Punjab Mdcat Mock Paper 3 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Choose the BEST Option.The region _ which they were passing was known as the Land of Thirst and Death.

• A. Through✓
• B. By
• C. In
• D. From

Explanation: Through can be used as a preposition, an adverb, and an adjective. It has several meanings, including “from one side to the other,” “from beginning to end,” and “during an entire period”: He rode his bicycle through the door and onto the street. You have to read the book through if you want to be prepared for class.

Q2. The culpable child _ some words to her mother for pardoning his delinquency.

• A. Mumbled✓
• B. Showy
• C. Rude
• D. Crazy

Explanation: 'Mumbled' is to say something indistinctly and quietly, making it difficult for others to hear. So, the correct sentence is, "The culpable child mumbled some words to her mother for pardoning his delinquency."

Q3. I _ caution in interpreting these results.

• A. Urge✓
• B. Usher
• C. Usurp
• D. Uproot

Explanation: As a noun, 'urge' means a desire. As a verb, it means to strongly encourage. 'Urge' is related to the word, 'urgent' or 'pressing'. An 'urge' is a pressing want, one that is almost a compulsion, like when you're so frustrated, you have the urge to scream. If you urge someone to do something, you feel strongly about it.

Q4. Choose the BEST Option.It is better for me to _ than to shed the blood of an innocent boy.

• A. Died
• B. Die✓
• C. Had died
• D. Have died

Explanation: The sentence is structured in a way that requires an infinitive verb form ("to die")."Die" is the infinitive form of the verb that correctly fits after "to" in this sentence.

Q5. Select the incorrect segment:The patient’s blood analysis shows that there is a big number of amorphous cells which are quiet unidentifiable.

• A. Patient’s
• B. Of
• C. Which
• D. Quiet✓

Explanation: The right word that should be used at this place is QUITE which means absolutely. QUEIT refers to not saying anything which is not the word required here .

Q6. The disease is uncurable without the judicious use of antibiotics.

• A. Uncurable✓
• B. Without
• C. Judicious
• D. Use

Explanation: "Uncurable" is not a word. The correct word is "Incurable".

Q7. Select the incorrect segment:Your argument is simply abstruse as there is no clarity of thought and coherence in ideas and it also lack vision.

• A. Is
• B. Of
• C. In
• D. Lack✓

Explanation: The incorrect segment is: "it also lack vision."Explanation:The subject "it" is singular, so the verb should also be singular."Lack" is incorrect because it is the base form of the verb, while the correct form should be "lacks" to match the singular subject.Corrected sentence:"Your argument is simply abstruse as there is no clarity of thought and coherence in ideas, and it also lacks vision."

Q8. She might be forgiven for _ beneath the pressure.

• A. Undertaking
• B. Extricating
• C. Buckling✓
• D. Resounding

Explanation: Buckle means to collapse under weight or pressure; hence, C is the correct answer.

Q9. Spot the error. The delegates in Anatolia could transfer their activities to Istanbul, put Mustafa Kamal’s ideas into practice and yet not longer stand in opposition to the Padishah.

• A. In
• B. To
• C. Into
• D. Not longer✓

Explanation: "No longer" would be correct form of expression in this sentence. The correct sentence is, "The delegates in Anatolia could transfer their activities to Istanbul, put Mustafa Kamal’s ideas into practice and yet no longer stand in opposition to the Padishah."

Q10. The finger like infoldings, which are formed by inner membrane of mitochondria, are called:

• A. Ribosomes
• B. Matrix
• C. Porin
• D. Cristae✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Cristae, which are the finger-like infoldings of the inner membrane of mitochondria. These structures are critical for the mitochondria's function, as they increase the surface area available for the electron transport chain, thereby enhancing ATP production.In contrast, Ribosomes are involved in protein synthesis and do not relate to mitochondrial structure. The Matrix refers to the space within the mitochondria, but it does not describe any infoldings. Porin is a type of protein that allows for the transport of substances across membranes and is not an infolding structure.

Q11. The structure present in a eukaryotic cell but absent in prokaryotic cells is;

• A. DNA
• B. Ribosomes
• C. Cell surface membrane
• D. Nucleus✓

Explanation: The defining difference, between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells, is membrane-bound organelles including the nucleus. Eukaryotic cells possess membrane-bound organelles but prokaryotes do not.All other three options describe structures common to both, i.e. DNA, ribosomes (which are organelles but not membrane bound), and cell surface membrane.

Q12. Site of mRNA translation:

• A. Lysosomes
• B. Ribosomes✓
• C. Cisternae
• D. Golgi body

Explanation: Factual recall;Option A mentions lysosomes, which contain hydrolytic enzymes that digest old organelles or phagocytosed particles.Option B mentions ribosomes; messenger RNA (mRNA) is decoded in a ribosome, outside the nucleus, to produce a specific amino acid chain or polypeptide. Option C, cisternae, describes the sac-like tubules that make up the endoplasmic reticulum.Option D, Golgi body, is involved in packaging of already synthesized proteins and their subsequent transport or secretion.

Q13. Among the following, which cellular organelle contains circular DNA, similar to those found in bacteria?

• A. Lysosome
• B. Nucleus
• C. Nucleosome
• D. Mitochondria✓

Explanation: Mitochondria contain circular DNA and are involved in energy production through cellular respiration. This feature, along with the presence of 70S ribosomes, reflects their evolutionary origin from ancient prokaryotic cells, as proposed by the endosymbiotic theory. Chloroplasts share similar characteristics but are not listed among the current options. Lysosomes are cellular organelles involved in waste processing and lack DNA. The nucleus, while containing genetic material, stores it in a linear form. Nucleosomes are part of chromatin structure in the nucleus and do not contain DNA independently.

Q14. A typical neuron at rest:

• A. Is more positive outside than inside✓
• B. Is more negative outside than inside
• C. Has no charge on either side
• D. Has an equal charge on either side

Explanation: Option [A] A typical neuron is more positive outside than inside due to the presence of Na+ K+ pump which countertransports 3Na+ outside and 2K+ inside, removing one extra positive charge outside every time movement occurs.Option[B] At rest neuron is more positive outsideOption [c] Counter-transports of ions occurs in an unequal amount resulting in chargesOption[D] 3 Na+ move outside and 2K+ inside via sodium-potassium pump therefore unequal charge on either side

Q15. Which of the following sequence is correct?

• A. LH → FSH → Estrogen → Progesterone
• B. FSH → LH → Progesterone → Estrogen
• C. FSH → Estrogen → Progesterone → LH
• D. FSH → Estrogen → LH → Progesterone✓

Explanation: [A] FSH is produced in the start in menstrual cycle not LH[B] FSH stimulates the production of Estrogen[C] LH is produced first before progesterone[D] In the start of the menstrual cycle FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone)is released during the beginning stimulating the production of Oestrogen from ovaries that vascularise the endometrium and then decrease in FSH and increase in Estrogen Produces LH and after Ovulation corpus Luteum secretes Progesterone.

Q16. Sickle cell Anaemia is an example of which type of chromosomal defect?

• A. Chromosomal rearrangement
• B. Transposition of gene
• C. Chromosomal aberration
• D. Point mutation✓

Explanation: Option [A] chromosomal rearrangement includes inversions,reciprocal translocations that can have effect on gene expression through positive effectsOption [B] Transposition of gene is the change in gene position.Option [C] chromosomal aberrations are the mega changes which involve presence of an extra chromosome or loss of chromosome from diploid number of chromosomes.Option [D] In Sickle cell anaemia,the 6th amino acid[ glutamic acid] is replaced by another amino acid [valine] in each haemoglobin BETA chain so haemoglobin is unable to carry out its normal function of carrying oxygen [haemoglobin becomes abnormal].In the nucleotide order,the nitrogenous base thymine is replaced by adenine.Since there is alterations in the sequence of DNA nucleotide so it is an example of POINT MUTATION [If alterations involve one or a few base pairs in the coding sequence they are called point mutation]. Hence option D is right.

