Punjab Mdcat Mock Paper 1 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. In the following sentences, some segments of the sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.

• A. Let's
• B. The
• C. Is
• D. To✓

Explanation: The error lies in the use of the preposition 'to'. The correct preposition should be 'for', as it indicates the direction or destination of the bus: 'The bus is leaving for the last stop.'The other segments are correct: 'Let's' is a valid contraction, 'The' is the appropriate article, and 'is' is the correct form of the verb 'to be'.

Q2. The parents were stunned when they saw that children had created complete _ in the bedroom.

• A. Knack
• B. Groggy
• C. Dank
• D. Mayhem✓

Explanation: 'Mayhem' means violent or extreme disorder; chaos. So, the correct sentence is, "The parents were stunned when they saw that children had created complete mayhem in the bedroom."

Q3. In the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT option.

• A. After breaking the glass, Ruby said "Please don't tell on me".
• B. After breaking the glass Ruby said: "Please don't tell on me."
• C. After breaking the glass, Ruby said: "Please don't tell on me."✓
• D. After breaking the glass Ruby said: please don't tell on me.

Explanation: The sentence 'after breaking the glass' is another idea in the sentence hence a comma should be added between these two sentences. The rule of punctuation in quotation marks is that the full stop or comma should come within the quotation marks.'Don't' is a contraction, which stands for 'do not'.

Q4. In the following question, a sentence is given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word. Four alternatives are suggested. Choose the correct alternative, out of the four as your answer.Ravens appear to behave _, actively helping one another to find food.

• A. Mysteriously✓
• B. Warily
• C. Aggressively
• D. Defensively

Explanation: Ravens appear to behave mysteriously, showing puzzling or clever actions, such as actively helping one another to find food.

Q5. The prince abdicated the crown and returned to his castle.The underlined word means:

• A. Gave up✓
• B. Sold
• C. Reinvested into
• D. Auctioned

Explanation: The word "abdicated" means to renounce or give up a high office or responsibility, such as a monarch giving up their crown.

Q6. In the following sentence, some segments of the sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.

• A. Along with
• B. Is the factor✓
• C. Take
• D. Towards
• E. No error

Explanation: The correct answer is option B: 'Is the factor'. In this case, the subject is plural ('three factors'), which requires the verb to be plural as well. Therefore, the correct phrase should be 'are the factors'. Options A, C, D, and E do not contain errors related to subject-verb agreement. 'Along with' does not influence the subject, 'Take' and 'Towards' are both used correctly, and 'No error' is incorrect because there is a clear mistake in the sentence structure.

Q7. Take your warm jacket with you _ it gets breezy.

• A. Although
• B. In case✓
• C. Rather
• D. Until

Explanation: Take a jacket with you in case it gets cold later.In case means to allow for a possibility. It is used in a condition that if it gets breezy, you should take a warm jacket.

Q8. Which one is not a past tense sentence?

• A. She finished all the exercices
• B. Dr Smith healed the patient
• C. Michael studied hard all year
• D. He will have eaten lunch✓

Explanation: He will have eaten lunch is not a past tense because the words "will have" indicate that its a future perfect tense.

Q9. Find the correctly spelt word:

• A. Servent
• B. Sarvent
• C. Servant✓
• D. Sarvant

Explanation: Servant is the correct spelling.

Q10. The enzymes required for the Krebs cycle are found in _.

• A. F1 particles
• B. Lysosomes
• C. Cytoplasm
• D. Matrix✓

Explanation: The Krebs cycle enzymes are membrane proteins found within the matrix of the mitochondria except for succinate dehydrogenase which is an integral membrane protein locked to the inner mitochondrial membrane.F1 particle is found in the matrix of mitochondria and is found attached to the cristae. It plays a very important role in the production of ATP molecules as it contains an enzyme called ATPaseA lysosome is a membrane-bound cell organelle that contains digestive enzymes.The cytoplasm is a thick solution that fills each cell and is enclosed by the cell membrane.

Q11. Glycolysis takes place in the _ of cells.

• A. Nucleus
• B. Mitochondria
• C. Golgi complex
• D. Cytoplasm✓

Explanation: Glycolysis, the first step of aerobic respiration, which results in the formation of two molecules of pyruvate from one molecule of glucose, occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell.

Q12. Which of the following photosystems is involved in cyclic photophosphorylation?

• A. PS II
• B. PS I✓
• C. PS I and PS II
• D. PS III

Explanation: Cyclic photophosphorylation employs the use of only photosystem I (PS1). this occurs to overcome the ATP deficiency and the use of only PSI results in the formation of only ATP without the formation of NADPH.

Q13. How many molecules of ATP would be utilized for phosphorylation of one glucose molecule during glycolysis?

• A. Three
• B. Two✓
• C. Four
• D. One

Explanation: Two ATP molecules are used to phosphorylate glucose; the first is used to convert glucose into glucose-6-phosphate, while the second is used to convert fructose-6-phosphate into fructose-1,6-bisphosphate.

Q14. When we extract Carotenoids from its source we see that it is:

• A. Violet in color
• B. Blue green in color
• C. Yellow green in color
• D. Yellow to orange red in color✓

Explanation: Carotenoids also called tetraterpenoids, are yellow, orange, and red organic pigments that are produced by plants and algae, as well as several bacteria, and fungi.

Q15. Ester linkages occur in:

• A. Nucleic acids✓
• B. Nucleus
• C. Carbohydrates
• D. Proteins

Explanation: DNA and RNA are the chain of polynucleotides, that are joined by ester linkage known as 'phosphodiester bonds'. The two nucleotides, within a nucleotide chain, are linked by a phosphodiester bond. It is formed by the linkage between the 3' carbon atom of one sugar molecule and the 5' carbon atom of another, with the phosphate group acting as a bridge between the 2 carbons.So, the correct answer is option A.

Q16. The finger like infoldings, which are formed by inner membrane of mitochondria, are called:

• A. Ribosomes
• B. Matrix
• C. Porin
• D. Cristae✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Cristae, which are the finger-like infoldings of the inner membrane of mitochondria. These structures are critical for the mitochondria's function, as they increase the surface area available for the electron transport chain, thereby enhancing ATP production.In contrast, Ribosomes are involved in protein synthesis and do not relate to mitochondrial structure. The Matrix refers to the space within the mitochondria, but it does not describe any infoldings. Porin is a type of protein that allows for the transport of substances across membranes and is not an infolding structure.

Q17. The structure present in a eukaryotic cell but absent in prokaryotic cells is;

• A. DNA
• B. Ribosomes
• C. Cell surface membrane
• D. Nucleus✓

Explanation: The defining difference, between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells, is membrane-bound organelles including the nucleus. Eukaryotic cells possess membrane-bound organelles but prokaryotes do not.All other three options describe structures common to both, i.e. DNA, ribosomes (which are organelles but not membrane bound), and cell surface membrane.

Q18. If water has a high latent heat of vaporization, how could this property of water be helpful to plants and animals?

• A. With the release of large amount of water, a small amount of heat loss can take place.
• B. With the release of small amount of water vapours, a great amount of heat loss can take place.✓
• C. It will keep their temperature very high.
• D. No cooling effect, with the release of even a large amount of water vapours.

Explanation: As per the formula Q=mL, since water has a high latent heat of vaporization (L), for a small mass or amount of water (m), a large amount of energy (Q) will be released which results in a large amount of heat loss, enabling the organism to remain cool via sweating (animals) or transpiration (plants). Option A describes this effect but in reverse, option C states the opposite effect as this process prevents their temperature from becoming too high, and option D is false as a cooling effect does indeed occur.

Q19. Nowadays every newborn gets regular shots of vaccine for polio. It contains _ for polio to make a child immune against this disease.

• A. Antibiotics
• B. Antibodies
• C. Antigens✓
• D. Antisera

Explanation: A vaccine elicits an immune response by the host so that the host is better equipped to fight against the invading organism, in any potential future instance, via the production of memory cells. It may do so by containing the antigens of the invading organism (in this case, poliovirus) so that the host’s immune system produces memory cells against the specific organism, thereby conferring active immunity against the disease. Antibiotics (option A) are not present in vaccines; they are drugs used to treat bacterial illnesses. Antibodies (option B) are not present in vaccines; they are proteins, produced by plasma cells, to ward off infection. They are produced by the immune system to fight an active infection, but they are not used in vaccines since they do not confer active immunity as the host does not produce memory cells against the invading organism. Antisera (option D) is a blood serum preparation that contains antibodies against a certain antigen or disease; they are used as a treatment for certain conditions and do not confer active immunity to the individual.

Q20. Coccyx vertebrae are located in:

• A. Cervical region
• B. Lumbar region
• C. Pelvic region✓
• D. Thoracic region

Explanation: The coccyx, also known as the tailbone, is a small, triangular bone resembling a shortened tail located at the bottom of the spine in the pelvic region. It is composed of three to five coccygeal vertebrae or spinal bones. The cervical spine is the most superior portion of the vertebral column, lying between the cranium and the thoracic vertebrae. It consists of seven distinct vertebrae. The thoracic spine is the longest region of the spine, and by some measures it is also the most complex. Connecting with the cervical spine above and the lumbar spine below, the thoracic spine runs from the base of the neck down to the abdomen. The thoracic spine has 12 vertebrae stacked on top of each other, labeled from T1 down to T12. The lumbar spine (lower back) consists of five vertebrae in the lower part of the spine, between the ribs and the pelvis. The five lumbar vertebrae are numbered L1 to L5

Q21. Crossing over takes place during _ of meiosis.

• A. Prophase I✓
• B. Telophase I
• C. Metaphase I
• D. Anaphase I

Explanation: Meiosis consists of two divisions, both of which follow the same stages as mitosis (prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase). Meiosis is preceded by interphase, in which DNA is replicated to produce chromosomes consisting of two sister chromatids. A second growth phase called interkinesis may occur between meiosis I and II, however no DNA replication occurs in this stage:Prophase I: Chromosomes condense, nuclear membrane dissolves, homologous chromosomes form bivalents, crossing over occurs.Crossing over occurs in Prophase I when homologous chromosomes pair up, forming a tetrad, and then non-sister chromatids exchange genetic material at points called chiasmata. This genetic exchange, known as recombination, shuffles alleles and creates new combinations of genes on the chromosomes. The process involves enzymes breaking DNA at similar locations on each chromosome and then reattaching the broken ends in a criss-cross pattern, resulting in genetically unique gametes. Metaphase I: Spindle fibres from opposing centrosomes connect to bivalents (at centromeres) and align them along the middle of the cell.Anaphase I: Spindle fibres contract and split the bivalent, homologous chromosomes move to opposite poles of the cell.Telophase I: Chromosomes decondense, nuclear membrane may reform, cell divides (cytokinesis) to form two haploid daughter cells.

Q22. During breathing, air from pharynx enters to:

• A. Trachea✓
• B. Bronchioles
• C. Alveoli
• D. Bronchi

Explanation: When you inhale through your nose or mouth, air travels down your pharynx (back of your throat), passes through your larynx (voice box) and into your trachea (windpipe). Your trachea is divided into two air passages called bronchial tubes. One bronchial tube leads to your left lung, the other to your right lung.

