Punjab Mdcat Mock Paper 2 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. His theories have been _ by recent research.

• A. Pronounced
• B. Rearmed
• C. Dammed
• D. Debunked✓

Explanation: Debunked means to prove something false or expose the hollowness of something. Thus, D is the appropriate option.

Q2. International rules _ the number of foreign entrants.

• A. Hoodwink
• B. Stipulate✓
• C. Fabricate
• D. Traverse

Explanation: Stipulate means to set conditions. Demand or specify a requirement. Hoodwink means deceiving; traverse means to cross or travel through; and fabricate means to falsify.Option B is the correct option.

Q3. Choose the correct sentence from the following options:

• A. The government should accrue taxes for strengthen the economy of the country.
• B. The government should accrue taxes in strengthen the economy of the country
• C. The government should accrue taxes to strengthen the economy of the country.✓
• D. The government should accrue taxes by strengthen the economy of the country.

Explanation: By comparing all four sentences ,you notice there is only one difference i.e. PREPOSITION and for fact the best suited is 'to strengthen'.

Q4. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word:STALWART

• A. Loyal✓
• B. Lazy
• C. Lacking strength
• D. High

Explanation: “Stalwart” is used as an adjective to indicate someone who is reliable and loyal hence A is the correct answer.

Q5. She is intelligent enough to _ things to serve her own purpose.

• A. Pick
• B. Maneuver✓
• C. Catch
• D. Give

Explanation: “Maneuver” is a verb, which means to perform a movement in order to secure an advantage. This is the actual context in which this vocabulary word is used here.

Q6. We were ten miles up the highway when I happened to saw this classified advertisement in the newspaper.

• A. We were
• B. Up the
• C. To saw this✓
• D. In the

Explanation: ‘To saw this’ is the part of the sentence that contains a grammatical error. Always remember that ‘TO’ is always followed by the 1st form of the verb [the present form of the verb]. It can be corrected as ‘to see’. ("to" + base form of the verb) Example: I want to speak to the manager.

Q7. Rubber tubes upon which children had swing in backyards hung suspended like stopped clock pendulums in the blazing air.

• A. Upon which
• B. Had swing in the backyards✓
• C. Suspended like
• D. In the

Explanation: “Had swing” is wrong. We always use the third form of the verb with has/have/had.

Q8. Choose the word that best fits in with the meaning of the sentence as a whole.Indolence gives vent to _ disposition in human life.

• A. Static✓
• B. Enthusiastic
• C. Energetic
• D. Filthy

Explanation: Static means to be stationary/to stop. It fits in the question as indolence (laziness) means tonot move and not do work.Enthusiastic and energetic are antonyms and do not fit in.Filthy means dirty which also does not fit in.

Q9. Select the wrong segment in the following sentence:She looked at him, and he seemed almost as younger as their eldest son.

• A. looked at
• B. seemed
• C. almost as younger✓
• D. their eldest

Explanation: "Almost as young" will be the correct statement.

Q10. Twice, my father stopped to wipe the sweat from his eyes.

• A. father stopped
• B. wipe the
• C. from
• D. his eyes
• E. No error✓

Explanation: The sentence given is correct and has no error. Hence, the correct option is E.

Q11. I don't like doing _, especially mopping the floor.

• A. Homework
• B. House chores✓
• C. House job
• D. Job

Explanation: Mopping the floor would count as a house chores. The other options are not applicable.

Q12. The earth _ to be moving.

• A. Seem
• B. Seemed
• C. Seeming
• D. Seems✓

Explanation: Seem means 'appear in a particular way'. We can use it as a linking verb (like be) or with a to-infinitive. Seems is used for singular nouns i.e. earth. We do not normally use seem in the continuous form: She seems very young to be a teacher.

Q13. Find the correctly spelt word

• A. Sovereign✓
• B. Soveregn
• C. Soverean
• D. Soverein

Explanation: Option A is correct and its meaning is "one possessing or held to possess.

Q14. Choose the correct sentence from the following options:

• A. Shahid battered Anwar down submission.
• B. Shahid battered Anwar into submission✓
• C. Shahid down battered Anwar into submission.
• D. Shahid was battered Anwar down submission.

Explanation: Option B is correct because it has the most correct sentence structure. It should be into submission not down submission, according to the correct use of grammar. There are only two options having this proper use(B and C). Option C has a major grammatical flaw: “Shahid down battered Anwar” hence it can not be our answer.

Q15. The latter continued: “You see how is it- Ralston filled the place up with young men.”

• A. Latter
• B. How is it✓
• C. Up
• D. With

Explanation: The correct statement will be "how it is"

Q16. He started learning Engllsh _ 2005

• A. In✓
• B. On
• C. At
• D. Through

Explanation: “In” is used for periods of time.

Q17. Low partial pressure of oxygen in tissues favours _ of oxyhaemoglobin

• A. Dissociation✓
• B. Formation
• C. Stability
• D. Transformation

Explanation: When oxygen pressure falls below 60 mm mercury, as in many cells and tissues, the oxygen saturation of haemoglobin decreases very sharply. This results in the liberation of large quantities of oxygen from haemoglobin. In this way in the tissue where oxygen tension is low oxyhaemoglobin dissociates rapidly.

Q18. Elastic fibres are absent in the walls of _

• A. Aorta
• B. Arteries
• C. Veins✓
• D. Both options A and B

Explanation: The elastic fibers are essential in the recoil and the stretch of the blood vessel in order to survive the high blood pressure. In veins, however due to the lack of significant blood pressure, elastic fibers are not needed.

Q19. A type of blood cell that produces heparin is _

• A. Basophil✓
• B. Neutrophil
• C. Eosinophil
• D. Monocyte

Explanation: Basophils release heparin to prevent blood clots and histamine which causes inflammation.

Q20. Give the general formula of monosaccharides and polysaccharides.

• A. (CH2O)n and Cn(H2O)2n
• B. (CH2O)2n and Cn(H2O)n
• C. (CH2O)n and Cn(H2O)n-1✓
• D. (CH2O)n-1 and Cn(H2O)n+1

Explanation: Monosaccharides are simple sugars. They have the general formula (CH2O)n, where "n" is the whole number from three to many thousands. Polysaccharides are formed by monosaccharide units bound together by glycosidic linkage. The general formula for polysaccharides is Cn(H2O)n-1.

Q21. Lock and Key model ws explained by:

• A. Koshland
• B. Emil Fischer✓
• C. De Duve
• D. De Duve

Explanation: Lock and Key model was given by Emil Fischer in 1890. •According to this model,the active site is a rigid structure.As one specific key can open only a single lock,in the same way a specific enzyme can transform a specific substrate into product(s). Example:Urease is the enzyme which follows this model.This model explains the specificity of enzyme action.

Q22. Name the inhibitors which can be neutralized by adding more substrate:

• A. Competitive Inhibitors✓
• B. Permanent inhibitors
• C. Non-competitive inhibitors
• D. Irreversible inhibitors

Explanation: A competitive inhibitor is a substance similar in structure to an enzyme's substrate that binds to the active site and inhibits a reaction.It blocks the active site of an enzyme and by increasing the concentration of substrate,the effect of a competitive inhibitor can be neutralized.For Example:Malonic acid is a competitive inhibitor of enzyme succinic dehydrogenase.On the other hand, the irreversible inhibitor doesn't compete with the natural active site for substrate but it combines with the site other than the active site.For Example:Cyanide action on cytochrome oxidase.

Q23. Which of the following was the first virus to be isolated and studied under the electron microscope:

• A. HIV
• B. Rabies Virus
• C. Pox Viruses
• D. TMV✓

Explanation: The first virus to be isolated and studied under the electron microscope was the Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV). In 1939, Wendell Meredith Stanley and his colleagues achieved the crystallization of TMV, and this work was significant in advancing the understanding of viruses. The electron microscope, which was developed in the early 20th century, played a crucial role in visualizing structures at the nanoscale, including viruses. The use of the electron microscope allowed researchers to directly observe the morphology and structure of viruses, providing valuable insights into their nature and behavior. The study of TMV under the electron microscope was a landmark achievement that paved the way for further research on viruses and contributed to the establishment of virology as a distinct scientific discipline.

Q24. The HIV genetic information flows from viral _, and used to form viral _.

• A. RNA to DNA: RNA and protein✓
• B. DNA to RNA: DNA and protein
• C. DNA to RNA : RNA and protein
• D. RNA to protein : RNA and protein

Explanation: After the HIV binds to the CD4 receptor on the host cell it releases its RNA into the host cell and the following process begins.1) Reverse Transcription- The single-stranded HIV RNA is transcribed to double-stranded DNA. 2) Integration- This newly formed double-stranded HIV DNA enters the host cell nucleus. The HIV enzyme integrase binds the HIV DNA to the host DNA and this integrated HIV DNA is now called provirus.3) Transcription- When the host cell receives an activation signal the provirus uses host enzyme RNA polymerase to create new copies of the HIV genomic material and short strands of RNA called messenger RNA.4) Assembly- HIV enzyme protease cleaves the long chains of HIV proteins into smaller individual proteins that combine with copies of HIV RNA genetic material and a new virus particle is assembled.

Q25. The quantitative study of energy relationship in a biological system is called?

