Punjab Mdcat Mock Paper 1 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. The parents were stunned when they saw that children had created complete _ in the bedroom.

• A. Knack
• B. Groggy
• C. Dank
• D. Mayhem✓

Explanation: 'Mayhem' means violent or extreme disorder; chaos. So, the correct sentence is, "The parents were stunned when they saw that children had created complete mayhem in the bedroom."

Q2. In the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT option.

• A. After breaking the glass, Ruby said "Please don't tell on me".
• B. After breaking the glass Ruby said: "Please don't tell on me."
• C. After breaking the glass, Ruby said: "Please don't tell on me."✓
• D. After breaking the glass Ruby said: please don't tell on me.

Explanation: The sentence 'after breaking the glass' is another idea in the sentence hence a comma should be added between these two sentences. The rule of punctuation in quotation marks is that the full stop or comma should come within the quotation marks. 'Don't' is a contraction, which stands for 'do not'.

Q3. In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative, out of the four as your answer. Ravens appear to behave _, actively helping one another to find food.

• A. mysteriously
• B. warily
• C. aggressively
• D. defensively✓

Explanation: Option D is the correct answer because this sentence asks you to look for a word that describes how the ravens behave. The information after the comma restates and defines the meaning of the missing word.

Q4. The prince abdicated the crown and returned to his castle. Abdicated means;

• A. Gave up✓
• B. Sold
• C. Reinvested into
• D. Auctioned

Explanation: 'The word "abdicated" means to renounce or give up a high office or responsibility, such as a monarch giving up their crown.

Q5. SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentence, some segments of the sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C✓
• D. Option D
• E. No error

Explanation: Since our main subject of the sentence is education and economic progress which is singular so the verb takes should be used instead of take due to the subject verb agreement.

Q6. Take your warm jacket with you _ it gets breezy.

• A. Although
• B. In case✓
• C. Rather
• D. Until

Explanation: Take a jacket with you in case it gets cold later. The best way to solve this question would be to read the sentence while inputting each option, this way you would come to the correct appropriate choice.

Q7. Which one is not a past tense sentence?

• A. She finished all the exercices
• B. Dr Smith healed the patient
• C. Michael studied hard all year
• D. He will have eaten lunch✓

Explanation: He will have eaten lunch is not a past tense tense. The best way to solve this question is to eliminate the other options to come to the correct answer.

Q8. Find the correctly spelt word:

• A. Servent
• B. Sarvent
• C. Servant✓
• D. Sarvant

Explanation: Servant is the correct spelling.

Q9. Which one is correct?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D✓

Explanation: The following is the solution:

Q10. SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some segments of the sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.

• A. Let's
• B. The
• C. is
• D. to✓

Explanation: The incorrect preposition 'of' is used here. It should be replaced by 'for'. 'The bus is leaving for the last stop.'

Q11. Choose the BEST Option.It is better for me to _ than to shed the blood of an innocent boy.

• A. Died
• B. Die✓
• C. Had died
• D. Have died

Explanation: Text From ( The Gulistan of Sadi, tale III). The sentence here is in present tense so the verb 'die' will be the best option to use here.

Q12. In the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one.

• A. In my experience, the awakening of that clear judgemeent as to what the college is for, is not as difficult as is often supposed.
• B. In my experience, the awakening of a clear judgement as for what the college is for,is not as difficult as is often supposed.
• C. In my experience, the awakening of a clear judgement as to what the college is for, is not as difficult as is often supposed.✓
• D. In my experience, the awakening of a clear judgement as to what the college is for, is not as much as difficult as often supposed.

Explanation: The best way to solve this question is to read each option in your head and then decide which one sounds the best and fits in well. In Option A, the spelling of judgement is incorrect. In Option B, there is no space left after the comma which is the wrong punctuation. In Option D, as much as is unnecessary text and can be removed.

Q13. Choose the correct spelling of the word:

• A. Something✓
• B. Somthing
• C. Sumthing
• D. Sumthin

Explanation: The correct spelling is 'something'.

Q14. Which of the following sentences is correct?

• A. I want to live near my parents live
• B. I want to live where my parents live✓
• C. I want to live where, my parents live
• D. I want to live where: my parents live

Q15. In the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word. HIATUS

• A. Lull✓
• B. Longing
• C. Heretical
• D. Veneration

Explanation: Hiatus: a pause or break in continuity during an activity. Lull: a temporary interval of quiet or lack of activity. Longing: a desire of achieving something. Heretical: holding an opinion which is different with what is generally accepted. Veneration: having great respect for something.

Q16. Ester linkages occur in:

• A. Nucleic acids✓
• B. Nucleus
• C. Carbohydrates
• D. Proteins

Explanation: DNA and RNA are the chain of polynucleotides, that are joined by ester linkage known as 'phosphodiester bonds'. The two nucleotides, within a nucleotide chain, are linked by a phosphodiester bond. It is formed by the linkage between the 3' carbon atom of one sugar molecule and the 5' carbon atom of another, with the phosphate group acting as a bridge between the 2 carbons.So, the correct answer is option A.

Q17. The finger like infoldings, which are formed by inner membrane of mitochondria, are called:

• A. Ribosomes
• B. Matrix
• C. Porin
• D. Cristae✓

Explanation: Factual recall; 'Ribosomes' are organelles, that serve as sites of protein synthesis. 'Matrix' refers to the space confined by the inner mitochondrial membrane within the mitochondria. 'Porin' refers to a transport protein that enables the passive diffusion of certain molecules across a membrane. Cristea are finger-like infoldings, which are formed by the inner membrane of the mitochondria.

Q18. The structure present in a eukaryotic cell but absent in prokaryotic cells is;

• A. DNA
• B. Ribosomes
• C. Cell surface membrane
• D. Nucleus✓

Explanation: The defining difference, between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells, is membrane-bound organelles including the nucleus. Eukaryotic cells possess membrane-bound organelles but prokaryotes do not.All other three options describe structures common to both, i.e. DNA, ribosomes (which are organelles but not membrane bound), and cell surface membrane.

Q19. If water has a high latent heat of vaporization, how could this property of water be helpful to plants and animals?

• A. With the release of large amount of water, a small amount of heat loss can take place.
• B. With the release of small amount of water vapours, a great amount of heat loss can take place.✓
• C. It will keep their temperature very high.
• D. No cooling effect, with the release of even a large amount of water vapours.

Explanation: As per the formula Q=mL, since water has a high latent heat of vaporization (L), for a small mass or amount of water (m), a large amount of energy (Q) will be released which results in a large amount of heat loss, enabling the organism to remain cool via sweating (animals) or transpiration (plants). Option A describes this effect but in reverse, option C states the opposite effect as this process prevents their temperature from becoming too high, and option D is false as a cooling effect does indeed occur.

Q20. Now-a-days every newborn gets regular shots of vaccine for polio. It contains _ for polio to make a child immune against this disease.

• A. Antibiotics
• B. Antibodies
• C. Antigens✓
• D. Antisera

Explanation: A vaccine elicits an immune response by the host so that the host is better equipped to fight against the invading organism, in any potential future instance, via the production of memory cells. It may do so by containing the antigens of the invading organism (in this case, poliovirus) so that the host’s immune system produces memory cells against the specific organism, thereby conferring active immunity against the disease. Antibiotics (option A) are not present in vaccines; they are drugs used to treat bacterial illnesses. Antibodies (option B) are not present in vaccines; they are proteins, produced by plasma cells, to ward off infection. They are produced by the immune system to fight an active infection, but they are not used in vaccines since they do not confer active immunity as the host does not produce memory cells against the invading organism. Antisera (option D) is a blood serum preparation that contains antibodies against a certain antigen or disease; they are used as a treatment for certain conditions and do not confer active immunity to the individual.

Q21. The enzymes required for the Kreb cycle are found in _.

• A. F1 particles
• B. Lysosomes
• C. Cytoplasm
• D. Matrix✓

Explanation: The Krebs cycle enzymes are membrane proteins found within the matrix of the mitochondria except for succinate dehydrogenase which is an integral membrane protein locked to the inner mitochondrial membrane.F1 particle is found in the matrix of mitochondria and is found attached to the cristae. It plays a very important role in the production of ATP molecules as it contains an enzyme called ATPaseA lysosome is a membrane-bound cell organelle that contains digestive enzymes.The cytoplasm is a thick solution that fills each cell and is enclosed by the cell membrane.

Q22. Coccyx vertebrae are located in:

• A. Cervical region
• B. Lumbar region
• C. Pelvic region✓
• D. Thoracic region

Explanation: The coccyx, also known as the tailbone, is a small, triangular bone resembling a shortened tail located at the bottom of the spine in the pelvic region. It is composed of three to five coccygeal vertebrae or spinal bones.The cervical spine is the most superior portion of the vertebral column, lying between the cranium and the thoracic vertebrae. It consists of seven distinct vertebrae.The thoracic spine is the longest region of the spine, and by some measures it is also the most complex. Connecting with the cervical spine above and the lumbar spine below, the thoracic spine runs from the base of the neck down to the abdomen.The thoracic spine has 12 vertebrae stacked on top of each other, labeled from T1 down to T12The lumbar spine (lower back) consists of five vertebrae in the lower part of the spine, between the ribs and the pelvis. The five lumbar vertebrae are numbered L1 to L5

Q23. Crossing over takes place during _ of meiosis.

• A. Prophase I✓
• B. Telophase I
• C. Metaphase I
• D. Anaphase I

Explanation: Meiosis consists of two divisions, both of which follow the same stages as mitosis (prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase). Meiosis is preceded by interphase, in which DNA is replicated to produce chromosomes consisting of two sister chromatids. A second growth phase called interkinesis may occur between meiosis I and II, however no DNA replication occurs in this stage: Prophase I: Chromosomes condense, nuclear membrane dissolves, homologous chromosomes form bivalents, crossing over occurs. Metaphase I: Spindle fibres from opposing centrosomes connect to bivalents (at centromeres) and align them along the middle of the cell. Anaphase I: Spindle fibres contract and split the bivalent, homologous chromosomes move to opposite poles of the cell. Telophase I: Chromosomes decondense, nuclear membrane may reform, cell divides (cytokinesis) to form two haploid daughter cells.

Q24. During breathing air from Pharynx enters to:

• A. Trachea✓
• B. Bronchioles
• C. Alveoli
• D. Bronchi

Explanation: When you inhale through your nose or mouth, air travels down your pharynx (back of your throat), passes through your larynx (voice box) and into your trachea (windpipe). Your trachea is divided into two air passages called bronchial tubes. One bronchial tube leads to your left lung, the other to your right lung.

Q25. Which of the following holds the alpha helix of protein in its place:

• A. R group
• B. Disulfide bond
• C. Amino group
• D. Hydrogen bond✓

Explanation: The α-helix is a right-handed helix with the peptide bonds located on the inside and the side chains extending outward. It is stabilized by the regular formation of hydrogen bonds parallel to the axis of the helix; they are formed between the amino and carbonyl groups of every fourth peptide bond

Q26. If the molecule can bind to another site of the enzyme rather than the true active site, it is referred to as _

• A. Competitive inhibitors
• B. Allosteric inhibition
• C. Noncompetitive inhibitors✓
• D. Irreversible inhibition

Explanation: In non competitive inhibition, an inhibitor molecule binds to the enzyme at a location other than the active site (an allosteric site). The substrate can still bind to the enzyme, but the inhibitor changes the shape of the enzyme so it is no longer in an optimal position to catalyze the reaction.