Q23. Which of the following holds the alpha helix of protein in its place:

• A. R group
• B. Disulfide bond
• C. Amino group
• D. Hydrogen bond✓

Explanation: The α-helix is a right-handed helix with the peptide bonds present on the inside and the side chains extending outward. It is stabilized by the regular formation of hydrogen bonds parallel to the axis of the helix; they are formed between the amino and carbonyl groups of every fourth peptide bond.

Q24. If molecule can bind to another site of the enzyme rather than the true active site, it is referred as _:

• A. Non-competitive inhibitors✓
• B. Allosteric inhibition
• C. Competitive inhibitors
• D. Irreversible inhibition

Explanation: The correct answer is Non-competitive inhibitors. These inhibitors bind to an enzyme at a site other than the active site, causing a conformational change that reduces enzyme activity. Unlike competitive inhibitors, non-competitive inhibitors do not compete with the substrate for the active site. Allosteric inhibition is also a form of non-competitive inhibition but refers specifically to binding at an allosteric site which is a regulatory site. Competitive inhibitors bind to the active site, directly competing with the substrate and do not bind to other sites. Irreversible inhibition involves covalent binding that permanently inactivates the enzyme, which is not the case described in the question.

Q25. When a nerve impulse jumps from one node of Ranvier to the next in a myelinated neuron, it's called _.

• A. Synapses
• B. Saltatory conduction✓
• C. Resting potential
• D. Membrane potential

Explanation: Saltatory conduction is the propagation of action potentials along myelinated axons from one node of Ranvier to the next node, increasing the conduction velocity of action potentials.In the central nervous system, a synapse is a small gap at the end of a neuron that allows a signal to pass from one neuron to the next.Resting potential is the imbalance of electrical charge that exists between the interior of electrically excitable neurons (nerve cells) and their surroundings.Membrane potential (also transmembrane potential or membrane voltage) is the difference in electric potential between the interior and the exterior of a biological cell.Thus, Option B is correct.

Q26. The ability to distinguish between two separate points/objects is:

• A. Magnification
• B. Fractionation
• C. Centrifugation
• D. Resolution✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Resolution. Resolution is a key concept in microscopy and imaging, as it defines the ability to distinguish between two closely positioned objects as separate entities. This clarity is essential for detailed analysis in cell biology.While Magnification increases the size of the image, it does not enhance clarity or detail necessary for resolving two close points. Fractionation and Centrifugation are techniques related to separating components of mixtures based on size or density, and do not pertain to the optical resolution of images.

Q27. Human immunodeficiency virus attacks which of the following cells for its multiplication?

• A. Neutrophils
• B. Macrophages
• C. Cytotoxic T cells
• D. Helper T cells✓

Explanation: Human immunodeficiency virus has certain characteristics: High selectivity. It infects only cells of the immune system, and only those that have CD4 receptors: mainly T-lymphocytes, as well as monocytes, macrophages, and some other cell types. The ability of the virus to mutate.

Q28. Which one of the following is a polymer of alpha-d glucose?

• A. Cellulose
• B. Glycogen✓
• C. Insulin
• D. Chitin

Explanation: When two alpha D-glucose molecules join together with a more commonly occurring isomer of glucose and form a glycosidic linkage, the term is known as an α-1,4-glycosidic bond. Glycogen is a readily mobilized storage form of glucose. It is a very large, branched polymer of glucose residues that can be broken down to yield glucose molecules when energy is needed. Most of the glucose residues in glycogen are linked by α-1,4-glycosidic bonds.

Q29. Thin filaments of muscles contain _ chains of actin molecules.

• A. Two✓
• B. One
• C. Three
• D. Four

Explanation: The actin molecules contain active sites to which myosin heads will bind during contraction. The thin filaments contain two intertwined bands of actin monomers. Alongside, they possess regulatory proteins called tropomyosin and troponin, which regulate the interaction of actin and myosin.

Q30. The reflex action is the phenomenon which only involves:

• A. Receptors and effectors
• B. Receptors, effectors, and spinal cord✓
• C. Brain, receptors, and spinal cord
• D. Receptors, neurons, and the brain

Explanation: In a reflex action, the stimulus is sansed by receptors, travels via sensory and relay neurons within the spinal cord, and activates the effector, without involvement of the brain.

Q31. In an action potential, the permeability of sodium ions in the neurons increases due to:

• A. Repolarization
• B. Sodium ions forming ionic bonding
• C. The opening of sodium channels/gates✓
• D. The action of the acetylcholinesterase enzyme

Explanation: Voltage-gated Na channels open during depolarization. allowing sodium ions to flow into the neuron. This influx of positive ions makes the inside of the cell less negative and triggers the action potential.

Q32. During spermatogenesis, the _, which are haploid cells eventually mature into spermatozoa/mature sperms:

• A. Spermatogonia
• B. Primary spermatocytes
• C. Spermatids✓
• D. Secondary spermatocytes

Explanation: Option A, spermatogonia, are diploid cells and are the first stage in the process of spermatogenesis. They have not undergone meiotic division, and as such are diploid.Option B, primary spermatocytes, are also diploid cells, as they arise from mitotic divisions of the spermatogonia which themselves are diploid. They are not a product of meiosis.Option C, spermatids, is the correct answer. This is because they are the end product of Meiosis II and as such are haploid cells. Furthermore, they themselves are the direct precursors to mature spermatozoa as they further differentiate to form mature sperm cells.Option D, secondary spermatocytes, are also haploid cells and are the cells which give rise to spermatids. This is not the correct answer as the question is asking for a haploid cell that matures into spermatozoa/mature sperm cells. Secondary spermatocytes give rise to spermatids first which then go on to mature into spermatozoa so, spermatids fit the given scenario.

Q33. The type of energy, reduced by the enzymes, for biological reactions to occur is called the:

• A. Light Energy
• B. Heat Energy
• C. Active Energy
• D. Activation Energy✓

Explanation: The type of energy reduced by enzymes to facilitate biological reactions is referred to as "activation energy." Enzymes play a crucial role in biological systems by lowering the activation energy required for a chemical reaction to occur. Activation energy is the energy input needed to initiate a chemical reaction by overcoming the energy barrier associated with the conversion of reactants into products. Enzymes accelerate reactions by providing an alternative pathway with a lower activation energy, making it easier for the reaction to proceed.

Q34. Homozygous means:

• A. Alleles in an organism
• B. Two different alleles of a gene
• C. Having two identical genes
• D. Having two identical alleles of a gene✓

Explanation: Homozygous refers to an organism having two identical alleles for a specific gene, meaning both alleles are the same, whether they are dominant or recessive. This is in contrast to heterozygous, where two different alleles are present. Option D correctly captures this definition. Option A is too general as it only mentions alleles without specifying their sameness or difference. Option B describes a heterozygous state, which involves different alleles. Option C incorrectly uses the term 'genes' instead of 'alleles', which is a crucial distinction when discussing genotypes.

Q35. The term “Loss of appetite” refers to a disease:

• A. Botulism
• B. Anorexia nervosa✓
• C. Obesity
• D. Bulimia nervosa

Explanation: Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an abnormally low body weight, an intense fear of gaining weight, and a distorted perception of weight. Botulism is a rare and potentially fatal illness caused by a toxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum. Obesity is a complex disease involving an excessive amount of body fat. Bulimia nervosa, commonly called bulimia, is an eating disorder characterized by an obsession with binge eating.

Q36. Skull, vertebral column, ribs, and sternum form:

• A. Appendicular skeleton
• B. Hydrostatic skeleton
• C. Exoskeleton
• D. Axial skeleton✓

Explanation: The axial skeleton forms a vertical axis that includes the head, neck, back, and chest. It has 80 bones and consists of the skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage. The appendicular skeleton is the portion of the skeleton of vertebrates consisting of the bones that support the appendages. There are 126 bones. The appendicular skeleton includes the skeletal elements within the limbs, as well as the supporting shoulder girdle, pectoral, and pelvic girdle. A hydrostatic skeleton is a skeleton formed by a fluid-filled compartment within the body, called the coelom. An exoskeleton is an external skeleton that supports and protects an animal's body.

Q37. If an α-helix of a polypeptide consist of 360 amino acids, how many turns does the helix contain?

• A. 3.6 turns
• B. 100 turns✓
• C. 360 turns
• D. The number of turns can not be determind

Explanation: An alpha(α) helix contains 3.6 amino acids per turn of the helix. If a polypeptide consists of 360 amino acids, the turns in the helix would be 100. 360÷3.6=100 amino acids.

Q38. If a carrier haemophilic female (XHXh) is married to a haemophilic male (XhY). What will be the ratio of presence of haemophilia in the children. Select best answer from the given options.

• A. 100% of all females and males will be haemophilic
• B. Females have a 50% chance of being haemophilic, and males will be 100% haemophilic
• C. Carrier female 25%, haemophilic female 25%, normal male 25%, and haemophilic male 25%✓
• D. Females and males both have a 50% chance of being haemophilic

Explanation: In the genetic cross between a carrier female (XHXh) and a haemophilic male (XhY), the possible genotypes of the offspring can be determined using a Punnett square. The resulting offspring can be:Carrier daughter: XHXhHaemophilic daughter: XhXhNormal son: XHYHaemophilic son: XhYThis results in four possible outcomes, each with an equal probability of 25%. Therefore, option C correctly describes this scenario.Option A is incorrect because it suggests all offspring will be haemophilic, which is not possible with the given genotypes. Option B is also incorrect as it implies all males must be haemophilic, which requires the mother to be XhXh. Option D simplifies the probabilities too much and does not accurately represent the distinct outcomes of the cross. Thus, option C is the most accurate representation of the ratios of haemophilia in the children.

Q39. Which hormonal pair would maintain the endometrium and make it receptive for implantation of embryo?

• A. Luteinizing Hormone and Progesterone
• B. Estrogen and Progesterone✓
• C. Estrogen and Follicle Stimulating Hormone
• D. Luteinizing Hormone and Follicle Stimulating Hormone

Explanation: The hormonal pair that plays a crucial role in maintaining the endometrium (the lining of the uterus) and making it receptive for the implantation of an embryo consists of progesterone and estrogen. During the menstrual cycle, estrogen is primarily produced by the developing ovarian follicles. In the early phase of the menstrual cycle (follicular phase), rising estrogen levels stimulate the growth and proliferation of the endometrial tissue. Estrogen also promotes the development of blood vessels and glands in the endometrium. Following ovulation, the ruptured follicle transforms into a structure called the corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone. Progesterone acts in conjunction with estrogen to further prepare the endometrium for possible implantation. It causes the glands in the endometrium to become more secretory, increases the thickness of the uterine lining, and helps create a receptive environment for a potential embryo.

Q40. The thick filaments, in a myofibril of muscles, are made of _.