• A. Bioenergetics✓
• B. Biochemistry
• C. Biotechnology
• D. Biophysics

Explanation: The quantitative study of energy relationships in a biological system is called bioenergetics. Bioenergetics encompasses the study of how living organisms acquire, transform, and utilize energy. It includes the processes involved in the conversion of energy, such as photosynthesis in plants and cellular respiration in both plant and animal cells. The study of bioenergetics helps scientists understand the flow of energy in biological systems and the mechanisms by which living organisms generate and use energy for various physiological processes.

Q26. Which of the following chemical activity is involved in the conversion of pyruvate into acetaldehyde during anaerobic respiration?

• A. Reduction
• B. Decarboxylation✓
• C. Oxidation
• D. Phosphorylation

Explanation: During anaerobic respiration, specifically in a process called alcoholic fermentation, decarboxylation is involved in the conversion of pyruvate into acetaldehyde. This process occurs in certain microorganisms, such as yeast, under anaerobic conditions. Decarboxylation: Pyruvate loses a carbon dioxide (CO2) molecule, resulting in the formation of acetaldehyde. This step is catalyzed by the enzyme pyruvate decarboxylase. Pyruvate→Acetaldehyde+CO2

Q27. Glucose and Ribose form ring structures when:

• A. React with an appropriate enzyme
• B. Dissolved in water✓
• C. Immersed in oil
• D. They are in crystalline state

Explanation: When dissolved in water the first carbon atom (C1), which is an aldehyde group (-CHO), creates a hemiacetal with the fifth carbon atom (C5) to make a 6-membered-ring (termed a pyranose). The atoms in this cyclic molecule then arrange themselves in space (in a ring) to minimize the amount of strain on each of the covalent bonds.

Q28. Poxviruses are:

• A. Double stranded DNA virus✓
• B. Single stranded RNA virus
• C. Single stranded DNA virus
• D. Protein virus

Explanation: Poxiviruses are linear double stranded DNA viruses. They are large, enveloped viruses that replicate in the cytoplasm and encode proteins for DNA replication and gene expression.

Q29. To reduce one molecule of O2, _ _ _ electron(s) must be passed through the electron transport chain and _ _ _ molecule(s) of NADH ls(are) oxidized

• A. 1:1
• B. 4:4
• C. 1:2
• D. 4:2✓

Explanation: For every 2 electrons carried by respiratory electron chain, one molecule of NADH is oxidized. This gives a ratio of 2:1. Here, four electrons will pass through the chain. So, 2 molecules of NADH will be oxidized which makes option D correct

Q30. The tertiary structure of protein indicates its:

• A. Chemical function
• B. Biological function✓
• C. Physical appereance
• D. characterstics

Explanation: The tertiary structure is the structure at which polypeptide chains become functional. At this level, every protein has a specific three-dimensional shape and presents functional groups on its outer surface, allowing it to interact with other molecules, and giving it its unique function.

Q31. Only one compound is neutral, the others are reactive. Point the one

• A. Cytoplasm
• B. HCl
• C. Urine
• D. Pure water✓

Explanation: Cytoplasm includes many reactive enzymes and molecules, hence it is not neutral. HCl is a strong acid and reacts strongly with alkalis and metals, so also not neutral. Urine has urea, another reactive compound. Only pure water is neutral.

Q32. The palmitic acid melts at _

• A. 8 C
• B. 72 C
• C. 63.1 C✓
• D. 7 C

Explanation: Palmatic acid melts at 63.1 CReference: Punjab Book, Chapter 2 Biological Molecules, section Acyl Glycerol.

Q33. Golgl complex was discovered by which scientist?

• A. Robert Brown
• B. Camillo Golgi✓
• C. De Duve
• D. Robert Hooke

Explanation: A Golgi body, also known as a Golgi apparatus, is a cell organelle that helps process and package proteins and lipid molecules, especially proteins destined to be exported from the cell. Golgi apparatus was discovered by Camillo Golgi.

Q34. Size of virus ranges in:

• A. 20 to 250 nm✓
• B. 25 to 250 nm
• C. 25 to 300 nm
• D. 20 to 300 nm

Explanation: Viruses are so small that they can't be seen with the naked eye and they can pass through porcelain fibers while most bacteria cannot pass through them. So their range should also be very small in nm.

Q35. The protoplast of a plant cell does not include:

• A. Cell wall✓
• B. Cell membrane
• C. Vacuoles
• D. Nucleus

Explanation: Protoplast of a cell does not include the cell wall.

Q36. The reflexes such as vomiting, coughing, and sneezing are controlled by which of the following

• A. Pons
• B. Cerebrum
• C. Cerebellum
• D. Medulla oblongata✓

Explanation: The medulla oblongata is responsible for regulating several basic functions of the autonomic nervous system, including respiration, cardiac function, vasodilation, and reflexes like vomiting, coughing, sneezing, and swallowing.

Q37. The disorder in which one or more muscle groups face the full loss of function is called?

• A. Cirrhosis
• B. Angina
• C. Epilepsy
• D. Paralysis✓

Explanation: Total muscle function loss, or paralysis, affects your entire body. It is often seen in people with severe spinal cord injuries..

Q38. The disorder which is caused when cones cannot distinguish between different colors is called?

• A. Short sighted vision disorder
• B. Night blindness
• C. Long sighted vision disorder
• D. Color blindness✓

Explanation: Color blindness also known as color vision deficiency (CVD) is a condition where you don't see colors in the traditional way. This can happen if certain cells known as photoreceptors, or more specifically cones, in your eyes are missing or not working correctly

Q39. The photosensitive cells present in the retina that are sensitive to dim light are called?

• A. Optic disc
• B. Rods✓
• C. Cones
• D. Ligaments

Explanation: Rods are a type of photoreceptor cell in the retina. They are sensitive to light levels and help give us good vision in low light. They are concentrated in the outer areas of the retina and give us peripheral vision. Rods are 500 to 1,000 times more sensitive to light than cones.

Q40. Which of the following invertebrate phylum consists of the most abundant species on planet Earth:

• A. Porifera
• B. Cnidaria
• C. Arthropoda✓
• D. Mollusca

Explanation: Of all animals it is estimated that well over 90% are invertebrates. Of all invertebrates, arthropods are by far the most numerous.

Q41. Which statement correctly outlines the reason for divergent evolution hypothesis of echinoderms and hemichordates?

• A. Blastopore forms the anus✓
• B. They are both aquatic
• C. They have a well developed circulatory system
• D. They have dorsal nerve cord

Explanation: Both hemichordates and echinoderms are deuterostomes, i.e. blastopore develops to form the anus. This shows that both groups evolved from a single common ancestor (divergent evolution).

Q42. Which of these Is the right combination of molecules which make up the secondary cell wall In plant cells?

• A. Cellulose, lignin, and xylem
• B. Cellulose, hemicellulose, and lignin✓
• C. Cellulose only
• D. Cellulose, hemicellulose, and pectin

Explanation: The layers of plant cell walls from inside begins with secondary cell wall, primary cell wall and middle lamella forms the outer layer. Secondary walls are mainly composed of cellulose, hemicelluloses (xylan and glucomannan) and lignin, and are deposited in some specialized cells, such as tracheary elements, fibers and other sclerenchymatous cells.

Q43. Major component of bacterial cell wall is:

• A. teichoic acid
• B. cartenoid
• C. chitin
• D. murein✓

Explanation: The peptidoglycan (murein) sacculus is a unique and essential structural element in the cell wall of most bacteria. Made of glycan strands cross-linked by short peptides, the sacculus forms a closed, bag-shaped structure surrounding the cytoplasmic membrane.

Q44. When a neuron's membrane potentials is between - 70 mV and - 90 mV, it is said to be In a state of:

• A. Depolarization
• B. Hyperpolarization✓
• C. Repolarization
• D. No polarization

Explanation: Hyperpolarization is when the membrane potential becomes more negative at a particular spot on the neuron’s membrane, while depolarization is when the membrane potential becomes less negative (more positive).

Q45. Saccoglossus belongs to which group of invertebrates?

• A. Porifera
• B. Cnidaria
• C. Echindermata
• D. Hemichordates✓

Explanation: Saccoglossus belongs to phylum hemichordata and their class is enteropneusta.

Q46. According to Hardy-Weinberg theorem, the sum of recessive and dominant gene frequencies is equal to:

• A. Gene pool of the the trait in the population✓
• B. Population density
• C. Total number of heterozygotes
• D. Total number of homozygotes

Explanation: The gene pool is the collection of all the characters in one place. They combine together to form a pool so the sum of recessive and dominant gene frequencies is formed in a gene pool.

Q47. Change in the frequency of alleles at a locus that occurs by chance is called:

• A. Genetic drift✓
• B. Mutation
• C. Emmigration
• D. Immigration

Explanation: Genetic drift takes place when the occurrence of variant forms of a gene, called alleles, increases and decreases by chance over time. These variations in the presence of alleles are measured as changes in allele frequencies.

Q48. Which of the following nutrient is mainly provided by insects feeding to carnivorous plants?