Q27. When a nerve impulse jumps from one node of Ranvier to the next in a myelinated neuron, it's called _.

• A. Synapses
• B. Saltatory conduction✓
• C. Resting potential
• D. Membrane potential

Explanation: Saltatory conduction is the propagation of action potentials along myelinated axons from one node of Ranvier to the next node, increasing the conduction velocity of action potentials.In the central nervous system, a synapse is a small gap at the end of a neuron that allows a signal to pass from one neuron to the next.Resting potential is the imbalance of electrical charge that exists between the interior of electrically excitable neurons (nerve cells) and their surroundings.Membrane potential (also transmembrane potential or membrane voltage) is the difference in electric potential between the interior and the exterior of a biological cell.Thus, Option B is correct.

Q28. The ability to distinguish between two separate points/objects is:

• A. Magnification
• B. Fractionation
• C. Centrifugation
• D. Resolution✓

Explanation: Scientists think of resolution as the ability to tell that two objects that are very close together are distinct objects rather than just one.Fractionation is a separation process in which a certain quantity of a mixture (gas, solid, liquid, enzymes, suspension, or isotope) is divided during a phase transition, into a number of smaller quantities (fractions) in which the composition varies according to a gradient.Centrifugation is a technique used for the separation of particles from a solution according to their size, shape, density, viscosity of the medium and rotor speed. The particles are suspended in a liquid medium and placed in a centrifuge tube. The tube is then placed in a rotor and spun at a defined speed.Magnification is the process of enlarging the apparent size, not physical size, of something

Q29. Human immunodeficiency virus attack which of the following cells for its multiplication?

• A. Neutrophils
• B. Macrophages
• C. Cytotoxic T cells
• D. Helper T cells✓

Explanation: Human immunodeficiency virus has certain characteristics: High selectivity. It infects only cells of the immune system, and only those that have CD4 receptors: mainly T-lymphocytes as well as monocytes, macrophages and some other cell types. The ability of the virus to mutate.

Q30. Carbon dioxide enters the leaf through:

• A. Chloroplasts
• B. Mesophyll
• C. Thylakoids
• D. Stomata✓

Explanation: Carbon dioxide and oxygen cannot pass through the cuticle, but move in and out of leaves through openings called stomata (stoma = "hole"). Guard cells control the opening and closing of stomata. When stomata are open to allow gases to cross the leaf surface, the plant loses water vapor to the atmosphere.

Q31. Which one of the following is a polymer of alpha-d glucose?

• A. Cellulose
• B. Glycogen✓
• C. Insulin
• D. Chitin

Explanation: When two alpha D-glucose molecules join together with a more commonly occurring isomer of glucose and form a glycosidic linkage, the term is known as an α-1,4-glycosidic bond. Glycogen is a readily mobilized storage form of glucose. It is a very large, branched polymer of glucose residues that can be broken down to yield glucose molecules when energy is needed. Most of the glucose residues in glycogen are linked by α-1,4-glycosidic bonds.

Q32. Thin filaments of muscles contain _ chains of actin molecules.

• A. Two✓
• B. One
• C. Three
• D. Four

Explanation: The actin molecules contain active sites, to which myosin heads will bind, during contraction. The thin filaments contain two intertwined bands of actin monomers. Alongside, they possess regulatory proteins called tropomyosin and troponin, which regulate the interaction of actin and myosin.

Q33. The reflex action is the phenomena which only involves:

• A. receptors and effectors
• B. receptors, effectors, and spinal cord✓
• C. brain, receptors, and spinal cord
• D. receptors, neurons, and the brain

Explanation: In a reflex action, the receptors sense the primary stimulus, which travels to the effector via a nervous pathway that runs within the spinal cord, without involving the brain i.e. (receptor -> sensory neuron -> relay neuron (which is present within the spinal cord) -> motor neuron -> effector).Only option B fulfills this criterion.

Q34. In an action potential, the permeability of sodium ions in the neurons increases due to;

• A. Repolarization
• B. Sodium ions forming an ionic bonding
• C. The opening of sodium channels/gates✓
• D. The action of the acetylcholinesterase enzyme

Explanation: Option A mentions repolarization, which is the stage where there is a large influx of potassium ions out from the cell, during which sodium ions do not enter the cell.Option B mentions the concept of ionic bonding which is irrelevant to the scenario.Option C is correct, as when sodium voltage-gated channels open, only then does the permeability of sodium ions across the membrane increases, resulting in their influx into the cell.Option D describes an enzyme, that is important in recycling ACh across synapses; it is not relevant to the concept of sodium permeability during action potentials.

Q35. During spermatogenesis, the _, which are haploid cells eventually mature into spermatozoa/mature sperms:

• A. Spermatogonia
• B. Primary spermatocytes
• C. Spermatids✓
• D. Secondary spermatocytes

Explanation: Option A, spermatogonia, are diploid cells and are the first stage in the process of spermatogenesis. They have not undergone meiotic division, and as such are diploid.Option B, primary spermatocytes, are also diploid cells, as they arise from mitotic divisions of the spermatogonia which themselves are diploid. They are not a product of meiosis.Option C, spermatids, is the correct answer. This is because they are the end product of Meiosis II and as such are haploid cells. Furthermore, they themselves are the direct precursors to mature spermatozoa as they further differentiate to form mature sperm cells.Option D, secondary spermatocytes, are also haploid cells and are the cells which give rise to spermatids. This is not the correct answer as the question is asking for a haploid cell that matures into spermatozoa/mature sperm cells. Secondary spermatocytes give rise to spermatids first which then go on to mature into spermatozoa so, spermatids fit the given scenario.

Q36. The type of energy, reduced by the enzymes, for biological reactions to occur is called the:

• A. Light Energy
• B. Heat energy
• C. Active energy
• D. Activation energy✓

Explanation: The type of energy reduced by enzymes to facilitate biological reactions is referred to as "activation energy." Enzymes play a crucial role in biological systems by lowering the activation energy required for a chemical reaction to occur. Activation energy is the energy input needed to initiate a chemical reaction by overcoming the energy barrier associated with the conversion of reactants into products. Enzymes accelerate reactions by providing an alternative pathway with a lower activation energy, making it easier for the reaction to proceed.

Q37. Homozygous means:

• A. alleles in an organism
• B. two different alleles of a gene.
• C. having two identical genes
• D. having two identical alleles of a gene.✓

Explanation: Homozygous refers to a genotype where, for a given trait or gene, the organism possesses two alleles of the same type (i.e. both alleles are dominant or both alleles are recessive). Option D fits this description.Option A merely mentions alleles in an organism, whereas homozygous refers to the allelic combination of a particular trait/gene.Option B refers to the heterozygous state, not homozygous.Option C refers to having two identical genes. Homozygous (and even heterozygous) terms refer to the allelic combination the organism possesses of one particular gene. It is important to remember that an allele is a variant of one particular gene so, one gene may have two or more variants or alleles.

Q38. The term “Loss of appetite” refers to disease:

• A. Botulism
• B. Anorexia nervosa✓
• C. Obesity
• D. Bulemia nervosa

Explanation: Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an abnormally low body weight, an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted perception of weight. Botulism is a rare and potentially fatal illness caused by a toxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum Obesity is a complex disease involving an excessive amount of body fat. Bulimia nervosa, commonly called bulimia, is an eating disorder characterized by an obsession for binge eating.

Q39. Skull, vertebral column, ribs, and sternum forms:

• A. Appendicular skeleton
• B. Hydrostatic skeleton
• C. Exoskeleton
• D. Axial skeleton✓

Explanation: The axial skeleton forms a vertical axis that includes the head, neck, back, and chest. It has 80 bones and consists of the skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage.The appendicular skeleton is the portion of the skeleton of vertebrates consisting of the bones that support the appendages. There are 126 bones. The appendicular skeleton includes the skeletal elements within the limbs, as well as supporting shoulder girdle pectoral and pelvic girdle.A hydrostatic skeleton is a skeleton formed by a fluid-filled compartment within the body, called the coelom.An exoskeleton is an external skeleton that supports and protects an animal's body.

Q40. Chitin which makes the Exoskeleton in insects is further hardened by:

• A. Protein and Sodium Bicarbonate
• B. Protein and Calcium Carbonate✓
• C. Protein and Potassium Carbonate
• D. Protein and Sodium Carbonate

Explanation: Chitin is translucent and tough in its pure form, but it also combines with other materials to form a strong outer structure. For example, in arthropods, it combines with proteins while in crustaceans, it combines with calcium carbonate. This material makes the exoskeleton and shells hard, tough, and stiff.

Q41. Following group is the example of acoelomates:

• A. Annelids
• B. Aschelminthes
• C. Molluscs
• D. Platyhelminthes✓

Explanation: Acoelomates do not possess a body cavity or coelom i.e the fluid-filled cavity between the digestive tract and the body wall that also surrounds the other internal organs is absent. Platyhelminthes and sponges are classic examples of acoelomates. In some animals, the embryonic blastocoel acts as a fluid-filled cavity. This body cavity is partially lined with the mesodermal derivative cells. Here, the coelom is much reduced or lost. It is not considered a true coelom, and hence the name pseudocoelomates. Examples include nematodes (roundworms). Animals that have their body cavities filled with fluid are called coelomates. Their internal organs are suspended in the fluid cavity. Examples include arthropods, annelids, molluscs, hemichordates, echinoderms and chordates.

Q42. If an α-helix of a polypeptide consist of 360 amino acids, how many turns does the helix contain?

• A. 3.6 turns
• B. 100 turns✓
• C. 360 turns
• D. The number of turns can not be determind

Explanation: An alpha(α) helix contains 3.6 amino acids per turn of the helix. If a polypeptide consists of 360 amino acids, the turns in the helix would be 100. 360÷3.6=100 amino acids.

Q43. Glycolysis takes place in the _ of cells.

• A. Nucleus
• B. Mitochondria
• C. Golgi complex
• D. Cytoplasm✓

Explanation: Glycolysis, the first step of aerobic respiration, which results in the formation of two molecules of pyruvate from one molecule of glucose, occurs in the 'cytoplasm' of the cell. Hence, option D is correct.Option A mentions the 'nucleus', which is not involved in any steps of respiration.Option B mentions 'mitochondria', which is the site for the remaining steps of aerobic respiration; after pyruvate is made in the cytoplasm via glycolysis, it is shunted into the mitochondria where it is involved in the formation of acetyl CoA via the link reaction after which the Krebs Cycle takes place (link reaction and Krebs cycle occur in the mitochondrial matrix). Finally, the terminal reaction of aerobic respiration occurs across the inner mitochondrial membrane, which is oxidative phosphorylation.Option C mentions the Golgi complex, which is not involved in any steps of respiration; it merely serves as the site of protein packaging and subsequent transport.

Q44. If a carrier haemophilic female (XHXh) is married to a haemophilic male (XhY). What will be the ratio of presence of haemophilia in the children. Select best answer from the given options.