• A. Myoglobin
• B. Myosin✓
• C. Actin
• D. Haemoglobin

Explanation: Option A, myoglobin, is a heme-containing protein found in muscles that binds to oxygen, which it supplies to muscle tissue. Option B, myosin, is the correct answer as it forms thick filaments in a myofibril. Option C, actin, forms thin filaments in a myofibril. Option D, haemoglobin, is the heme-containing protein found in red blood cells and serves to carry oxygen within the blood.

Q41. Glycosidic bond is formed by the:

• A. Removal of Oxygen
• B. Addition of Oxygen
• C. Removal of water✓
• D. Addition of water

Explanation: Glycosidic bond is a condensation reaction between two sugar units, where the H- group from one sugar interacts with the -OH group on another to release water and link the sugar units together to form a polysaccharide.

Q42. Which cells synthesize testosterone?

• A. Adrenal medulla of adrenal glands
• B. Adrenal cortex of adrenal glands
• C. Interstitial cells of testis✓
• D. Graffian follicle

Explanation: Interstitial cells also known as Leydig cells are present in intertubular spaces i.e. adjacent to seminiferous tubules of testes. These cells are responsible for the successful production of male sex hormone i.e. testosterone.

Q43. Survival of the fittest depends upon:

• A. Acquired characters of the organisms
• B. Genetic drift
• C. Depends in part on the hereditary consulation of the surviving individuals✓
• D. Natural catastrophes

Explanation: The survival of the fittest, a term made famous in the fifth edition (published in 1869) of On the Origin of Species by British naturalist Charles Darwin, suggested that organisms best adjusted to their environment are the most successful in surviving and reproducing.

Q44. According to Darwin, a diverse life-form could arise from:

• A. Common ancestor✓
• B. Random mutation
• C. The process of special creation
• D. Inheritance of aquired characters

Explanation: Through natural selection, Darwin suggested, genetically diverse species could arise from a common ancestor.

Q45. Doctors use a stethoscope to hear the sounds produced during each cardiac cycle. The second sound is heard when:

• A. AV node receives a signal from SA node
• B. AV valves open up
• C. Ventricular walls vibrate due to gushing in of blood from atria
• D. Semilunar valves close down after the blood flows into vessels from ventricles✓

Explanation: The second heart sound (S2) is produced by the closure of the semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary valves) after the ventricles have ejected blood into the aorta and pulmonary artery. This prevents backflow into the ventricles. The other options involve processes that do not produce the second heart sound: the AV node's signal reception is an electrical event without an associated sound; the opening of the AV valves produces the first heart sound (S1); and ventricular wall vibrations, though occurring, are not responsible for the distinct second heart sound.

Q46. Which one of the following animals has two separate circulatory pathways?

• A. Whale✓
• B. Shark
• C. Frog
• D. Lizard

Explanation: Whale is a mammal and in mammals, two separate circulatory pathways are found — systemic circulation and pulmonary circulation. Oxygenated and deoxygenated bloods received by the left and right atria respectively, pass on to the left and right ventricles. Thus, oxygenated and deoxygenated bloods are not mixed. This is referred to as double circulation. So A is the correct option.

Q47. According to the theory of natural selection, organisms produce:

• A. Offspring in numbers that match the available resources
• B. Offspring to balance resource consumption
• C. Offspring to increase resource availability
• D. More offspring than the environment can support✓

Explanation: According to the theory of natural selection, organisms produce more offspring than the environment can support. This overproduction leads to competition for limited resources. Those offspring with advantageous traits are more likely to survive and reproduce, thus propagating favorable traits through generations, driving evolution. This makes option D correct.Option A is incorrect because it suggests that offspring numbers are adjusted to match resources, which contradicts the principle of overproduction intrinsic to natural selection.Option B is incorrect as it implies a resource management goal, which is not a concept in natural selection.Option C is incorrect because it suggests offspring are produced to increase resources, which does not align with the theory of natural selection focusing on survival and adaptation within existing resources.

Q48. In cross-section, each Centriole consists of nine (each in triplets) of:

• A. Microfilaments
• B. Microvilli
• C. Microtubules✓
• D. Intermediate filaments

Explanation: Typical centrioles are made of 9 triplets of microtubules organized with radial symmetry.Microfilaments, also called actin filaments, are polymers of the protein actin that are part of a cell's cytoskeleton.Microvilli are microscopic cellular membrane protrusions that increase the surface area for diffusion and minimize any increase in volume, and are involved in a wide variety of functions.Intermediate filaments are important components of the cell's cytoskeletal system. They may stabilize organelles, like the nucleus, or they may be involved in specialized junctions. They are distinguished from "thin filaments" by their size (8-10 nm) and the fact that thin filaments are motile.

Q49. In immunoglobulins/antibodies, two light chains and two heavy chains are linked to each other by:

• A. Covalent bonds
• B. Hydrogen bonds
• C. Ionic bonds
• D. Disulphide bonds✓

Explanation: Each antibody is made up of two short light (L) peptide chains and two long heavy (H) peptide chains (H2L2) joined to each other by disulfide bonds. Disulfide bonds are covalent linkages between the sulphur-containing side chains of cysteine amino acids. The peptide chains are arranged in a Y-shaped structure. Each chain in the antibody has both constant and variable regions. The amino acid sequence and conformation of the variable region keep changing from one type of antibody to another. The conformation and amino acid sequence of the constant region remain the same. The unique antigen-binding site in each antibody that is compatible with specific antigens is composed of the variable regions of both the heavy and the light chains.

Q50. The first part of the large intestine is:

• A. Colon
• B. Appendix
• C. Caecum✓
• D. Rectum

Explanation: The large intestine begins with the caecum, a pouch-like structure that connects with the ileum of the small intestine. The appendix is a small finger-like extension of the caecum, the colon is the longest part of the large intestine, and the rectum is the last part leading to the anus.

Q51. Scapula is a:

• A. Tail bone
• B. Hip bone
• C. Skull bone
• D. Shoulder bone✓

Explanation: The scapula or shoulder blade is the bone that connects the clavicle to the humerus. The scapula forms the posterior of the shoulder girdle. It is a sturdy, flat, triangular bone. The scapula provides attachment to several groups of muscles.

Q52. Which lipid is hydrophilic and soluble?

• A. Triglycerides
• B. Phospholipids✓
• C. Waxes
• D. Terpenoids

Explanation: Phospholipids are soluble in both water and oil (amphiphilic) because the hydrocarbon tails of two fatty acids are still hydrophobic, but the phosphate group end is hydrophilic. Phospholipids are the major component of cell membrane to form lipid bilayers.

Q53. Phages which show lysogenic cycle are known as:

• A. Enveloped Phage
• B. Virulent Phage
• C. Temperate phages✓
• D. Bacteriophage

Explanation: Temperate phages are some bacteriophages which display a lysogenic life cycle. Lysogeny is characterized by an integration of the bacteriophage nucleic acid into the host bacteria genome and becomes prophage. In this condition, the bacterium continues to live and reproduce normally. Bacteriophages that only use the lytic cycle are called virulent phages. So, the correct answer is 'temperate phages'.

Q54. Organs specialized to perform different functions but structurally alike are:

• A. Analogous organs
• B. Homologous organs✓
• C. Autologous organs
• D. Anuclogous organs

Explanation: Organs that have the same internal structure but perform different functions are called homologous organs.Homologous organs result from divergent evolution, where a common ancestral structure evolves to perform different functions in different species, adapting to new environments. This occurs because populations become isolated and face different selective pressures, leading to diversification. A classic example is the forelimbs of vertebrates like humans, bats, whales, and cheetahs, which share a similar bone structure but are adapted for grasping, flying, swimming, and running, respectively. Analogous organs are the opposite of homologous organs, which have similar functions but different origins.

Q55. The low levels of surfactant produced by the alveolar epithelium cause:

• A. Respiratory distress syndrome✓
• B. Emphysema
• C. Bronchitis
• D. Asthma

Explanation: The key feature of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) is the insufficient production of surfactant in the lungs.Emphysema is a lung condition that causes shortness of breath. In people with emphysema, the air sacs in the lungs (alveoli) are damaged. Over time, the inner walls of the air sacs weaken and rupture — creating larger air spaces instead of many small ones.Bronchitis is an infection of the main airways of the lungs (bronchi), causing them to become irritated and inflamed.Asthma is a condition in which your airways narrow and swell and may produce extra mucus. This can make breathing difficult and trigger coughing.

Q56. Which of the following provides resistance against high temperature?

• A. Cysts
• B. Spores✓
• C. Cell wall
• D. Capsules

Explanation: Endospores (spores withing the vegetative cells) are tough dormant structures that form inside the cell wall of certain types of bacteria, such as Bacillus. These tough capsules form in response to adverse conditions such as drought or high temperatures.

Q57. Which of the following is a dominant x-linked trait in human?

• A. Testicular feminization
• B. Haemophllia
• C. Colorblindness
• D. Hypophosphatemic rickets✓

Explanation: Humans have many X - linked traits of which some like haemophilia and colour blindness are recessive while others like hypophosphatemic or vitamin D resistant rickets are dominant. X - linked dominant is a trait which is determined by an X linked dominant gene, while X - linked recessive is a trait that is determined by an X - linked recessive gene. Their patterns of inheritance are very different from each other.For a deeper understanding, please refer to the section "Sex linkage in humans" (PTB, chapter 22).

Q58. Which enzyme is administered to the patients of Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disease (SCID)?

• A. Adenosine Deaminase (ADA)✓
• B. Pancreatic Enzyme
• C. ß-galactosidase
• D. ß-lactamase

Explanation: 'SCID' is due to Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency so, it is administered to overcome the deficiency. Hence, option A is correct. Pancreatic enzymes (B) partake in digestion. Beta-galactosidase (C) breaks down lactose into glucose and galactose in certain organisms. Beta-lactamase (D) is an enzyme produced by bacteria, that confers their resistance against beta-lactam drugs, such as penicillin, as it breaks down the beta-lactam ring present in these drugs.

Q59. Site of protein synthesis in cells are:

• A. Ribosomes✓
• B. Endoplasmic Reticulum
• C. Nucleolus
• D. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

Explanation: The site of protein synthesis in the cell are ribosomes. These are present attached to the surface of the rough endoplasmic reticulum and also in the free state in the cytoplasm. These organelles are involved in the process of translation which is the conversion of the mRNA to protein.

Q60. Which one of the following cells does not have a nucleus:

• A. Eosinophils
• B. Neutrophils
• C. Basophils
• D. Platelets✓

Explanation: Platelets are irregularly shaped and typically measure only 2–3 micrometers in diameter. Platelets do not possess a nucleus as they are not true cells, but are instead classified as cell fragments produced by megakaryocytes. These are involved in blood clotting.Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are all types of white blood cells that contain a nucleus.

Q61. Which is the pacemaker of human heart:

• A. AV node
• B. SA node✓
• C. Purkinjie fibres
• D. Bundle of His

Explanation: SA node generates impulses that initiate heartbeats.

Q62. Which statement is correct about atrial systole?