• A. Magnesium
• B. Nitrogen✓
• C. Carbon
• D. Oxygen

Explanation: Carnivorous Plants- These plants have evolved the ability to trap and digest insects, which are an excellent source of nitrogen as they contain around 10% nitrogen by mass

Q49. Diffused nervous system is present In which animal group?

• A. Platyhelminthes
• B. Annelida
• C. Cnidaria✓
• D. Porifera

Explanation: Cnidarians have the most primitive nervous system in animal kingdom. Diffuse nerve net (called “diffuse nervous system”) covers the whole body.

Q50. Which features Identify deuterostomes?

• A. Blastopore makes the mouth.
• B. Zygote divides splrally.
• C. Mesoderm forms from the developing no gut.✓
• D. Fate of each blastomere Is pre-determined.

Explanation: Deutrostomes are animals typically characterized by their anus forming before their mouth during embryonic development .Examples:Phylum echinodermata, chordata, hemichordataCharacteristics The defining characteristic of the deuterostome is the fact that the blastopore (the opening at the bottom of the forming gastrula) becomes the anus. They have radial cleavage pattern.

Q51. Optimum pH for salivary amylase Is:

• A. 2
• B. 6.8✓
• C. 7.6
• D. 9

Explanation: Salivary amylase is a major component of human saliva that initiates carbohydrate digestion in the mouth. This process continues in the small intestine, where amylase produced by the pancreas performs the final steps of carbohydrate digestion. The optimal pH for salivary amylase enzymatic activity ranges from 6 to 7. Over and below this level, the response rate decreases as the enzymes become denatured. The salivary amylase enzyme is most active at pH 6.8.

Q52. The origin of new species from already existing species over a period of time Is called:

• A. adaptation
• B. Evolution✓
• C. Neo.Darwinsm
• D. Special creation

Explanation: Evolution is the change in the characteristics of a species over several generations and relies on the process of natural selection. The evolutionary process by which a new species comes into being is called speciation

Q53. Evolution is the process that demostrates:

• A. how characters are passed from one generation to the next
• B. How organisms perform their activities in different environment
• C. How new species originate from existing species✓
• D. How new species are formed specially and specifically by the nature

Explanation: Evolution is a process of descent with modification. Darwin indicated that species could form by the evolution of one species splitting into two, or via a population diverging from its extant ancestor to the point it was a new species.

Q54. Incomplete or Imperfect digestion Is called:

• A. anorexia
• B. botulism
• C. bulimia nervosa
• D. dyspepsia✓

Explanation: Dyspepsia is another word for indigestion. People with chronic indigestion often report feelings of stomach pain, over-fullness and bloating during and after eating. Other common symptoms include acid reflux, heartburn and excessive burping.

Q55. The osmotic pressure of blood Is maintained by:

• A. Membrane proteins
• B. Fibrous proteins
• C. Plasma proteins✓
• D. Myosln

Explanation: Serum albumin, protein found in blood plasma that helps maintain the osmotic pressure between the blood vessels and tissues. Serum albumin accounts for 55 percent of the total protein in blood plasma.

Q56. _ is the structure in female reproductive system in which fertilization takes place:

• A. Ovaries
• B. Uterus
• C. Cervix
• D. Oviduct✓

Explanation: The zygote is formed in the oviduct and moves towards the uterus where it could be embedded.

Q57. Among the following, identify the agranulocytes:

• A. Neutrophils
• B. Basophils
• C. Monocytes✓
• D. Both Neutrophils and Basophils

Explanation: Lymphocytes and monocytes are the two types of agranulocytes or nongranular leukocytes.These white blood cells have no obvious granules. Agranulocytes typically have a largernucleus due to the lack of noticeable cytoplasmic granules.Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are granular leukocytes.

Q58. Chlorosis in plants is basically due to lack of:

• A. Magnesium or nitrogen✓
• B. Carbon or Hydrogen
• C. Magnesium or iron
• D. Bright sunlight

Explanation: Magnesium and nitrogen are the main components of chlorophyll. Deficiency of these elements would therefore result in chlorosis.

Q59. In sundew the leaves:

• A. Form flask shaped structure
• B. Bllobed structure with midrib
• C. Have hair like tentacles✓
• D. Have nodes

Explanation: Sundews are “flypaper” plants that trap prey in sticky hairs on their leaves. They make up one of the largest groups of carnivorous plants. Long tentacles protrude from their leaves, each with a sticky gland at the tip. These droplets look like dew glistening in the sun, thus their name.

Q60. Which is incorrect for cardiac muscles?

• A. Show involuntary control
• B. Branched cells
• C. Have no striations✓
• D. Have intercalated disc

Explanation: Cardiac muscle is striated, like skeletal muscle, as the actin and myosin are arranged in sarcomeres, just as in skeletal muscle.

Q61. Nitrifying bacteria belong to following group:

• A. Chemosynthetic✓
• B. Photosynthetic
• C. Parasitic
• D. Pathogenic

Explanation: The nitrifying bacteria of the soil are Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter. They are called chemoautotrophs (chemosynthetic would be a general term) because they obtain energy from the oxidation of ammonium and nitrate ions.

Q62. Which of the following provides resistance against high temperature?

• A. Cysts
• B. Spores✓
• C. Cell wall
• D. Capsules

Explanation: Endospores (spores withing the vegetative cells) are tough dormant structures that form inside the cell wall of certain types of bacteria, such as Bacillus. These tough capsules form in response to adverse conditions such as drought or high temperatures.

Q63. For sterilization purposes, generally, X-rays are used which cause:

• A. Mutation in bacterial genome✓
• B. Denaturation of bacterial proteins
• C. Activation of bacteria
• D. Bacteria to become pathogen

Explanation: A is the most suitable option since X-rays do cause mutations in bacterial genomes and prevent them from dividing. Ionizing radiation such as X-rays and gamma rays can easily penetrate most tissues, and kill bacteria by causing irreparable DNA damage. Many Gram-negative bacteria such as E. coli, and Salmonella.

Q64. When puberty is achieved in girls, which one of the following occurs in them but not in boys?

• A. Excessive growth of hairs on skin
• B. Pubic hair growth
• C. Menarche✓
• D. Heaviness of voice

Explanation: Menarche is the first occurrence of menstruation as soon as puberty is achieved, and it does not occur in males.

Q65. Which of the following Is a circular, double stranded DNA molecules present in some bacterial cells?

• A. nucleoid
• B. Plasmids✓
• C. mesosomes
• D. Chromosomes

Explanation: A plasmid is a small, extrachromosomal DNA molecule within a cell that is physically separated from chromosomal DNA and can replicate independently. They are most commonly found as small circular, double-stranded DNA molecules in bacteria.

Q66. Protein factories In prokaryotlc cell are:

• A. Mesosomes
• B. Ribosomes✓
• C. Plasmids
• D. Nucleotide

Explanation: 70S ribosomes are present in prokaryotic cells. These are one of the few organelles present in prokaryotes. They are the key synthetic factories of proteins in them.

Q67. Which one of the following occurs at puberty in boys?

• A. Ovulation
• B. Pubic hair growth✓
• C. Hips broaden
• D. Menarche

Explanation: Options A, C, and D are the signs of puberty only in females. Option B 'Pubic hair growth' occurs in both males and females so it is the most valid option.

Q68. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone is secreted by:

• A. Hypothalamus✓
• B. Pitutary gland
• C. Thyroid
• D. Parathyroid gland

Explanation: Hypothalamus is the part of the brain that releases a variety of hormones. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone, gonadotropin-releasing hormone, growth hormone, corticotropin hormone, etc are released from the hypothalamus into the blood and travel to the anterior pituitary.

Q69. Which of the following is the separation point between two sarcomere?

• A. H-zone
• B. A-band
• C. Z-line✓
• D. M-line

Explanation: Z line is in a zig-zag manner which is a separation point between two sarcomeres. Actin filaments extend from this region and are joined together by several complex protein structures.

Q70. Many sarcomere placed end to end and form a:

• A. Muscle
• B. Fiber
• C. Myofibril✓
• D. Muscle fiber

Explanation: Sarcomeres are the smallest functional contractile unit of muscle, and myofibrils are striated muscle organelles that are comprised of sarcomeres that are strictly aligned in series.

Q71. Physical appearance of a trait is called:

• A. Genotype
• B. Alleles
• C. Phenotype✓
• D. Genome

Explanation: Phenotype refers to an individual's observable traits, such as height, eye color, and blood type. A person's phenotype is determined by both their genomic makeup (genotype) and environmental factors.

Q72. The alternative form of a given gene is called:

• A. Trait
• B. Phenotype
• C. Allele✓
• D. Genotype

Explanation: The alternative form of a gene is called an allele. An individual inherits two alleles one from each parent. For any given genomic location where such variations occur., if two alleles are the same then the person is homozygous, and if different alleles are present then the person is heterozygous.

Q73. A man receives his X chromosome from:

• A. His mother only✓
• B. Part from his father and part from his mother
• C. His father only
• D. Either his mother or his father, It depends upon luck

Explanation: Biologically male people always inherit their X chromosome from their mother, and Y chromosome from their father.