• A. 100% all females and males will be haemophilic
• B. Females have 50% chances of getting haemophilia and males will be 100% haemophilic
• C. Carrier female 25%, haemophilic female 25%, normal male 25% and 25% haemophilic male✓
• D. Females and males both have 50% chances of getting haemophilia

Explanation: As per the cross given above, there are four possible genotypes and hence, four possible phenotypes. These are; carrier daughter, hemophiliac daughter, normal son, and hemophiliac son, and all four have an equal probability or likelihood of occurring, which is 25 percent. Option C describes this scenario correctly so, it is the correct option.Option A describes a scenario in which the mother is a hemophiliac (i.e. has a genotype of XhXh) and the father is also a hemophiliac (genotype XhY), which results in all the children being hemophiliacs.Option B describes an impossible scenario, as in order for all the males to be hemophiliac, the mother must have a genotype of XhXh, but in this scenario, the daughters will either be all hemophiliacs or all carriers (father's genotype being either XhY or XHY, respectively). Hence, for all males to be hemophiliacs, it is impossible for the females to have 50% chance of being hemophiliacs.Option D also describes the given scenario, because if you look at the figure above, males will either be normal or hemophiliac, and females will either be carriers or hemophiliac, as such, each gender has a 50% chance of being hemophiliacs. However, option C better describes this scenario as it specifically lists down the probabilities of all four possible phenotypes. (NOTE: Question asks the candidate to select the BEST possible answer from the given options).

Q45. Which of the following photosystems is involved in cyclic photophosphorylation?

• A. PS II
• B. PS I✓
• C. PS I and PS II
• D. PS III

Explanation: Cyclic photophosphorylation (which is depicted by the yellow arrows above) employs the use of ONLY photosystem I (PS1) and not PSII, which is involved in non cyclic photophosphorylation.

Q46. Which hormonal pair would maintain the endometrium and make it receptive for implantation of embryo?

• A. Luteinising Hormone and Progesterone
• B. Estrogen and Progesterone✓
• C. Estrogen and Follicle Stimulating Hormone
• D. Luteinising Hormone and Follicle Stimulating Hormone

Explanation: Follicular growth and ovulation are stimulated by follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone, while development and maintenance of the endometrial lining is brought about by the action of estrogen and progesterone. As such, the option which mentions BOTH, estrogen and progesterone, (and NOT FSH and LH) is the correct answer, which is option B.

Q47. The thick filaments, in a myofibril of muscles, are made of _.

• A. Myoglobin
• B. Myosin✓
• C. Actin
• D. Haemoglobin

Explanation: Option A, myoglobin, is a heme-containing protein found in muscles, that binds to oxygen, which it supplies to muscle tissue. Option B, myosin, is the correct answer as it forms thick filaments in a myofibril. Option C, actin, forms thin filaments in a myofibril. Option D, haemoglobin, is the heme-containing protein found in red blood cells and serves to carry oxygen within the blood.

Q48. How many molecules of ATP would be utilized for phosphorylation of one glucose molecule during glycolysis?

• A. Three
• B. Two✓
• C. Four
• D. One

Explanation: Two ATP molecules are used to phospshorylate glucose; the first is used to convert glucose into glucose-6-phosphate, while the second is used to convert fructose-6-phosphate into fructose-1,6-bisphosphate.

Q49. Glycosidic bond is formed by the:

• A. Removal of Oxygen
• B. Addition of Oxygen
• C. Removal of water✓
• D. Addition of water

Explanation: Glycosidic bond is a condensation reaction between two sugar units, where the H- group from one sugar interacts with the -OH group on another to release water and link the sugar units together to form a polysaccharide.

Q50. Which cells synthesize testosterone?

• A. Adrenal medulla of adrenal glands
• B. Adrenal cortex of adrenal glands
• C. Interstitial cells of testis✓
• D. Graffian follicle

Explanation: Interstitial cells also known as Leydig cells are present in intertubular spaces i.e. adjacent to seminiferous tubules of testes. These cells are responsible for the successful production of male sex hormone i.e. testosterone.

Q51. Diffused nervous system is present in which animal group?

• A. Platyhelminthes
• B. Annelida
• C. Cnidaria✓
• D. Porifera

Explanation: Diffused systems are found in cnidarians (hydroids) i.e. phylum cnidaria.

Q52. What is correct about triploblastic animals?

• A. They all show bilateral symmetry✓
• B. They show radial as well as bilateral symmetry
• C. They are all protostomes
• D. They are all deuterostomes

Explanation: Triploblastic animals are included in a phyla which have been placed in grade bilatera. This means all of them are bilateral in nature. Phylum Echinodermata has radial symmetry in adult form which is an exception.

Q53. Survival of the fittest depends upon:

• A. Acquired characters of the organisms
• B. Genetic drift
• C. Depends in part on the hereditary consulation of the surviving individuals✓
• D. Natural catastrophes

Explanation: The survival of the fittest, a term made famous in the fifth edition (published in 1869) of On the Origin of Species by British naturalist Charles Darwin, suggested that organisms best adjusted to their environment are the most successful in surviving and reproducing.

Q54. According to Darwin, a diverse life-form could arise from:

• A. Common ancestor✓
• B. Random mutation
• C. The process of special creation
• D. Inheritance of aquired characters

Explanation: Through natural selection, Darwin suggested, genetically diverse species could arise from a common ancestor.

Q55. Exceptionally, the positive hydrostatic pressure generated by root pressure is about how many Kpa?

• A. 600
• B. 700
• C. 800✓
• D. 900

Explanation: It has been estimated that a positive hydrostatic pressure of around 100 to 200 KPa (exceptionally 800 KPa) is generated by root pressure.

Q56. According to the theory of natural selection, organisms produce:

• A. Offspring according to the resources available
• B. Offspring to create resources
• C. To create resources
• D. More offspring than supported✓

Explanation: According to the 'theory of natural selection', organisms produce more offsprings, than those who can survive i.e. the environment can not support all offsprings produced so, only those offspring with traits, better matched to the environment, will survive and reproduce more effectively than others, who die off due to absence of traits that confer a selective advantage. This is the basis of evolution. Hence, option D is correct.Option A is incorrect, as it describes the scenario opposite to that of natural selection.Options, B and C, are both extremely similar and incorrect, as offspring consume the resources of the environment.

Q57. In cross-section each Centriole consist of nine (each in triplets) of:

• A. Microfilaments
• B. Microvilli
• C. Microtubules✓
• D. Intermediate filaments

Explanation: Typical centrioles are made of 9 triplets of microtubules organized with radial symmetry. Microfilaments, also called actin filaments, are polymers of the protein actin that are part of a cell's cytoskeleton. Microvilli are microscopic cellular membrane protrusions that increase the surface area for diffusion and minimize any increase in volume, and are involved in a wide variety of functions. Intermediate filaments are important components of the cell's cytoskeletal system. They may stabilize organelles, like the nucleus, or they may be involved in specialized junctions. They are distinguished from "thin filaments" by their size (8-10 nm) and the fact that thin filaments are motile.

Q58. In immunoglobulins / antibodies, Two light chains and two heavy chains are linked to each other by:

• A. Covalent bonds
• B. Hydrogen bonds
• C. Ionic bonds
• D. Disulphide bonds✓

Explanation: Antibodies are proteins found in the blood and lymph that are secreted by the plasma cells arising from the B-lymphocytes. B-lymphocytes are white blood cells with a non-granular cytoplasm that are produced and matured in the bone marrow (primary lymphoid organ). B-lymphocytes migrate to secondary lymphoid organs like spleen, tonsils, lymph nodes, etc., when they mature and come in contact with trapped antigens. They undergo cell division and differentiation to form plasma cells which secrete antibodies. Each antibody is made up of two short light (L) peptide chains and two long heavy (H) peptide chains (H2L2) joined to each other by disulfide bonds. Disulfide bonds are covalent linkages between the sulphur-containing side chains of cysteine amino acids. The peptide chains are arranged in a Y shaped structure. Each chain in the antibody has both constant and variable regions. The amino acid sequence and conformation of the variable region keeps changing from one type of antibody to the other. The conformation and amino acid sequence of the constant region remains the same. The unique antigen binding site in each antibody that is compatible with specific antigens is composed of the variable regions of both the heavy and the light chains.

Q59. The first part of the large intestine is:

• A. Colon
• B. Appendix
• C. Caecum✓
• D. Rectum

Explanation: The large intestine has four parts: cecum, colon, rectum, and anal canal. Partly digested food moves through the cecum into the colon, where water and some nutrients and electrolytes are removed. The remaining material, solid waste called stool, moves through the colon, is stored in the rectum, and leaves the body through the anal canal and anus. The appendix is a small, tube-like structure attached to the first part of the large intestine.

Q60. Scapula is a:

• A. Tail bone
• B. Hip bone
• C. Skull bone
• D. Shoulder bone✓

Explanation: The scapula or shoulder blade is the bone that connects the clavicle to the humerus. The scapula forms the posterior of the shoulder girdle. It is a sturdy, flat, triangular bone. The scapula provides attachment to several groups of muscles.

Q61. Which lipid is hydrophilic and soluble?

• A. Triglycerides
• B. Phospholipids✓
• C. Waxes
• D. Terpenoids

Explanation: Phospholipids are soluble in both water and oil (amphiphilic) because the hydrocarbon tails of two fatty acids are still hydrophobic, but the phosphate group end is hydrophilic. Phospholipids are the major component of cell membrane to form lipid bilayers.

Q62. Phages which show lysogenic cycle are known as:

• A. Enveloped Phage
• B. Virulent Phage
• C. Temperate phages✓
• D. Bacteriophage

Explanation: Temperate phages are some bacteriophages which display a lysogenic life cycle. Lysogeny is characterized by an integration of the bacteriophage nucleic acid into the host bacteria genome and becomes prophage. In this condition, the bacterium continues to live and reproduce normally. Bacteriophages that only use the lytic cycle are called virulent phages. So, the correct answer is 'temperate phages'.

Q63. Organs specialized to perform different functions but structurally alike are:

• A. Analogous organs
• B. Homologous organs✓
• C. Autologous organs
• D. Anuclogous organs

Explanation: Organs that have the same internal structure but perform different functions are called homologous organs. Analogous organs are the opposite of homologous organs, which have similar functions but different origins.

Q64. If lipopolysaccharides did not appear in the wall of bacteria on staining then it will be known as _.

• A. Gram negative
• B. Gram positive✓
• C. Capsule
• D. Both Gram positive & negative

Explanation: The Gram stain procedure distinguishes between Gram positive and Gram negative groups by coloring these cells red or violet. Gram positive bacteria stain violet due to the presence of a thick layer of peptidoglycan in their cell walls, which retains the crystal violet these cells are stained with. Alternatively, Gram negative bacteria stain pink, which is attributed to a thinner peptidoglycan wall, which does not retain the crystal violet during the decoloring process.Gram-positive bacteria do not contain lipopolysaccharides, but carry surface teichoic acids, lipoteichoic acids and peptidoglycan instead.The outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria contains lipopolysaccharides, proteins, and phospholipids.The bacterial capsule is a large structure of many bacteria. It is a polysaccharide layer that lies outside the cell envelope, and is thus deemed part of the outer envelope of a bacterial cell.

Q65. The low levels of Surfactant produced by Alveolar epithelium causes:

• A. Respiratory distress syndrome✓
• B. Emphysema
• C. Bronchitis
• D. Asthma

Explanation: The key feature of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) is the insufficient production of surfactant in the lungs.Emphysema is a lung condition that causes shortness of breath. In people with emphysema, the air sacs in the lungs (alveoli) are damaged. Over time, the inner walls of the air sacs weaken and rupture — creating larger air spaces instead of many small ones.Bronchitis is an infection of the main airways of the lungs (bronchi), causing them to become irritated and inflamed.Asthma is a condition in which your airways narrow and swell and may produce extra mucus. This can make breathing difficult and trigger coughing.

Q66. Which of the following provides resistance against high temperature?