Q17. The karyotype of an individual is _ of chromosomes.

• A. Number
• B. Types
• C. Number, types and chemical composition
• D. Number and types✓

Explanation: [A] Does not refer only on number of chromosome[B] does not refer to the type of chromosomes only[C] does not refer to chemical composition of chromosomes[D] Karyotype of an individual refers to complete set of chromosomes that includes the number and set of chromosomes in that set

Q18. Transgenic plants are the ones:

• A. Generated by introducing foreign DNA into a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell✓
• B. Produced after protoplast fusion in artificial medium
• C. Grown in artificial medium after hybridization in the field
• D. Produced by a somatic embryo in artificial medium

Explanation: The plants produced through genetic engineering contain genes, usually from an unrelated organism. Such genes are called transgenes and the plants having transgenes are called transgenic plants. Recombinant DNA techniques are being used to improve crop plants by increasing their productivity, making them more nutritious, and by developing disease resistance. Transgenic plants have a natural resistance to herbicides and pests. In the future, plants may have an ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen and an increased ability to grow in arid and salty soils.

Q19. Microtubules of spindle fibres are composed of a protein called

• A. Tubulin✓
• B. Actin
• C. Myosin
• D. Troponin

Explanation: [A] The tubulin proteins α- and β polymerize into long chains or filaments that form microtubules.[B] Actin forms microfilaments in the cytoskeleton[C] Myosin protein is found in muscle cells, converts chemical energy in the form of ATP to mechanical energy,generating force and movement[D] Troponin,protein found in the muscles of heart

Q20. Cell death due to tissue damage is called:

• A. Necrosis✓
• B. Metastasis
• C. Apoptosis
• D. Epistasis

Explanation: [A] Necrosis is the death of a body tissue,occurring when too little blood flows to the tissue.[B]Metastasis means that cancer has spread to different parts of body[C] Apoptosis the process of programmed cell death[D] Epistasis is a circumstance where the expression of one gene is modified by expression of one or more gene

Q21. The children suffering from SCIDS lack an enzyme called:

• A. Adenosine deaminase✓
• B. Homogentisic and hydroxylase
• C. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
• D. Homogentisic and dehydrogenase

Explanation: Children suffering from severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID) due to adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency lack this critical enzyme, which is essential for the maturation of T and B lymphocytes. Without ADA, these immune cells cannot function properly, leading to life-threatening infections. The other options refer to different enzymes that are involved in metabolic pathways unrelated to SCID: homogentisic acid and its associated enzymes deal with the metabolism of phenylalanine and tyrosine, while phenylalanine hydroxylase is specifically involved in converting phenylalanine to tyrosine. Therefore, they do not relate to the immune deficiency seen in SCID.

Q22. When a disease is transmitted directly from an affected father to his son, it is called:

• A. X-linked
• B. Autosomal
• C. Y-linked✓
• D. X and Y-linked

Explanation: [A] X-linked traits are not only transmitted from father to son but can be also transmitted to her daughter[B] Autosomal disease can be transferred from one parent to a child no specific pattern[C] Y-linked traits transmission occurs only in males so if a mail has a trait so should his father and paternal grandfather as well as his sons and their sons[D] Y-linked is transferred from males to males only but not X-linked

Q23. The tubular epithelium also secretes substances into the lumen, which is mainly of :

• A. Hydrogen Ions✓
• B. Hydroxyl Ions
• C. Potassium Ions
• D. Sodium Ions

Explanation: The correct answer is Hydrogen Ions. The tubular epithelium of the kidney plays a crucial role in acid-base balance by secreting hydrogen ions into the lumen, which helps maintain the pH of the blood and urine. This secretion is vital for excreting excess acid and maintaining homeostasis. Other ions like hydroxyl, potassium, and sodium have different primary functions in the body: hydroxyl ions are involved in making solutions basic, potassium ions are mainly involved in electrical signaling and fluid balance, and sodium ions are critical for fluid balance and blood pressure regulation.

Q24. The process of RNA interference (RNAi) has been used in the development of plants resistant to:

• A. Nematodes✓
• B. Fungi
• C. Viruses
• D. Insects

Explanation: Many nematodes live in plants and animals including human beings. A nematode Meloidogyne incognita infests the roots of tobacco plants and causes a great reduction in yield. A novel strategy was adopted to prevent this infection that was based on the process of RNA interference (RNAi). RNA interference (RNAi) is the phenomenon of inhibiting the activity of a gene by the synthesis of RNA molecules complementary to the mRNA. The normal (in vivo synthesized) mRNA of a gene is said to be “sense” because it carries the codons that are “read” during translation. Normally, the complement to the mRNA “sense” strand will not contain a sequence of codons that can be translated to produce a functional protein; thus, this complementary strand is called “anti-­sense RNA”. The anti­-sense RNA and mRNA molecules will anneal to form duplex RNA molecules (or double-stranded RNA) and the duplex RNA molecules can not be translated. Thus, the presence of anti­sense RNA will block translation of the mRNA of the affected gene.

Q25. Which of the following proteins is common in man and aerobic bacteria?

• A. Haemoglobin
• B. Myoglobin
• C. Cytochrome c✓
• D. Pilin

Explanation: [A] Haemoglobin is not found in aerobic bacteria only in man[B] Myoglobin is found in man only[C] found in both man and aerobic bacteria s it plays a key role in ATP synthesis in Mitochondrion[D] pillin found in pious structure of aerobic bacteria only not in man

Q26. There are plans to produce drugs by transgenic animals, for the treatment of:

• A. Cystic fibrosis
• B. Blood diseases
• C. Cancer
• D. Cystic fibrosis, Cancer & Blood diseases✓

Explanation: In future it is being envisioned to get drugs prepared by transgenic animals against cystic fibrosis, cancer and blood diseases.

Q27. The non-protein part of enzyme which is covalently and permanently bonded is called

• A. Prosthetic Group✓
• B. Co-Factor
• C. Coenzyme
• D. Activator

Explanation: Option A: If the non protein part is covalently[permanently] bonded with the protein part of enzyme ,it is known as prosthetic group.[e.g an iron containing porphyrin ring attached to some enzymes like cytochrome.]. So the right option is AThe other options are eliminated as follows:Option B: cofactor is the nonprotein part of enzyme which is required for proper functioning of enzyme. It has 3 types:ActivatorProsthetic groupcoenzymeOption C: coenzyme is the nonprotein part which is organic and loosely attached to the protein part. E.g NADP+/ATPOption D: activator The detachable [means it is loosely attached] co factor is known as an activator if it is an inorganic ion[e.g Mg+,Fe+,Zn+2 etc]

Q28. The function of the kidney is completely lost, and it is unable to remove nitrogenous wastes in :

• A. Acute renal failure
• B. Chronic renal failure✓
• C. Partial renal failure
• D. Kidney stones

Explanation: Chronic renal failure, also known as chronic kidney disease (CKD), is a long-term and progressive condition in which the kidneys gradually lose their ability to function effectively over an extended period, often months to years. This condition is characterized by the gradual and irreversible deterioration of kidney function. CKD is typically classified into stages, with stage 1 being the mildest and stage 5 being the most severe.Early detection and appropriate management are essential in controlling CKD and preventing its progression to more severe stages. Regular monitoring of kidney function, blood pressure, and blood glucose levels is often recommended for individuals at risk of or already diagnosed with CKD.

Q29. Acetylcholine and noradrenaline are two types of _ used in our nervous system.

• A. Enzymes
• B. Channel and carrier proteins in the cell membrane of a neuron
• C. Neurotransmitters✓
• D. Hormones

Explanation: Factual recall: Both of these substances are neurotransmitters and not any of the things mentioned in the other options.