• A. Atria relax and ventricles contract
• B. Atria contract and ventricle also contract
• C. Atria and ventricles are relaxed
• D. Ventricles remain relax while atria contract✓

Explanation: During atrial systole following events occur:• AV valves open• SL valves close• Muscles of atria contract and pump blood to ventricles• Ventricles are relaxed and receive blood from atria.

Q63. Divergent evolution produces:

• A. Vital Organs
• B. Homologous Organs✓
• C. Vestigial Organs
• D. Analogous Organs

Explanation: Homologous organs are created in divergent evolution. Homologous organs refer to the organs with similar structures but having different functions. The evolution of apes and humans from common primate ancestors is an example of divergent evolution.

Q64. Anti-venom given after a snake bite venom is an example of:

• A. Artificial active immunity
• B. Artificial passive immunity✓
• C. Natural active immunity
• D. Natural passive immunity

Explanation: Therefore, the correct answer is B) Artificial passive immunity, as the administration of anti-venom provides immediate protection through the transfer of preformed antibodies. Artificially acquired passive immunity is protection acquired by giving a person an injection or transfusion of antibodies made by someone else. These antibodies neutralize the infectious agents in the usual way, but the protection lasts only a few weeks because the antibodies gradually break down and are not replaced.

Q65. The cisternae breaks up into vesicles from _ , _ of Golgi complex.

• A. Convex, maturing face
• B. Concave, forming face
• C. Convex, forming face
• D. Concave, maturing face✓

Explanation: The trans face of golgi apparatus (concave surface) where the cisternae breaks up to form new vesicles is also known as the maturing face.

Q66. If a heterozygous round pea plant is crossed with a wrinkled pea plant, what is the probability of homozygous phenotypes in the progeny?

• A. 25%
• B. 50%✓
• C. 75%
• D. 100%

Explanation: When a heterozygous round seeded plant (Rr) is crossed with a homozygous wrinkled seeded plant (rr), in the next generation, 50% of progeny are heterozygous round (Rr) and 50% progeny are homozygous wrinkled (rr).

Q67. Inside ovary, primary oocyte divides through first meiotic division, forming two haploid cells, the secondary oocyte and:

• A. Ovum
• B. Oogonium
• C. Follicle cell
• D. Polar body✓

Explanation: Inside the ovary, during the process of oogenesis, the primary oocyte undergoes the first meiotic division, resulting in the formation of two haploid cells. These cells are the secondary oocyte and a smaller cell called the first polar body. The first polar body is a smaller cell that contains a portion of the genetic material but minimal cytoplasm. The polar bodies typically do not play a direct role in fertilization and are eventually broken down or reabsorbed.

Q68. Which hormone causes the contraction walls of the uterus during the process of birth?

• A. FSH
• B. STH
• C. Oxytocin✓
• D. LTH

Explanation: During birth the oxytocin causes the smooth muscle in the uterine wall to contract.Growth hormone (GH) or somatotropin, also known as human growth hormones (hGH or HGH) in its human form, is a peptide hormone that stimulates growth, cell reproduction, and cell regeneration in humans and other animals.Follicle stimulating hormone is one of the hormones essential to pubertal development and the function of women's ovaries and men's testes. In women, this hormone stimulates the growth of ovarian follicles in the ovary before the release of an egg from one follicle at ovulation.Prolactin, also known as lactotropin (LTH), is a protein best known for its role in enabling mammals, usually females, to produce milk.

Q69. Which of the following is Unsaturated “Fatty Acid”?

• A. Stearic Acid
• B. Palmitic Acid
• C. Butyric Acid
• D. Oleic Acid✓

Explanation: Oleic acid is a mono-unsaturated omega-9 fatty acid found in various animal and vegetable sources.

Q70. Identify the bicuspid valve:

• A. A
• B. B✓
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: Bicuspid valve has 2 flaps which is present in B.

Q71. The walls of atria and the walls of ventricles are relaxed during:

• A. Systole
• B. Diastole✓
• C. Atrial systole
• D. Ventricular systole

Explanation: Diastole is the phase of relaxation in the cardiac cycle. During diastole, the heart chambers relax and fill with blood.

Q72. The vein which is formed by many veins collecting deoxygenated blood with absorbed food from different parts of the alimentary canal, is called:

• A. Hepatic portal vein✓
• B. Iliac vein
• C. Hepatic vein
• D. Renal vein

Explanation: The hepatic portal vein collects blood from the entire alimentary canal and carries it to the inferior vena cava.

Q73. Femoral veins pour deoxygenated blood into:

• A. Renal veins
• B. Femoral veins
• C. Iliac veins✓
• D. Hepatic veins

Explanation: The femoral veins join together to form the common iliac vein, which then joins the opposite common iliac vein to form the inferior vena cava. These femoral veins carry their blood to the inferior vena cava.

Q74. The external solution having more concentration than the cell sap is known:

• A. Hypertonic solution✓
• B. Hypotonic solution
• C. Isotonic solution
• D. None of these

Explanation: The correct answer is a hypertonic solution. In osmoregulation, when a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, the external environment has a higher concentration of solutes compared to the inside of the cell. This concentration difference causes water to move out of the cell through osmosis, leading to a decrease in cell volume and potential plasmolysis. Conversely, a hypotonic solution would cause water to move into the cell, and an isotonic solution would result in no net water movement. None of these is incorrect because the correct term for a solution with higher solute concentration than the cell sap is indeed a hypertonic solution.

Q75. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four­ year­ girl with Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) enzyme deficiency?

• A. Gene therapy✓
• B. Chemotherapy
• C. Immunotherapy
• D. Radiation therapy

Explanation: Gene therapy is a technique of genetic engineering which involves the replacement of a faulty/disease-causing gene by a normal healthy functional gene. The first clinical ex-vivo gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4­-year old girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA) enzyme deficiency. This enzyme is very important for the immune system to function and the deficiency of this enzyme can lead to severe combined immune deficiency (SCID).

Q76. Homeostasis is the _

• A. Tendency to change with environmental changes
• B. Tendency to resist change and maintain stability✓
• C. Disturbance in regulatory control
• D. Use of plants and animal extracts in homeopathy

Explanation: Homoeostasis is the regulation, by an organism, of the chemical composition of its body fluids and other aspects of its internal environment so that physiological processes can proceed at optimum rates. It involves monitoring changes in the external and internal environment by means of receptors and adjusting the composition of the body fluids accordingly; excretion and osmoregulation are important in this process. Example of homeostatic regulation are the maintenance of the acid-base balance and body temperature.

Q77. Which pair is correct?

• A. Sweat – Temperature regulation✓
• B. Saliva – Sense of taste
• C. Sebum – Sexual attraction
• D. Humerus – Hindleg

Explanation: Sweat is secreted by sweat glands of skin and helps in regulating body temperature. Saliva is secreted by salivary glands and helps in digestion (carbohydrate digestion). Sebum is the waxy secretion secreted by sebaceous glands. Sebum is a fatty mildly antiseptic material that protects, lubricates, and waterproofs the skin and hair and helps prevent desiccation. Humerus is the long bone of the upper arm. It articulates with the scapula at the glenoid cavity and with the ulna and radius at the elbow.

Q78. The kidney of an adult frog is:

• A. Metanephros
• B. Opisthonephros
• C. Pronephros
• D. Mesonephros✓

Explanation: The mesonephros kidney is present in both the adult as well as the embryo of the frog. A mesonephros develops from the middle part of the intermediate mesoderm, posterior to each pronephros, soon after its degeneration.

Q79. What is correct about myoglobin?

• A. It is an iron-containing protein pigment
• B. It is found in muscle fibers
• C. It stores oxygen
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: Myoglobin is indeed an iron-containing protein pigment, which is what gives muscle tissues their reddish color. It is found in muscle fibers, where it plays a vital role in storing oxygen. This oxygen storage is crucial for muscle function, as it allows for sustained energy production during muscle contraction. Each of the individual options describes a true characteristic of myoglobin, making 'All of these' the correct choice.

Q80. The heart sound ‘lub’ is produced when:

• A. The mitral valve is closed✓
• B. The semilunar valves at the base of the aorta get closed
• C. The tricuspid valve is opened
• D. The mitral valve is opened

Explanation: Therefore, the correct answer is B) The semilunar valves at the base of the aorta get closed, as their closure contributes to the 'dub' sound of the heart.

Q81. The neurogenic heart is the characteristic feature of:

• A. Humans
• B. Arthropods✓
• C. Rabbits
• D. Rats

Explanation: Arthropods have a neurogenic heart, where heartbeat is initiated by nerve impulses from a ganglion. In contrast, vertebrates like humans, rabbits, and rats have myogenic hearts, which beat due to specialized heart muscle tissue.

Q82. The lymph serves to:

• A. Return the interstitial fluid to the blood✓
• B. Return the WBCs and RBCs to the lymph nodes
• C. Transport CO2 to the lungs
• D. Transport O2 to the brain

Explanation: Lymph collects excess interstitial fluid, containing water, proteins, and wastes, and returns it to the blood, maintaining fluid balance in tissues.

Q83. In veins, valves are present to check the backward flow of blood flowing at:

• A. Atmospheric pressure
• B. High pressure
• C. Low pressure✓
• D. All of these

Explanation: Veins carry blood under low pressure back to the heart. Valves prevent backflow, ensuring blood moves efficiently against gravity.

Q84. The life span of human WBC is approximately:

• A. Between 2 to 3 months
• B. More than 4 months
• C. Less than 10 days
• D. From months to years✓

Explanation: The correct answer is From months to years because the life span of white blood cells (WBCs) varies significantly among different types. For instance, memory T cells can persist for years, providing long-term immunity, while neutrophils typically have a life span of less than a week. The other options are incorrect as they either underestimate or misrepresent the life span of various WBC types.

Q85. Bowman's capsule continues as:

• A. Proximal Tubule✓
• B. Distal Tubule
• C. Loop of Henle
• D. Urine Collecting Duct

Explanation: The proximal tubule, also known as the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT), is a critical component of the nephron, which is the basic structural and functional unit of the kidney. The nephron is responsible for the filtration of blood and the formation of urine. The proximal tubule is the first segment of the nephron, and it plays a crucial role in the reabsorption of water and essential solutes from the filtrate, as well as the secretion of certain substances into the filtrate. Overall, the proximal tubule plays a crucial role in the regulation of electrolyte balance, the reabsorption of nutrients, and the concentration of urine. It is followed by the loop of Henle and the distal tubule in the nephron, which continue the processing of filtrate before the formation of urine in the collecting duct.

Q86. After coming out of the capsule as efferent arteriole, the blood vessel subdivides again into another network of capillaries called :

• A. Vasa Recta
• B. Afferent Arteriole
• C. Peritubular Capillaries✓
• D. Renal Vein

Explanation: Peritubular capillaries constitute a network of tiny blood vessels that travel alongside nephrons, allowing reabsorption and secretion between blood and the inner lumen of the nephron. Peritubular capillaries surround the proximal and distal tubules, as well as the loop of Henle where they are known as Vasa recta.