• A. Cysts
• B. Spores✓
• C. Cell wall
• D. Capsules

Explanation: Endospores (spores withing the vegetative cells) are tough dormant structures that form inside the cell wall of certain types of bacteria, such as Bacillus. These tough capsules form in response to adverse conditions such as drought or high temperatures.

Q67. Which of the following is a dominant x-linked trait in human?

• A. Testicular feminization
• B. Haemophllia
• C. Colorblindness
• D. Hypophosphatemic rickets✓

Explanation: Humans have many X - linked traits of which some like haemophilia and colour blindness are recessive while others like hypophosphatemic or vitamin D resistant rickets are dominant. X - linked dominant is a trait which is determined by an X linked dominant gene, while X - linked recessive is a trait that is determined by an X - linked recessive gene. Their patterns of inheritance are very different from each other. For a deeper understanding, please refer to the section "Sex linkage in humans" (PTB, chapter 22).

Q68. Which enzyme is administered to the patients of Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disease (SCID)?

• A. Adenosine Deaminase (ADA)✓
• B. Pancreatic Enzyme
• C. ß-galactosidase
• D. ß-lactamase

Explanation: 'SCID' is due to Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency so, it is administered to overcome the deficiency. Hence, option A is correct. Pancreatic enzymes (B) partake in digestion. Beta-galactosidase (C) breaks down lactose into glucose and galactose in certain organisms. Beta-lactamase (D) is an enzyme produced by bacteria, that confers their resistance against beta-lactam drugs, such as penicillin, as it breaks down the beta-lactam ring present in these drugs.

Q69. Site of protein synthesis in cells are:

• A. Ribosomes✓
• B. Endoplasmic Reticulum
• C. Nucleolus
• D. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

Explanation: The site of protein synthesis in the cell are ribosomes. These are present attached to the surface of the rough endoplasmic reticulum and also in the free state in the cytoplasm. These organelles are involved in the process of translation which is the conversion of the mRNA to protein.

Q70. Which one of the following cells does not have nucleus:

• A. Eosinophils
• B. Neutrophils
• C. Basophils
• D. Platelets✓

Explanation: Platelets are irregularly shaped, have no nucleus, and typically measure only 2–3 micrometers in diameter. Platelets are not true cells, but are instead classified as cell fragments produced by megakaryocytes. Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are all types of white blood cells that contain nucleus.

Q71. Rod-shaped bacteria are known as _

• A. Spirilla
• B. Bacilli✓
• C. Spirochete
• D. Cocci

Explanation: Bacilli are rod shaped bacteria.Cocci are spherical shaped bacteria.Spirillas are corkscrew shaped bacteria.Spirochetes are any group of spiral shaped bacteria.

Q72. Which one of the following act as a PACEMAKER in heart:

• A. Bundle of His
• B. Atrioventricular node
• C. Atrioventricular bundles of fibers
• D. Sinoatrial node✓

Explanation: Electrical impulses from the heart muscle cause your heart to beat (contract). This electrical signal begins in the sinoatrial (SA) node, located at the top of the heart's upper-right chamber (the right atrium). The SA node is known as the heart's “natural pacemaker. The bundle of His is a collection of heart muscle cells specialized for electrical conduction that transmits the electrical impulses from the AV node (located between the atria and the ventricles) to the point of the apex of the fascicular branches via the bundle branches. The atrioventricular node or AV node is a part of the electrical conduction system of the heart that coordinates the top of the heart. It electrically connects the atria and ventricles.

Q73. Which statement is correct about atrial systole?

• A. Atria relax and ventricles contract
• B. Atria contract and ventricle also contract
• C. Ventricles remain relaxed while atria contracts✓
• D. Atria and ventricles are relaxed

Explanation: During atrial systole the atrium contracts and tops off the volume in the ventricle with only a small amount of blood. Atrial contraction is complete before the ventricle begins to contract.

Q74. Growth in the larva of young arthropods is restricted by:

• A. Exoskeleton✓
• B. Appendages
• C. Endoskeleton
• D. Reduced mitosis

Explanation: As the body underneath the exoskeleton grows, the animal begins to outgrow its tough exterior. In order to cope with this situation, arthropods undergo a process of shedding their exoskeleton and forming a new one periodically throughout their lifetime. This process is called molting, or ecdysis.

Q75. NADP, nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate, is a carrier of:

• A. -OH group
• B. O2 group
• C. Hydrogen✓
• D. Phosphate

Explanation: NADP+ is a coenzyme that functions as a universal electron carrier, accepting electrons and hydrogen atoms to form NADPH, or nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate.

Q76. Divergent Evolution produces:

• A. Vital Organs
• B. Homologous Organs✓
• C. Vestigial Organs
• D. Analogous Organs

Explanation: Homologous organs are created in divergent evolution. Homologous organs refer to the organs with similar structures but having different functions. The evolution of apes and humans from common primate ancestors is an example of divergent evolution.

Q77. Antivenom given after a snake bite venom is an example of:

• A. Natural passive immunity
• B. Artificial active immunity
• C. Natural active immunity
• D. Artificial passive immunity✓

Explanation: Artificially-acquired passive immunity is an immediate, but short-term immunization provided by the injection of antibodies, such as gamma globulin, that are not produced by the recipient's cells. These antibodies are developed in another individual or animal and then injected into another individual for example the antivenom after a snake bite.

Q78. The cisternae breaks up into vesicles from _ , _ of Golgi complex.

• A. Convex, maturing face
• B. Concave, forming face
• C. Convex, forming face
• D. Concave, maturing face✓

Explanation: The trans face of golgi apparatus (concave surface) where the cisternae breaks up to form new vesicles is also known as the maturing face.

Q79. If a heterozygous round pea plant is crossed with a wrinkled pea plant, what is the probability of homozygous phenotypes in the progeny?

• A. 25%
• B. 50%✓
• C. 75%
• D. 100%

Explanation: When a heterozygous round seeded plant (Rr) is crossed with a homozygous wrinkled seeded plant (rr), in the next generation, 50% of progeny are heterozygous round (Rr) and 50% progeny are homozygous wrinkled (rr).

Q80. Inside ovary, primary oocyte divides through first meiotic division, forming two haploid cells, the secondary oocyte and:

• A. Ovum
• B. Oogonium
• C. Follicle cell
• D. Polar body✓

Explanation: Inside the ovary, during the process of oogenesis, the primary oocyte undergoes the first meiotic division, resulting in the formation of two haploid cells. These cells are the secondary oocyte and a smaller cell called the first polar body. The first polar body is a smaller cell that contains a portion of the genetic material but minimal cytoplasm. The polar bodies typically do not play a direct role in fertilization and are eventually broken down or reabsorbed.

Q81. Which hormone causes the contraction walls of the uterus during the process of birth?

• A. FSH
• B. STH
• C. Oxytocin✓
• D. LTH

Explanation: During birth the oxytocin causes the smooth muscle in the uterine wall to contract. Growth hormone (GH) or somatotropin, also known as human growth hormones (hGH or HGH) in its human form, is a peptide hormone that stimulates growth, cell reproduction, and cell regeneration in humans and other animals.Follicle stimulating hormone is one of the hormones essential to pubertal development and the function of women's ovaries and men's testes. In women, this hormone stimulates the growth of ovarian follicles in the ovary before the release of an egg from one follicle at ovulation. Prolactin, also known as lactotropin (LTH), is a protein best known for its role in enabling mammals, usually females, to produce milk.

Q82. Which of the following is Unsaturated “Fatty Acid”?

• A. Stearic Acid
• B. Palmitic Acid
• C. Butyric Acid
• D. Oleic Acid✓

Explanation: Oleic acid is a mono-unsaturated omega-9 fatty acid found in various animal and vegetable sources.

Q83. When we extract Carotenoids from its source we see that it is:

• A. Violet in color
• B. Blue green in color
• C. Yellow green in color
• D. Yellow to orange red in color✓

Explanation: Carotenoids also called tetraterpenoids, are yellow, orange, and red organic pigments that are produced by plants and algae, as well as several bacteria, and fungi.

Q84. The average atomic mass of Boron is 10.8. It has two isotopes of masses 10 and 11 respectively. What is the percentage of isotope with the average mass of 10?

• A. 20%✓
• B. 60%
• C. 80%
• D. 50%

Explanation: The formula for calculating the average atomic mass is[ (Mass of one isotope x percentage abundance) + (mass of other isotope x percentage abundance) divided by 100]. In this question, aside from using the formula for each option which would be a bit time consuming, you can take clues from the question itself. The average mass of Boron is 10.8, which is closer to 11 than 10. As such, you can conclude that the abundance of 10 isotope is lesser than the abundance of the 11 isotope, as such, its abundance MUST be less than 50%. The only option with an abundance less than 50 percent is option A, 20 percent. If you check this with the formula, the answer comes out to be correct:[(10 x 20) + (11 x 80) divided by 100] is 10.8.

Q85. Which one of the following compounds is an additional polymer?

• A. Polyvinyl chloride✓
• B. Nylon
• C. Carbohydrate
• D. Polyester

Explanation: An 'addition polymer' is a polymer which consists of monomers, that add on to each other or combine without the formation of a secondary product, whereas in 'condensation polymers', the functional groups of monomers condense, such that a secondary product, such as H2O, is also formed. Out of all these options, only option A is an addition polymer, whereas all three others are condensation polymers.

Q86. Select the reagent X from the following choices for this conversion:

• A. Acidified Potassium hydroxide
• B. Acidified Potassium dichromate (VI)✓
• C. Acidified Phosphoric acid
• D. Acidified Oxalic acid

Explanation: The reaction above is oxidation of a secondary alcohol into a ketone. As such, an oxidizing agent must be chosen for reagent X. Among the options, 'Potassium dichromate (VI)' is an oxidizing agent so, the correct option is B. Another answer could be 'potassium manganate (VII)', but it is not mentioned in any of the options. The other options do not oxidize alcohols.

Q87. Which of the following catalysts is used in the below reaction?

• A. Conc. H2SO4✓
• B. Purnice stone
• C. Pt
• D. Ni

Explanation: Esterification process is a slow process when it is performed at room temperature also the process does not complete at all in the room temperature. So to complete the process of esterification there should be something to complete the process as well as to speed up the process. Thus concentrated sulphuric acid is added. It is a catalyst which will speed up the process and esterification will proceed speedily and complete on time. Also concentrated sulphuric acid has a property to remove water. Therefore it also acts as a dehydrating agent. After adding this will take reaction in the equilibrium position and will be able to give a greater yield of ester as result.

Q88. Halothane is a halo derivative of:

• A. Methane
• B. Ethane✓
• C. Methanol
• D. Ethanol

Explanation: The chemical Formula for Halothane is F3CCHBRCI, which is a derivative of the chemical formula of Ethane (C2H6).

Q89. The species which are produced by heterolytic bond breaking and can act as electron pair donors are known as:

• A. Nucleophiles✓
• B. Cations
• C. Free radicals
• D. Anions

Explanation: A nucleophile is a chemical species that donates an electron pair to form a chemical bond in relation to a reaction. Heterolytic bond cleavage (heterolytic cleavage; heterolysis): Bond breaking in which the bonding electron pair is split unevenly between the products. Heterolytic cleavage often produces at least one ion.Cation is a positively charged ion.Anion is a negatively charged ion.A free radical is an atom, molecule, or ion that has an unpaired valence electron.

Q90. Which of the following reactions are given by alcohol and phenol both?