Q30. The prokaryotes possess ribosome with larger subunit of:

• A. 70S
• B. 50S✓
• C. 60S
• D. 40S

Explanation: Prokaryotes contain 70S ribosomes, which themselves comprise of two further subunits; a larger 50S subunit and a smaller 30S subunit. 80S ribosomes are present in eukaryotes.

Q31. The route of urine excretion from kidney to outside of body is:

• A. Kidney → ureter → urinary bladder → urethra✓
• B. Urinary bladder → kidney → ureter → urethra
• C. Kidney → urethra → urinary bladder → ureter
• D. Kidney → ureter → urethra → urinary bladder

Explanation: Option A describes the correct route of urine excretion. The kidney filters blood and forms urine. This urine is to be excreted out of the body, and from the kidney, it drains into the ureter. Each kidney drains into one ureter, which is a long muscular tube, that leads into the urinary bladder, which is a sac-like organ that collects urine from the kidney. When a certain amount of urine has been collected, it is urinated out by a thin tube known as the urethra.All of the remaining options describe jumbled up/incorrect routes of urine excretion.

Q32. Which of the following hormone stimulates the ovulation from the follicle into oviduct?

• A. Estrogen
• B. Progesterone
• C. Luteinizing hormone✓
• D. Follicle stimulating hormone

Explanation: Option A, estrogen, is the hormone that causes the development and thickening of the endometrial lining.Option B, progesterone, is the hormone, secreted by the corpus luteum, to maintain and thicken the endometrial lining, making it ready for implantation.Option C, LH, is the main trigger of ovulation, as a surge in LH causes the release of the secondary oocyte from the Graafian follicle into the oviduct. Hence, it is the correct option.Option D, FSH, is responsible for the development of follicles in the ovary.

Q33. Gel electrophoresis is used for?

• A. Construction of recombinant DNA by joining with cloning vectors.
• B. Isolation of DNA molecules.
• C. Cutting of DNA into fragments.
• D. Separation of DNA fragments according to their size.✓

Explanation: Electrophoresis is a technique used for the separation of substances of different ionic properties. Since the DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules, they can be separated by allowing them to move towards the anode. DNA fragments move towards the anode according to the size of their molecules through the pores of agarose gel. Thus, the smaller fragments move farther away as compared to larger fragments.

Q34. If a heterozygous individual shows the complete effect of both alleles, the type of inheritance would be?

• A. Complete dominance
• B. Codominance✓
• C. Nondominance
• D. Incomplete dominance

Explanation: Codominance is a genetic phenomenon in which both alleles of a gene are expressed equally in the phenotype of a heterozygous individual.

Q35. Peritoneal cavity is filled with dialysis fluid that enters the body through a/an :

• A. Artery
• B. Vein
• C. Capillary
• D. Catheter✓

Explanation: A catheter is a thin tube made from medical grade materials, serving a broad range of functions along with filling and draining the dialysis fluid from peritoneal cavity.

Q36. For the treatment of SCIDS, bone marrow stem cells are removed from the blood and are infected with a:

• A. Bacteriophage
• B. Retrovirus✓
• C. Lambda virus
• D. Bacterium

Explanation: The retrovirus acts as a vector for gene therapy.

Q37. Kidney stones are formed due to :

• A. Infectious Diseases
• B. Metabolic Diseases✓
• C. Genetic Disease
• D. Congenital Diseases

Explanation: Kidney stones are formed due to metabolic diseases, which result in abnormalities in the body's normal chemical processes. This disruption can lead to the accumulation of substances that form stones in the kidneys. The other options, such as infectious diseases, genetic diseases, and congenital diseases, are not directly associated with the formation of kidney stones.

Q38. The deficiency of which of the following causes severe combined immunodeficiency?

• A. Hypoxanthine-guanine transferase
• B. Xanthine oxidase
• C. PRPP synthetase
• D. Adenosine deaminase✓

Explanation: ADA deficiency leads to SCID, a group of rare, inherited disorders characterized by a severe impairment of both the T and B lymphocytes of the immune system. Adenosine deaminase is involved in the breakdown of purines, and its deficiency results in the accumulation of toxic metabolites. that are particularly harmful to developing immune cells.

Q39. In which phase of the cell division is the metabolic activity of the nucleus is high?

• A. Mitosis
• B. Interphase✓
• C. Meiosis
• D. Cell Cycle

Explanation: The period of life cycle of cell (cell cycle) between two consecutive divisions is termed as the interphase or misleadingly called resting phase. It is the period of great biochemical activity and can further be divided into G1-phase, S-phase and G2-phase. G1 (Gap 1) is the period of extensive metabolic activity, in which cell normally grows in size, specific enzymes, are synthesized and DNA base units are accumulated for the DNA synthesis.

Q40. Which one of the following organelle is found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

• A. Centriole
• B. Endoplasmic Reticulum
• C. Nucleus
• D. Ribosome✓

Explanation: Ribosomes are the correct answer because they are non-membranous organelles that synthesize proteins and are found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. In contrast, centrioles, the endoplasmic reticulum, and the nucleus are membrane-bound organelles that are characteristic of eukaryotic cells and are absent in prokaryotic cells.

Q41. What forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting?

• A. The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA
• B. The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin, and saliva
• C. The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints
• D. Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated, short DNA segments✓

Explanation: DNA fingerprinting is a technique of determining nucleotide sequences of certain areas of DNA which are unique to each individual. The difference of about 0.1% or 3 × 106 base pairs (out of 3 × 10 9 bp) provides individuality to each human being. The human genome possesses numerous small noncoding but inheritable sequences of bases that are repeated many times. These sequences occur near telomere, centromeres, Y chromosome, and heterochromatic area. The area with the same sequence of bases repeated several times is called repetitive DNA. It is separated as a satellite from the bulk DNA during density gradient centrifugation and hence called satellite DNA where repetition of the bases is in tandem. Satellite DNAs show polymorphism (the occurrence of mutations in a population at high frequency), which is the basis of genetic mapping of human genome as well as DNA fingerprinting. While mutations in genes produce alleles with different expressions, mutations in noncoding repetitive DNA have no immediate impact. These mutations which have piled up with time form the basis of polymorphism.

Q42. Which one of the following type of T cells secrete cytotoxin which triggers destruction of the pathogen's DNA?

• A. Helper T-cells
• B. Suppressor T-cells
• C. Memory T-cells
• D. Cytotoxic T-cells✓

Explanation: These cells secrete cytotoxin which triggers destruction of the pathogen's DNA or perforin which is a protein that creates holes in the pathogens plasma membrane. The holes cause the pathogen to lyse (rupture).

Q43. Bicuspid valve controls the flow of blood from:

• A. Right atrium to right ventricle
• B. Right ventricle to pulmonary artery
• C. Left ventricle to aorta
• D. Left atrium to left ventricle✓

Explanation: The bicuspid valve, also known as the mitral valve, is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle of the heart. It controls the flow of blood from the left atrium, where oxygenated blood returns from the lungs, to the left ventricle, which pumps the oxygenated blood into the aorta for distribution to the rest of the body.When the left atrium contracts during the cardiac cycle, the bicuspid valve opens, allowing blood to flow from the left atrium into the left ventricle. After the left ventricle contracts, the bicuspid valve closes to prevent the backflow of blood into the left atrium. This valve plays a crucial role in maintaining the one-way flow of blood through the heart.

Q44. Hypercalcaemia i.e. high level of circulating calcium in blood is because of :

• A. Stone of calcium phosphate
• B. Stone of calcium oxalate
• C. Stone of uric acid
• D. Other diseases✓

Explanation: Hypercalcemia is primarily caused by metabolic, dietary, or hormonal disorders. Therefore, the correct option would be "Other diseases" as a broad category encompassing various medical conditions or disorders that can lead to hypercalcemia.

