals while other have all paired d orbitals?

• A. Cu and Zn
• B. Cr and Fe
• C. Cr and Zn✓
• D. Mn and Co

Explanation: Chromium (Cr) has an electronic configuration of [Ar], 3d5, 4s¹. In its ground state, it has five unpaired electrons in its d orbitals, which allows it form multiple unpaired bonds. Zinc (Zn), on the other hand, has an electronic configuration of [Ar], 3d10, 4s². It has a completely filled d-orbital with ten electrons, resulting in all of its d-orbitals being paired.

Q119. In which of the following functional groups, the carbon atom is sp hybridized?

• A. –-CHO
• B. –-COOH
• C. —CN✓
• D. —COOR

Explanation: In the —CN functional group, the carbon atom is sp hybridized. This means that the carbon atom in this group has two sigma bonds and no lone pairs of electrons around it. The sp hybridization allows the carbon atom to form a strong triple bond with nitrogen (N), resulting in a linear molecular geometry. This functional group is called a nitrile or cyanide group.

Q120. The compounds containing R-SH functional group are known as:

• A. Alcohols
• B. Thia-alcohols✓
• C. Thia-ether
• D. Nitrile

Explanation: The compounds containing the R-SH functional group are known as thio-alcohols.

Q121. What is the number of isomers of a hydrocarbon having a molecular formula, C4H8?

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 4✓
• D. 5

Explanation: There are four isomers for the hydrocarbon with the molecular formula C4H8 (butene). These are:1-butenecis-2-butenetrans -2- buteneisobutylene

Q122. Alkylbenzene is formed when benzene is treated with an alkyl halide In the presence of anhydrous aluminum chloride, Identify the type of reaction.

• A. Halogenation
• B. Friedel-Crafts acylation reaction
• C. Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction✓
• D. Sulphonation

Explanation: The type of reaction where benzene is treated with an alkyl halide in the presence of anhydrous ammonium chloride to form an alkylbenzene, is known as Friedal-Crafts alkylation reaction.

Q123. Three alternate single and double bonds in benzene are called?

• A. Conjugate bonds✓
• B. Coordinate covalent bonds
• C. Fixed bonds
• D. Ionic bonds

Explanation: Three alternate single and double bonds in benzene are called conjugate bonds. In benzene, the six carbon atoms form a planar ring structure with alternating single and double bonds.

Q124. Which of the following compound is more acidic?

• A. Alkane
• B. Alkene
• C. Alkyne✓
• D. Cycloalkane

Explanation: Alkynes are hydrocarbons containing at least one carbon-carbon triple bond. The presence of a triple bond allows for the formation of an even more stable conjugate base compared to alkenes. Therefore, alkyne bonds are more acidic than alkene bonds.

Q125. Consider the chlorination of methane, the attack of chlorine free radical on methane form methyl free radical occurs in?

• A. Initiation step
• B. Propagation step✓
• C. Termination step
• D. Last step

Explanation: In the chlorination of methane, the attack of a chlorine free radical on methane to form a methyl free radical occurs in the propagation step.

Q126. The ratio of sigma to pi electrons in benzene is?

• A. 1:3
• B. 3:1
• C. 4:1✓
• D. 1:4

Explanation: The ratio of sigma to pi bonds in benzene is 4:1. Benzene has molecular formula C6H6, so there is the presence of one double bond in between alternate carbon atoms and each carbon is attached to two carbon atoms by means of a single bond and a double bond and a hydrogen atom by a single bond. So, there are a total of 12σ bonds and 3π bonds in benzene.

Q127. When halogen is removed from an alkyl halide a carbocation is formed, identify the most reactive carbocation

• A. Primary carbocation
• B. Secondary carbocation
• C. Tertiary carbocation
• D. Methyl carbocation✓

Explanation: When a halogen is removed from an alkyl halide, a carbocation is formed. The reactivity of carbocations is influenced by the stability of the carbocation itself. The stability of a carbocation depends on the number of alkyl groups attached to the positively charged carbon atom. In this case, the methyl carbocation is the most reactive carbocation. It is the least stable because it has no alkyl groups attached to the positively charged carbon.

Q128. Freon is commonly known as?

• A. Refrigerant✓
• B. A solvent
• C. Insecticides
• D. A fire extinguisher

Explanation: Freon is commonly known as refrigerant. Refrigerants are substances used in refrigeration systems and air conditioning units to transfer heat from one area to another.

Q129. Neopentylchloride belongs to which class of alkyl halides?

• A. Primary alkyl halides✓
• B. Secondary alkyl halides
• C. Tertiary alkyl halides
• D. Quaternary alkyl halides

Explanation: Non-pentyl chloride is the primary alkyl halide because in it, Chlorine atom is linked to a primary carbon atom. It can also seen in its structure.

Q130. What is the common name of 1,2,3-propanetriol?

• A. Butyl alcohol
• B. Glycol
• C. Glycerol✓
• D. Propyl alcohol

Explanation: The common name of 1, 2, 3-propanetriol is glycerol. Glycerol is a trihydroxy alcohol commonly used in various industries, including food, pharmaceuticals, and cosmetics. It is also known as glycerine.

Q131. Benzene is formed when Na reacts with which of the following?

• A. Alcohol
• B. Butyl alcohol
• C. Propanol
• D. Phenol✓

Explanation: Phenol is an organic compound that consists of a benzene ring (C6H6) with a hydroxyl group (-OH) attached to it. When sodium reacts with phenol, it undergoes a substitution reaction known as the Kolbe-Schmitt reaction. In this reaction, sodium replaces the hydroxyl group of phenol, resulting in the formation of sodium phenoxide. The sodium phenoxide then undergoes decarboxylation to yield benzene.