Q74. Proliferative phase is also termed as:

• A. Secretory phase
• B. Menstruations phase
• C. Follicular or preoculatory phase✓
• D. Secondary phase

Explanation: The four phases of the menstrual cycle are menstruation, the follicular phase, ovulation and the luteal phase. The menstrual cycle is a series of natural changes in hormone production and the structures of the uterus and ovaries of the female reproductive system that makes pregnancy possible

Q75. Which of these is a type of arthritis that Is primarily due to aging?

• A. Septic arthritis
• B. Rheumatoid arthritis
• C. Osteoarthritis✓
• D. Rheumatoid and oesteoarthritis

Explanation: Osteoarthritis (OA) is the most common form of arthritis. Some people call it degenerative joint disease or “wear and tear” arthritis. It occurs most frequently in the hands, hips, and knees. it occurs primarily due to aging.

Q76. What is the meaning of articulation?

• A. Connections between Joints
• B. Connections between cartilages
• C. Connections between bones✓
• D. Connections between muscles

Explanation: A joint, also known as an articulation, is a location where two or more bones meet. Most joints contain a single articulation. There are three structural classifications of joints: fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial.

Q77. Mendel’s idea that pair of characters separate during gamete formation is called:

• A. Law of particulate inheritance
• B. Law of segregation✓
• C. Law of dominance
• D. Law of independant assortment

Explanation: According to the law of segregation, only one of the two gene copies present in an organism is distributed to each gamete.

Q78. Which of the following number of chromosomes are present in the somatic cells of Drosophila?

• A. 4
• B. 8✓
• C. 16
• D. 2

Explanation: It has 8 chromosomes in its somatic cells. The number of linkage group in an organism corresponds to its haploid number of chromosomes. Somatic cells are diploid. Therefore, the number of linkage groups in Drosophila melanogaster is 4.

Q79. One map unit is supposed to be equal to:

• A. 1% recombination frequency✓
• B. 5% recombination frequency
• C. 10% recombination frequency
• D. 15% recombination frequency

Explanation: One map unit represents the distance between two linked gene pairs where 1% of the products of meiosis are recombinant. Thus, it represents 1% recombination frequency.

Q80. The antibody molecule consists of _ polypeptide chains:

• A. Eight
• B. Four✓
• C. Six
• D. Two

Explanation: An Antibody molecule is made up of 4 polypeptide chains i.e. two heavy chains and two light chains. (PTB page:326)

Q81. Which of the following is the most suitable term for the genotype AaBb

• A. Homozygous recessive
• B. Homozygous dominant
• C. Heterozygous
• D. Heterozygous dominant✓

Explanation: It will be heterozygous since the alleles are of 2 types and it will be dominant since the dominant traits are shown in heterozygotes

Q82. A diseased man marries a normal woman.They have five daughters and three sons.All the daughters were diseased and sons were normal. The gene of this disease is:

• A. X linked dominant✓
• B. X-linked recessive
• C. Autosomal recessive
• D. Autosomal dominant

Explanation: Father transmits his "X-chromosome" to the daughter while the sons receive "Y-chromosome" from the father. Since only the daughter and none of the sons are affected, the trait is X-linked. Daughters get the second copy of X-chromosomes from the mother who is normal and hence does not carry the affected allele of the trait. The trait is expressed in daughters under heterozygous conditions, hence it is an X-linked dominant trait. The correct option is A.

Q83. Albinism is an autosomal recessive trait. A woman with albino father marries an albino man. What Is the probability of albinism in her children?

• A. 25%
• B. 50%✓
• C. 75%
• D. 100%

Explanation: It is an Autosomal recessive inheritance. This means a child has to get 2 copies of the gene that causes albinism (1 from each parent) to have the condition. Thus, the correct answer of the given mcq is 50%.

Q84. Phenotype represents:

• A. Physical appereance of the trait✓
• B. Genetic makeup of the trait
• C. Normal trait
• D. Mutant trait

Explanation: The observable characteristics of an organism are termed as its phenotype. The term covers the organism's morphology, its developmental processes, its biochemical and physiological properties, its behavior, and the products of behavior.

Q85. What is the mass in grams of 1.69 moles of phosphoric acid?

• A. 148 g
• B. 138 g
• C. 157 g
• D. 166 g✓

Explanation: Phosphoric acid is H3PO4. Its molar mass is 97.9 g/mol. To find the mass we use the formula;mass = moles × molar massmass = 1.69×97.994=166g

Q86. Mass of electron _ times smaller than that of proton.

• A. 1837
• B. 1839
• C. 1836✓
• D. 1834

Explanation: The electron's mass is approximately 1836 times smaller than that of the proton. (Fact)

Q87. Which subshells are present In M shell?

• A. s
• B. s, p
• C. s, p, d✓
• D. s, p, d, f

Explanation: Refer to the following

Q88. Which of the following postulate of kinetic molecular theory does NOT hold at high temperature and pressure?

• A. Gases are considered to be composed of minute discrete particles called molecules.
• B. The molecules move in straight line.
• C. The pressure of gas is produced due to the collision of molecules with the wall of container.
• D. The volume occupied by the gas molecules is negligible as compared to the the total volume of the gas.✓

Explanation: This is because when you increase the pressure, the particles are closer together. At high pressure, they are so close together that the volume of the particles makes up a significant portion of the volume of the gas. When gases are at low pressure, they are spread far apart enough that the volume of the individual molecules is so small in comparison to the volume of the gas that you can disregard the individual volumes.

Q89. Which one of the following is calculated from balanced equation during the determination of limiting reactant?

• A. Amount of reactants present
• B. Amount of limiting reactant that produces·the product
• C. Amount of product expected to form from each reactant✓
• D. Amount of excess reactant

Explanation: This question will be explained later

Q90. A compound of boron and hydrogen contains 18.9% hydrogen and 81.1% boron. The empirical formula of the compound is:

• A. BeH2
• B. Be2H
• C. B4H
• D. B2H5✓

Explanation: For the Empirical Formula; 1. Express the percentage composition in terms of Mass in grams.Hydrogen: Boron= 18.9% 81.1%= 18.9g: 81.1g2. Find the number of moles 'n'by substituting values in the formula;n Mass/Molar Mass= 18.9g/1g: 81.1g/10.8g= 18.9 mol: 7.5 mol3. Divide the number of moles by the least number of moles. = 18.9/7.5: 7.5/7.5 = 2.5:14. Multiply both results by a whole number to get a whole number. =2.5 x 2:1x2 = 5:2 H=5B=2Resulting formula = B₂H5

Q91. The maximum number of electrons which can be accommodated in all orbital for which I=3 is:

• A. 6
• B. 14✓
• C. 10
• D. 18

Explanation: The number of orbitals for 1=3is (21+1)=(2x3+1)=7.Now, each orbit can accomodate 2 electrons.So, number of electrons =2(21+1)=2(2x3+1)=2x7=14.

Q92. In NO3- the oxidation number of N is:

• A. 5+✓
• B. 2+
• C. 3+
• D. 3-

Explanation: NO3N = xO = - 2x + (-2) × 3 = - 1x + (- 6) = - 1x – 6 = - 1x = - 1 + 6x = 5

Q93. Which of the following solid has indefinite heat of fusion?

• A. Crystalline solids
• B. Pure solids
• C. True solids
• D. Amorphous solids✓

Explanation: Crystalline solids have definite heat of fusion, whereas amorphous solids have indefinite heat of fusion. Anisotropy for crystalline solids is anisotropic, and for amorphous, it is isotropic.

Q94. Who named the positive rays produced by the hydrogen gas in discharge tube?

• A. Goldstein
• B. Rutherford✓
• C. Bohr
• D. Chedwick

Explanation: Positive rays produced by the hydrogen gas in discharge tube were discovered by Goldstein, but later named proton by Rutherford.

Q95. Which one of the following is called as compressibility factor?

• A. PV=nRT
• B. PV/nRT✓
• C. PV/RT=n
• D. PV/T=Rn

Explanation: The factor PV/nRT is called the compressibility factor. Its value is unity under all conditions for an ideal gas. (PTB Chapter 3, section 3.10: Non-ideal behaviour of gases)It’s a fact and should be memorized.

Q96. Which of the following substances has the highest intermolecular forces of attraction?

• A. H2O✓
• B. H2S
• C. H2Se
• D. H2Te

Explanation: (H2O) has hydrogen bonding, which is the strongest type of intermolecular force, resulting in high intermolecular forces of attraction.

Q97. Which solids are also called as atomic solids?

• A. Ionic solids
• B. Covalent solids✓
• C. Molecular solids
• D. Metallic solids

Explanation: Covalent solids (also called atomic) solids—Made up of atoms connected by covalent bonds; the intermolecular forces are covalent bonds as well. Characterized as being very hard with very high melting points and being poor conductors. Examples of this type of solid are diamond and graphite, and the fullerenes.

Q98. Ksp (Solubility product) depends upon:

• A. Pressure
• B. Concentration
• C. Temperature✓
• D. Volume

Explanation: Equilibrium constants only depend on temperature changes.

Q99. What Is the unit of slope obtained from Arrhenius equation?

• A. K✓
• B. J/mol K
• C. mol/K
• D. K-

Explanation: The Arrhenius Equation is represented as k=Ae−EaRTwhereEa k = A e − E a R T w h e r e E a is the activation energy, A is the frequency factor. K is the rate constant, T is the temperature and R is the gas constant. Therefore, the slope has a unit of K.