Q45. The vein which is formed by many veins collecting deoxygenated blood with absorbed food from different parts of the alimentary canal, is called:

• A. Hepatic portal vein✓
• B. Iliac vein
• C. Hepatic vein
• D. Renal vein

Explanation: The hepatic portal vein collects blood from the entire alimentary canal and carries it to the inferior vena cava.

Q46. Identify the tricuspid valve:

• A. A✓
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: Tricuspid has 3 valves which are only present in A.

Q47. Identify the bicuspid valve:

• A. A
• B. B✓
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: Bicuspid valve has 2 flaps which is present in B.

Q48. The concentration of sodium ions in body fluids is controlled by the hormone

• A. Renin
• B. Aldosterone✓
• C. Angiotensin
• D. CPK

Explanation: Aldosterone (ALD) is a hormone that helps regulate your blood pressure by managing the levels of sodium (salt) and potassium in your blood and impacting blood volume. Released by the adrenal glands.

Q49. The disease in which the death of a small number of cells in the basal ganglia leads to an inability to select and initiate patterns of movement is known as:

• A. Fever
• B. Alzheimer’s Disease
• C. Epilepsy
• D. Parkinson’s Disease✓

Explanation: Parkinson's disease is caused by the loss of brain cells; these cells are associated with the release of dopamine. It causes shaking, stiffness, and difficulty balancing. Parkinson's disease is known as the most notorious disease of the basal ganglia (a group of structures linked to the thalamus at the base of the brain). It is a degenerative disease.

Q50. Plasmids were discovered by the investigators studying the sex-life of the _ bacterium Escherichia coli.

• A. Faecal
• B. Intestinal✓
• C. Milk
• D. Soil

Explanation: Escherichia coli is predominantly found in the intestines of humans animals, which is why it is referred to as an intestinal bacterium.

Q51. The nephrons arranged along the cortex are called:

• A. Cortical✓
• B. Juxtamedullary
• C. Juxtacortical nephron
• D. Medullary

Explanation: Nephrons that are arranged along the cortex of the kidney are called "cortical nephrons." Cortical nephrons are one of the two main types of nephrons found in the human kidney, with the other type being juxtamedullary nephrons. These two types of nephrons have distinct features and functions within the kidney. Cortical nephrons are primarily located in the outer part of the renal cortex, and they do not extend deeply into the renal medulla. They play essential roles in the initial filtration of blood, reabsorption of nutrients and electrolytes, and regulation of overall body homeostasis. Unlike juxtamedullary nephrons, cortical nephrons do not have long loops of Henle that extend deeply into the renal medulla, and they do not play a primary role in the concentration of urine.

Q52. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease and can also damage:

• A. Hair
• B. Heart✓
• C. Peripheral Nervous System
• D. Birth canal

Explanation: Syphilis, at its late stages, is known to cause cardiovascular diseases which involve the enlargement of the heart such that the aorta can not keep up with excess blood pressure through dilation and recoilation. It is caused by a spirochaete, Treponema pallidum. It damages the reproductive organs, eyes bones joints, central nervous system, heart, and skin. Sexual contact is the major source of its dissemination.

Q53. Detection of change and signalling for effector's response to control system is a:

• A. Homeostasis
• B. Thermoregulation
• C. Excretion
• D. Feedback mechanism✓

Explanation: In these processes, there is an inverse effector's response to control the change.

Q54. The term “Loss of appetite” refers to a disease:

• A. Botulism
• B. Anorexia nervosa✓
• C. Obesity
• D. Bulimia nervosa

Explanation: Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an abnormally low body weight, an intense fear of gaining weight, and a distorted perception of weight. Botulism is a rare and potentially fatal illness caused by a toxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum. Obesity is a complex disease involving an excessive amount of body fat. Bulimia nervosa, commonly called bulimia, is an eating disorder characterized by an obsession with binge eating.

Q55. Which hormone is released in females in response to FSH from the pituitary gland?

• A. Estrogen✓
• B. ADH
• C. Oxytocin
• D. Progesterone

Explanation: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) from the pituitary gland stimulates the ovaries in females. In response to FSH, the ovaries produce estrogen. Estrogen is a group of hormones that includes estradiol, estrone, and estriol. These hormones play crucial roles in the development and maturation of the ovarian follicles (structures that contain the developing eggs) and in regulating the menstrual cycle.

Q56. DNA made by joining pieces from two or more different sources:

• A. Probes
• B. Restriction endonuclease
• C. Mutated DNA
• D. Recombinant DNA✓

Explanation: Recombinant DNA (or rDNA) is made by combining DNA from two or more sources.DNA probes are stretches of single-stranded DNA used to detect the presence of complementary nucleic acid sequences (target sequences) by hybridization.A restriction enzyme, restriction endonuclease, or restrictase is an enzyme that cleaves DNA into fragments at or near specific recognition sites within molecules known as restriction sites.A mutation is a change in a DNA sequence. Mutations can result from DNA copying mistakes made during cell division, exposure to ionizing radiation, exposure to chemicals called mutagens, or infection by viruses.

Q57. The term 'humulin' is used for:

• A. Hydrolytic enzyme
• B. Powerful antibiotic
• C. Human insulin✓
• D. Isoenzyme

Explanation: Human insulin (humulin) is the first therapeutic product produced by means of recombinant technology by Eli Lilly and Co. on July 5, 1983.Humulin's approval marked a significant milestone in the history of biotechnology and pharmaceuticals, paving the way for the development of other recombinant DNA-based products.

Q58. Discharge of the ovum, or the secondary oocyte from the ovary is called:

• A. Fertilization
• B. Pollination
• C. Follicle formation
• D. Ovulation✓

Explanation: Ovulation is the process in which a mature follicle within the ovary releases a secondary oocyte (also known as an ovum) into the fallopian tube. This ovum is then available for fertilization by a sperm cell. Ovulation is a key step in the menstrual cycle of females and is essential for reproduction. So, D is the correct option.

Q59. The compounds which, on hydrolysis, yield polyhydroxy aldehyde or ketone subunits are:

• A. Lipids
• B. Polynucleotides
• C. Proteins
• D. Carbohydrates✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Carbohydrates. Carbohydrates consist of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen and are the only biomolecules that, upon hydrolysis, yield polyhydroxy aldehyde or ketone subunits such as monosaccharides like glucose and fructose. Lipids, polynucleotides, and proteins do not yield such subunits when hydrolyzed. Lipids break down into glycerol and fatty acids, polynucleotides into nucleotides, and proteins into amino acids.

Q60. Which one of the following is the formula structure of D (α) glucose?

• A. Option A✓
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: This structure shows a six-membered ring (pyranose form) with the OH group on the anomeric carbon (carbon-1) pointing down relative to the CH₂OH group on carbon-5. In D-glucose, this “down” position indicates the α-anomer. The rest of the OH groups follow the correct D-glucose configuration (C-2 OH down, C-3 OH up, C-4 OH down when drawn in Haworth projection). This matches the definition of D(α)-glucose.

Q61. Food enters from stomach into small intestine through:

• A. Pyloric sphincter✓
• B. Semilunar valve
• C. Cardiac sphincter
• D. Diaphragm

Explanation: The pyloric sphincter controls the passage of food from the stomach to the small intestine .

Q62. There are evidences that high levels of aluminium can lead to the onset of:

• A. Parkinson's disease
• B. Alzheimer's disease✓
• C. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
• D. Fragile X-syndrome

Explanation: There is evidence that high levels of aluminium may contribute to the onset of Alzheimer's disease.

Q63. Third step in PCR technique is:

• A. Heating DNA for one minute to denature
• B. Cooling for two minutes and adding primer
• C. Addition of DNA polymerase and waiting for 1.5 minutes✓
• D. Recycling

Explanation: The PCR process consists of three main steps: denaturation, annealing, and extension. During the third step, known as extension, DNA polymerase is added to synthesize the new DNA strands, and this step takes about 1.5 minutes. The other options describe either the first step (denaturation), the second step (annealing), or a non-specific term (recycling) that does not correspond to a particular step in the PCR cycle.