Q132. When Phenol reacts with formaldehyde, which of the following product is produced?

• A. Adduct✓
• B. Hydronium ion
• C. Oxonium ion
• D. Phenoxide ion

Explanation: The reaction between phenol and formaldehyde is known as the Mannich reaction. It involves the condensation of a phenol molecule with formaldehyde and an amine or ammonia derivative. The reaction typically occurs under acidic conditions. In this reaction, the formaldehyde molecule undergoes a nucleophilic addition to the phenol, resulting in the formation of an adduct. The adduct contains a substituted hydroxymethyl group (-CH2OH) attached to the phenol ring.

Q133. Which of the following is the correct name of CH3CH2CH2COCH2CHO?

• A. 3-oxo hexanal✓
• B. 3-one hexanal
• C. 2-oxo hexanol
• D. 3-one hexanol

Explanation: In the given compound, there is a carbonyl group (C=O) located at the third carbon atom (counting from the left) of the carbon chain. The prefix "oxo" is used to indicate the presence of a carbonyl group. The compound is a hexanal derivative, as it contains six carbon atoms. Therefore, the correct name for the compound is 3-oxo hexanal. The compound is: CH3-CH2-CH2-CO-CH2-CHO

Q134. Which of the most suitable reagent for the conversion of R-CH2OH -->RCHO?

• A. KMnO4/NaOH
• B. Pyridinium chlorochromate✓
• C. CrO3
• D. Cr2O4/H2SO4 (Conc.)

Explanation: RCH2OH→RCHO its an oxidation reaction. Pyridinium chlorochromate is amild oxidising agent that oxidises primary alcohol to aldehydes and secondary alcohols to ketones. It does not effect any other functional group and therefore have high selectivity for oxidation of alcohols. Whereas acidic permanganate, acidic dichromate, chromic anhydride in glacial acetic acid are strong oxidising agents and can do further oxidation to carboxylic acid. The most suitable reagent for RCH2OH→RCHO is pyridinium chlorochromate (PCC)

Q135. Which of the following is also called silver mirror test?

• A. Benedict's solution test
• B. Fehling's solution test
• C. lodoform test
• D. Tollen's reagent test✓

Explanation: Tollen's reagent, also known as silver mirror reagent, is a solution of silver nitrate (AgNO3) in aqueous ammonia. It is used to test for the presence of aldehydes. When an aldehyde is present, it is oxidized by Tollen's reagent, resulting in the formation of a silver mirror on the inner surface of the reaction vessel. That is why it is commonly referred to as the silver mirror test.

Q136. Which among the following have least pH?

• A. CH3CH2COOH
• B. CH2CICH2COOH
• C. CH3CHCI2COOH✓
• D. CH3CH2CH2COOH

Explanation: The compound with the least pH (highest acidity) is CH3-CH-Cl2-COOH (2,2-dichloropropanoic acid) due to the presence of two chlorine atoms, which significantly enhances its electron-withdrawing effect and acidity.

Q137. If carboxylic acid and ketone groups C=O are present in a chain then final name will be given as

• A. oxo, oic acid✓
• B. one, oic acid
• C. Both 1 and 2
• D. None of these

Explanation: The naming convention for compounds containing both a carboxylic acid group and a ketone group involves using the prefix "oxo" to indicate the presence of the ketone group, followed by the name of the alkyl chain attached to the carboxylic acid group, and ending with the suffix "oic acid" to denote the carboxylic acid group.

Q138. When carboxylic acids and dicarboxylic acids have similar molecular weights, how do their melting points compare?

• A. Carboxylic acids have greater melting points
• B. Dicarboxylic acids have greater melting points✓
• C. Both acids have similar melting points
• D. No any consistent trends exits

Explanation: The presence of an additional carboxyl group (-COOH) in dicarboxylic acids leads to stronger intermolecular forces compared to carboxylic acids. The carboxyl groups in dicarboxylic acids can form stronger hydrogen bonding interactions, as there are two hydrogen bond acceptor sites in close proximity. This enhances the overall intermolecular forces and contributes to higher melting points. Carboxylic acids, on the other hand, have weaker intermolecular forces, due to the presence of only one carboxyl group. The hydrogen bonding interactions are comparatively weaker, resulting in lower melting points. Therefore, dicarboxylic acids have greater melting points when carboxylic and dicarboxylic acids have similar molecular weights.

Q139. When food reaches stomach, the action of which of the following come to an end due to acidic PH?

• A. Lipases
• B. Amylase✓
• C. Maltase
• D. Hydrolases

Explanation: Amylase is an enzyme that breaks down complex carbohydrates ino smaller sugars, such as maltose. Amylase is sensitive to the acidic environment of the stomach. The low pH in the stomach denatures amylase, reducing its activity and ultimately leading to its inactivation. Therefore, the action of amylase comes to an end due to acidic pH.

Q140. _ is a copper-containing protein found in blood plasma. It plays a crucial role in binding and transporting copper throughout the body.

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Glycoproteins
• C. Ceruloplasmin✓
• D. Histones

Explanation: Ceruloplasmin is a copper-containing protein found in blood plasma. It plays a crucial role in binding and transporting copper throughout the body.

Q141. What is the shape of velocity-time graph for constant acceleration?