Q100. What is the reason that ice at 0˚ occupies more volume than water:

• A. Empty spaces✓
• B. Ionic bond
• C. Intermolecular
• D. Debye forces

Explanation: When water freezes, water molecules arrange into a crystal structure. It happens that, unlike most crystals, this one happens to have an arrangement that takes up a little more room than the liquid because of empty spaces.

Q101. The shape of s-orbital is _ and the shape of p-orbital is _.

• A. Spherical, dumb-bell✓
• B. Dumb-bell, spherical
• C. Spherical, double dumb-bell
• D. Spherical, spherical

Explanation: The s-orbital is spherical and the p-orbital is dumb-bell shaped. Hence, the correct option is A

Q102. For a particular reversible reaction If [Products]/[Reactants]>Kc It means that:

• A. More products are needed to attain equillbrium
• B. There are more reactants in the system
• C. More Reactants are needed to attain equillbrium✓
• D. The reaction will move forward to attain equilibrium

Explanation: If [Products]/[Reactants]>Kc then it means there are more products than needed for the equilibrium value, hence more Reactants are needed to attain equillbrium

Q103. The reaction in which rate depends only on one reactant concentrations, although more than one reactants are present in the reaction mixture is known as _

• A. 1st order reaction
• B. 2nd order reaction
• C. Pseudo first order reaction✓
• D. Third order reaction

Explanation: A reaction which is not first-order reaction naturally but made first order by increasing or decreasing the concentration of one or the other reactant is known as Pseudo first order reaction. Pseudo means ‘fake’.In pseudo-first order reactions, we are basically isolating a reactant by increasing the concentration of the other reactants. When the other reactants are in excess, change in their concentrations does not affect the reaction much, Therefore, now the reaction only depends on the concentration of the isolated reactant. Thus, the order of reaction becomes one.

Q104. In the air, N2 and O2 occur naturally but they do not react to form oxides of nitrogen because

• A. Oxides of nitrogen are unstable
• B. Catalyst is required tor the reaction
• C. The reaction is endothermic✓
• D. N2 and O2 do not react with each other

Explanation: Dinitrogen and dioxygen are main constituents of air but these do not react with each other to form oxides of nitrogen because- The reaction is endothermic and requires very high temperature.

Q105. Fe is precipitated out when Mg strip is dipped in

• A. FeSO4 solution✓
• B. CuSO4 Solution
• C. MgSO4 Solution
• D. H2SO4 solution

Explanation: According to the reactivity series, magnesium is more reactive than iron hence it will displace the iron in iron sulphate and form magnesium sulphate, percipitating iron.

Q106. Oxidation number of a substance in elemental form is:

• A. 0✓
• B. Positive
• C. Negative
• D. Fractional

Explanation: The oxidation number for an element in its elemental form is 0 (holds true for isolated atoms and elemental substances which bond identical atoms: e.g. Cl2, etc) The oxidation number of a monoatomic ion is the same as its charge (e.g. oxidation number of Na+ = +1, and that of S2- is -2)

Q107. Pi (π) bond between two atoms is

• A. Formed by axial overlapping of atomic orbitals, and is stronger than sigma bond.
• B. Formed by parallel overlapping of atomic orbitals, and is stronger than sigma bond.
• C. Formed by axial overlapping of atomic orbitals, and is weaker than sigma bond.
• D. Formed by parallel overlapping of atomic orbitals, and is weaker than sigma bond.✓

Explanation: Pi (π) bonds are formed by the parallel overlap of atomic orbitals that have electron density above and below the bond axis. Pi bonds are generally weaker than sigma bonds, which are formed by the head-on overlap of atomic orbitals. Covalent bond which is formed by parallel overlapping of the half-filled atomic orbitals of atoms is called pi bond. It is weaker than a sigma bond.

Q108. The amount of energy required to beak one mole of a particular type of bond is equal to its:

• A. Activation energy
• B. Ionization energy
• C. Bond Energy✓
• D. Potential energy

Explanation: The bond enthalpy/energy of a chemical bond can be defined as the total amount of energy required to break 1 mole of that chemical bond.

Q109. Number of molecules possessing Ea (Activation Energy) can be increased by

• A. Adding a catalyst
• B. Increasing the volume
• C. Increasing temperature✓
• D. Increasing temperature of Moles of Reactants

Explanation: Increasing temperature is correct because increasing the temperature increases the kinetic energy of molecules, which can increase the number of molecules possessing the necessary activation energy.

Q110. Which of the following is the correct demonstration of the first law of thermodynamics?

• A. ΔH=qw
• B. ΔH=q-ΔPΔV
• C. ΔH=q+w
• D. Q= E+W✓

Explanation: Q= E+W Heat gained by the system = Change in internal energy+ Work done by the system

Q111. Which of the following orbitals has lower energy?

• A. Anti-bonding molecular orbital
• B. Anti-bonding atomic orbitals
• C. Bonding half-filled orbitals
• D. Bonding molecular orbital✓

Explanation: A bonding molecular orbital is formed when atomic orbitals combine in phase, creating a molecular orbital that is lower in energy than the original atomic orbitals. This is the correct answer as it has lower energy than the original atomic orbitals and any other anti-bonding orbitals.

Q112. In the gaseous phase, when ionization takes place _ are isolated and are free from all external influences:

• A. Atoms and molecule
• B. Atom and cation
• C. Atom and anion
• D. Atom and ion✓

Explanation: d) Atom and ion: This option is correctly encompasses both cations (positively charged ions) and anions (negatively charged ions) that are formed during ionization. It also includes the neutral atom that loses or gains electrons to become an ion. This option accurately describes the process of ionization.

Q113. Which of these has a bond length of _ 174 pm?

• A. C-C
• B. Cl-Cl
• C. Cl-H
• D. C-Cl✓

Explanation: This has to be memorised as C-CI has bond length of 174 pm.The bond length of 174 pm is typical for a carbon-halogen (C-X) single bond, where X is a halogen atom such as chlorine (Cl), bromine (Br), or iodine (I).

Q114. Shielding effect in 3rd period of periodic table:

• A. Increases from left to right
• B. Decreases from left to right
• C. May increase or decrease
• D. Remain unchanged✓

Explanation: Shielding effect remains the same along the period because the number of inner orbital electrons remain the same, only the valence electron number increases which has nothing to do with shielding effect.

Q115. The transition element which shows fixed 2+ oxidation state in its compound is:

• A. Zn✓
• B. Fe
• C. Cu
• D. Mn

Explanation: Zn, with a filled 3d shell, has an oxidation state of +2 and does not exhibit multiple oxidation states as transition metal atoms do, even though it is classified as a transition metal.

Q116. Which of the following fraction of petroleum has lowest boiling point at STP.

• A. Kerosene oil
• B. Lubricating oil
• C. Gasoline✓
• D. Diesel oil

Explanation: The boiling point of gasoline is the lowest among the given fractions.

Q117. The C-C bond length in benzene is:

• A. 1.39 Angstrom✓
• B. 1.20 Angstrom
• C. 1.34 Angstrom
• D. 1.54 Angstrom

Explanation: C-C bond length is 154pm and C=C bond length is 134 pm .But in benzene all C-C bond lengths are equal to 1.39 Angstrom due to resonance.

Q118. Major product of the following reaction is: CH2=CH-CH2-CH3 + HBr

• A. CH2(Br)-CH2-CH2-CH3
• B. CH3-CH(Br)-CH2-CH3✓
• C. CH2=CH-CH(Br)-CH3
• D. CH2=CH-CH2-CH2(Br)

Explanation: Markovnikov rule will be applied here, H will be added to the carbon that has the most amount of H atoms.

Q119. Which of the following reactions are given by alcohol and phenol both?

• A. Esterification✓
• B. Nitrosation
• C. Amide formation
• D. Lucas Reaction

Explanation: Esterification is the process of combining an organic acid (RCOOH) with an alcohol (ROH) to form an ester (RCOOR) and water; or a chemical reaction resulting in the formation of at least one ester product. Ester is obtained by an esterification reaction of an alcohol or phenol and a carboxylic acid.

Q120. lodoform test is used to check the presence of:

• A. Amines
• B. Carbonyl compounds✓
• C. Carboxylic acid
• D. Alkyl halides

Explanation: Iodoform test is used to check the presence of carbonyl compounds with the structure R-CO-CH3 or alcohols with the structure R-CH(OH)-CH3 in a given unknown substance. The reaction of iodine, a base and a methyl ketone gives a yellow precipitate along with an “antiseptic” smell.

Q121. Acetone is less reactive than acetaldehyde due to:

• A. More stearic hindrance offered by its methyl groups✓
• B. Electron withdrawing nature of its methyl groups
• C. Its carbonyl carbon is sp2 hybridized
• D. Oxygen of carbonyl group is more electronegative than carbon atom

Explanation: Acetone is less reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction as compared to acetaldehyde due to greater I-effect of the two alkyl group and also greater Stearic hindrance offered to the attacking nucleophile.