Q64. A specified set up of internal environment at various levels of organization suitable to its surroundings, have been assumed by each organism of a species in :

• A. Adaptation
• B. Homeostasis✓
• C. Evolution
• D. Reproduction

Explanation: Homeostasis refers to the ability of an organism to maintain a stable internal environment despite changes in the external surroundings. It involves various physiological processes and feedback mechanisms that enable organisms to regulate factors like body temperature, pH levels, nutrient balance, and water balance. Adaptation refers to the process by which organisms develop traits suited to their environment over time. Evolution refers to the gradual change in inherited traits of a population over successive generations. Reproduction pertains to the production of offspring by an organism. Among the given options, homeostasis best describes the specified set up of the internal environment suitable to its surroundings assumed by each organism of a species.

Q65. Salivary Amylase begins to digest Starch to shorter polysaccharides and then to:

• A. Glucose
• B. Maltose✓
• C. Sucrose
• D. Lactose

Explanation: Salivary amylase breaks down starch into maltose, a disaccharide made of two glucose units.

Q66. The region of the chromosome or, more specifically, the length of the DNA molecule, which has a particular function is called _.

• A. Kinetochore
• B. Locus
• C. Allele
• D. Gene✓

Explanation: The gene is the basic physical and functional unit of heredity. It consists of a specific sequence of nucleotides at a given position on a given chromosome that codes for a specific protein.In genetics, a locus is a specific, fixed position on a chromosome where a particular gene or genetic marker is located.

Q67. Two microbes found to be very useful in genetic engineering are?

• A. Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditis elegans
• B. Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens✓
• C. Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage
• D. Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp.

Explanation: E.coli contains many important standard cloning vectors widely used in gene cloning experiments like pBR322 contains origin of replication (ori). Other cloning vectors like PACYC177, pBR324, PRK 64.6 contain ampicillin resistance gene and they are also found in E.coli. Among higher plants, Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens and Ri plasmid of A. rhizogenes is the best known vector. T­-DNA from Ti or Ri plasmid of Agrobacterium is considered to be a very potential vector for cloning experiments with higher plants.

Q68. Muscle is made up of many cells, which are referred to as:

• A. Myofilaments
• B. Myofibrils
• C. Sarcolemma
• D. Muscle Fibers✓

Explanation: Muscle fibers are long cells that combine to coordinate the movement of different parts of the body.

Q69. Which one of the following differentiates directly into mature sperm?

• A. Primary spermatocyte
• B. Secondary spermatocyte
• C. Spermatogonia
• D. Spermatid✓

Explanation: Spermatids are haploid cells that result from the second meiotic division of secondary spermatocytes. They undergo a process called spermiogenesis, which involves extensive structural and morphological changes to transform into mature sperm.

Q70. The last four vertebrae in humans are fused to form a structure called:

• A. Sacrum
• B. Cervical vertebrae
• C. Pubis
• D. Coccyx✓

Explanation: The last 4 vertebrae in humans are fused into a triangular structure known as the coccyx.

Q71. Each muscle fibre is surrounded by membrane which is called:

• A. Sarcomere
• B. Sarcolemma✓
• C. Twitch fibre
• D. Capsule

Explanation: Each muscle fiber is surrounded by the sarcolemma, which also contains the cytoplasm of the cell.

Q72. β-cells of the pancreas (changed from the liver) secrete a hormone that is called :

• A. Insulin✓
• B. Glucagon
• C. Antidiuretic hormone
• D. Gastrin

Explanation: Insulin is released by Beta-cells in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas and helps maintain the blood sugar level in the body.

Q73. The antibody molecule consists of _ polypeptide chains.

• A. Eight
• B. Four✓
• C. Six
• D. Two

Explanation: An Antibody molecule is made up of 4 polypeptide chains i.e. two heavy chains and two light chains. (PTB page:326)

Q74. Cilia and flagella are absent in:

• A. Viruses
• B. Bacteria
• C. Higher plants✓
• D. Lower animals

Explanation: Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells contain structures known as cilia and flagella. They are motile cellular appendages found in most microorganisms and animals, but not in higher plants since they don't need to move. The explanation is given below.

Q75. If in lipids there is a higher proportion of unsaturated fatty acid, then it will be:

• A. Oils✓
• B. Phenols
• C. Waxes
• D. Fats

Explanation: Option A is correct. When lipids have a higher proportion of unsaturated fatty acids, they tend to be liquid at room temperature, thus classified as oils. This is due to the presence of double bonds in unsaturated fatty acids, which prevent the fatty acid chains from packing closely together, increasing fluidity. In contrast, phenols are unrelated aromatic compounds, waxes are solid lipids with saturated or monounsaturated fatty acids, and fats are typically solid at room temperature due to a higher proportion of saturated fatty acids.

Q76. Which one of the following is a precursor of steroid hormones?

• A. Glycerol
• B. Sterol
• C. Amino acids
• D. Cholesterol✓

Explanation: Option[A] Lipids are made from glycerolOption[b] Sterols are sub groups of steroidsOption[c] Amino acid is the basic unit of protein. Twenty different types of amino acid combine in different arrangements to forms various different proteinsOption [D] All steroid hormones are derived from cholesterol molecules.

Q77. The muscles that control urine in bladder are known as:

• A. Striated muscles
• B. Smooth muscles
• C. Sphincter muscles✓
• D. Circular muscles

Explanation: Option[a] Striated muscles are either skeletal muscles or cardiac muscles not in the urinary bladder.Option[b] Smooth muscles are present throughout the body ,also exists throughout urinary system where it functions to help rid of toxins and maintain electrolyte balance but does not control the urine in bladderOption [C] Bladder has sphincter muscles,which is a smooth voluntary muscles and control the flow of urine out.Option[d] Circular muscles have a role in opening and closing of passages in the human body to regulate the flow of substances

Q78. The disease which causes immobility and fusion of vertebral joints is:

• A. Osteomalacia (soft bones)
• B. Disc slip
• C. Arthritis
• D. Spondylosis✓

Explanation: Options [A] osteomalacia is a group of diseases in which bone resorption outpaces bone deposit[ it means there is more bone depletion than bone deposition].It is the softening of bones.Option [B] disc slip or herniated disc involves the rupture of annulus fibrosis followed by protrusion of the spongy nucleus pulposis.Option [C] arthritis is an inflammatory or degenerative disease that damage joints.Option [D] Spondylosis is the disease which causes immobility and fusion of joint. It is an age related condition in which the joint and cartilage lined disc are affected. So option [D] is right.

Q79. Luteinizing hormone triggers:

• A. Cessation of oogenesis
• B. Breakdown of oocytes
• C. Ovulation✓
• D. Development of zygote

Explanation: Luteinizing hormone (LH) is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland. It plays a crucial role in the female reproductive system by triggering ovulation. Ovulation is the process in which a mature follicle in the ovary releases an egg (oocyte) into the fallopian tube, where it can potentially be fertilized by sperm. Hence, option C is correct.

Q80. The Ca++ ions released during a muscle fiber contraction attach with:

• A. Myosin
• B. Actin
• C. Troponin✓
• D. Tropomyosin

Explanation: During muscle contraction, Ca++ ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and bind specifically to troponin, a regulatory protein attached to the actin filaments. This binding causes a conformational change in troponin that moves tropomyosin, another protein, away from the myosin-binding sites on actin. This exposure allows the myosin heads to attach to actin, initiating muscle contraction. Myosin and actin are crucial for the contraction process, but they do not directly bind with calcium ions. Tropomyosin is involved in the regulation process, but does not interact directly with calcium ions either.

Q81. Which of the following is the correct statement?