• A. Esterification✓
• B. Nitrosation
• C. Amide formation
• D. Lucas Reaction

Explanation: Esterification is the process of combining an organic acid (RCOOH) with an alcohol (ROH) to form an ester (RCOOR) and water; or a chemical reaction resulting in the formation of at least one ester product. Ester is obtained by an esterification reaction of an alcohol or phenol and a carboxylic acid.

Q91. AcetaIs are:

• A. Diethers✓
• B. Aldehydes
• C. Carboxylic acid
• D. Ketones

Explanation: An acetal is an organic molecule where two separate oxygen atoms are single-bonded to a central carbon atom. Acetals are geminal-diether derivatives of aldehydes or ketones, formed by reaction with two equivalents (or an excess amount) of alcohol and elimination of water.

Q92. Which of the following is not an IUPAC name of the compound?

• A. Methanoic acid
• B. Ethanoic acid
• C. Propanoic acid
• D. Propionic acid✓

Explanation: Propionic acid is a common name. Its IUPAC name is Propanoic acid. All other options are IUPAC names.

Q93. In the structure of diamond, each carbon atom is _ hybridized?

• A. sp3✓
• B. sp2
• C. sp
• D. dsp2

Explanation: In a diamond, the carbon atoms are arranged tetrahedrally. Each carbon atom is sp3 hybridised and attached to four other carbon atoms 1.544 x 10-10 metres away with a C-C-C bond angle of 109.5 degrees. It is a strong, rigid three-dimensional structure that results in an infinite network of atoms.

Q94. The amount of product according to the balanced chemical equation is called as?

• A. Theoretical yield✓
• B. Actual amount
• C. Limiting amount
• D. Stoichiometric amount

Explanation: The amount of the products obtained in a chemical reaction is called the actual yield of that reaction. The amount of the products calculated from the balanced chemical equation represents the theoretical yield. The theoretical yield is the maximum amount of the product that can be produced by a given amount of a reactant, according to balanced chemical equation.

Q95. The product of the concentrations of each ion in a saturated solution of a sparingly soluble salt at 298 K, raised to the power of their relative concentrations is:

• A. Ksp✓
• B. Ka
• C. Kw
• D. Kb

Explanation: Solubility product, Ksp, is the mathematical product of the dissolved ions concentration raised to the power of their stoichiometric coefficients. An acid dissociation constant (Ka) is a quantitative measure of the strength of an acid in solution. Kb is the base dissociation constant. The base dissociation constant is a measure of how completely a base dissociates into its component ions in water. The equilibrium constant, Kw, is called the dissociation constant or ionization constant of water.

Q96. Ligands having two lone pair of electrons for donation to the central transition metal ion are known as:

• A. Polydentate ligands
• B. Monodentate ligand
• C. Bidentate ligands✓
• D. Hexadentate ligands

Explanation: Bidentate ligands have two lone pairs, both of which can bond to the central metal ion. Monodentate ligand is a ligand that has only one atom that coordinates directly to the central atom in a complex. A polydentate ligand is a ligand that is attached to a central metal ion by bonds from two or more donor atoms. A hexadentate ligand in coordination chemistry is a ligand that combines with a central metal atom with six bonds.

Q97. Which is the structure of polyvinyl chloride (polychloroethane)?

• A. -[CCl2-CCl2]-
• B. -[HCCl-CH-Cl]-
• C. [H2C=CH-Cl]
• D. -[H2C-CH-Cl]-✓

Explanation: Poly(vinyl chloride) (PVC) is a synthetic resin made from vinyl chloride and is a member of a large family of polymers broadly referred to as “vinyls.” The chemical formula for vinyl chloride is H2C=CHCl, and the formula for PVC is (H2C–CHCl)n, where n is the degree of polymerization.

Q98. Which principle contradicts the Bohr's model?

• A. Planck quantum theory
• B. Hunds rule
• C. Pauli's exclusion principle
• D. Heisenberg's uncertainty principle✓

Explanation: Bohr's model of an atom is contradicted by Heisenberg's uncertainty principle.According to Bohr's model, an electron in an atom is located at a definite distance from the nucleus and is revolving with a definite velocity around it. According to Heisenberg's uncertainty principle, it is impossible to simultaneously determine the exact position and momentum (or velocity) of the electron.

Q99. How many unpaired electrons are there in the Nitrogen atom?

• A. 3✓
• B. 4
• C. 5
• D. 6

Explanation: Nitrogen belongs to group number VA. Its electronic configuration is 1s2, 2s2, 2p3. So it has three unpaired electrons in its valence shell.

Q100. Intermolecular forces between gas molecules are significant at:

• A. High temperature and low pressure
• B. Low temperature and high pressure✓
• C. At standard temperature and pressure
• D. At high temperature and high pressure

Explanation: The effect of intermolecular forces is much more prominent at low temperatures because the molecules have less kinetic energy to overcome the intermolecular attractions.At high pressure, the molecules become closer together and the intermolecular forces become prominent.

Q101. Which of the following substances has the largest intermolecular forces of attraction?

• A. H2O✓
• B. H2S
• C. H2Se
• D. H2Te

Explanation: The strongest intermolecular force is hydrogen bonding, which is a particular subset of dipole-dipole interactions .It occurs when a hydrogen atom is in close proximity to a highly electronegative atom; namely oxygen, fluorine, nitrogen etc. Among the given option only option A has hydrogen bond hence it is the correct answer.

Q102. The correct value for the enthalpy of formation of CO is:

• A. -110kJ/mol✓
• B. -210kJ/mol
• C. +110kJ/mol
• D. +210kJ/mol

Explanation: The value of enthalpy of formation of CO is -110kJ/mol

Q103. Copper is a typical transition metal. Its atomic number is 29. In which oxidation state does it have a partially filled orbital in d-subshell?

• A. Cu
• B. Cu+
• C. Cu-
• D. Cu2+✓

Explanation: Electronic configuration of the options are as follows: Option A, Cu: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s1, so its d subshell is filled Option B, Cu+: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10, so its d subshell is filled Option C, Cu-: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2, so its d subshell is filled. Option D, Cu2+: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d9, so its d subshell is not filled completely, one orbital is partially filled, so it is the correct answer.

Q104. The decomposition of phosphorus pentachloride in the presence of moisture takes place by the following mechanism. The rate equation for this reaction will be:

• A. Rate = k [POCl3][H2O]3
• B. Rate = k [PCl5][H2O]✓
• C. Rate = k [PCl5][H2O]4
• D. Rate = [PCl5][H2O]

Explanation: For the rate equation, the reactants of ONLY the rate-determining step, which is the slow step, are taken into account in a multi-step reaction, NOT the overall equation or the fast step. Since the slow step here consists of one mole of PCL5 and one mole of H2O in the reactants, the rate equation will contain these two substances, each raised to the power 1, which is reflected in option B only.Option A takes into account the fast step only.Option C takes into account the overall reaction.Option D does not have the rate constant k mentioned in the question.

Q105. Which type of reaction takes place when a carbonyl compound is treated with a mixture of NaCN and an acid?

• A. Electrophilic addition reaction
• B. Substitution reaction
• C. Nucleophilic addition reaction✓
• D. Displacement reaction

Explanation: The given scenario is an example of a nucleophilic addition reaction, as the reactant, CN- is a nucleophile which adds across the carbonyl bond.Option A describes reactions undergone by alkenes, where an electrophile is added across the carbon-carbon double bond.Option B describes a reaction where one group of atoms is replaced by another group of atoms, but this is not the case here.Option D describes a reaction in which one element is replaced by another element in a compound.

Q106. An intermolecular force of attraction X is relatively stronger than the other intermolecular forces. It stabilizes alpha-helix and Beta-pleated sheets of proteins. The double helical structure of DNA is also stabilized by this force of attraction. Identify X.

• A. Van Der Waals Forces
• B. Hydrogen bonding✓
• C. Ionic interactions
• D. Dipole dipole attraction

Explanation: Option A, Van der Waals forces are the weakest intermolecular forces and are not found in the examples, mentioned in the question given.Option B is correct, as H bonding stabilizes DNA structure as it is between bases in a complementary base pair as well as it stabilizes the secondary structures, such as alpha-helix and beta-pleated sheet. It is also stronger than the other intermolecular attraction, which is Van der Waals forces. Option C is present between ions and not molecules, and is not found within DNA or in secondary protein structures. Option D is an example of a Van der Waals force.

Q107. Which compound will be produced by the oxidation of ethanal by acidified K2Cr2O7 ?

• A. Ethene
• B. Ethanol
• C. Ethanoic acid✓
• D. Ethanone

Explanation: Aldehyde when undergoes oxidation reaction in presence of acidified potassium dichromate or alkaline potassium permanganate forms carboxylic acid as a product.

Q108. Alcohol in which carbon atom bonded to OH group is further attached with three alkyl group is:

• A. Tertiary alcohol✓
• B. Primary alcohol
• C. Aromatic alcohol
• D. Secondary alcohol

Explanation: A tertiary (3°) alcohol is one in which the carbon atom with the OH group is attached to three other carbon atoms. Its general formula is R3COH Primary alcohols are those alcohols where the carbon atom of the hydroxyl group (OH) is attached to only one single alkyl group. The aromatic alcohols or aryl-alcohols are a class of chemical compounds containing a hydroxyl group (—OH) bonded directly to an aromatic hydrocarbon group. A secondary alcohol is a compound in which a hydroxyl group( ‒OH) is attached to a saturated carbon atom which has two other carbon atoms attached to it.

Q109. The standard electrode potential of hydrogen is arbitrarily taken at 298 K is _

• A. 0.00 volt✓
• B. 0.10 volt
• C. 10.0 volt
• D. 1.00 volt

Explanation: The standard hydrogen electrode potential by conventional at 298 K is taken to be 0.00 volts.

Q110. Cu ion takes up 2 electrons to give an electrode potential value of:

• A. +0.76 v
• B. -0.32 v
• C. +0.34 v
• D. -0.34 v✓

Explanation: The electrode potential value of copper and copper ions is -0.34 V.

Q111. Which of the following molecule shows cis- trans isomers?

• A. C2H4
• B. C2H2Cl4
• C. C2H2Br2✓
• D. C2HCl3

Explanation: For cis-trans isomerism, the rotation must be restricted in the molecule (so, cannot occur in compounds that only have C-C single bonds) and there must be two non-identical groups on each double-bonded carbon atom. Option A does not fulfill this requirement, as each double-bonded carbon atom has two identical groups i.e. each C has two H atoms attached to it.Option B does not fulfill these requirements as it is a halogenoalkane, with no C-C double bonds so, rotation is not restricted in the molecule.Option C fulfills these requirements, as not only is rotation restricted as it has a C-C double bond, each carbon atom has two non-identical atoms, i.e. each C has one Hydrogen atom and one Bromine atom so, this option is correct.Option D does not fulfill the requirements as well as even though one double-bonded carbon atom has two non-identical atoms i.e. one H atom and one Cl atom, the other carbon has two identical Cl atoms.

Q112. Which of the following acts as a nucleophile in the reaction of alkyl halide with alcoholic / aqueous ammonia?

• A. H+
• B. NH3✓
• C. NO2+
• D. Br-

Explanation: Since ammonia is nucleophilic, it attacks the electropositive carbon and causes the Br- ion to leave, this allows for the formation of amines as a result of this reaction.

Q113. Liquid in the container has a temperature 70°C. What will be the temperature on the Kelvin scale?