Q122. The increase in probability of hydroxides of alkaline metals increase down the group due to low:

• A. Ionic size
• B. Atomic size
• C. Decrease in lattice energy✓
• D. Hydration energy

Explanation: Due to their low ionization enthalpy, M-OH easily dissociates to produce metal cation and hydroxide ions when dissolve in water. As we move down the group, ionization energy decreases. So, the basic character of alkali metal hydroxide and alkaline earth metals increases down the group.

Q123. Which of the following products is formed by the reaction of aluminium with nitrogen?

• A. AlN3
• B. AlN✓
• C. Al2N2
• D. Al3N2

Explanation: The product formed by the reaction of aluminum with nitrogen is aluminum nitride (AIN), which is option B.

Q124. The breaking of large molecules by heating at high temperature and pressure is called:

• A. Reforming
• B. Steam cracking
• C. Catalytic cracking
• D. Thermal cracking✓

Explanation: Thermal cracking is the breaking of large molecules by heating at high temperature and pressure.

Q125. Which of the following undergoes sulfonation the fastest?

• A. Benzene
• B. Chlorobenzene
• C. Nitrobenzene
• D. Toluene✓

Explanation: The methyl group in toluene is an activating group. It increases the electron density in ortho and para positions and hence, an electrophile readily attacks the position. The presence of an ortho para directing group increases the rate of reactionHence, sulfonation of toluene is fastest.Toluene- In toluene, methyl group is the substituent present on the ring. Methyl group shows a hyperconjugation effect and so, it is classified as an electron-donating group. Methyl group activates the ring and makes it easier to undergo ESR as compared to benzene.

Q126. The termination step in the halogenation of alkanes in the presence of sunlight involves the formation of:

• A. Free radicals
• B. Cations
• C. Anions
• D. Molecules✓

Explanation: In the termination step, 2 free radicals bond together to form a molecule that does not contain a free radical. In the presence of ultraviolet (UV) light or heat, the reaction of a halogen with an alkane results in the formation of a haloalkane (alkyl halide).

Q127. Which one of the following is a strong nucleophile:

• A. Cl-
• B. Br-
• C. OH-✓
• D. HSO4-

Explanation: A nucleophile is a species that donates a pair of electrons to form a chemical bond with another atom or molecule. The strength of a nucleophile depends on its ability to donate electrons, which is influenced by factors such as its electronegativity, size, and charge.In the given options, (C) OH- is the strongest nucleophile because it has a negative charge and a lone pair of electrons, making it a strong electron donor.

Q128. 2-chlorobutane belongs to:

• A. Primary Alkyl Halides
• B. Secondary Alkyl Halides✓
• C. Tertiary Alkyl Halides
• D. Quarternary Alkyl Halides

Explanation: In 2- chlorobutane, the halogen group is bonded to that carbon atom which has only 1 hydrogen atom attached with it. So it is secondary alkyl halide.

Q129. Aldehyde common names are derived from carboxylic acid names with the same number of:

• A. Hydrogen atoms
• B. Carbon atoms✓
• C. Oxygen atoms
• D. Carbon and hydrogen atoms

Explanation: The common names of aldehydes are derived from the names of the corresponding carboxylic acids by replacing the "-ic acid" ending with "-al". This naming convention applies to aldehydes that have the same number of carbon atoms as the corresponding carboxylic acid. Therefore, the correct answer is (B) carbon atoms.

Q130. The carbanion attacks the molecule of another carbonyl compound to form:

• A. an alkoxide group
• B. aldol✓
• C. a carbanion
• D. a carbonium ion

Explanation: When a carbanion attacks a carbonyl compound, it can undergo an aldol reaction to form a β-hydroxy carbonyl compound. This reaction involves the nucleophilic addition of the carbanion to the carbonyl carbon of another carbonyl compound, followed by elimination of a leaving group to form a new carbon-carbon bond.

Q131. Unit of K in first order Reaction is:

• A. s-1✓
• B. moles dm-3 s-1
• C. moles dm-3
• D. mol-1 dm3’

Explanation: k= rate / [concentration of reactant]k in units is = mol . dm-3 . s-1 / mol . dm-3So the units of k are s-1

Q132. Melting point of Na & Mg decreases down the group due to:

• A. Strong electronegativity
• B. Strong attractive forces
• C. Increment in size✓
• D. High Ionization Energy

Explanation: Generally the melting point of the metals decreases down the group. This is because as the metal ions get larger the distance between the bonding electrons and the positive nucleus gets larger and reduces the overall attraction between the two.

Q133. Identify the element that has maximum oxidation states:

• A. Zinc
• B. Chromium
• C. Vanadium
• D. Manganese✓

Explanation: Common oxidation states of manganese are +2, +3, +4, +6, and +7, although all oxidation states from −3 to +7 have been observed.

Q134. Among the following, which compound is formed by addition polymerization:

• A. Polystyrene✓
• B. Polyester
• C. Nylon
• D. Both Polystyrene & Polyester

Explanation: Repeat units of styrene are added to each other to form the polymer polystyrene whereas polyester and nylon are condensation polymers.

Q135. Salts of carboxylic acids can be converted into corresponding carboxylic acid by treating with:

• A. Water
• B. Base
• C. Acid anhydrides
• D. Acid✓

Explanation: The appropriate ester on boiling with concentrated sodium hydroxide yields sodium salt of the acid.This resulting salt when treated with dilute HC1 gives the free carboxylic acid. (PTB Chapter 13: Carboxylic acids and their derivatives).

Q136. The basic hydrolysis of ethyl acetate produces?

• A. Ethanol and sodium acetate
• B. Ethanol and acetic acid✓
• C. Ethanol
• D. Formic acid

Explanation: Ethyl acetate is rapidly hydrolyzed to ethanol and acetic acid.

Q137. The properties which depends upon the direction are called:

• A. Isotropic properties
• B. Anisotropic properties✓
• C. Additive properties
• D. Colligative properties

Explanation: Anisotropy is the property which depends on the direction of measurement. Crystalline solids are anisotropic and they show different values of physical properties when measured along different directions.

Q138. The array of points which shows the atoms ions or molecule arrangements in a crystal is called.

• A. Crystal system
• B. Crystal lattice✓
• C. Crystal array
• D. Crystallography

Explanation: A lattice is an ordered array of points describing the arrangement of particles that form a crystal. The unit cell of a crystal is defined by the lattice points. The unit cell is the smallest part of a crystal that repeated regularly through translation in three dimensions creates the whole crystal.

Q139. The value of acceleration due to gravity:

• A. Is same on equator and poles
• B. Is least on poles
• C. Is least on equator✓
• D. Increases from pole to equator

Explanation: The value of g is inversely proportional to square of the radius of the earth as the relation says belowg = GM/r²Where,G is Universal gravitation constantM is mass of earthr is radius of earthAs we know earth is not a perfect sphere but an oblate spheroid in shape, it's radius is greater at equator than it's value at the polesThe value of g at equator is about 9.78 m/s² and 9.83 m/s² at poles

Q140. Ali punches a mattress and then punches a wall with the same force. Why does Ali experience more pain while striking the wall?

• A. The rate of change of momentum while striking the wall is lower
• B. The rate of change of momentum while striking the wall is higher✓
• C. The wall does not move
• D. The mattress applies an equal and opposite force

Explanation: The rate of change in momentum when you hit the wall is more than when you hit a piece of sponge with an equal force.The rate of change in momentum is directly proportional to the force applied. Hitting a wall will hurt more than hitting the mattress. This can be explained as follows-Wall is hard, When you hit a wall, an equal reaction force acts on the hand and hurts it. When you hit the mattress, a part of the momentum of hand is transferred to the sponge. As a result, it gets deformed and the reaction is much less than the action.

Q141. Which of the following is true about newton's laws of motion?

• A. One of them is not related to forces
• B. Two of them are not related to forces
• C. All of them are related to forces✓
• D. One of them is related forces

Explanation: Newton's laws of motion can be paraphrased as follows: 1. A body remains at rest, or in motion at a constant speed in a straight line, unless acted upon by a force.2. When a body is acted upon by a force, the time rate of change of its momentum equals the force.3. If two bodies exert forces on each other, these forces have the same magnitude but opposite directions.All of these laws describe the relationship between the motion of an object and the forces acting on it.

Q142. When body moves in a circle _ always changes:

• A. Velocity✓
• B. Acceleration
• C. Mass
• D. Force

Explanation: As an object moves in a circle, it is constantly changing its direction. At all instances, the object is moving tangent to the circle. Since the direction of the velocity vector is the same as the direction of the object's motion, the velocity vector is directed tangent to the circle as well, hence the velocity keeps on changing.

Q143. The projectile motion covers maximum range:

• A. Horizontally✓
• B. Vertically
• C. Tangentially
• D. Linearly

Explanation: Assuming a projectile is launched from the ground level, the range is defined as the distance between the launch point and the point where the projectile hits the ground, it is horizontal.

Q144. Force is a:

• A. Scalar quantity
• B. Vector quantity✓
• C. None of these
• D. Tensor

Explanation: A scalar quantity is defined as the quantity that is only defined by magnitude whereas a vector quantity is defined by the magnitude as well as direction. Since force is defined both by its magnitude and direction, it is a vector quantity.