• A. The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.
• B. The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water.
• C. The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes.
• D. The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.✓

Explanation: The key difference between ascending and descending loop of Henle is that the ascending loop of Henle is the thicker segment of the loop of Henle located just after the sharp bend of the loop while descending loop of Henle is the thinner segment located just before the sharp bend of the loop. The descending limb of the loop of Henle is permeable to water. Water diffuses into the hyperosmolar medullary interstitium.

Q82. The pigment which stores oxygen in muscles is:

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Myoglobin✓
• C. Myosin
• D. Actinomyosin

Explanation: Myoglobin is a protein present in muscles, which has one oxygen-binding site, and its function is to supply muscles constantly with oxygen.

Q83. The thymus gland is involved in the maturation of:

• A. Platelets
• B. B-Lymphocytes
• C. Eosinophils
• D. T-Lymphocytes✓

Explanation: The thymus gland is involved in the maturation of T cells, a type of white blood cell that plays a vital role in the immune system. T cells are responsible for cell-mediated immunity, which is a type of adaptive immunity that helps the body fight off infection.

Q84. Antibodies are produced by which of the following lymphocytes?

• A. B lymphocytes✓
• B. A lymphocytes
• C. T lymphocytes
• D. B and T lymphocytes

Explanation: B lymphocytes are a type of white blood cells which produce antibodies, which protect the body against antigens.

Q85. Mucous membranes are part of body defense system and they offer:

• A. Physical Barriers✓
• B. Mechanical Barriers
• C. Chemical Barriers
• D. Biological Barriers

Explanation: Mucous membranes act as physical barriers by trapping pathogens and preventing them from entering the body.

Q86. The gene for ABO-blood group systems in humans is represented by symbol

• A. X
• B. I✓
• C. Y
• D. O

Explanation: The gene for ABO blood group systems is represented by I, with the three alleles being IA, IB, and i.

Q87. In men, sex-determination depends upon the nature of

• A. Heterogametic male✓
• B. Homogametic female
• C. Heterogametic female
• D. Homogametic male

Explanation: In humans, the sex is determined by the heterogametic male, who have the XY chromosome, while the female have the XX chromosome.

Q88. Metabolic waste from metabolism of nucleic acid is:

• A. Uric acid✓
• B. Creatine
• C. Urea
• D. Creatinine

Explanation: Option [a] Uric acid is the chemical created when the body breaks down substances called purines, nucleic acid contains purines, adenine, GuanineOption[b] Creatine is found naturally in muscle cells, it helps muscles produce energy during heavy lifting or high-intensity exerciseOption[c] Urea is produced due to the oxidation of excess amino acids in the liverOption[d] creatinine is the waste product made by muscles from the normal wear and tear on muscles of the body.

Q89. An activated enzyme consisting of polypeptide cofactor is known as:

• A. Amylase
• B. Apoenzyme
• C. Holoenzyme✓
• D. Coenzyme

Explanation: A holoenzyme is the functional, active form of an enzyme, which consists of a protein component (apoenzyme) and a non-protein component (cofactor). The combination of these two parts allows the enzyme to perform its catalytic function. Amylase and coenzymes are related concepts, but they do not specifically define the active form of an enzyme. Amylase is a type of enzyme and a coenzyme is a type of cofactor. An apoenzyme is inactive without its cofactor, distinguishing it from a holoenzyme.

Q90. Plastids are only found in the:

• A. Animals and Plants
• B. Animals
• C. Plants✓
• D. Viruses

Explanation: Plastids are double membraned organelles, which contain pigments used in photosynthesis, and also manufacture and store compounds in plant cells.

Q91. The average atomic mass of Boron is 10.8. It has two isotopes of masses 10 and 11 respectively. What is the percentage of isotope with the average mass of 10?

• A. 20%✓
• B. 60%
• C. 80%
• D. 50%

Explanation: The formula for calculating the average atomic mass is[ (Mass of one isotope x percentage abundance) + (mass of other isotope x percentage abundance) divided by 100]. In this question, aside from using the formula for each option which would be a bit time consuming, you can take clues from the question itself. The average mass of Boron is 10.8, which is closer to 11 than 10. As such, you can conclude that the abundance of 10 isotope is lesser than the abundance of the 11 isotope, as such, its abundance MUST be less than 50%. The only option with an abundance less than 50 percent is option A, 20 percent. If you check this with the formula, the answer comes out to be correct:[(10 x 20) + (11 x 80) divided by 100] is 10.8.

Q92. Select the reagent X from the following choices for this conversion:

• A. Acidified Potassium hydroxide
• B. Acidified Potassium dichromate (VI)✓
• C. Acidified Phosphoric acid
• D. Acidified Oxalic acid

Explanation: The reaction above is oxidation of a secondary alcohol into a ketone. As such, an oxidizing agent must be chosen for reagent X. Among the options, 'Potassium dichromate (VI)' is an oxidizing agent so, the correct option is B. Another answer could be 'potassium manganate (VII)', but it is not mentioned in any of the options. The other options do not oxidize alcohols.

Q93. Aqueous solutions of Iodine and Sodium hydroxide were mixed in a round bottom flask at 70 C. Following chemical reaction was carried out.3I2 + 6 NaOH → NaIO3 + NaI + H2OThis reaction is termed as:

• A. Redox reaction✓
• B. Precipitation reaction
• C. Substitution reaction
• D. Free radical reaction

Explanation: To determine whether such a reaction is a redox reaction, the oxidation states of the reactants and products is compared. The oxidation state of Na remains +1 throughout, as does the oxidation states of Hydrogen (+1) and Oxygen (-2). Iodine undergoes a change in oxidation state. Its oxidation state is 0, in its molecular form, on the reactant side. In NaI, iodine's oxidation state is -1 so, Iodine has undergone reduction. In NaIO3, the oxidation states of Na remain +1 and oxygen's also remains -2 so, we can determine that the oxidation state of iodine is +5 in this reaction. (NOTE: For oxidation numbers, the total oxidation state of a compound is zero so, Iodine's oxidation number must be +5 to ensure NaIO3’s oxidation state is zero).Since Iodine underwent oxidation AND reduction, we can conclude that this is a redox reaction (disproportionation to be precise, as the same species has undergone oxidation and reduction) so, option A is correct.Option B is incorrect, as the two salts produced are soluble in water.Option C does not describe this reaction.Option D is incorrect as no free radicals are produced during this reaction.

Q94. Which of the following compounds is responsible for the depletion of ozone layer?

• A. Chlorofluorocarbons✓
• B. Carbon tetrachlorie
• C. Methane
• D. Hydroflorocarbons

Explanation: Factual recall.Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) have a significant effect on the ozone layer. When released into the atmosphere, CFCs can reach the stratosphere, where they undergo photodissociation due to the absorption of ultraviolet (UV) radiation. This process releases chlorine and bromine atoms.These chlorine and bromine atoms act as catalysts in ozone depletion reactions. They catalytically destroy ozone molecules, breaking them apart and reducing the overall concentration of ozone in the stratosphere.

Q95. Which of the following reactions is used for the production of alcohols on industrial scale?

• A. Hydrogenation of alkenes
• B. Hydration of alkenes✓
• C. Hydrohalogenation of alkenes
• D. Hydroxylation of alkenes

Explanation: Option A describes a reaction that produces alkanes from alkenes.Option B describes a reaction that produces alcohol from alkenes so, it is correct.Option C describes a reaction that produces alkyl halides from alkenes.Option D describes a reaction that produces glycol from alkenes, which is a type of alcohol but not the type that is produced on an industrial scale for commercial use.