• A. 350 K
• B. 343 K✓
• C. 300 K
• D. 283 K

Explanation: To convert temperature from celsius to kelvin scale the formula is °C + 273.15 K 70° + 273.15 =343 K.

Q114. The shape of [Co(NH3)6]3+ complex is:

• A. Linear
• B. Square planar
• C. Tetrahedral
• D. Octahedral✓

Explanation: The cobalt ion is in +3 oxidation state and has an electronic configuration of 3d6. Six pairs of electrons, one from each ammonia molecule, occupy the six hybrid orbitals, hence the molecule is diamagnetic and octahedral in shape.

Q115. Which of the following is the correct equation to calculate relative molecular mass of a gas.

• A. M = mPR / VT
• B. M = PV / mRT
• C. M = mPRT / V
• D. M = mRT / PV✓

Explanation: Since PV=NRT where n = m / M PV=MRT / M M=mRT / PV.

Q116. How many hybrdized orbitals are formed by intermixing of 4 atomic orbitals?

• A. 2
• B. 4✓
• C. 8
• D. 6

Explanation: The number of hybrid orbitals is equal to the number of atomic orbitals so by intermixing 4 atomic orbitals, 4 hybrid orbitals will be formed.

Q117. The pi bonds surrounding the sigma bonds in an ethyne molecule are in the shape of:

• A. Linear
• B. Cylindrical✓
• C. Trigonal Planar
• D. Tetrahedral

Explanation: Ethyne molecule contains one Sigma and two Pi bonds.The shape of Pi orbitals is cylindrical.

Q118. An element that forms interstitial compounds is _.

• A. C✓
• B. F
• C. Cs
• D. Rb

Explanation: Interstitial compounds are formed when transition metals react with atomic hydrogen, carbon, nitrogen, boron , and other elements. These compounds are difficult and inflexible because empty spaces of transition metals are jammed up by small atoms.

Q119. Coinage metals belong to which group of the periodic table?

• A. 1B✓
• B. 2B
• C. 3B
• D. 3A

Explanation: Coinage metal contains three metallic chemical elements. It is composed of Gold, Silver and Copper metals. They belong to group IB. They are classified as coinage metals since they were used in making coins.

Q120. Major product of the following reaction is: CH2=CH-CH2-CH3 + HBr ->

• A. CH2 (Br)-CH2 -CH2 -CH3
• B. CH3-CH(Br)-CH2-CH3✓
• C. CH2=CH-CH(Br)-CH3
• D. CH2=CH-CH2-CH2(Br)

Explanation: This follows Markonikov’s rule which states that in addition of an unsymmetrical reagent to an unsymmetrical alkene, the negative part of that reagent goes to that double bonded carbon atom which has the least number of hydrogen atoms.

Q121. Which of the following process gives Benzenesulfonic acid from benzene?

• A. Ozonolysis
• B. Sulphonation✓
• C. Nitration
• D. Halogenation

Explanation: As the name states, sulfonation of benzene is a process of heating benzene with fuming sulphuric acid (H2SO4 +SO3) to produce benzenesulfonic acid.

Q122. What is the structure of benzene?

• A. Regular, flat planar hexagon✓
• B. Regular, 3D hexagon
• C. Regular, flat planar octagon
• D. Regular, planar pentagon

Explanation: Spectroscopic studies and x-ray analysis have shown that benzene is a regular, flat planar hexagon.All six hydrogen atoms are coplanar with six carbon atoms. The bond angles are C-C=120 and C-H=120.

Q123. Which of the following element is not present in halogens?

• A. I
• B. Cl
• C. Fe✓
• D. F

Explanation: Halogens are elements present in group 7A of the periodic table and include, Fluorine (F), Chlorine (Cl), Bromine (Br), Iodine (I), and Astatine (At). Among the given options, only option C is NOT a halogen, it is Iron (Fe), a transition element.

Q124. Which two elements are isotopes?

• A. 16X8 and 16Y8
• B. 14X8 and 15Y8✓
• C. 18X9 and 20Y10
• D. 12X6 and 12Y7

Explanation: In option A, both elements are the exact same, as they have same proton number (8) and same mass number (16) so, they are not isotopes (which vary in mass number but have the same proton number).Option B describes isotopes, as they have the same proton number (8), while having differing mass numbers.Option C describes two different elements entirely as they have varying proton numbers.Option D also describes two different elements due to varying proton numbers.

Q125. Which enthalpy change is relevant in the following process Na(s) -> Na (g) ΔH = +107

• A. Enthalpy of atomization✓
• B. Enthalpy of fusion
• C. Enthalpy of vaporization
• D. Enthalpy of formation

Explanation: Option A, enthalpy of atomization, is the energy required to completely separate all the atoms in a chemical substance. The separated atoms are in a gaseous state and get separated from the corresponding substance in its standard state. Sodium is solid in its standard state, and after atomization, the atoms are in their gaseous state. Hence, this is the correct answer. Option B is the enthalpy change when a solid substance melts into a liquid. Here, the state change is from a solid to a gas, no liquid state involved.Option C is the enthalpy change when a liquid is vaporized into a gas. Here, a solid is atomized to its gaseous state so, vaporization does not apply here.Option D is the enthalpy change when one mole of a substance is formed from its constituent elements. This does not describe the given reaction.

Q126. For an equilibrium reaction; The forward reaction is exothermic; an increase in temperature shifts the equilibrium position towards the left.

• A. The concentrations of SO2 and O2 increases and concentration of SO3 decreases as the temperature increases.✓
• B. The concentrations of SO3, SO2, and O2 increase as the temperature increases.
• C. The concentrations Of SO2 and O2 decreases and concentration of SO3 increases as the temperature increases.
• D. The concentrations of SO2 and O2 increase and concentration of SO3 increases as the temperature increases.

Explanation: Since the equilibrium of the reaction shifts to the left, this means that the left hand side of the reaction is favoured. Increasing the reactants (LHS) and decreasing the products (RHS). Le Chatelier's principle will be used.

Q127. Reaction of water with quicklime results in the rise in the temperature of the system. Using the concept of an energy change, indicates the nature of the reaction?

• A. Endothermic Reaction
• B. Non-Spontaneous Reaction
• C. Third Order Reaction
• D. Exothermic Reaction✓

Explanation: Calcium oxide reacts with water to form calcium hydroxide, also called slaked lime. Here are the for this reaction: Calcium oxide + water → calcium hydroxide CaO+H2O → Ca(OH)2 A lot of heat is produced in the reaction, which may even cause the water to boil. Hence it is a combination reaction as well as exothermic reaction.

Q128. Which one of the following compounds act as a catalyst when alcohols react with carboxylic acids.

• A. Pt
• B. Conc. HNO3
• C. Ni
• D. Conc. H2SO4✓

Explanation: When a carboxylic acid is treated with an alcohol and an acid catalyst (Conc H2SO4), an ester is formed (along with water).

Q129. Gas is enclosed in a container of 20 cm3 with the moving piston. According to kinetic theory of gases, what will be the effect on freely moving molecules of the gas if temperature is increased from 20 C to 100 C?

• A. Pressure will become one half
• B. Volume will be increased✓
• C. Temperature has no effect on freely moving molecules
• D. Colliding capability of molecule will become lower

Explanation: According to Charles's law, the volume occupied by a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature, if the pressure remains constant. Since the piston is movable, hence increased temperature causes the volume to be increased.

Q130. Which option shows all the molecules with bond angle 109.5 degrees.

• A. CH4 , NH4+ , PH3
• B. SiCl4 , H2O , BeCl2
• C. SiCl4 , NH4+ , CH4✓
• D. CH4 , CCl4 , NH3

Explanation: Since all molecules stated in option C are tetrahedral in shape, where a central atom is located at the center with four substituents that are located at the corners of a tetrahedron. Hence they all have bond angles that are 109.5 degrees.

Q131. Down the group acid-base behaviour of metallic oxides of group 2 elements changes to:

• A. More basic✓
• B. No change
• C. Less basic
• D. More acidic

Explanation: Group II metal oxides become more basic as you go down the column. As the electronegativities of the metals decrease down the group, hence the change in electronegativity difference between the metal and oxygen increases down the group. The greater the difference in electronegativity the more ionic the metal-oxygen bond becomes. The more ionic the metal-oxygen bond the more basic the oxide is.

Q132. Which of the following fraction of petroleum has the lowest boiling point at STP.

• A. Kerosene oil
• B. Lubricating oil
• C. Gasoline✓
• D. Heavy Oil

Explanation: Liquids that boil at low temperatures, such as gasoline, are volatile liquids so option C is correct. Out of the given fractions of petroleum: kerosene, Lubricating oil, gasoline, and heavy oil, the one having the lowest boiling point is Gasoline. Boiling point of Gasoline is 358 K, Kerosene is (423 - 573) K, Diesel oil is (453 - 633) K and that of Heavy oil is about 810 K. So, the lowest boiling point is of Gasoline. Please note that petroleum includes only the liquid fractions, thus "natural gas" cannot be the answer.

Q133. Which of the following has anti-knocking properties?

• A. (CH3CH2)4Sn
• B. (CH3CH2)4Pb✓
• C. (CH3CH2)4Ge
• D. (CH3CH2)4Si

Explanation: Tetra Ethyl Lead (TEL) is an anti-knocking compound. It is used for raising the octane number of petrol, this matches with the structure in Option B.

Q134. 2-chlorobutane belongs to:

• A. Primary Alkyl Halides
• B. Secondary Alkyl Halides✓
• C. Tertiary Alkyl Halides
• D. Quarternary Alkyl Halides

Explanation: In 2- chlorobutane, the halogen group is bonded to that carbon atom which has only 1 hydrogen atom attached with it. So it is secondary alkyl halide.

Q135. If bond energy of C-CI is 346 kJ/mol. The bond enegy of C-Br should be:

• A. 290 kJ/mol✓
• B. 390 kJ/mol
• C. 490 kJ/mol
• D. 590 KJ/mol

Explanation: Bond energy is the strength of a chemical bond between atoms, expressed as the amount of energy required to break it apart.It decreases as we go down the group. So C-Br should have lesser bond energy than C-Cl.

Q136. Which of the following orbital is closer to the nucleus?

• A. 3d
• B. 2p✓
• C. 3p
• D. 3s

Explanation: 2p: correct. 2p orbitals are closest to the nucleus among the given options, experiencing the highest effective nuclear charge and lower energy level.

Q137. Which is the correct electronic configuration of Chromium (24Cr)?

• A. 1s2, 2s2, 3s2, 2p6, 3p6, 4s2, 3d6
• B. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s2, 3d4
• C. 1s1, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d6
• D. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s1, 3d5✓

Explanation: The atomic number of chromium = 24. Cr (Z = 24) = 1s2, 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d5

Q138. When the frequency of the applied force becomes equal to one of natural frequencies of body then the body oscillates with maximum displacement this phenomenon is called:

• A. Heating
• B. Resonance✓
• C. Reverbnation
• D. Damping

Explanation: Resonance describes the phenomenon of increased amplitude that occurs when the frequency of a periodically applied force is equal or close to a natural frequency of the system on which it acts.

Q139. E/m of an electron is given by the relationship.