Q145. If the force of 20 N acts at an angle 60 degree along horizontal then its vertical and horizontal components are:

• A. 20 N, 0 N
• B. 15 N, 10 N
• C. 17.32 N, 10 N✓
• D. 10 N, 17.32 N

Explanation: Vertical component Fy= 20sin60= 17.32NHorizontal componentFx= 20cos60= 20 x 1/2 =10N

Q146. Minimum value of kinetic energy is:

• A. Infinite
• B. Zero✓
• C. Negative constant
• D. Minus infinite

Explanation: Kinetic energy must always be either zero or a positive value. While velocity can have a positive or negative value, velocity squared is always positive. Kinetic energy depends on the velocity of the object squared.

Q147. A body is undergoing non uniform circular motion, work done by radial force on the body:

• A. Positive
• B. Zero✓
• C. Negative
• D. Variable

Explanation: W= F x SThe radial force and displacement are perpendicular to each other W = FsCos90Cos90 = 0W = 0

Q148. Radian can be used to measure:

• A. Length of line
• B. Diameter of circle
• C. Side of traingle
• D. Arc length✓

Explanation: A radian is the angle subtended by a radius length wrapped along the circumference of a circle forming an arc of circle.

Q149. The velocity of sound in vacuum at 0 C:

• A. 332 m/s
• B. 344 m/s
• C. 330 m/s
• D. 0✓

Explanation: The speed of sound in a vacuum is zero metres per second, as there are no particles present in the vacuum. The sound waves travel in a medium when there are particles for the propagation of these sound waves.

Q150. The engine of vehicle delivers constant power and moves up on the inclined plane, then its velocity:

• A. Must remain constant✓
• B. Must increase
• C. Must decrease
• D. Remains zero

Explanation: Velocity at all times will remain constant since the power is constant.

Q151. The formula to estimate P.E is:

• A. F.d
• B. mgh✓
• C. kx
• D. mvr

Explanation: The formula for potential energy depends on the force acting on the two objects. For the gravitational force the formula is P.E. = mgh, where m is the mass in kilograms, g is the acceleration due to gravity (9.8 m / s2 at the surface of the earth) and h is the height in meters.

Q152. An object travelling in a circle at 2 revolutions per second has an angular velocity of:

• A. 12.9 rad/s
• B. 13.3 rad/s
• C. 12.6 rad/s✓
• D. 14.6 rad/s

Explanation: As; 1 rev/s = 2π rad/s 2 rev/s = 4π rad/s = 4 x 3.14 = 12.6 rad/s

Q153. Earth revolution In 24 hours covers _ angle:

• A. 90
• B. 60
• C. 57.3
• D. 360✓

Explanation: The earth rotates 360∘ about its axis in about 24 hours.

Q154. Example of mechanical waves is:

• A. Transverse waves
• B. Longitudinal wave
• C. Both transverse and longitudinal wave✓
• D. Compressional wave

Explanation: Both longitudinal and transverse waves are example of mechanical waves.

Q155. Microwave is:

• A. An electromagnetic wave✓
• B. Sound wave
• C. Longitudinal wave
• D. Standing wave

Explanation: Microwaves are a form of "electromagnetic" radiation; that is, they are waves of electrical and magnetic energy moving together through space. Electromagnetic radiation spans a broad spectrum from very long radio waves to very short gamma rays.

Q156. The property of musical sound which differentiate between grave and shrill sound is called?

• A. Pitch✓
• B. Intensity
• C. Beats
• D. Quality

Explanation: Pitch is the characteristic of sound by which we can distinguish between a shrill and a grave sound. The faster the vibrations, the frequency and pitch will be higher and sound becomes shriller whereas if sound is grave that means frequency and pitch will be lower.

Q157. Water waves are:

• A. Longitudinal waves
• B. Complex waves
• C. Transverse waves
• D. Both longitudinal and transverse wave✓

Explanation: Water waves are a combination of longitudinal and transverse waves and are surface waves. The distortions propagate with the wave speed, while the water molecules remain at the same positions. Most of the ocean waves are produced by wind, and the waves towards the coast pass the energy from the wind offshore.

Q158. Molar heat capacity at constant volume is given by:

• A. dQ/dN
• B. dQ/dP
• C. dU/dT✓
• D. dU/dV

Explanation: c) dU/dT: This expression represents the change in internal energy (U) per change in temperature (T) of a substance. Molar heat capacity at constant volume (Cv) is defined as the change in internal energy per change in temperature at constant volume. So, this option is correct.

Q159. If Cp = 20 J/mol.K then for 1 mole gas we get Cv= _. You can use Cp/Cv = 1.7.

• A. 10.6 J/Kmole
• B. 2.7 J/Kmole
• C. 13 J/Kmole
• D. 11.7 J/Kmole✓

Explanation: Cp/Cv=1.7 and Cp=20, then Cv =20/1.7=11.76 J/Kmole

Q160. The change in potential energy per unit charge between two points in an electric field is called:

• A. Potential difference✓
• B. Absolute potential
• C. Electric intensity
• D. Permittivity

Explanation: Potential difference is the difference in electric potential between two points, which is defined as the work needed per unit of charge to move a test charge between the two points.

Q161. Pitch depends on:

• A. Frequency✓
• B. Timbre
• C. Loudness
• D. Amplitude

Explanation: Pitch depends on frequency of the sound waves. More the frequency, more the pitch is.

Q162. Unit of heat capacity is:

• A. J/K✓
• B. J/K.mole
• C. J/Kkg
• D. Joule

Explanation: The unit of heat capacity is joule per Kelvin or joule per degree Celsius.

Q163. Electric Flux through the surface of a sphere which has constant charge at its centre depends on:

• A. The radius of the sphere
• B. The surface area of the sphere
• C. The amount of charge inside the sphere✓
• D. The amount of charge outside the sphere

Explanation: As per Gauss's theorem in electrostatics, the electric flux through a surface depends only on the amount of charge enclosed by the surface. It does not depend on size and shape of the surface. Therefore, electric flux through the surface is the same for all figures.

Q164. Electric current may be defined as:

• A. Rate of flow of charge✓
• B. Rate of flow of momentum
• C. Rate of flow of power
• D. None of them

Explanation: Electric current may be defined as the rate of flow of charge. Electric current is the measure of the flow of electric charge through a conductor per unit of time. It is typically measured in units of amperes (A), where 1 ampere is equal to 1 coulomb of charge passing through a conductor in 1 second. So, the correct definition is "Rate of flow of charge."

Q165. _ potential difference is required for establishing steady current?

• A. Minimum
• B. Constant✓
• C. Maximum
• D. Varying

Explanation: The potential difference is the amount of work done in moving a unit positive charge without acceleration from one point to another along any closed path between the two points. So we need constant potential difference for establishing a steady current.

Q166. Which equation represents the maximum output power of source?

• A. P = VI
• B. P = I2R
• C. P = V2/R
• D. P = E2/4R✓

Explanation: d) P = E^2/4R: This equation is similar to option (c), where E represents the electromotive force (emf) of the source. It is also used in the context of the maximum power transfer theorem.

Q167. Magnetic field inside a long solenoid is:

• A. Varying with radial distance
• B. Uniform✓
• C. Zero
• D. Not enough Information

Explanation: The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid-carrying current is the same at all points. It is because the magnetic field in the solenoid is constant because the lines are completely parallel to each other.As shown in figure, the magnetic field lines inside a long solenoid are straight lines, which represents uniform magnetic field.

Q168. When a bar magnet is broken from middle, the broken pieces will have:

• A. North pole only
• B. Sooth pole only
• C. Both south and north poles✓
• D. Magnetism will be removed

Explanation: Even if a magnet is broken in half, each half has one north pole and one south pole.

Q169. Electrical potential energy between two charges at distance "r" is given by:

• A. (k*q1*q2)/r✓
• B. (k*q1*q2)/r2
• C. k*q1*q2
• D. k*q1*q2/2r

Explanation: Energy = force × distance The force between charges Q1 and Q2 separated by a distance r is given by Coulomb's Law: F = kQ1Q2 / r2, where k is a constant. F is attractive if the signs of charge are opposite and it is repulsive if the signs of charge are the same.V=kq1q2/r^2 × r V=kq1q2/rWhere, V = electric potential energy. q = point charge. r = distance between any point around the charge to the point charge. k = Coulomb constant; k = 9.0 × 109 N. Hence, the correct option is A.

Q170. Consider an isolated parallel plate capacitor. Both plates have charge +Q and -Q and filled with a dielectric with dielectric constant K. We pull out the dielectric material, if the charges on the plates do not change, how does the energy in the capacitor changes?

• A. It increases
• B. It decreases✓
• C. It remains constant
• D. Insufficient data

Explanation: When a di electric in inserted between two charge plates the strength of electric field is reduced. If the charge on the both plates is kept constant, then potential difference is reduced between the both plates. This is how the capacitance is increased between the both capacitors. Hence removing dielectric would reduce the the energy stored in capacitor.

Q171. Which of the following could not be the units of electric intensity?

• A. Joule per coulomb per meter
• B. Joule per coulomb✓
• C. Volt per meter
• D. Newton per coulomb

Explanation: a,c and d all are the units of electric intensity except b, because joule/coulomb will be the unit of potential difference.