Q87. Blood is specially filtered in the glomerulus because glomerular walls are porous, and the fraction that reaches here provides the filtration pressure:

• A. Osmotic Pressure
• B. Blood Pressure✓
• C. Interstitial Pressure
• D. Diffusion Pressure

Explanation: The net filtration pressure (NFP) at the glomerulus is the difference between the net hydrostatic pressure and the blood colloid osmotic pressure acting across the glomerular capillaries. This is the average pressure forcing water and dissolved materials out of the glomerular capillaries into the capsular space.

Q88. It circulates blood through a capsule in a nephron:

• A. Afferent Arteriole
• B. Peritubular Capillaries
• C. Efferent Arteriole
• D. Glomerulus✓

Explanation: The glomerulus is a tiny, ball-shaped cluster of blood vessels located within the renal cortex of the kidney. It is a critical component of the nephron, which is the functional unit of the kidney responsible for filtering blood and producing urine. Overall, the glomerulus plays a central role in the initial filtration of blood to create the glomerular filtrate. This filtrate undergoes further processing in the renal tubules, where essential substances are reabsorbed, and waste products are eliminated to produce urine. The glomerulus is a key component of the nephron's filtration system and is essential for maintaining overall body homeostasis.

Q89. The _ of the kidney are gradually concentrated from cortical to medullary part of kidney.

• A. Interstitial Fluid
• B. Glomemlar Filtrate
• C. Blood
• D. Interstitial Fluid as well as Filtrate✓

Explanation: The filtrate of the kidney is gradually concentrated from the cortical to medullary part of the kidney. The kidneys play a vital role in the filtration and excretion of waste products and excess substances from the blood to form urine. The initial filtration of blood occurs in the renal corpuscles located in the outer cortex of the kidney. As the filtrate moves through the nephron, which is the functional unit of the kidney, it goes through various segments, including the proximal tubule, loop of Henle, and distal tubule. As the filtrate moves deeper into the kidney, it enters the medullary region, where the loop of Henle extends into the inner medulla. The loop of Henle is responsible for creating a concentration gradient within the kidney medulla, which is essential for water reabsorption and urine concentration. In the medullary part of the kidney, the nephrons play a crucial role in reabsorbing water and solutes from the filtrate back into the bloodstream, which concentrates the remaining filtrate to form urine. The concentration gradient established by the loop of Henle enables the kidney to regulate water balance effectively and produce concentrated urine as needed, conserving water during times of dehydration.

Q90. Renal veins pour blood into:

• A. Superior vena cava
• B. Inferior vena cava✓
• C. Hepatic portal vein
• D. Jugular vein

Explanation: Renal veins drain the kidneys and pour the deoxygenated blood into the inferior vena cava.

Q91. Which of the following is not an IUPAC name of the compound?

• A. Methanoic acid
• B. Ethanoic acid
• C. Propanoic acid
• D. Propionic acid✓

Explanation: Propionic acid is a common name. Its IUPAC name is Propanoic acid. All other options are IUPAC names.

Q92. In the structure of diamond, each carbon atom is _ hybridized?

• A. sp3✓
• B. sp2
• C. sp
• D. dsp2

Explanation: In a diamond, the carbon atoms are arranged tetrahedrally. Each carbon atom is sp3 hybridised and attached to four other carbon atoms 1.544 x 10-10 metres away with a C-C-C bond angle of 109.5 degrees. It is a strong, rigid three-dimensional structure that results in an infinite network of atoms.

Q93. The amount of product according to the balanced chemical equation is called as?

• A. Theoretical yield✓
• B. Actual amount
• C. Limiting amount
• D. Stoichiometric amount

Explanation: The amount of the products obtained in a chemical reaction is called the actual yield of that reaction. The amount of the products calculated from the balanced chemical equation represents the theoretical yield. The theoretical yield is the maximum amount of the product that can be produced by a given amount of a reactant, according to balanced chemical equation.

Q94. The product of the concentrations of each ion in a saturated solution of a sparingly soluble salt at 298 K, raised to the power of their relative concentrations, is the:

• A. Ksp✓
• B. Ka
• C. Kw
• D. Kb

Explanation: This is the definition of the solubility product constant (Ksp ). It represents the equilibrium constant for the dissolution of a sparingly soluble ionic compound into its constituent ions in a saturated solution.

Q95. Ligands having two lone pair of electrons for donation to the central transition metal ion are known as:

• A. Polydentate ligands
• B. Monodentate ligand
• C. Bidentate ligands✓
• D. Hexadentate ligands

Explanation: Bidentate ligands have two lone pairs, both of which can bond to the central metal ion. Monodentate ligand is a ligand that has only one atom that coordinates directly to the central atom in a complex. A polydentate ligand is a ligand that is attached to a central metal ion by bonds from two or more donor atoms. A hexadentate ligand in coordination chemistry is a ligand that combines with a central metal atom with six bonds.

Q96. Which is the structure of polyvinyl chloride (polychloroethane)?

• A. [CCl2-CCl2]
• B. [HCCl-CH-Cl]
• C. [H2C=CH-Cl]
• D. [H2C-CH-Cl]✓

Explanation: Poly(vinyl chloride) (PVC) is a synthetic resin made from vinyl chloride and is a member of a large family of polymers broadly referred to as “vinyls.” The chemical formula for vinyl chloride is H2C=CHCl, and the formula for PVC is (H2C–CHCl)n, where n is the degree of polymerization.

Q97. Which principle contradicts the Bohr's model?

• A. Planck quantum theory
• B. Hunds rule
• C. Pauli's exclusion principle
• D. Heisenberg's uncertainty principle✓

Explanation: Bohr's model of an atom is contradicted by Heisenberg's uncertainty principle.According to Bohr's model, an electron in an atom is located at a definite distance from the nucleus and is revolving with a definite velocity around it. According to Heisenberg's uncertainty principle, it is impossible to simultaneously determine the exact position and momentum (or velocity) of the electron.

Q98. How many unpaired electrons are there in the Nitrogen atom?

• A. 3✓
• B. 4
• C. 5
• D. 6

Explanation: Nitrogen belongs to group number VA. Its electronic configuration is 1s2, 2s2, 2p3. So it has three unpaired electrons in its valence shell.

Q99. Intermolecular forces between gas molecules are significant at:

• A. High temperature and low pressure
• B. Low temperature and high pressure✓
• C. At standard temperature and pressure
• D. At high temperature and high pressure

Explanation: The effect of intermolecular forces is much more prominent at low temperatures because the molecules have less kinetic energy to overcome the intermolecular attractions.At high pressure, the molecules become closer together and the intermolecular forces become prominent.

Q100. Which of the following substances has the largest intermolecular forces of attraction?

• A. H2O✓
• B. H2S
• C. H2Se
• D. H2Te

Explanation: The strongest intermolecular force is hydrogen bonding, which is a particular subset of dipole-dipole interactions .It occurs when a hydrogen atom is in close proximity to a highly electronegative atom; namely oxygen, fluorine, nitrogen etc. Among the given option only option A has hydrogen bond hence it is the correct answer.

Q101. The correct value for the enthalpy of formation of CO is:

• A. -110kJ/mol✓
• B. -210kJ/mol
• C. +110kJ/mol
• D. +210kJ/mol

Explanation: The value of enthalpy of formation of CO is -110kJ/mol.

Q102. Copper is a typical transition metal. Its atomic number is 29. In which oxidation state does it have a partially filled orbital in d-subshell?

• A. Cu
• B. Cu+
• C. Cu-
• D. Cu2+✓

Explanation: Electronic configuration of the options are as follows:Option A, Cu: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s1, so its d subshell is filledOption B, Cu+: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10, so its d subshell is filledOption C, Cu-: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2, so its d subshell is filled.Option D, Cu2+: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d9, so its d subshell is not filled completely, one orbital is partially filled, so it is the correct answer.

Q103. The decomposition of phosphorus pentachloride in the presence of moisture takes place by the following mechanism. The rate equation for this reaction will be:

• A. Rate = k [POCl3][H2O]3
• B. Rate = k [PCl5][H2O]✓
• C. Rate = k [PCl5][H2O]4
• D. Rate = [PCl5][H2O]

Explanation: For the rate equation, the reactants of ONLY the rate-determining step, which is the slow step, are taken into account in a multi-step reaction, NOT the overall equation or the fast step. Since the slow step here consists of one mole of PCL5 and one mole of H2O in the reactants, the rate equation will contain these two substances, each raised to the power 1, which is reflected in option B only.Option A takes into account the fast step only.Option C takes into account the overall reaction.Option D does not have the rate constant k mentioned in the question.

Q104. Which type of reaction takes place when a carbonyl compound is treated with a mixture of NaCN and an acid?

• A. Electrophilic addition reaction
• B. Substitution reaction
• C. Nucleophilic addition reaction✓
• D. Displacement reaction

Explanation: The given scenario is an example of a nucleophilic addition reaction, as the reactant, CN- is a nucleophile which adds across the carbonyl bond.Option A describes reactions undergone by alkenes, where an electrophile is added across the carbon-carbon double bond.Option B describes a reaction where one group of atoms is replaced by another group of atoms, but this is not the case here.Option D describes a reaction in which one element is replaced by another element in a compound.

Q105. An intermolecular force of attraction X is relatively stronger than the other intermolecular forces. It stabilizes alpha-helix and Beta-pleated sheets of proteins. The double helical structure of DNA is also stabilized by this force of attraction. Identify X.

• A. Van Der Waals Forces
• B. Hydrogen bonding✓
• C. Ionic interactions
• D. Dipole dipole attraction

Explanation: Option A, Van der Waals forces are the weakest intermolecular forces and are not found in the examples, mentioned in the question given.Option B is correct, as H bonding stabilizes DNA structure as it is between bases in a complementary base pair as well as it stabilizes the secondary structures, such as alpha-helix and beta-pleated sheet. It is also stronger than the other intermolecular attraction, which is Van der Waals forces.Option C is present between ions and not molecules, and is not found within DNA or in secondary protein structures.Option D is an example of a Van der Waals force.

Q106. Which compound will be produced by the oxidation of ethanal by acidified K2Cr2O7 ?

• A. Ethene
• B. Ethanol
• C. Ethanoic acid✓
• D. Ethanone

Explanation: Aldehyde when undergoes oxidation reaction in presence of acidified potassium dichromate or alkaline potassium permanganate forms carboxylic acid as a product.

Q107. Alcohol in which carbon atom bonded to OH group is further attached with three alkyl group is:

• A. Tertiary alcohol✓
• B. Primary alcohol
• C. Aromatic alcohol
• D. Secondary alcohol

Explanation: A tertiary (3°) alcohol is one in which the carbon atom with the OH group is attached to three other carbon atoms. Its general formula is R3COHPrimary alcohols are those alcohols where the carbon atom of the hydroxyl group (OH) is attached to only one single alkyl group.The aromatic alcohols or aryl-alcohols are a class of chemical compounds containing a hydroxyl group (—OH) bonded directly to an aromatic hydrocarbon group.A secondary alcohol is a compound in which a hydroxyl group( ‒OH) is attached to a saturated carbon atom which has two other carbon atoms attached to it.