• A. e/m2(VB2r2)
• B. e/m=(V/Br)2
• C. e/m=V.r/B
• D. e/m=V/Br✓

Explanation: When an electron enters a region in which there is a uniform magnetic field, B, perpendicular to the velocity, v, of the electron (Caution: The capital letter V will be used below to represent voltage. Don't confuse v with V!), the electron experiences a force, F, with a magnitude given by the following equation.F = evB The force is perpendicular to both v and B and its direction can be found by using the right-hand rule. The force will cause the electron to move in a circular orbit with radius r (uniform circular motion). Equating this force to the mass times the centripetal acceleration, we have the equation below.evB = mv2/rSolving Eq. 2 for e/m, we get the following equation.e/m = v/Br

Q140. Lenz’s law in electromagnetic induction is the direct consequence of the principle of conservation of:

• A. Energy✓
• B. Charge
• C. Momentum
• D. Mass

Explanation: Lenz’s law is used to determine the direction of the induced current by a change in magnetic field. This direction of the induced current always opposes the direction of the magnetic field which produced it. Complete step by step answer: Lenz’s law states that the direction of an induced current by a changing magnetic field is such that the magnetic field created by the induced current opposes that change responsible for its production. This means, a change in magnetic field (B1) produces an induced current and the induce current also generates some magnetic field (B2) which is different from the initial magnetic field (B1). Now, the generated magnetic field (B2) by the induced current opposes the initial changing magnetic field (B1). Consider a magnet and a coil, such that the magnet is approaching towards the coil. When the north pole of a magnet is moved towards a coil, the face of the coil near to the magnet behaves like a north pole and tries to repel the approaching North Pole. To do this, the coil generates an anticlockwise current in itself. Here, we can see that electrical energy is not generated just by moving the magnet towards the coil. There is an opposite for the change in flux. Hence we can say that Lenz’s law is a consequence of conservation of energy. Thus, the right answer is Option A; Lenz’s law is a consequence of law of conservation of energy.

Q141. A wheel starts rotating from result with angular acceleration of 2 rads-2 till its angular speed becomes 6 rad/s. The angular displacement of the wheel will be equal to:

• A. 4 rad
• B. 9 rad✓
• C. 12 rad
• D. 7 rad

Explanation: V = u + at6 = 0 + 2tt = 3 secondsØ = ut + 1/2at2Ø = 0 + 1/2 • 2 • 3²Ø = 9 radian.

Q142. Coulomb's law is given by the formula: F=kq1 q2 / r2The magnitude of k having the unit of Nm2 C-2 for free space is equal to

• A. 9 x 107
• B. 6 x 107
• C. 10 x 109
• D. 9 x 109✓

Explanation: The Coulomb constant, the electric force constant, or the electrostatic constant (denoted ke, k or K) is a proportionality constant in electrostatics equations. In SI units it is equal to 8.9875517923(14)×109 (9*109)kg⋅m3⋅s−2⋅C−2

Q143. A torch is rated 2.2 V 0.25 A. Calculate the charge passing through the bulb in one second and energy transferred by the passage of each coulomb of charge.

• A. 2.5 C and 0.55 J
• B. 0.25 C and 0.55 J✓
• C. 0.25 C and 2.2 V
• D. 2.25 V and 0.55 J

Explanation: Q= I*t = 0.25*1 = 0.25 CV = U/q U= V*q = 2.2V*0.25C = 0.55J

Q144. Doppler effect refers to:

• A. The change in wave frequency✓
• B. The change in acceleration
• C. The change in momentum
• D. None of these options are correct

Explanation: Doppler effect is defined as an apparent change in frequency of sound, caused by the relative motion of either the source of sound the listener or both.Option B, change in acceleration is referred to as velocity.Option C, change is momentum is force.

Q145. The horse pulling the wagon is able to move forward because of:

• A. The force exerted by the horse on the ground
• B. The force exerted by the ground on the horse✓
• C. The force exerted by the wagon on the horse
• D. The force exerted by the horse on the wagon

Explanation: When the horse pulls the wagon, it pushes the ground in the backward direction. Due to the third law of motion, the ground exerts a forward force which has the same magnitude. As the backward force applied by the wagon is weaker than the force applied by the horse, the wagon moves in the forward direction. As per Newton's third law of motion, when a horse pulls a wagon, the force that causes the horse to move forward is the force the ground exerts on it.

Q146. Work done by the spring force in a time interval cannot be:

• A. Positive
• B. Negative
• C. Zero✓
• D. Constant

Explanation: Spring force is the force that tries to restore the original shape of the spring. Spring force acting at every time interval is never constant hence work done by it is never zero.

Q147. If the water falls from a dam on the turbine wheel 19.6 m below, then the velocity of water at the turbine is:

• A. 9.8 m/s
• B. 19.6 m/s✓
• C. 32.8 m/s
• D. 98.0 m/s

Explanation: It can also be solved as follows;

Q148. The area of circle is measured with the help of:

• A. Angular displacement✓
• B. Angular velocity
• C. Angular acceleration
• D. Time

Explanation: Angular displacement is defined as the angle in radians (degrees, revolutions) through which a point or line has been rotated in a specified sense about a specified axis. It is the angle of the movement of a body in a circular path. Angular displacement is related to pie hence the area of the circle formula given.

Q149. Angular displacement becomes linear for _ arc lengths:

• A. Short✓
• B. Circular
• C. Curved
• D. Large

Explanation: Angular displacements when taken as short they become equal to arc length i.e like linear displacement. As shown,

Q150. The distance between two consecutive nodes of a stationary wave is:

• A. λ
• B. λ/2✓
• C. λ/4
• D. λ/6

Explanation: The distance between two consecutive nodes of a stationary wave is l/2 ( l is wavelength).

Q151. Energy emitted in the form of visible radiation is called:

• A. Light energy✓
• B. Sound energy
• C. Tidal energy
• D. Geothermal energy

Explanation: Light energy comes in the form of visible radiation.

Q152. The specific heat of a gas in adiabatic process is:

• A. Zero✓
• B. Infinite
• C. Negative
• D. Remains constant

Explanation: The specific heat of a gas in an adiabatic process is zero because there is no external pressure for the gas to expand against, the work done by or on the system is zero. Since this process does not involve any heat transfer or work, the first law of thermodynamics then implies that the net internal energy change of the system is zero. I.e. Q=W+U, U=0 and W=0 As C=q/mt, in adiabatic q=0, so according to equation,C=0

Q153. Which of the following statement shows that no work is done?

• A. Pushing a car to start it moving
• B. Lifting the weights.
• C. The moon Orbiting the earth.✓
• D. Writing an essay on a page.

Explanation: When the moon revolves around the earth, the displacement is normal to the direction of force on the moon. Therefore no work is done by the moon.Work is the dot product of force and displacement.W=F.dcos theta

Q154. Molecules Of a gas at constant pressure for a fixed amount of gas have average kinetic energy X. Increasing temperature from 27 C to 327C, average K.E. of molecules will become:

• A. 20X
• B. 300X
• C. 200X
• D. 2X✓

Explanation: Total Kinetic Energy = 3/2 * Boltzmann's Constant (k) * temperature in Kelvins27C + 273 = 300K327 + 273 = 600KAs rest of quantities are kept constant increasing temperature from 300K to 600K will double the average kinetic energy of the system.

Q155. Which of the following gives the relationship between linear velocity and angular velocity?

• A. v = rω✓
• B. v = rθ
• C. v=sω
• D. v=sθ

Explanation: The greater the rotation angle in a given amount of time, the greater the angular velocity. Angular velocity ω is analogous to linear velocity v. We can write the relationship between linear velocity and angular velocity in two different ways: v=rω or ω=v/r.

Q156. Energy consumed by 60 watt bulb in 2 minutes is equal to:

• A. 7.2 kilo joules✓
• B. 720 joules
• C. 120 joules
• D. 72000 joules

Explanation: 60 watt * 120s (2 mins) = 7200 watt-seconds = 7200J = 7.2 Kilo joules.

Q157. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron travelling with a speed of 1.0 x 107m/s is equal to, (h=6.6 x 10-34 Js and me= 9.1 x 10-31 kg)

• A. 7.3 x 1011 m
• B. 7.3 x 108 m
• C. 7.3 x 10-11 m✓
• D. 7.3 x 10-13 m

Explanation: De broglie wavelength of any particle: λ = h/p and p = mv ∴λ = h/mv λ = 6.6* 10-34 / (9.1*10-31*1.0*107) λ= 7.2527473e-11m

Q158. For a monoatomic ideal gas of 3 moles, Cp -Cv is:

• A. R/3
• B. 3/2 R
• C. 2R
• D. 3R✓

Explanation: Cp-Cv=nR Where n= no. of moles, hence Cp-Cv=3R making D the correct option.

Q159. Change in P.E per unit charge in the electric field is:

• A. Electric potential✓
• B. Power
• C. K.E
• D. Work done

Explanation: As; V= W/q V = P.E/q

Q160. When a charge gets influenced by its surrounding, it has entered:

• A. An electric field✓
• B. A gravitational field
• C. Thermal field
• D. Closed field

Explanation: The space surrounding a charged object is affected by the presence of the charge; an electric field is established in that space. A charged object creates an electric field - an alteration of the space or field in the region that surrounds it. Other charges in that field would feel the unusual alteration of the space. A charged particle may feel all the other fields but the questions states 'When a charge gets influenced', hence A would be the best option to choose.

Q161. In photo-emission from a metal, if light of λ is replaced by light of wavelength λ / 4 , the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons.

• A. Decreases by an amount equal to half of an incident photon of wavelength λ
• B. Increases by an amount equal to four times energy of an incident photon of wavelength λ✓
• C. Increases by an amount equal to the work function of the metal
• D. Decreases by an amount equal to the energy of an incident photon of wavelength λ

Explanation: The maximum kinetic energy KEe of ejected electrons (photoelectrons) is given by KEe=hf−BE , where hf is the photon energy and BE is the binding energy (or work function) of the electron to the particular material. Since f = v/ λ when λ is replaced by λ/4 , f increases by 4 times and hence the energy of incident photons increases by 4 times.

Q162. A cyclist is travelling at 15 ms-1, she applies brakes so that she doesn't collide with the wall in front of her at a distance of 18 m. Calculate the magnitude of deceleration.

• A. 6.3 ms-2✓
• B. 5.3 ms-2
• C. 13 ms-2
• D. 12.5 ms-2

Explanation: Initial velocity, u=15m/sFinal velocity, v=0m/sDistance, s=18mAcceleration, a=?Using relation, v2 −u2 =2as02 −(15)2 =2a×18−225=36aa= 36 −225 ​ =−6.25m/s2So, deceleration is 6.25m/s2 which is equal 6.3m/s2

Q163. Kirchhoff's first law is manifestation of:

• A. Law of conservation of momentum
• B. Law of conservation mass
• C. Law of conservation of energy
• D. Law of conservation of charge✓

Explanation: Kirchhoff's current law (1st Law) states that current flowing into a node (or a junction) must be equal to current flowing out of it. This is a consequence of charge conservation.

Q164. Calculate the half life of Bismuth-214 which has a decay constant of 4.3 x 10-4 s-1:

• A. 2.9 x 10-3 s
• B. 1.6 x 10^3 s✓
• C. 3.9 x 103 s
• D. 2.9 x 103 s

Explanation: T1/2 = ln 2/𝞴 = 0.693/ 4.3 x 10-4 = 1.6 x 103 where 𝞴 = decay constant.

Q165. The flux through a surface will be zero when angle between E and △A is:

• A. 90o✓
• B. 60o
• C. 30o
• D. 0o

Explanation: As; Ø=EA cosθ And cos 90° = 0

Q166. The device used to store a charge is called:

• A. Electric box
• B. Capacitor✓
• C. Inductor
• D. Transistor

Explanation: It is the function of capacitors to store charge.