• A. Parabola line
• B. Straight line✓
• C. Incline curve
• D. Decline curve

Explanation: In the case of constant acceleration, the velocity-time graph will be a straight line. The slope of this line represents the acceleration. If the slope is positive, it indicates positive acceleration (increasing velocity), while a negative slope represents negative acceleration (decreasing velocity). The steeper the slope, the greater the acceleration.

Q142. Which of the following is the correct definition of variablevelocity?

• A. Unequal distances are covered in equal intervals of time
• B. Equal displacements are made in unequal intervals of time
• C. Unequal displacements are made in equal intervals of time✓
• D. Equal displacements are made in equal intervals of time

Explanation: When an object covers unequal displacements (changes in position) in equal intervals of time is known as variable velocity. This means that the object's speed or rate of change in position varies over time. It can be due to factors such as acceleration or deceleration, where the object is either speeding up or slowing down during the specified intervals of time.

Q143. A stone thrown horizontally from the top of a tall building follows a path that is:

• A. Circular
• B. Made of two straight line segments
• C. Hyperbolic
• D. Parabolic✓

Explanation: When a stone is thrown horizontally from the top of a tall building, it experiences only the force of gravity acting vertically downward. Since there is no initial vertical velocity, the stone's motion is governed solely by the downward force of gravity. The path of the stone is a result of the combination of its horizontal velocity (due to the initial throw) and the vertical acceleration due to gravity. As the stone falls vertically, it also continues to move horizontally due to its initial horizontal velocity. The resulting trajectory of the stone is a curved path known as a parabola.

Q144. Which of the following is incorrect?

• A. Fehling solution is used in detection of glucose
• B. NaHSO3 is used in detection of carbonyl compounds
• C. FeCl3 is used in detection of phenols
• D. Tollen's reagent is used in detection of unsaturation✓

Explanation: This statement is incorrect. Tollen's reagent, or silver mirror test, is not used for the detection of unsaturation. It is primarily used for the detection of aldehydes. Tollen's reagent can oxidize aldehydes, leading to the reduction of silver ions and the formation of a silver mirror.

Q145. A fireman wants to slide down a rope. The breaking load of the rope is 3/4 th of the weight of theman. With what acceleration should the fire man slide down? ( Acceleration due to gravity is 'g')

• A. g
• B. g/4✓
• C. 3g/4
• D. 0

Explanation: Newton's second law states that the force required to accelerate a body is equal to the product of its mass and acceleration. The acceleration will be smaller for a large mass. As a result, more force is required to accelerate the body. The force is imparted through the rope as the firefighter slides down it. Tension is the force exerted on the rope. The minimum tension at the rope when the fireman slide down us given as, mg - ¾ mg This force equating with the minimum tension at the rope, we get: ma = mg - ¾ mg a = g - ¾ g a = g (1 - ¾) a = g/4 The fireman should slide down with a minimum acceleration of ¼ of the acceleration due to gravity.

Q146. When a heavy coin fallsa short distance towards the ground it does not reach terminal velocity. Why is this so?

• A. The coin has not hit the ground
• B. The weight of coin is equal to air resistance
• C. The weight of coin increases as air resistance increases
• D. The weight of coin is more than air resistance✓

Explanation: In the case of a heavy coin falling a short distance towards the ground, it does not reach terminal velocity because the weight of the coin is greater than the air resistance it experiences. As the coin falls, the force of gravity acting on it (weight) is larger than the opposing force of air resistance. As a result, the net force on the coin remains non-zero, and it continues to accelerate until it hits the ground.

Q147. The consumption of energy by a 60 W bulb in 2 s is:

• A. 120 J✓
• B. 60 J
• C. 30 J
• D. 0.02 J

Explanation: Given: Power = P = 60 watt Time = t = 2 seconds Energy = E = ? To determine the consumption of energy, we can use the formula: E = P × t E = 60 × 2 E = 120 Joules

Q148. A longpring, when stretched by a distance x, has potential energy V. On increasing the stretching to nx, the potential energy of the spring will be:

• A. nV
• B. V/n
• C. n2 V✓
• D. V/n2

Explanation: The potential energy stored in a spring that is stretched by a distance x is given by the formula: V = ½ kx² In this case, the potential energy of the spring when stretched by a distance x is given as V. When the stretching of the spring is increased to nx, the potential energy can be calculated by substituting nx for x in the formula: V' = ½ k (nx)² = ½ kn²x² = n² (½ kx²) V' = n²V

Q149. Ignoring details associated with friction, extra forces exerted by arm and leg muscles, and other factors, we can consider a pole vault as the conversion of an athlete's running kinetic energy to gravitational potential energy. If an athlete is to lift his body 5m during a vault, what speed must he have when he plants his pole?

• A. 5 m/s
• B. 10 m/s✓
• C. 15 m/s
• D. 20 m/s

Explanation: Given: Distance = S = 5m Acceleration = a = g = 10ms-2 Initial velocity = Vi = 0 ms-1 Final velocity = Vf = ? Using third equation of motion: 2aS = Vf² - Vi² Vf² = 2aS + Vi² = 2 × 10 × 5 + (0)² Vf² = 100 Taking square root on both sides, we get: Vf = 10ms-1

Q150. A par.ticle of mass m at rest is acted upon by a force P for time t. Its kinetic energy is:

• A. (P2 t2)/m
• B. (P2 t2)/2m✓
• C. (P2 t2)/3m
• D. (P2 t2)/4m

Explanation: The kinetic energy of a particle is given by the formula: KE = ½ mv² In this case, the particle is initially at rest, so its initial velocity (vo) is zero. The force (P) acting on the particle for time t will cause it to accelerate. According to Newton's second law, the force acting on an object is equal to the mass of the object multiplied by its acceleration (F = ma). Using this relationship, we can express the acceleration (a) in terms of force (P) and mass (m): P = ma Solving for acceleration: a = P/m Using the kinematic equation: v = vo + at Since the initial velocity is zero: v = at Now, we can substitute the expression for acceleration into the equation for velocity. v = (P/m)t Finally, we can calculate the kinetic energy by using the formula: KE = ½ mv² Putting values in the equation, we get: KE = ½ m ((P/m)t)² = ½ mt² (P²/m²) KE = (P²/t²) / 2m

Q151. The number of revolutions in 3π radians is:

• A. 1/60
• B. 3/2✓
• C. 2
• D. 6

Explanation: As we know that: 2π radians is equal to one revolution and 3π radians to x revolutions. Using the proportion, we can solve for x (2π radians / one revolution) = (3π radians) / (x revolutions) Cross multiplying: 2πx = 3π Dividing both sides by 2π: x = 3π / 2π x = 3 / 2 Therefore, the number of revolutions in 3π radians is 3/2.

Q152. If a flywheel is rotating at 3.0 rad/s, the time it takes to complete one revolution is

• A. 0.67s
• B. 10. s
• C. 1.3s
• D. 2.1 s✓

Explanation: To find the time it takes for a flywheel to complete one revolution, we can use the formula: Time = (2π radians) / Angular velocity Given that the flywheel is rotating at 3 rad/s, we can substitute this value into the formula: Time = (2π radians) / (3 rad/s) Time = 2.1 seconds

Q153. A fighter plane is moving in a vertical circle of radius r. Its minimum velocity at the highest point of the circle will be?

• A. √3gr
• B. √2gr
• C. √gr✓
• D. √(gr/2)

Explanation: At the highest point, the centripetal force is provided by the vertical component of the plane's weight, given by: Fc = mg Equating this to the centripetal force formula: mv²/r = mg Cancelling the mass and rearranging the equation: v² = gr Taking the square root of both sides: v = √gr Therefore, the minimum velocity at the highest point of the vertical circle is √gr.

Q154. Which of the following increase by increasing amplitude?

• A. Wavelength
• B. Frequently
• C. Zero
• D. Loudness✓

Explanation: Increasing the amplitude of a wave refers to increasing the magnitude or height of the wave. The amplitude is directly related to the loudness or volume of the sound. When the amplitude of a sound wave increases, the sound becomes louder.

Q155. An airplane travels at a speed of 0.5v where v is the speed of sound. The airplane approaches a stationary observer .The frequency of sound emitted by the aircraft is in 200Hz. Which frequency does the observer hear?

• A. 400 HZ✓
• B. 100 HZ
• C. 120 HZ
• D. 180 HZ

Explanation: Given: Speed of sound = Vs = 340 ms-1 Speed of aeroplane = Va = 0.5 × 340 = 170 ms-1 Frequency = f = 200 Hz Frequency = f ' = ? Using the formula: f ' = Vs / (Vs - Va)× f = 340 / (340 - 170) × 200 = 340 / 170 × 200 = 2 × 200 f ' = 400 Hz

Q156. If the wavelength of light coming from a galaxy shifts towards the red end of space then galaxy is:

• A. Approaching Earth
• B. Receding the Earth✓
• C. Stationary
• D. Approaching Earth or is stationary

Explanation: If the wavelength of light coming from a galaxy shifts towards the red end of the spectrum, it indicates that the galaxy is receding from the earth. This phenomenon is known as red shift. When an object (such as galaxy) moves away from an observer, the light waves emitted by the object get stretched, causing the wavelength of the light to become longer. As a result, the light appears more redshifted. Therefore, the red shift of the light from the galaxy indicates that it is moving away from the Earth, suggesting that the galaxy is receding.

Q157. The shortest distance between any two points. in phase on a wave is called:

• A. Displacement
• B. Amplitude
• C. Wavelength✓
• D. Frequency

Explanation: The shortest distance between any two points in phase on a wave is called wavelength.

Q158. When will the oscillations stop in the absence of resistive forces?

• A. Never✓
• B. After 10 minutes
• C. In 10 minutes
• D. Immediately

Explanation: In the absence of resistive forces, the oscillations will never stop. In simple harmonic motion, such as oscillations of a mass-spring system or a pendulum, the absence of resistive forces means that there is no external force acting to dissipate the energy of the oscillation. As a result, the system will continue to oscillate indefinitely without losing energy or coming to a stop.

Q159. The mechanical waves are not generated by:

• A. Electric and magnetic fields✓
• B. Coil of springs
• C. Ropes
• D. Water

Explanation: Mechanical waves are not generated by electric and magnetic fields. Mechanical waves, such as sound waves, require a physical medium to propagate. They are not directly generated by electric and magnetic fields.

Q160. Reducing mass M of a suspending body to one fourth will change the frequency of oscillation to:

• A. One fourth
• B. Double✓
• C. Quardruple
• D. Half

Explanation: The relationship between the frequency and the mass of an object undergoing simple harmonic motion can be expressed as: f = 1 / √M When the mass is reduced to one fourth (M/4), the frequency can be calculated as: f ' = f √(M/4) f ' = f (√M) / 2 Therefore, the frequency is doubled when the mass is reduced to one fourth.

Q161. A distant star is receding from the Earth with a speed of 1.4o x 107 m/s. It emits light of frequency 4.57 x 1014 Hz. The speed of light is 3.0 x 108 m/s. The Doppler effect formula can be used with light waves. What will bethe frequency of this light when detected on Earth?