Q108. The standard electrode potential of hydrogen is arbitrarily taken at 298 K is _

• A. 0.00 volt✓
• B. 0.10 volt
• C. 10.0 volt
• D. 1.00 volt

Explanation: SHE is a redox electrode which forms the basis of oxidation-reduction potential. The standard electrode potential value of hydrogen is declared to be zero.

Q109. Which of the following molecule shows cis-trans isomers?

• A. C2H4
• B. C2H2Cl4
• C. C2H2Br2✓
• D. C2HCl3

Explanation: For cis-trans isomerism, the rotation must be restricted in the molecule (so, cannot occur in compounds that only have C-C single bonds) and there must be two non-identical groups on each double-bonded carbon atom. Option A does not fulfill this requirement, as each double-bonded carbon atom has two identical groups i.e. each C has two H atoms attached to it.Option B does not fulfill these requirements as it is a halogenoalkane, with no C-C double bonds so, rotation is not restricted in the molecule.Option C fulfills these requirements, as not only is rotation restricted as it has a C-C double bond, each carbon atom has two non-identical atoms, i.e. each C has one Hydrogen atom and one Bromine atom so, this option is correct.Option D does not fulfill the requirements as well as even though one double-bonded carbon atom has two non-identical atoms i.e. one H atom and one Cl atom, the other carbon has two identical Cl atoms.

Q110. Cu ion takes up 2 electrons to give an electrode potential value of:

• A. +0.76 v
• B. -0.32 v
• C. +0.34 v✓
• D. -0.34 v

Explanation: The standard electrode potential for the reduction of Cu²⁺ to Cu (Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu) is +0.34 V, showing that copper readily gains electrons and is a relatively good oxidizing agent.

Q111. Which of the following acts as a nucleophile in the reaction of alkyl halide with alcoholic / aqueous ammonia?

• A. H+
• B. NH3✓
• C. NO2+
• D. Br-

Explanation: Since ammonia is nucleophilic, it attacks the electropositive carbon and causes the Br- ion to leave, this allows for the formation of amines as a result of this reaction.

Q112. The liquid in the container has a temperature of 70°C. What will be the temperature on the Kelvin scale?

• A. 350 K
• B. 343 K✓
• C. 300 K
• D. 283 K

Explanation: To convert temperature from celsius to kelvin scale the formula is°C + 273.15 K 70° + 273.15 =343 K.

Q113. The shape of [Co(NH3)6]3+ complex is:

• A. Linear
• B. Square planar
• C. Tetrahedral
• D. Octahedral✓

Explanation: The cobalt ion is in +3 oxidation state and has an electronic configuration of 3d6. Six pairs of electrons, one from each ammonia molecule, occupy the six hybrid orbitals, hence the molecule is diamagnetic and octahedral in shape.

Q114. Which of the following is the correct equation to calculate the relative molecular mass of a gas?

• A. M = mPR / VT
• B. M = PV / mRT
• C. M = mPRT / V
• D. M = mRT / PV✓

Explanation: Since PV=NRT where n = m / MPV=MRT / MM=mRT / PV.

Q115. How many hybrdized orbitals are formed by intermixing of 4 atomic orbitals?

• A. 2
• B. 4✓
• C. 8
• D. 6

Explanation: The number of hybrid orbitals is equal to the number of atomic orbitals so by intermixing 4 atomic orbitals, 4 hybrid orbitals will be formed.

Q116. The pi bonds surrounding the sigma bonds in an ethyne molecule are in the shape of:

• A. Linear
• B. Cylindrical✓
• C. Trigonal Planar
• D. Tetrahedral

Explanation: Ethyne molecule contains one Sigma and two Pi bonds.The shape of Pi orbitals is cylindrical.

Q117. An element that forms interstitial compounds is _.

• A. C✓
• B. F
• C. Cs
• D. Rb

Explanation: Interstitial compounds are formed when transition metals react with atomic hydrogen, carbon, nitrogen, boron , and other elements. These compounds are difficult and inflexible because empty spaces of transition metals are jammed up by small atoms.

Q118. Coinage metals belong to:

• A. 3A
• B. 3B
• C. 2B
• D. 1B✓

Explanation: Copper, silver and gold are coinage metals. They belong to group 1B of the periodic table.

Q119. Major product of the following reaction is: CH2=CH-CH2-CH3 + HBr ->

• A. CH2 (Br)-CH2 -CH2 -CH3
• B. CH3-CH(Br)-CH2-CH3✓
• C. CH2=CH-CH(Br)-CH3
• D. CH2=CH-CH2-CH2(Br)

Explanation: This follows Markonikov’s rule which states that in addition of an unsymmetrical reagent to an unsymmetrical alkene, the negative part of that reagent goes to that double bonded carbon atom which has the least number of hydrogen atoms.

Q120. Which of the following process gives benzensulphonic acid from benzene?

• A. Ozonolysis
• B. Sulphonation✓
• C. Nitration
• D. Halogenation

Explanation: Sulphonation of benzene is a chemical reaction in which a sulfonic acid group (-SO3H) is introduced onto the benzene ring. This reaction is typically carried out by treating benzene with sulfuric acid (H2SO4) or a mixture of sulfuric acid and sulfur trioxide (SO3).

Q121. What is the structure of benzene?

• A. Regular, flat planar hexagon✓
• B. Regular, 3D hexagon
• C. Regular, flat planar octagon
• D. Regular, planar pentagon

Explanation: Spectroscopic studies and x-ray analysis have shown that benzene is a regular, flat planar hexagon.All six hydrogen atoms are coplanar with six carbon atoms. The bond angles are C-C=120 and C-H=120.

Q122. Which of the following element is not present in halogens?

• A. I
• B. Cl
• C. Fe✓
• D. F

Explanation: Halogens are elements present in group 7A of the periodic table and include, Fluorine (F), Chlorine (Cl), Bromine (Br), Iodine (I), and Astatine (At). Among the given options, only option C is NOT a halogen, it is Iron (Fe), a transition element.

Q123. Which two elements are isotopes?

• A. 16X8 and 16Y8
• B. 14X8 and 15Y8✓
• C. 18X9 and 20Y10
• D. 12X6 and 12Y7

Explanation: In option A, both elements are the exact same, as they have same proton number (8) and same mass number (16) so, they are not isotopes (which vary in mass number but have the same proton number).Option B describes isotopes, as they have the same proton number (8), while having differing mass numbers.Option C describes two different elements entirely as they have varying proton numbers.Option D also describes two different elements due to varying proton numbers.

Q124. Which enthalpy change is relevant in the following process:Na(s) -> Na (g) ΔH = +107

• A. Enthalpy of atomization✓
• B. Enthalpy of fusion
• C. Enthalpy of vaporization
• D. Enthalpy of formation

Explanation: Option A, enthalpy of atomization, is the energy required to completely separate all the atoms in a chemical substance. The separated atoms are in a gaseous state and get separated from the corresponding substance in its standard state. Sodium is solid in its standard state, and after atomization, the atoms are in their gaseous state. Hence, this is the correct answer.Option B is the enthalpy change when a solid substance melts into a liquid. Here, the state change is from a solid to a gas, no liquid state involved.Option C is the enthalpy change when a liquid is vaporized into a gas. Here, a solid is atomized to its gaseous state so, vaporization does not apply here.Option D is the enthalpy change when one mole of a substance is formed from its constituent elements. This does not describe the given reaction.

Q125. For the following equilibrium reaction, when the forward reaction is exothermic; an increase in temperature shifts the equilibrium position towards the left. What will occur in that scenario?2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3

• A. The concentrations of SO2 and O2 increases and concentration of SO3 decreases as the temperature increases.✓
• B. The concentrations of SO3, SO2, and O2 increase as the temperature increases.
• C. The concentrations of SO2 and O2 decreases and concentration of SO3 increases as the temperature increases.
• D. The concentrations of SO2 and O2 and SO3 remains the same as the temperature increases.

Explanation: Since the equilibrium of the reaction shifts to the left, this means that the left hand side of the reaction is favoured. Increasing the reactants (LHS) and decreasing the products (RHS). Le Chatelier's principle will be used.

Q126. Reaction of water with quicklime results in the rise in the temperature of the system. Using the concept of an energy change, indicates the nature of the reaction?

• A. Endothermic Reaction
• B. Non-Spontaneous Reaction
• C. Third Order Reaction
• D. Exothermic Reaction✓

Explanation: Calcium oxide reacts with water to form calcium hydroxide, also called slaked lime. Here are the for this reaction: Calcium oxide + water → calcium hydroxide CaO+H2O → Ca(OH)2 A lot of heat is produced in the reaction, which may even cause the water to boil. Hence it is a combination reaction as well as exothermic reaction.

Q127. Reaction of water with quicklime results in the rise in the temperature of the system. Using the concept of an energy change, indicates the nature of the reaction?

• A. Endothermic Reaction
• B. Non-Spontaneous Reaction
• C. Third Order Reaction
• D. Exothermic Reaction✓

Explanation: Calcium oxide reacts with water to form calcium hydroxide, also called slaked lime. Here are the for this reaction: Calcium oxide + water → calcium hydroxide CaO+H2O → Ca(OH)2 A lot of heat is produced in the reaction, which may even cause the water to boil. Hence it is a combination reaction as well as exothermic reaction.

Q128. Gas is enclosed in a container of 20 cm3 with a moving piston. According to the kinetic theory of gases, what will be the effect on freely moving molecules of the gas if the temperature is increased from 20 oC to 100 oC?

• A. Pressure will become one half
• B. The volume will be increased✓
• C. Temperature has no effect on freely moving molecules
• D. Colliding capability of molecule will become lower

Explanation: According to Charles's law, the volume occupied by a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature, if the pressure remains constant. Since the piston is movable, hence increased temperature causes the volume to be increased.

Q129. Which option shows all the molecules with bond angle 109.5 degrees:

• A. CH4 , NH4+ , PH3
• B. SiCl4 , H2O , BeCl2
• C. SiCl4 , NH4+ , CH4✓
• D. CH4 , CCl4 , NH3

Explanation: Since all molecules stated in option C are tetrahedral in shape, where a central atom is located at the center with four substituents that are located at the corners of a tetrahedron. Hence they all have bond angles that are 109.5 degrees.

Q130. Down the group acid-base behaviour of metallic oxides of group 2 elements changes to:

• A. More basic✓
• B. No change
• C. Less basic
• D. More acidic

Explanation: Group II metal oxides become more basic as you go down the column. As the electronegativities of the metals decrease down the group, hence the change in electronegativity difference between the metal and oxygen increases down the group. The greater the difference in electronegativity the more ionic the metal-oxygen bond becomes. The more ionic the metal-oxygen bond the more basic the oxide is.

Q131. Which of the following fraction of petroleum has the lowest boiling point at STP?