Q167. The SI unit of charge is:

• A. Newton
• B. Coulomb✓
• C. Pascal
• D. Ampere

Explanation: The SI unit of electric charge is the coulomb which is represented by the symbol ‘C’. A coulomb is defined as the amount of charge that passes through an electrical conductor carrying one ampere per second.

Q168. Ohm's law is applicable to

• A. Semiconductors
• B. Vacuum tubes
• C. Carbon resistors
• D. Conductors✓

Explanation: According to Ohm's law, Resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to its length. That is, when the length of conductor is tripled, its resistance also gets tripled. It is applicable only to conductors. Hence, Ohm's law is not applicable in case of insulators.

Q169. Calculate the work done in a resistor of 20 ohm carrying 5A of current in 3 hours?

• A. 1 kWh
• B. 1.5 kWh✓
• C. 2 kWh
• D. 3 kWh

Explanation: Work done is equal to energy which is power divided by time E=P x t P =I2 x R = 52 x 20 = 500 W E = 500 x 3 = 1500 J 1500 J = 1.5kWh

Q170. What will be the expression for the observed frequency, if the source is moving towards the observer?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D✓

Explanation: The Doppler equation tells how the observed frequency (f) changes with moving source with speed (us). The observed frequency will be greater than the frequency of the source (f0) for a source moving towards the observer.

Q171. An object is moving along a circular path of radius 4m. What will be its angular displacement if it moves 14 m on this circular path?

• A. 5.0 radians
• B. 3.5 radians✓
• C. 4.5 radians
• D. 5.5 radians

Explanation: Arc length = Radius x Angular displacementKeeping Arc length as 14m and radius as 4m we get angular displacement

Q172. A copper wire has length L and cross-sectional area A. Its resistance is R. If we halved the length and halved the diameter of wire, then what will be the resistance of this wire?

• A. R
• B. 2R✓
• C. 3R
• D. 4R

Explanation: Explanation is given below.

Q173. A shock wave is produced due to an earthquake which makes the buildings move in the direction of the shock wave. Which progressive wave would this be?

• A. Longitudinal wave✓
• B. Transverse wave
• C. Material wave
• D. Particle wave

Explanation: A P body wave (primary body wave) (a type of seismic wave) is a compressional (longitudinal) wave that induces the particles in the rock to vibrate back and forth in the same direction the wave moves

Q174. Basically a potentiometer is a device for:

• A. Comparing two voltage✓
• B. Measuring current
• C. Comparing two currents
• D. Measuring voltage

Explanation: A potentiometer is an instrument for measuring voltage or 'potential difference' by comparison of an unknown voltage with a known reference voltage.

Q175. The magnetic flux is a _ quantity:

• A. Scalar✓
• B. Vector
• C. Vector In some cases
• D. Scalar In some cases

Explanation: Magnetic flux, which tells us about the number of field lines that cross the surface, is a scalar. It is the dot product of two vectors.

Q176. AC generators are similar to :

• A. Transformers
• B. Inductors
• C. Capacitors
• D. Motor✓

Explanation: AC generators and AC motors both rely on electromagnetic induction to operate, with generators converting mechanical energy to electrical energy and motors converting electrical energy to mechanical energy. Transformers, inductors, and capacitors have different functions and are not directly related to the conversion of mechanical energy to electrical energy.

Q177. The emf induced in a circuit according to Faraday's law depends on the

• A. Maximum magnetic flux
• B. Initial magnetic flux
• C. Change in magnetic flux
• D. The rate of change of magnetic flux✓

Explanation: According to Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction, induced emf in a coil depends upon the number of turns and the rate of change of flux linking the coil. The larger the rate of change of current, the greater is emf induced in the coil.

Q178. Which of the following rectifier uses wheatstone bridge to rectify signal:

• A. Half wave
• B. Full wave
• C. Bridge✓
• D. Both half and full wave

Explanation: Bridge rectifier is formed by connecting four diodes in the form of a Wheatstone bridge. It also provides full wave rectification.Bridge rectifier is formed by connecting four diodes in the form of a Wheatstone bridge. It also provides full wave rectification. During the first half of AC cycle, two diodes are forward biased and during the second half of AC cycle, the other two diodes become forward biased.

Q179. Wave particle duality does not describe :

• A. Momentum
• B. Frequency
• C. Mass✓
• D. Energy

Explanation: In quantum physics, wave-particle duality states that any particle or quantum phenomenon can be represented as either a particle or a wave. It expresses the difficulty of classical terminology like "particle" and "wave" to completely characterize quantum-scale things' behavior. This behavior has been observed not just in elementary particles but also in composite particles such as atoms and molecules. Wave characteristics are frequently not detectable for macroscopic particles due to their relatively short wavelengths. As a result, mass isn't included because quantum mechanics doesn't contain it.

Q180. If a conductor of length 7m is placed in a magnetic field of strength 0.3 T carrying current 1 A, parallel to the field. What will be the force, acting on it, due to this magnetic field?

• A. 7 N
• B. 0 N✓
• C. 3.1 N
• D. 2.1 N

Explanation: When the conductor is placed parallel to magnetic field, no force will act on it.

Q181. In relation, which quantity is represented by λ?

• A. Decay constant✓
• B. Half life
• C. Activity
• D. Wavelength

Explanation: Explanation is given below.T1/2 represents the 'half-life' with 'T', implying the quantity has something to do with time, and '1/2' representing 'half'.

Q182. A particle, carrying a charge of 5e, falls through a potential difference of 25 V. What would be energy acquired by the particle in ‘J’.

• A. 1.6 x 10-19 J
• B. 125 J
• C. 125 x 10-19 J
• D. 125 x 1.6 x 10-19 J✓

Explanation: Electric Potential Energy = Electric Potential x Charge Charge = 5 x 1.6 x 10-19 C Electric Potential Energy = 25V x (5 x 1.6 x 10-19) C This could be manipulated to give us (125 x 1.6 x 10-19) J, which is Option D.

Q183. Electric field strength at a point between oppositely charged plates is 'E'. If the distance between plates is reduced to half, what will be the new value of electric intensity?

• A. 4E
• B. E/2
• C. E/4
• D. 2E✓

Explanation: Between two parallel plates, the electric field strength is given by: E = V/d If the distance is halved, electric field strength is doubled since both are inversely related.

Q184. A stone of mass 2.0 kg is dropped from a rest position 5.0 m above the ground. What is its velocity at a height of 2.0 m above the ground?

• A. 12.5 m/s
• B. 6.3m/s✓
• C. 9.3 m/s
• D. 16.0 m/s

Explanation: s = ut + ½at² : since u=0 s =½at² a=(v-u)/t : since u = 0 t = v/a From the second equation, we get t = v/a Putting this into the first gives s = ½a(v²/a²) s = v²/2a v = √(2sa) v = √(2)(2 m)(9.8 m/s²) v = √(39.2 m²/s²) v ≈ 6.26 m/s

Q185. A metal rod of length 10.0 cm is moving at a speed of 0.5 ms-1 in a direction perpendicular to a 0.20 T magnetic field. Find the emf produced in the rod.

• A. 2.0 x 10-3 V
• B. 0.50 x 10-2 V
• C. 1.0 x 10-2 V✓
• D. 1.0 x 10-3 V

Explanation: Motional emf = Bℓv (B,ℓ, and v perpendicular) Emf = (0.20T) * (0.1m) * (0.5m/s) = 0.01 = 1 * 10-2 V

Q186. A body at temperature T radiates heat according to relation:

• A. T-2
• B. T4✓
• C. T-4
• D. None of these

Explanation: By the Stefan-Boltzmann Law, for a black body, the amount of heat radiated per unit area is directly proportional to the fourth power of the kelvin temperature. The proportionality constant is called Stefen’s constant and has a value of 5.67x10(-8).

Q187. For two down quarks total charge is:

• A. -2/3 e✓
• B. -2 e
• C. -1 e
• D. -1/2 e

Explanation: One down quark has a charge of -⅓. Hence, charge for two down quarks will be, -⅓ + (-⅓) = -⅔

Q188. Two bodies in contact experience forces in:

• A. Same direction
• B. Opposite directions✓
• C. Perpendicular directions
• D. Five different direction

Explanation: The two bodies in contact will follow Newton's third law of motion. The third law states that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. The two bodies will experience each other's reaction forces in opposite directions.

Q189. Statement (A) The Government has imported large quantities of sugar as per trade agreements with other countries. Statement (B) The prices of sugar in the domestic market have fallen sharply in recent months.

• A. Statement A is the cause and statement B Is its effect.✓
• B. Statement B is the cause and statement A is its effect
• C. Both statements are independent causes.
• D. Both statements are effects of independent causes.

Explanation: In logical reasoning, there are questions that come under the topic called cause and effect. In these question, they give us two statements, we have to relate those statementsand sometimes they do have no relation(In this case , we will select option D, Both statements are effects of independent causes.Option is C ( Both statements are independent causes) is never the right option, because causes don't exist without effect.In this question they have given two statements and they do relate because when the government has imported large quantities of sugar, there is a bulk of sugaravailable in the domestic market and the price will be low. This is the rule of economics that whenever something is in bulk, the price gets low and wheneversomething is scarce, the price goes high.So the first statement is cause due to which an effect is seen that is statement B

Q190. Statement: A large number of people have become critically ill after consuming spurious liquor from a local shop. Courses of Action: I. The Government should immediately close down all the shops selling liquor till the stocks are tested for the presence of toxicity. II. The owner of the liquor shop should be asked to leave the town and open a shop elsewhere. Ill. The owner of the liquor shop should immediately be arrested and tried for criminal negligence.

• A. Only I follows
• B. Only II follows
• C. Only lll follows
• D. Only I and lll follow✓

Explanation: Clearly, the owner of the shop should be punished for selling spurious liquor. Further, attempts should be made to unearth other such unscrupulous liquor sellers by conducting raids and testing samples collected from different shops. So, both I and III follow. However, sending the liquor shop owner to another place may create a problem elsewhere also. So, II does not follow.

Q191. Which of the following expressions may not be true if the following expressions are true? (a) Z > Y (b) Y = W (c) W < X

• A. W < Z
• B. X > Z✓
• C. Y < X
• D. All are true.

Explanation: Statement : Z ≥ Y = W and X ≥ W = Y (A) : W ≤ Z => True, since Z ≥ W. (B) : X ≥ Z => Not true (C) : Y ≤ X => True Thus, only (B) may not be true....

Q192. An autograph can not exist without?

• A. Actor
• B. Singer
• C. Player
• D. Pen✓

Explanation: An autograph is defined as a person's handwritten signature, mostly of someone famous among the masses. As a pen is necessary to do a signature by hand, hence it is the answer.

Q193. "Pick the word which is always associated with books:

• A. Pages✓
• B. Learning
• C. Pictures
• D. Eraser

Explanation: The word "pages" is indeed always associated with books, as books are composed of pages that contain written or printed content. While learning, pictures, and erasers can be related to books in certain contexts, they are not always inherent to the concept of a book.

Q194. I. Two fighter jets from the air force malfunctioned mid-air after taking off from the air force base. II. One of the flying officers ejected whereas the other one died on spot.

• A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect✓
• B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
• C. Both statements I and II are independent causes
• D. Both statements I and II are effects

Explanation: Two fighter jets from the Air Force malfunctioned mid-air after taking off, which is the cause; one of the flying officers ejected from the plane, whereas the other one died on the spot, which is the effect. Statement I is the cause, and Statement II is its effect.