• A. 2.04 x 1013 Hz
• B. 4.6 x 1014 Hz✓
• C. 4.57 X 1014 Hz
• D. 4.79 X 1014 Hz

Explanation: The Doppler effect is a phenomenon that occurs when there is relative motion between a source of waves (such as a star emitting light) and an observer (such as Earth). It causes a shift in the frequency of the waves perceived by the observer. The formula for the Doppler effect in light waves is given by: Δf/f = v/c where: Δf is the change in frequency (observed frequency - emitted frequency) f is the emitted frequency v is the relative velocity between the source and observer (positive when the source is receding, negative when approaching) c is the speed of light in a vacuum (approximately 3.0 x 10^8 m/s) Given: Emitted frequency (f) = 4.57 x 10^14 Hz Relative velocity (v) = 1.4 x 10^7 m/s (positive since the star is receding from Earth) Speed of light (c) = 3.0 x 10^8 m/s Now, let's calculate the change in frequency (Δf): Δf/f = (1.4 x 10^7 m/s) / (3.0 x 10^8 m/s) Δf/f ≈ 0.0467 Now, we can find the observed frequency (f_observed) using the following formula: f_observed = f + Δf f_observed = 4.57 x 10^14 Hz + 0.0467 * (4.57 x 10^14 Hz) f_observed ≈ 4.57 x 10^14 Hz + 2.1319 x 10^12 Hz f_observed ≈ 4.592319 x 10^14 Hz So, the frequency of the light detected on Earth will be approximately 4.592319 x 10^14 Hz.

Q162. Thermodynamics is that branch of Physics in which we study

• A. relations between heat and mechanical✓
• B. relations between heat and ionization energies
• C. relations between chemical and mechanical energies
• D. relations between kinetic and potential energies

Explanation: Thermodynamics is that branch of physics in which we study relations between heat and mechanical energies. It focuses on the transfer, conversion, and transformation of energy, particularly in relation to the behavior of systems involving heat and work. Thermodynamics encompasses concepts such as heat transfer, work, energy conservation, and the behavior of gases, liquids, and solids under different conditions.

Q163. When a gas is compressed isothermally, the product of its pressure and volume during the process is:

• A. not constant
• B. constant✓
• C. zero
• D. proportional

Explanation: According to Boyle's law, which applies to an ideal gas undergoing an isothermal process, the product of pressure and volume remains constant: P × V = Constant

Q164. Temperature of given mass of a gas is changed from 150°C to 300°C during an isobaric process, volume of the gas will become:

• A. Half
• B. Double
• C. Remain same
• D. Less than double✓

Explanation: During an isobaric process, the pressure of the gas remains constant. However, the volume of the gas is directly proportional to its temperature (according to Charles' law). When the temperature increases from 150°C to 300°C, the volume of the gas will increase. However, it will not double because the relationship between volume and temperature is not linear. As the temperature increases, the gas molecules gain more kinetic energy and move with higher speed, leading to increased collisions with the container walls. This causes an increase in pressure, which in turn affects the volume. As a result, the volume will increase but not double.

Q165. A capacitor is charged with a battery and energy stored is u. After disconnecting battery another capacitor of same capacity is connected in parallel to the first capacitor. Then energy stored in each capacitor is

• A. U/2
• B. U/4✓
• C. 4U
• D. 2U

Explanation: The question has stated that a capacitor is connected to a battery (V) and because of battery; energy is stored in a capacitor which is U. (shown in figure 1). Now this capacitor is connected to another capacitor having the same capacity in parallel connection. So we need to calculate how much energy is stored in each of the capacitors, shown in figure 2. We know that energy stored in capacitor is given by, U=q2/2c Where q is charged stored in capacitor, C is capacitance of capacitor. Now if you look at figure 2, charge stored on each of the capacitors is C. But initially capacitance of upper capacitor is C and capacitance of lower capacitor is zero. Finally charge from the upper capacitor distributes to the lower capacitor because potential is always the same in case of parallel combination, hence potential between these capacitors are also the same. So, charge on upper capacitor is q/2 and charge on lower capacitor is q/2 if U is the new energy stored in upper or lower capacitance, then

Q166. What is the potential difference between two point in an electric field if it takes 600J of energy to move a charge of 2C between two points?

• A. 1200 J
• B. 800 J
• C. 300 J✓
• D. 0J

Explanation: Given: Energy = ∆E = 600 J Charge = q = 2C Potential difference = V = ? As we known that: V = ∆E / q = 600 / 2 V = 300 J/C

Q167. Gauss law cannot be used to find which of the following quantity?

• A. Electric field intensity
• B. Electric flux density
• C. Charge
• D. permittivity✓

Explanation: Gauss's law cannot be used to find permittivity (εo). The value of the permittivity of free space is a fundamental constant in electromagnetism, and it is not determined through Gauss's law.

Q168. Which one of the following statements is true?

• A. electrostatic force obeys inverse square law while gravitational force does not
• B. Both gravitational force and electrostatic force are repulsive in nature
• C. gravitational force is much weaker than electrostatic forced.✓
• D. Both electrostatic force and gravitational force don't obey inverse square law

Explanation: Gravitational force is indeed much weaker compared to electrostatic force.