Q96. The names of functional groups in the following compound X are:

• A. Secondary alcohol, nitrile, and phenol ring
• B. Secondary alcohol, amine, and benzene ring
• C. Secondary alcohol, nitrile, and aryl ring✓
• D. Primary alcohol, nitrile, and benzene ring

Explanation: The functional groups are: secondary alcohol, nitrile, and benzene/aryl ring.Option A incorrectly mentions phenol as there is no hydroxyl group directly bonded to the benzene ring.Option B incorrectly mentions amine, as for an amine, the nitrogen atom must be bonded to at least three other species/atoms, but in this case, nitrogen is directly bonded to one carbon atom, indicating a C-N triple bond which is characteristic of nitriles.Option C correctly lists all three functional groups.Option D incorrectly mentions primary alcohol, as for the alcohol group to be primary it must have been terminal/present at the end of the alkyl group, which is not the case here as -OH group is mentioned in the structural formula as being in the middle of the alkyl group.

Q97. Which of the following catalysts is used in the below reaction?

• A. Conc. H2SO4✓
• B. Pumice stone
• C. Pt
• D. Ni

Explanation: Esterification process is a slow process when it is performed at room temperature also the process does not complete at all in the room temperature. So to complete the process of esterification there should be something to complete the process as well as to speed up the process. Thus concentrated sulphuric acid is added. It is a catalyst which will speed up the process and esterification will proceed speedily and complete on time. Also concentrated sulphuric acid has a property to remove water. Therefore it also acts as a dehydrating agent. After adding this will take reaction in the equilibrium position and will be able to give a greater yield of ester as result.

Q98. During the SN1 reactions, the fast reaction involves:

• A. Breakage of covalent bond
• B. Formation of carbocation
• C. Transition state
• D. Attack of nucleophile✓

Explanation: The nucleophile has a negative / partially negative charge and it readily attacks the carbocation in SN1 reactions (which has a positive charge) This is the fast step of the reaction.

Q99. Alcohol in which carbon atom bonded to OH group is further attached with three alkyl group is:

• A. Tertiary alcohol✓
• B. Primary alcohol
• C. Aromatic alcohol
• D. Secondary alcohol

Explanation: A tertiary (3°) alcohol is one in which the carbon atom with the OH group is attached to three other carbon atoms. Its general formula is R3COHPrimary alcohols are those alcohols where the carbon atom of the hydroxyl group (OH) is attached to only one single alkyl group.The aromatic alcohols or aryl-alcohols are a class of chemical compounds containing a hydroxyl group (—OH) bonded directly to an aromatic hydrocarbon group.A secondary alcohol is a compound in which a hydroxyl group( ‒OH) is attached to a saturated carbon atom which has two other carbon atoms attached to it.

Q100. 3.0 mole of Calcium will contain _ g of Calcium.

• A. 105 g
• B. 120 g✓
• C. 80 g
• D. 100 g

Explanation: Moles of Calcium = 3Molar mass of Calcium (Ca) = 40Mass of Calcium in grams = ?Moles = Mass/Molar massMass = Moles × Molar massMass = 3 x 40 → Mass 120g

Q101. Which of the following compounds, in the form of aqueous solution, on reaction with sodium carbonate will produce carbon dioxide gas?

• A. H3C-COO-C2H5
• B. H3C2-COO-CH3
• C. H3C2-CO-OH✓
• D. H3C2-COO-C2H5

Explanation: A is incorrect as the compound given is an ester which does not produce carbon dioxide upon reaction with sodium carbonate.B is incorrect as it is also an ester,hence it also doesnt produce carbon dioxide upon reaction with sodium carbonate.C is correct as the compound given is a carboxylic acid,it produces carbon dioxide upon reaction with sodium carbonate.D is incorrect as the given compound is unreactive with sodium carbonate.

Q102. Which one of the following reagents is used to distinguish between aldehydes and ketones?

• A. Alkaline Iodine
• B. Tollen’s Reagent✓
• C. Bromine
• D. 2, 4 DNPH

Explanation: The Tollens' test is a reaction that is used to distinguish aldehydes from ketones, as aldehydes are able to be oxidized into a carboxylic acid while ketones cannot.Alkaline iodine is used in the iodoform test. When Iodine and sodium hydroxide are added to a compound that contains either a methyl ketone or a secondary alcohol with a methyl group in the alpha position, a pale yellow precipitate of iodoform or triiodomethane is formed. It can be used to identify aldehydes or ketones.A solution of bromine in CH2CL2 is used to either test for unsaturation or to check the ability to be oxidized for example in aldehydes. Bromine solution is naturally orange and when consumed in oxidation, it becomes colourless.2, 4 DNPH is used to detect ketones and aldehydes. A positive test is signalled by the formation of a yellow, orange or red precipitate of the dinitrophenylhydrazone.

Q103. In an aqueous solution, amino acids exist in an ionic form as shown below. This ionic form of amino acid is known as:

• A. Zwitter ion✓
• B. Amphoteric ion
• C. Cation
• D. Anion

Explanation: A zwitter ion is a compound with no overall electrical charge, but which contains separate parts which are positively and negatively charged. In an aqueous solution, the carboxyl group can lose a proton (becomes a basic group) and the amino group can accept a proton (becomes acidic) giving rise to the dipolar ion known as zwitter ion. An amphoteric compound is a molecule or ion that can react both as an acid and as a base.

Q104. Metallic conduction involves the relatively free movement of their _ throughout the metallic lattice.

• A. Atoms
• B. Molecules
• C. Electrons✓
• D. Ions

Explanation: A is incorrect In metals atoms are not in combined form they are in electron pool type arrangementB is incorrect In metals molecules do not existC is correct since In metals electrons are in pool type arrangement and the can move within metal so the play their role in conductionD is incorrect because In metals ions are not present

Q105. Study the following redox reaction and answer the following question:10Clˉ +16H+ + 2MnO4ˉ → 5Cl2 + 2Mn2+ + 8H2O

• A. Manganese is oxidized from +7 to +2
• B. Chlorine ions are reduced from -1 to zero
• C. Chlorine is reduced from 0 to -1
• D. Manganese is reduced from +7 to +2✓

Explanation: The correct change in oxidation numbers

Q106. R1R2C=N−NH2It is the general formula of:

• A. 2,4-Dinitrophenyl hydrazine
• B. 1, 3-Dinitrophenyl hydrazone
• C. Phenyl hydrazone
• D. 2,4-Dinitrophenyl hydrazone✓

Explanation: One important thing which confuses student is that they intermix Phenyl Hydrazine and Phenyl Hydrazone. Hydrazone consists of carbon–nitrogen double bond i.e R1R2C=N−NH2. In Phenyl hydrazone, one H atom of hydrazone is replaced by phenyl ring. Now if we attach two nitro groups at position 2 and 4, as given in the question, the product we have is 2,4-Dinitrophenylhydrazone.

Q107. The type of structural isomerism which arises due to the differences in nature of carbon chains or carbon skeletons is:

• A. Chain isomerism✓
• B. Position isomerism
• C. Cis-Trans isomerism
• D. Optical isomerism

Explanation: In chain isomerism, the molecular formula of the isomers is same but they differ in the carbon chain or carbon skeleton.

Q108. What will be the exact product?

• A. Diethyl ether
• B. Methyl propyl ether
• C. Ethyl acetate✓
• D. Butyl alcohol

Explanation: Ethyl Acetate is an ester that is made when Ethanoic acid reacts with Ethanol.

Q109. Dry distillation of a mixture of calcium salts of formic acid and acetic acid results into the formation of:

• A. Formaldehyde
• B. Acetaldehyde✓
• C. Calcium acetate
• D. Sodium acetate

Explanation: A is incorrect as formaldehyde is a product of calcium salt of formic acid.B is correct as Dry distillation of a mixture of the above calcium salts of acetic and formic acid respectively leads to the formation of an aldehyde. Dry distillation is the process in which the solid materials are heated to produce gaseous products.C is incorrect as calcium acetate is not a product of calcium salts of formic acid and acetic acid.D is incorrect as sodium acetate is not a product of calcium salts of formic acid and acetic acid.