• A. Kerosene oil
• B. Lubricating oil
• C. Gasoline✓
• D. Heavy Oil

Explanation: Liquids that boil at low temperatures, such as gasoline, are volatile liquids so option C is correct. Out of the given fractions of petroleum: kerosene, Lubricating oil, gasoline, and heavy oil, the one having the lowest boiling point is Gasoline. Boiling point of Gasoline is 358 K, Kerosene is (423 - 573) K, Diesel oil is (453 - 633) K and that of Heavy oil is about 810 K. So, the lowest boiling point is of Gasoline.Please note that petroleum includes only the liquid fractions, thus "natural gas" cannot be the answer.

Q132. Which of the following has anti knocking properties?

• A. (CH3CH2)4Sn
• B. (CH3CH2)4Pb✓
• C. (CH3CH2)4Ge
• D. (CH3CH2)4Si

Explanation: Tetraethyllead is an organolead compound that was widely used as an anti-knocking additive in gasoline. It helped prevent knocking in engines but was phased out due to environmental and health concerns related to lead pollution.

Q133. 2-chlorobutane belongs to:

• A. Primary Alkyl Halides
• B. Secondary Alkyl Halides✓
• C. Tertiary Alkyl Halides
• D. Quarternary Alkyl Halides

Explanation: In 2- chlorobutane, the halogen group is bonded to that carbon atom which has only 1 hydrogen atom attached with it. So it is secondary alkyl halide.

Q134. If bond energy of C-CI is 346 kJ/mol. The bond enegy of C-Br should be:

• A. 290 kJ/mol✓
• B. 390 kJ/mol
• C. 490 kJ/mol
• D. 590 KJ/mol

Explanation: Bond energy is the strength of a chemical bond between atoms, expressed as the amount of energy required to break it apart. It decreases as we go down the group. So C-Br should have lesser bond energy than C-Cl.

Q135. The horse pulling the wagon is able to move forward because of:

• A. The force exerted by the horse on the ground
• B. The force exerted by the ground on the horse✓
• C. The force exerted by the wagon on the horse
• D. The force exerted by the horse on the wagon

Explanation: The correct answer is the force exerted by the ground on the horse. According to Newton's third law of motion, when the horse pushes backward against the ground, the ground pushes forward against the horse with an equal and opposite force. This forward force from the ground is what enables the horse to move forward, thereby pulling the wagon along. The other options are incorrect because they either focus on the forces exerted by the horse, which do not directly propel the horse forward, or they misinterpret the interaction of forces between the horse, the wagon, and the ground.

Q136. Work done by the spring force in a time interval cannot be:

• A. Positive
• B. Negative
• C. Zero✓
• D. Constant

Explanation: Spring force is the force that tries to restore the original shape of the spring. Spring force acting at every time interval is never constant hence work done by it is never zero.

Q137. If the water falls from a dam on the turbine wheel 19.6 m below, then the velocity of water at the turbine is:

• A. 9.8 m/s
• B. 19.6 m/s✓
• C. 32.8 m/s
• D. 98.0 m/s

Explanation: It can also be solved as follows;

Q138. The area of circle is measured with the help of:

• A. Angular displacement✓
• B. Angular velocity
• C. Angular acceleration
• D. Time

Explanation: Angular displacement is defined as the angle in radians (degrees, revolutions) through which a point or line has been rotated in a specified sense about a specified axis. It is the angle of the movement of a body in a circular path. Angular displacement is related to pie hence the area of the circle formula given.

Q139. Angular displacement becomes linear for _ arc lengths:

• A. Short✓
• B. Circular
• C. Curved
• D. Large

Explanation: Angular displacements when taken as short they become equal to arc length i.e like linear displacement. As shown,

Q140. The distance between two consecutive nodes of a stationary wave is:

• A. λ
• B. λ/2✓
• C. λ/4
• D. λ/6

Explanation: The distance between two consecutive nodes of a stationary wave is l/2 ( l is wavelength).

Q141. Energy emitted in the form of visible radiation is called:

• A. Light energy✓
• B. Sound energy
• C. Tidal energy
• D. Geothermal energy

Explanation: Light energy comes in the form of visible radiation.The energy emitted in the form of visible radiation is called light energy. Light energy refers to the energy which enables us to have a vision. It is the energy that helps us to see. We can see the radiation of light energy from the natural source of the sun and the artificial sources of bulbs and tube lights. Hence, it is the answer.

Q142. The specific heat of a gas in adiabatic process is:

• A. Zero✓
• B. Infinite
• C. Negative
• D. Remains constant

Explanation: The specific heat of a gas in an adiabatic process is zero because there is no external pressure for the gas to expand against, the work done by or on the system is zero. Since this process does not involve any heat transfer or work, the first law of thermodynamics then implies that the net internal energy change of the system is zero. I.e. Q=W+U, U=0 and W=0 As C=q/mt, in adiabatic q=0, so according to equation,C=0

Q143. Which of the following statement shows that no work is done?

• A. Pushing a car to start it moving
• B. Lifting the weights.
• C. The moon Orbiting the earth.✓
• D. Writing an essay on a page.

Explanation: When the moon revolves around the earth, the displacement is normal to the direction of force on the moon. Therefore no work is done by the moon.Work is the dot product of force and displacement.W=F.dcos theta

Q144. Molecules of a gas at constant pressure for a fixed amount of gas have average kinetic energy X. Increasing temperature from 27 oC to 327 oC, the average K.E. of molecules will become:

• A. 20X
• B. 300X
• C. 200X
• D. 2X✓

Explanation: Total Kinetic Energy = 3/2 * Boltzmann's Constant (k) * temperature in Kelvins27C + 273 = 300K327 + 273 = 600KAs rest of quantities are kept constant increasing temperature from 300K to 600K will double the average kinetic energy of the system.

Q145. Energy consumed by 60 watt bulb in 2 minutes is equal to:

• A. 7.2 kilo joules✓
• B. 720 joules
• C. 120 joules
• D. 72000 joules

Explanation: Power=Energy/time Energy=power ×time 60 watt×120 sec =7200 J =7.2 kilo J.

Q146. For a monoatomic ideal gas of 3 moles, Cp -Cv is:

• A. R/3
• B. 3/2 R
• C. 2R
• D. 3R✓

Explanation: Cp-Cv=nR Where n= no. of moles, hence Cp-Cv=3R making D the correct option.

Q147. Kirchhoff's first law/rule corresponds to:

• A. Law of conservation of energy
• B. Law Of conservation Of momentum
• C. Law of conservation of charge✓
• D. Law of conservation of mass

Explanation: Kirchhoff's first law states that the algebraic sum of current flowing into a junction is zero. This rule corresponds to conservation of charge which states that total charge in a closed system remains constant because current is the rate of flow of charge.

Q148. The flux through a surface will be zero when angle between E and △A is:

• A. 90o✓
• B. 60o
• C. 30o
• D. 0o

Explanation: The electric flux (Φ) through a surface is given by the equation:Φ=E⋅A=EAcos⁡θWhere:E\ is the electric field vector,A is the area vector of the surface (whose direction is perpendicular to the surface),θ is the angle between the electric field E and the area vector A.When the angle θ is 90°, the electric field is perpendicular to the surface, meaning the component of the field that contributes to the flux is zero. Therefore, the flux will be zero when the angle between E and A is 90°.

Q149. The device used to store a charge is called:

• A. Electric box
• B. Capacitor✓
• C. Inductor
• D. Transistor

Explanation: It is the function of capacitors to store charge.

Q150. Ohm's law applies to:

• A. Semiconductors
• B. Vacuum tubes
• C. Carbon resistors
• D. Conductors✓

Explanation: According to Ohm's law, Resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to its length. That is, when the length of conductor is tripled, its resistance also gets tripled. It is applicable only to conductors. Hence, Ohm's law is not applicable in case of insulators.

Q151. Calculate the work done in a resistor of 20 ohm carrying 5A of current in 3 hours.

• A. 1 KWh
• B. 1.5 KWh✓
• C. 2 KWh
• D. 3 KWh

Explanation: 1kWh is the power output multiplied by the number of hours the appliance is used. Power is found by voltage x current, and the voltage is found by Resistance x Current. So (20x5)(5)(3) gives 1.5kWh. We can use the formula: P = V x I To use this formula, we need to find the voltage, which can be calculated using the formula: voltage = resistance x current So, voltage = 20 ohm x 5A = 100 V Next, we can calculate the energy in watt-hours using the formula: energy (in watt-hours) = power (in watts) x time (in hours) Substituting the values we have: energy (in watt-hours) = (100 V x 5 A) x 3 hours = 1500 watt-hours Finally, we can convert watt-hours to kilowatt-hours (kWh) by dividing by 1000: energy (in kWh) = 1500 watt-hours / 1000 = 1.5 kWh Therefore, the power consumed is 1.5 kWh.

Q152. What will be the expression for the observed frequency, if the source is moving towards the observer?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D✓

Explanation: This option is the correct expression for the observed frequency when the source is moving towards the observer. The negative sign in the denominator reflects the decrease in distance between the source and the observer, leading to a higher frequency being perceived by the observer.

Q153. An object is moving along a circular path of radius 4m. What will be its angular displacement if it moves 14 m on this circular path?

• A. 5.0 radians
• B. 3.5 radians✓
• C. 4.5 radians
• D. 5.5 radians

Explanation: Arc length = Radius x Angular displacementS = rθKeeping Arc length as 14m and radius as 4m, we get angular displacement as 3.5 radians.

Q154. A copper wire has length L and cross-sectional area A. Its resistance is R. If we halved the length and halved the diameter of wire, then what will be the resistance of this wire?

• A. 4R
• B. 3R
• C. 2R✓
• D. R

Explanation: The correct answer is 2R. To understand why, we first consider that when the length of the wire is halved, the resistance is halved as well. Therefore, if the original resistance is R, halving the length gives R/2.Next, when the diameter of the wire is halved, the cross-sectional area decreases to a quarter of its original size (since area is proportional to the square of the diameter). This increase in resistance due to the diameter change causes the resistance to quadruple.Thus, the new resistance due to the change in diameter would be 4 times the reduced value from the halved length, which results in (4 * (R/2)) = 2R.The other options are incorrect because they do not account correctly for the effects of both changes on resistance. 4R and 3R incorrectly assume a different relationship between diameter and resistance, while R disregards the halving of the length.

Q155. A shock wave is produced due to an earthquake which makes the buildings move in the direction of the shock wave. Which progressive wave would this be?

• A. Longitudinal wave✓
• B. Transverse wave
• C. Material wave
• D. Particle wave

Explanation: The correct answer is Longitudinal wave because shock waves, such as those produced during an earthquake, cause the particles in the medium (like the ground) to oscillate in the same direction as the wave travels. This parallel movement of particles is characteristic of longitudinal waves. In contrast, Transverse waves have particle motion perpendicular to the wave direction, which does not apply to shock waves in this context. The term Material wave is too vague and does not specifically describe seismic waves, while Particle wave is not a recognized category in wave physics and does not provide a meaningful description of any wave type.