Q169. The coulomb's constant k depends upon:

• A. nature of medium
• B. system of units
• C. types of charge
• D. nature of medium and system of units✓

Explanation: Coulomb's constant, denoted by k, is a fundamental constant in electrostatics that determine the strength of the electrostatic force between two charged particles. It is expressed as: k = 1 / (4πεo) Where εo is the permittivity of free space. The value of k depends on both the nature of the medium and the system of units being used. The nature of the medium affects the permittivity, which is a measure of how easily electric fields can propagate through a material. Similarly, the system of units used can also affect the value of Coulomb's constant.

Q170. A charged particle is moving in a uniform electric field. For the motion of the particle due to the field, which quantity has a constant non-zero value?

• A. acceleration✓
• B. displacement
• C. rate of change of acceleration
• D. velocity

Explanation: In the case of a charged particle moving in a uniform electric field, the acceleration of the particle will have a constant non-zero value. This is because the electric field exerts a constant force on the charged particle, causing it to accelerate continuously in the direction of the electric field.

Q171. A capacitor of capacitance 'C' has a charge 'Q' and stored energy is 'w' If the charge is increases to '2Q'. The stored energy will be:

• A. 2W
• B. 4W✓
• C. W/4
• D. W/2

Explanation: The explanation is given below:

Q172. How much potential drop exist across closed switch?

• A. 0 V✓
• B. 1V
• C. 2V
• D. 3V

Explanation: When a switch is closed, it becomes a conducting path, allowing the flow of electric current. In an ideal switch, there is no resistance, and hence no potential drop occurs across the switch. This means that the voltage across a closed switch is 0V.

Q173. A 3 V battery is connected in series with ammeter and 2 ohm resistance after short circuiting. What will be the reading of ammeter?

• A. 1 A
• B. 1.5 A✓
• C. 5 A
• D. 6 A

Explanation: Given: Voltage = V = 3V Resistance = R = 2Ω Current = I = ? As we know that: V = IR I = V / R = 3 / 2 I = 1.5 A

Q174. The resistance of a conductor does not depend on which of the following?

• A. area
• B. resistivity
• C. length
• D. mass✓

Explanation: The resistance of a conductor does not directly depends on mass. Resistance is determined by factors like resistivity, length, and area, but not mass.

Q175. Which of the following statement is NOT CORRECT about Kirchhoff's rule?

• A. Kirchhoff's current rule based upon the law of conservation of charge
• B. Wheatstone bridge is an application of Kirchhoffs rule
• C. Kirchhoff's rules are more suitable in AC circuits✓
• D. Klrchhoff's voltage rule based upon the law of conservation of energy

Explanation: Kirchhoff's rules, specifically Kirchhoff's current rule, and Kirchhoff's voltage rule, are fundamental principles in analyzing and solving electrical circuits, particularly in DC (Direct current) circuits, not in AC circuits.

Q176. What do the substances whose resistance decreases with increase in temperature have?

• A. high temperature coefficient
• B. negative temperature coefficient✓
• C. positive temperature coefficient
• D. zero temperature coefficient

Explanation: The substances whose resistance decreases with increase in temperature have negative temerpature coefficient resistance. This behavior is commonly observed in materials like certain metals, such as copper or aluminum.

Q177. A low voltage supply with an e.m.f. of 20 V and an internal resistance of 1.5 ohms is used to supply power to a heater of resistance 6.5 ohms in a fish tank. What is the power supplied to the water in the fish tank?

• A. 41 W✓
• B. 50 W
• C. 53 W
• D. 62 W

Explanation: Power supplied to heater: P = V = I²R = V² / R Potential difference across the heater is: V = [6.5 / (6.5 + 1.5)] × 20 V = 16.25 V Power supplied to heater: P = V² / R = (16.5)² / 6.5 = 40.625 W P ≈ 41 W

Q178. Electric forces change the magnitude and direction of velocity while magnetic forces change _ of velocity.

• A. Only Magnitude
• B. Only direction✓
• C. Magnitude and direction
• D. Neither magnitude nor direction

Explanation: Electric forces change the magnitude and direction of velocity, as they exert a force on charged particles based on the electric field, while magnetic forces can change only direction of velocity.

Q179. Which surface has greater magnetic flux in same magnetic field, each has an area 1 m2.

• A. Circular
• B. Rectangular
• C. Square
• D. Flux is independent of shape✓

Explanation: The magnetic flux through a surface depends on the magnetic field strength and the angle between the magnetic field lines and the surface. The shape of the surface does not directly affect the magnetic flux. The magnetic flux through a surface is given by the formula: Φ = BAcosθ In this case, both surfaces have the same area (1m²). Assuming the magnetic field strength and the angle θ are the same for both surfaces, the magnetic flux will be the same regardless of the shape of the surface. Therefore, the magnetic flux is independent of the shape of the surface.

Q180. The source of magnetic field is:

• A. An isolated magnetic pole
• B. Static electric charge
• C. Nonmagnetic substance
• D. Current loop✓

Explanation: A current loop, such as a wire carrying electric current in a circular path, creates a magnetic field around it. This is known as Ampere's law, which states that a current-carrying conductor generates a magnetic field proportional to the current flowing through it.

Q181. One meter long copper rod is moving with speed 20 m/sec in the magnetic field of strength 0.6 tesla. What is the value of induced emf?

• A. 10 V
• B. 12 V✓
• C. 14 V
• D. 16 V

Explanation: Given: Magnetic field strength = B = 0.6 T Length = L = 1m Velocity = v = 20 m/s emf = ε = ? As we know that: emf = vBL = 20 × 0.6 × 1 emf = 12 v

Q182. The unit of ∆Φ/∆t can be written as?