Q172. Current is _ physical quantity

• A. scalar quantity✓
• B. vector quantity
• C. variable quantity
• D. constant quantity

Explanation: As a result, an electric current is indeed ascalar value despite having magnitude and direction. It reflects the positivecharge flow direction, but it is considered a scalarquantity since it currently uses scalar addition laws rather than vectoraddition laws.

Q173. Ohm's Law is applicable only when temperature is:

• A. changing
• B. absolute zero
• C. constant✓
• D. decreasing

Explanation: Ohm's law is valid when temperature is constant. So all other options are incorrect.

Q174. Resistance of a conductor depends upon:

• A. Temperature
• B. Nature of a conductor
• C. Length✓
• D. Color

Explanation: As the formula, given below, links Resistance to 'resistivity', 'length', and 'cross-sectional area'; it depends on all three of them. As 'Length' is given in the options, it should be selected as the correct one.As for 'Temperature', it increases resistance but the basic resistance of any object is derived from the formula, given below.

Q175. The study of magnets is called:

• A. Electromagnetism
• B. Magnetism✓
• C. Electrostatics
• D. Current electricity

Explanation: The study of magnets is called magnetism.

Q176. If the current in a wire is doubled then magnetic field would be:

• A. halved
• B. remain same
• C. triple
• D. double✓

Explanation: According to ampere law, magnetic field B is directly proportional to current. Hence when the current is doubled, simply the magnetic field will be doubled.

Q177. The magnetic flux density is:

• A. magnetic field lines per unit area✓
• B. magnetic field lines per unit volume
• C. electric field lines per unit area
• D. electric field lines per unit volume

Explanation: The magnetic flux density or magnetic induction is the number of lines of force passing through a unit area of material, B. The unit of magnetic induction is the tesla (T)

Q178. The self inductance of a coil does not depend upon:

• A. length
• B. current✓
• C. the number of turns
• D. the area of the coil

Explanation: Self-inductance depends on the cross-sectional area of the coil, the number of turns per unit length of the coil, length of solenoid and permeability of the core material that is on size, shape, and material of the coil, and also on medium. It does not depend upon current.

Q179. The negative sign in Lenz's law indicates that the induced emf opposes the rate of change of:

• A. Electric flux
• B. Magentic flux✓
• C. Electric field
• D. Magentic field

Explanation: The minus sign used in Lenz's law simply indicates that the emf induced in the coil is in such direction that it opposes the change in magnetic flux linked with the coil.

Q180. In a step down transformer, the current in the secondary coil is _ _ the current in the primary coil:

• A. Equal to
• B. Less than
• C. Greater than✓
• D. Unchanged

Explanation: Step down transformer is used to step down the voltage. Since there is no power loss during transmission, the power is the same in primary and secondary coils. Thus the coil having a lower voltage will have a higher current. Hence, the current in the secondary coil is more.

Q181. Transistors can be used as:

• A. Half wave rectifier
• B. Full wave rectifier
• C. Both
• D. All✓

Explanation: Transistors can not act as rectifiers. They may, however, act as amplifiers.

Q182. Among the following four spectral regions, which photon has the highest energy?

• A. Infrared
• B. Violet✓
• C. Blue
• D. Red

Explanation: E = hc/λEnergy is inversely proportional to wavelength. Since a photon in the violet region has the least wavelength, it implies, that photon has the highest energy.

Q183. A three dimensional image is obtained by scanning the surface with a focused beam of electrons:

• A. SEM✓
• B. TEM
• C. X-ray
• D. STEM

Explanation: A scanning electron microscope is a type of electron microscope that produces images of a sample by scanning the surface with a focused beam of electrons. The electrons interact with atoms in the sample, producing various signals that contain information about the surface topography and composition of the sample.

Q184. X rays are also known as:

• A. Low energy invisible photons
• B. High energy visible photons
• C. High energy invisible photons✓
• D. Low energy visible photons

Explanation: X rays are high energy invisible photons. Hence all other options are incorrect.

Q185. An ordinary TV screen made of cathode tube emits:

• A. Cathode rays
• B. Anode rays
• C. Gamma rays
• D. None of the above options✓

Explanation: A cathode-ray tube (CRT) is a vacuum tube containing one or more electron guns, which emit electron beams that are manipulated to display images on a phosphorescent screen.

Q186. What is the relationshlp between the half life of a radioactive isotope and decay constant?

• A. they are equal in magnitude
• B. they are directly proportional
• C. they are inversely proportional✓
• D. No relation

Explanation: The time required for half of the original population of radioactive atoms to decay is called the half-life. The relationship between the half-life, T1/2, and the decay constant is given by T1/2 = 0.693/λ where lambda denotes decay constant, NOT wavelength.

Q187. Transformer can convert _

• A. Low DC voltage
• B. High DC voltage
• C. Battery voltage
• D. AC voltage✓

Explanation: Transformers can only work with AC voltage

Q188. Eddy currents flow in:

• A. Open loops
• B. Closed loops✓
• C. Straight lines
• D. Vertlcal loops

Explanation: Eddy currents are loops of electrical current induced within conductors by a changing magnetic field in the conductor according to Faraday's law of induction. Eddy currents flow in closed loops within conductors, in planes perpendicular to the magnetic field.

Q189. When coil is rotated in magnetic field, the current produced is:

• A. Constant
• B. Decrease
• C. Increase
• D. Continuously changing✓

Explanation: Direction of current changes as the coil is rotated

Q190. A full wave rectifier passes _ into positive cycles:

• A. Lower half cycle
• B. Upper half cycle
• C. Both lower and upper half cycles✓
• D. One quarter cycle

Explanation: c) Both lower and upper half cycles: This option is correct. A full-wave rectifier passes both the lower (negative) and upper (positive) half cycles of an AC input waveform. It does so by using a bridge rectifier circuit or by employing multiple diodes to ensure that the entire AC waveform is converted into a unidirectional (DC) output.

Q191. When gamma photon is entered in nucleus it _:

• A. De-excite the nucleus
• B. Excites the nucleus✓
• C. Scattered by nucleus
• D. No effect on nucleus

Explanation: In this case, a gamma photon imparts its energy and transfers its energy to an atomic electron causing the ejection of an electron from that nucleus.

Q192. In annihilation process particles move in:

• A. Same direction
• B. Opposite direction✓
• C. Perpendicular position
• D. remain stationary

Explanation: Annihilation refers to a process in which a particle and its corresponding antiparticle come into contact and mutually annihilate, resulting in the production of other particles or energy.In annihilation, a particle and an antiparticle with opposite charges and other quantum numbers (such as lepton number or baryon number) can annihilate each other upon collision.

Q193. Statement I: The local cooperative credit society has decided to stop giving loans to farmers with immediate effect. Statement II: A large number of credit society members have withdrawn a major part of their deposits from the credit society.

• A. Statement I is the cause and statement II ls its effect
• B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect✓
• C. Both the statements I and II are Independent causes
• D. Both the statements I and II are efects of some common cause

Explanation: Clearly, withdrawal of funds by society members is bound to reduce the lending power of the society.

Q194. Statement: Floods may create havoc In the country this year too. Courses of Action: I) The Government should be on the alert to evacuate flood-affected victims. II) People should not be afraid of floods.

• A. Only l follows✓
• B. Only II follows
• C. Either I or II follows
• D. Netther I nor II follows

Explanation: Only 1 follows because the government should make an effort to make people aware of these natural disasters. Moreover, these natural disasters could not control.

Q195. Pick the word which is always associated with "books".

• A. Pages✓
• B. Learning
• C. Pictures
• D. Eraser

Explanation: The word that is always associated with "books" A. Pages: Books are made up of pages, which contain the text and information. When we think of books, we often think of flipping through the pages to read or The other options are not always associated with B. Learning: While books are commonly used as a source of learning and knowledge, not all books are specifically intended for learning purposes. Some books may be for entertainment or other C. Pictures: While many books do contain pictures, not all books have them. There are various types of books, such as novels or textbooks, where the presence of pictures may D. Erasers: Erasers are not typically associated with books. Erasers are used for erasing mistakes or marks made with pencils, which are more commonly associated with writing or Therefore, the word that is always associated with "books" is "pages" (option A).

Q196. Pick the word which is always associated with: Electrical Energy.

• A. Light
• B. Cars
• C. Power✓
• D. Water

Explanation: While solving such questions, we actually have to analyze deeply because options are closely related.

Q197. To approach this question, use a sentence: 'A champion could not exist without _.' Find the word that fits In.

• A. Running
• B. Swimming
• C. Courage✓
• D. Speaking

Explanation: Courage is a basic need in anything so if you want to do anything you must have courage similarly, courage is needed for a champion to win.

Q198. Daniyal has been visiting friends In his flat for the past two weeks. He Is leaving tomorrow morning and his flight Is very early. Most of his friends live fairly close to the airport. Usman lives ten miles away. Farhan lives five miles away, Numan, seven miles.Ali is farther away than Farhan, but closer than Numan. Approximately how far away from the airport is Ali?

• A. Nine miles
• B. Seven miles
• C. Eight miles
• D. Six miles✓

Explanation: Ali is farther away than Farhan, who is five miles away, and closer than Numan, who is seven miles away.Ali would be between five and seven miles from the airport. Thus D is correct.