Q156. Basically a potentiometer is a device for:

• A. Comparing two voltages✓
• B. Measuring a current
• C. Comparing two currents
• D. Measuring a voltage

Explanation: The potentiometer is a simple device used to measure the electrical potentials (or compare the e.m.f. of a cell). By comparing the potential at points along the wire with an unknown potential, the magnitude of the unknown potential can be determined.

Q157. The magnetic flux is a _ quantity.

• A. Scalar✓
• B. Vector
• C. Vector in some cases
• D. Scalar in some cases

Explanation: Magnetic flux, which tells us about the number of field lines that cross the surface, is a scalar. It is the dot product of two vectors.

Q158. AC generators are opposite to:

• A. Transformers
• B. Inductors
• C. Capacitors
• D. Motor✓

Explanation: Converting energy from one form to another is the key to understanding the differences between electric motors and generators. An electric motor converts electricity into mechanical energy, providing a power source for machinery. A generator does the opposite of this, converting mechanical energy into electricity. Hence, we can say AC generators are similar to motors.

Q159. According to Faraday's Law, emf induced in circuit depends on:

• A. Max. magnetic flux
• B. Rate of change of magnetic flux✓
• C. Change in magnetic flux
• D. Initial flux

Explanation: Faraday's law of induction (to distinguish it from his laws of electrolysis), states that the magnitude of the emf induced in a circuit is proportional to the rate of change of the magnetic flux that cuts across the circuit.

Q160. Which of the following rectifier uses wheatstone bridge to rectify signal:

• A. Half wave
• B. Full wave
• C. Bridge✓
• D. Both half and full wave

Explanation: Bridge rectifier is formed by connecting four diodes in the form of a Wheatstone bridge. It also provides full wave rectification.Bridge rectifier is formed by connecting four diodes in the form of a Wheatstone bridge. It also provides full wave rectification. During the first half of AC cycle, two diodes are forward biased and during the second half of AC cycle, the other two diodes become forward biased.

Q161. Wave particle duality does not describe:

• A. Momentum
• B. Frequency
• C. Mass✓
• D. Energy

Explanation: In quantum physics, wave-particle duality states that any particle or quantum phenomenon can be represented as either a particle or a wave. It expresses the difficulty of classical terminology like "particle" and "wave" to completely characterize quantum-scale things' behavior. This behavior has been observed not just in elementary particles but also in composite particles such as atoms and molecules. Wave characteristics are frequently not detectable for macroscopic particles due to their relatively short wavelengths.As a result, mass isn't included because quantum mechanics doesn't contain it.

Q162. If a conductor of length 7m is placed in a magnetic field of strength 0.3 T carrying current 1 A, parallel to the field. What will be the force, acting on it, due to this magnetic field?

• A. 7 N
• B. 0 N✓
• C. 3.1 N
• D. 2.1 N

Explanation: When the conductor is placed parallel to magnetic field, no force will act on it.

Q163. In relation, which quantity is represented by λ?

• A. Decay constant✓
• B. Half life
• C. Activity
• D. Wavelength

Explanation: Explanation is given below.T1/2 represents the 'half-life' with 'T', implying the quantity has something to do with time, and '1/2' representing 'half'.

Q164. A particle, carrying a charge of 5e, falls through a potential difference of 25 V. What would be energy acquired by the particle in ‘J’.

• A. 1.6 x 10-19 J
• B. 125 J
• C. 125 x 10-19 J
• D. 125 x 1.6 x 10-19 J✓

Explanation: Electric Potential Energy = Electric Potential x ChargeCharge = 5 x 1.6 x 10-19 CElectric Potential Energy = 25V x (5 x 1.6 x 10-19) CThis could be manipulated to give us (125 x 1.6 x 10-19) J, which is Option D.

Q165. Electric field strength at a point between oppositely charged plates is 'E'. If the distance between plates is reduced to half, what will be the new value of electric intensity?

• A. 4E
• B. E/2
• C. E/4
• D. 2E✓

Explanation: Between two parallel plates, the electric field strength is given by:E = V/dIf the distance is halved, electric field strength is doubled since both are inversely related.

Q166. A stone of mass 2.0 kg is dropped from a rest position 5.0 m above the ground. What is its velocity at a height of 3.0 m above the ground?

• A. 12.5 m/s
• B. 6.3m/s✓
• C. 9.3 m/s
• D. 16.0 m/s

Explanation: Refer to following explanation

Q167. A metal rod of length 10.0 cm is moving at a speed of 0.5 ms-1 in a direction perpendicular to a 0.20 T magnetic field. Find the emf produced in the rod.

• A. 2.0 x 10-3 V
• B. 0.50 x 10-2 V
• C. 1.0 x 10-2 V✓
• D. 1.0 x 10-3 V

Explanation: Motional emf = Bℓv (B,ℓ, and v perpendicular)Emf = (0.20T) * (0.1m) * (0.5m/s) = 0.01 = 1 * 10-2 V

Q168. A body at temperature T radiates heat according to relation:

• A. T-2
• B. T4✓
• C. T-4
• D. None of these

Explanation: By the Stefan-Boltzmann Law, for a black body, the amount of heat radiated per unit area is directly proportional to the fourth power of the kelvin temperature. The proportionality constant is called Stefen’s constant and has a value of 5.67x10(-8).

Q169. For two down quarks, the total charge is:

• A. -2/3 e✓
• B. -2 e
• C. -1 e
• D. -1/2 e

Explanation: One down quark has a charge of -⅓. Hence, charge for two down quarks will be,-⅓ + (-⅓) = -⅔

Q170. A ball is thrown vertically upward with a velocity of 20 m/s. What is its velocity when it returns to the starting height?

• A. 0 m/s
• B. 10 m/s
• C. -20 m/s✓
• D. 20 m/s

Explanation: C. -20 m/s: This is the correct answer. Due to conservation of energy, the magnitude of the velocity is the same, but the direction is reversed, hence the negative sign.

Q171. Change in P.E per unit charge in the electric field is:

• A. Electric potential✓
• B. Power
• C. K.E
• D. Work done

Explanation: As; V= W/q V = P.E/q

Q172. Find the missing number in the series:3, 12, 27, 48, 75, 108, ?

• A. 147✓
• B. 162
• C. 183
• D. 192

Explanation: The pattern of the series is 3 × n², where n is the term number. The terms are 3×1², 3×2², 3×3², and so on. The missing 7th term is 3 × 7² = 3 × 49 = 147.

Q173. If ‘-’ means ‘+’, ‘+’ means ‘-’, ‘*’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘*’ then which of the following will be the correct equation?

• A. 10 + 5 - 14 ÷ 10 * 15 = 158
• B. 30 + 5 + 14 - 10 * 15 = 122
• C. 30 - 5 + 14 ÷ 10 * 15 = 162
• D. 30 * 5 - 4 ÷ 10 + 15 = 31✓
• E. None of these

Explanation: Your equation is:10 + 5 - 14 ÷ 10 * 15 = 158First, replace the symbols:+ → -- → +÷ → ** → ÷Thus, the equation becomes:10 - 5 + 14 * 10 ÷ 15Now, solve step-by-step following BODMAS:Multiplication and Division first:14 * 10 = 140140 ÷ 15 ≈ 9.333...Now the equation becomes:10 - 5 + 9.333...Left to right (Addition/Subtraction):10 - 5 = 55 + 9.333... = 14.333...Thus:Final result: 14.333..

Q174. Directions: In the following question, a number sequence is given with one term missing. Choose the correct term that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given sequence.4,6,12,14,28,30,?

• A. 32
• B. 60✓
• C. 62
• D. 64

Explanation: The sequence alternates between adding 2 and multiplying by 2, starting with addition: 4 + 2 = 66 x 2 = 1212 + 2 = 1414 x 2 = 2828 + 2 = 3030 x 2 = 60The correct answer is 60, which fits the established pattern. The other options do not follow this pattern, either incorrectly adding or not multiplying by 2 when required.

Q175. Statements: I. The Government has imported large quantities of sugar as per the trade agreements with other countries. II. The prices of sugar in the domestic market have fallen sharply in recent months.

• A. Statement I is the cause and statement II Is its effect✓
• B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
• C. Both statements are independent causes
• D. Both statements are effects of independent causes

Explanation: According to the economic principle of supply and demand, importing large quantities of a commodity (Statement I) increases its supply. An increase in supply, with demand remaining constant, is a direct cause for a decrease in market prices (Statement II).

Q176. Statement: A large number of people have become critically ill after consuming spurious liquor from a local shop. Courses of Action: I. The Government should immediately close down all the shops selling liquor till the stocks are tested for the presence of toxicity. II. The owner of the liquor shop should be asked to leave the town and open a shop elsewhere. Ill. The owner of the liquor shop should immediately be arrested and tried for criminal negligence.

• A. Only I follows
• B. Only II follows
• C. Only lll follows
• D. Only I and lll follow✓

Explanation: Clearly, the owner of the shop should be punished for selling spurious liquor. Further, attempts should be made to unearth other such unscrupulous liquor sellers by conducting raids and testing samples collected from different shops. So, both I and III follow. However, sending the liquor shop owner to another place may create a problem elsewhere also. So, II does not follow.

Q177. An autograph can not exist without?

• A. Actor
• B. Singer
• C. Player
• D. Pen✓

Explanation: An autograph is defined as a person's handwritten signature, mostly of someone famous among the masses.As a pen is necessary to do a signature by hand, hence it is the answer.

Q178. Which of the following expressions may not be true if the following expressions are true? (a) Z > Y (b) Y = W (c) W < X

• A. W < Z
• B. X > Z✓
• C. Y < X
• D. All are true.

Explanation: Statement : Z ≥ Y = W and X ≥ W = Y (A) : W ≤ Z => True, since Z ≥ W. (B) : X ≥ Z => Not true (C) : Y ≤ X => True Thus, only (B) may not be true.

Q179. Pick the word which is always associated with "books".

• A. Pages✓
• B. Learning
• C. Pictures
• D. Eraser

Explanation: The word that is always associated with "books" A. Pages: Books are made up of pages, which contain the text and information. When we think of books, we often think of flipping through the pages to read or The other options are not always associated with B. Learning: While books are commonly used as a source of learning and knowledge, not all books are specifically intended for learning purposes. Some books may be for entertainment or other C. Pictures: While many books do contain pictures, not all books have them. There are various types of books, such as novels or textbooks, where the presence of pictures may D. Erasers: Erasers are not typically associated with books. Erasers are used for erasing mistakes or marks made with pencils, which are more commonly associated with writing or Therefore, the word that is always associated with "books" is "pages" (option A).

Q180. I. Two fighter jets from the air force malfunctioned mid-air after taking off from the air force base. II. One of the flying officers ejected whereas the other one died on spot.

• A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect✓
• B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
• C. Both statements I and II are independent causes
• D. Both statements I and II are effects

Explanation: Two fighter jets from the Air Force malfunctioned mid-air after taking off, which is the cause; one of the flying officers ejected from the plane, whereas the other one died on the spot, which is the effect. Statement I is the cause, and Statement II is its effect.