• A. NmA-2s-1
• B. NmAs-1
• C. NmA-1s-1✓
• D. NmA-2s1

Explanation: The unit of magnetic flux change (∆Φ) is measured in webers (Wb), and the unit of time change (∆t) is measured in seconds. So, ∆Φ/∆t = Wb/s As we know that: Wb = Nm/A Puting this value into the formula: ∆Φ/∆t = Nm/As = NmA-1s-1

Q183. Working principal of magnetic levitation train is according to?

• A. Faraday law
• B. Max planks law
• C. Ohm law
• D. Lenz law✓

Explanation: Lenz's law is applicable to the operation of magnetic levitation trains. Lenz's law states that an induced current opposes the change in magnetic field that produces it. In the case of magnetic levitation trains, Lenz's law helps maintain the stability and control of the levitation system by opposing any changes in the magnetic field caused by the motion of the train.

Q184. A copper hoop is held ina vertical east-west plane in a uniform magnetic field whose field lines run along the north-south direction. The largest induced emf is produced when the hoop is.

• A. Rotated about a north-south axis
• B. Rotated about an east-west axis✓
• C. Moved rapidly, without rotation toward the east
• D. Moved rapidly, without rotation toward the south

Explanation: When the copper hoop is rotated about an east-west axis, the maximum induced emf is produced. This is because the magnetic field lines are perpendicular to the plane of the hoop, and the rotation of this hoop in this orientation maximizes the rate of change of the magnetic flux passing through the hoop. According to Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction, a greater rate of change of magnetic flux induces a larger emf in the conductor.

Q185. In transformer, there is no _ connection between the two coils but they are linked?

• A. Magnetic, electrically
• B. Electrical, magnetically✓
• C. Magnetic, magnetically
• D. Electrical, optically

Explanation: In a transformer, there is no electrical connection between the two coils, which are typically referred to as the primary and secondary coils. However, they are magnetically linked due to the shared magnetic core. The primary coil is connected to an alternating current (AC) power source, which creates a changing magnetic field in the core. This changing magnetic field induces a voltage in the secondary coil through electromagnetic induction, allowing for the transfer of electrical energy from the primary to the secondary coil without a direct electrical connection

Q186. When the temperature of semiconductor suddenly drops to zero kelvin, thena semiconductor acts as:

• A. Conductor
• B. Semi-conductor
• C. Super conductor
• D. Insulator✓

Explanation: When the temperature of a semiconductor drops to absolute zero, the semiconductor behaves as an insulator. At absolute zero, the valence electrons in a semiconductor come to rest, and the energy band gap between the valence band and the conduction band becomes very large. This large energy gap prevents the movement of electrons, resulting in a lack of conductivity. Therefore, at zero Kelvin, a semiconductor acts as an insulator rather than a conductor, semiconductor or superconductor.

Q187. If electron, proton, neutron, and alpha particle have same velocity which of them have shortest wavelength?

• A. Electron
• B. Proton
• C. Neutron
• D. Alpha particle✓

Explanation: The wavelength of a particle is inversely proportional to its momentum. Momentum is given by the product of mass and velocity. Alpha particles has the highest mass, consisting of two protons and two neutrons. Since all the particles are assumed to have the same velocity, the alpha particle will have the highest momentum due to its higher mass. Therefore, the alpha particle will have the shortest wavelength compared to the electron, proton, and neutron, which have lower masses.

Q188. The process of ejection of loosely bound electrons from a certain photo sensitive surface by absorption of photon is called:

• A. Compton effect
• B. Photoelectric effect✓
• C. Pair production
• D. Black body radiation

Explanation: The photoelectric effect refers to the phenomenon where photons are absorbed by a photo-sensitive surface, resulting in the ejection of loosely bound electrons from the surface.

Q189. In a photoelectric effect experiment, the stopping potential is:

• A. The kinetic energy of the most energetic electron ejected
• B. The potential energy of the most energetic electron ejected
• C. The photon energy
• D. The electric potential that cause electron current to vanish✓

Explanation: In the photoelectric effect experiment, the stopping potential refers to the electric potential that is applied between the anode and the cathode in order to stop the flow of electrons in the circuit. When the stopping potential is reached, the current of electrons ceases to flow, and this potential is known as the stopping potential. The stopping potential is directly related to the kinetic energy of the ejected protons. When the stopping potential is applied, it counteracts the kinetic energy of the electrons, eventually bringing them to a stop. Thus, the stopping potential is the electric potential that causes the electron current to vanish.

Q190. The line spectrum of hydrogen atom contains the spectral Iines in the region of:

• A. ultraviolet
• B. infrared
• C. visible
• D. all of these✓

Explanation: The line spectrum of a hydrogen atom contains spectral lines in the regions of ultraviolet, infrared, and visible light. This is because the spectral lines in the hydrogen atom's emission spectrum are a result of electron transitions between different energy levels. The ultraviolet lines correspond to higher energy transitions, the visible lines correspond to intermediate energy transitions, and the infrared lines correspond to lower energy transitions. Therefore, the line spectrum of a hydrogen atom includes spectral lines in all regions.

Q191. The speed of electron in the first Bohr orbit is:

• A. 2.19 x 106 ms-1✓
• B. 2.19x 10- 6 ms- 1
• C. 2.19x 104 ms-1
• D. 2.19x10-4 ms-1

Explanation: According to Bohr's model of the hydrogen atom, the speed of an electron in the first Bohr orbit can be calculated using the formula: v = Ze² / 2εοh Where, Atomic number = Z = 1 Charge = e = 1.602 × 10-19 C Permittivity of free space = εο =8.854×10-12 C²/Nm² Planck's constant = h = 6.626 × 10-34 J's Putting the values in the above formula, we get: v = 1 × (1.602 × 10-19)² / 2 × (8.854×10-12) × (6.626 × 10-34) v = 2.19 × 106 ms-1

Q192. A low energy neutron has RBE factor of 10. How much energy is absorbed by a man of mass 80 Kg if the value of equivalent dose is 400 rem?

• A. 16 J
• B. 32 J✓
• C. 48 J
• D. 64 J

Explanation: The equivalent dose is calculated by multiplying the absorbed dose by the radiation weighting factor (RBE). De = D × RBE D = De / RBE = 400 / 10 D = 40 rem Since 1 rem is equal to 0.01 J/kg, so absorbed energy is: = 40 × 0.01 × 80 = 32 J

Q193. It has been observed that Thorium (_90234)Th is transformed into Protactinium (_91234)Pa after the emission of particle:

• A. Alpha
• B. Beta✓
• C. Gamma
• D. Alpha, Beta, Gamma

Explanation: When a β-particle is emitted out of any nucleus, then its mass number does not change but its charge number is increases by one. In this case, Thorium (90Th²³⁴) is transformed into proctactanium (91Pa²³⁴) after the emission of β-particle.

Q194. The half-life of Strontium (Sr) is 8.70 hours. Its decay constant is:

• A. 0.000022 s
• B. 45000 /s
• C. 0.000022 / s✓
• D. 0.000032 / s

Explanation: The decay constant (λ) can be calculated using the formula: λ = 0.693 / t1/2 In this case, the half-life of strontium is given as 8.70 hours. Converting hours to seconds, we get: t1/2 = 8.70 × 60 × 60 = 31320 seconds Putting this value in the above formula: λ = 0.693 / 31320 = 0.000022 /s

Q195. Read the passage and the following statements below. Then choose the correct option, basing your answer only on the information provided.Queen Elizabeth II's Platinum Jubilee, celebrating her 70 years on the British throne, was above all a tribute to one of history's great acts of constancy. Her reign spanned virtually the entire post-World War II era, making her a witness to cultural upheavals from the Beatles to Brexit.STATEMENTS:I. There has been another queen of the British throne named Elizabeth tlefore her.II. Brexit is a normal occurrence.III. Elizabeth was Queen of the British during World War II.

• A. I, II and III; all are correct
• B. Only llI is correct
• C. Only I is correct✓
• D. Only I and III are correct

Explanation: In the passage queen Elizabeth has a II with it, this shows that there has been another queen with Elizabeth in her name, Brexit is not a normal occurrence and the passage clearly states that she rules post world war 2 so only statement 1 is correct.Based on the passage, the correct option is:I. There has been another queen of the British throne named Elizabeth before her.The passage refers to Queen Elizabeth II, indicating that there was a Queen Elizabeth I before her.The passage does not support statements II and III:- II. Brexit is not described as a normal occurrence, but rather as one of the cultural upheavals that Queen Elizabeth II witnessed during her reign.- III. The passage states that Queen Elizabeth II's reign spanned "virtually the entire post-World War II era", implying that she was not queen during World War II itself.

Q196. Observe the pattern and select the next term in the sequence: CAB, FAE, IAH

• A. JHK
• B. LAK✓
• C. JGK
• D. IGJ

Explanation: Noticing the pattern, we can conclude that the middle letter in each sequence is A. Moreover, the first and last letter of each sequence is related by a factor of 2 letters in between them(C and F have D and E between them, F and I have G and H between them). Threfore, logically the next sequence should begin with letter L(leaving J and K between I and L). For the last letter simlar logic will be followed and the last letter should be K.

Q197. Read the following and choose the correct answer:Drake was wearing a blue shirt with black jeans and brown shoes. John was wearing a red shirt with black jeans and black shoes. Ahmad was wearing black jeans, a blue or red shirt, and shoes that were not black. Who copied drake?

• A. Ahmad✓
• B. John
• C. Drake
• D. Cannot elicit from given information

Explanation: Ahmad is the one who saw Drake, as Drake was wearing brown shoes.

Q198. Some bags are pouches. All pouches are cases. No cases are purses. Which of the following conclusions are NECESSARILY TRUE? CONCLUSIONS: I. Some pouches are purses. II. Some bags are cases. III. No bags are purses.

• A. I and II
• B. I and III
• C. II✓
• D. II and III

Explanation: I: Since all pouches are cases and no cases are purses then no pouches are purses. This statement is false. II: Since some bags are pouches and all pouches are cases, this indicates that some bags(that are pouches) can also be cases. This statement is also true. III: This statement can be false because the bags that are not pouches can be purses.

Q199. Read the following statement, assuming everything in it to be true. Then decide which of the given suggested courses of action logically follow and are worth pursuing. Statement: '"Aalia wants to sleep but cannot due to regular noise in and around her house everyday." Courses of Action: I. Insert good quality noise blockers into her ears. II, Take strong sleeping pills."

• A. I✓
• B. II
• C. Both I and II
• D. Neither I nor II

Explanation: Good noise blockers would help her fix the problem. Therefore, only statement I is correct.

Q200. I. The literacy rate in the district has been increasing. II. The district administration has conducted extensive training program for the workers involved in the literacy drive.

• A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
• B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect✓
• C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes
• D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent cause

Explanation: Statement 2 is the cause and statement 1 is its effect. The statement implies that the district administration conducted an extensive training program for the workers involved in the literacy drive (cause), which resulted in an increase in the literacy rate in the district (effect).