Q110. The number of bonds in nitrogen molecule is:

• A. One σ and three π
• B. Three σ bonds only
• C. One σ and two π✓
• D. Two σ and one π

Explanation: In a nitrogen molecule (N2), there are one sigma (σ) bond and two pi (π) bonds.The sigma bond is formed by the head-on overlap of the two nitrogen 2p orbitals, resulting in the sharing of two electrons.The two pi bonds are formed by the side-to-side overlap of the remaining 2p orbitals, one from each nitrogen atom. Each pi bond involves the sharing of two electrons, one in a π bonding molecular orbital and one in a π antibonding molecular orbital, for a total of four electrons shared between the two pi bonds.

Q111. Value of Kspfor PbSO4 systems at 25 °C is equal to:

• A. 1.6 x 10-5 mol2dm-6
• B. 1.6 x 10-6 mol2dm-6
• C. 1.6 x 10-8mol2dm-6✓
• D. 1.6 x 10-7 mol2dm-6

Explanation: The question is knowledge-based and it can be solved that way (from Punjab textbook page no243) The solubility of PbSO4 at 25 degrees is 0.038 ​PbSO^-4 ⇌Pb^+2+SO4^2− ​s=mass/molar mass So S =1.254×10^−4 Here, we need s^2 So S^2 =1.573×10^-8

Q112. Which option shows all the molecules with bond angle 109.5 degrees:

• A. CH4 , NH4+ , PH3
• B. SiCl4 , H2O , BeCl2
• C. SiCl4 , NH4+ , CH4✓
• D. CH4 , CCl4 , NH3

Explanation: Since all molecules stated in option C are tetrahedral in shape, where a central atom is located at the center with four substituents that are located at the corners of a tetrahedron. Hence they all have bond angles that are 109.5 degrees.

Q113. In the formation of the Zwitter ion, which one of the following donates the proton?

• A. COOH✓
• B. NH2
• C. CH2COO-
• D. OH-

Explanation: Zwitter ions are ions with two functional groups; they contain both positive and negative charges and are considered neutral. They are also called inner salts. One common example of a zwitter ion is protein, where a proton is transferred from COOH to NH2 but the charge of COO- and NH3 will be balanced internally.

Q114. Mg + 1/2 O2(g) → MgO(g) H=-692 kJmol-1 at STP. The enthalpy of the above reaction will be called:

• A. ΔH°at
• B. ΔH°s
• C. ΔH°sol
• D. ΔH°f✓

Explanation: The standard enthalpy of formation of a compound is the amount of heat absorbed or evolved when one mole of the compound is formed from its elements. It is denoted by ΔH°f . Here, 1 mole of MgO is forming from its constituent elements (Mg and O) so enthalpy here is the enthalpy of formation, which is defined as the change in enthalpy when one mole of a compound is formed from its respective elements in standard state.

Q115. 2A + B --> product If the reactant 'B ' is in excess, the order of reaction with respect to ' A in the given rate lawRate = k[A]2 [ B ] is:

• A. 2nd order reaction✓
• B. Pseudo 1 order reaction
• C. 1st order reaction
• D. 3rd order reaction

Explanation: Experimental rate equation is called rate law. According to rate law equation, order is 2nd with respect to "A" while order is zero with respect to "B". Order of reaction is zero with respect to excess reactant. So, overall order of reaction is 2nd.

Q116. Ethanal reacts with HCN to form cyanohydrin. This is an example of:

• A. Nucleophilic addition✓
• B. Electrophilic addition
• C. Electrophilic substitution
• D. Nucleophilic substitution

Explanation: It is an example of nucleophilic addition. The CN- ion has a negative charge and it is attracted to a positive charge so CN- is a nucleophile. CN- forms a sigma bond with the electron-deficient species i.e. C of ethanol.

Q117. Butane molecules can have a maximum number of isomers.

• A. 5
• B. 3
• C. 4
• D. 2✓

Explanation: Butane is an alkane with four carbon atoms so the molecular formula is C4H10. It has two isomers; n-butane and isobutane.

Q118. Which one of the following is an anhydride of sulfuric acid?

• A. Sulphur (III) oxide✓
• B. Sulphur dioxide
• C. Iron pyrite
• D. Disulphur dichloride

Explanation: An anhydride is a compound that, when combined with water, forms an acid or base.When SO₂ reacts with water, it forms sulfurous acid (H₂SO₃):SO₃ + H₂O --> H₂SO₄

Q119. Which one of the following reactions shows the combustion of a saturated hydrocarbon?

• A. C2H4 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 2H2O
• B. CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O✓
• C. CH4 + 12 O2 = CH3OH (conditions: (Conditions:Cu, 400°C, 200 atm)
• D. C2H2 + 5/2 O2 → 2CO2 + H2O

Explanation: Key points here: The products of combustion are always H2O and C02 2-saturated means those having in which carbon form only single bonds

Q120. Which one of the following is an appropriate structure for the product of bromination?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C✓
• D. Option D

Explanation: We are asked to describe the possible product of bromination. From the question, we can possibly conclude that the OH group is already present on the benzene ring, or, in other words, we are considering phenol. So we have to tell you the possible product of the bromination of “phenol”. As OH is an orthopedic directing group, So the option having product that has Br on Ortho and Para positions is the right one, which in this case is option C

Q121. Study the following graphs for the boiling points of some substances:Which of the above graph shows that some members of the graph have hydrogen bonding?

• A. I + IV
• B. II + IV
• C. III + IV + V✓
• D. I + II + III

Explanation: Hydrogen bonding is found between the hydrogen atom of one molecule (which is covalently bonded to an electronegative atom) and the fluorine, oxygen and nitrogen of another molecule. It is represented with dotted lines.

Q122. In the below reaction the nucleophile which attacks the carbon atom of acid is:

• A. OH-
• B. P
• C. Cl-✓
• D. H-

Explanation: In the given reaction, the nucleophile which attacks the carbon atom of acid (CH3COOH) is CI (chloride ion). The reaction involves the substitution of the -OH group of the carboxylic acid (CH3COOH) with a chloride (-CI) group. resulting in the formation of an acyl chloride (CH3COCI) and the generation of HCI and POCI3

Q123. The skeletal formula of dipeptide formed between aspartic acid and phenylalanine is given below: How many functional groups are present in its formula?

• A. 5✓
• B. 2
• C. 4
• D. 3

Explanation: There are five functional groups present in the given formula. of the dipeptide: Carboxylic acid [COOH) group: one at the N-terminus of aspartic acidAmine (NH2) group: one at the C-terminus of phenylalanine Amide (O-C-NH) group: one linking the two amino acids Ester (O=C-O-) group: one in the side chain of aspartic acid Phenyl (benzene ring) group: one in the side chain of phenylalanine

Q124. The following dipeptide is called:

• A. Glycyl glycine
• B. Glycyl alanine✓
• C. Alaninyl alanine
• D. Alaninyl glycine

Explanation: Left residue is glycine (-CH2-NH2), right residue is alanine (α- C bears a CH3). They are joined by a peptide bond from glycine’s carbonyl to alanine’s NH → glycyl-alanine. Left residue is glycine (-CH2-NH2), right residue is alanine (α-C bears a CH3). They are joined by a peptide bond from glycine’s carbonyl to alanine’s NH → glycyl-alanine.

Q125. The average bond energy of C-Br is

• A. 228 kJmol-1
• B. 200 kJmol-1
• C. 250 kJmol-1
• D. 290 kJmol-1✓

Explanation: Knowledge-based questions have to be remembered orally >solution: C-C bond energy is 346kcal for each carbon, or 173 kJ/mol Br-br bong energy is 194kcal for each carbon; it is 96.3 kJ/mol For C-Br bond energy, 173+96.3 =270kj/mol The nearest value to 270 is 290.

Q126. Which one of the following is an appropraite indication of positive iodoform test?

• A. Formation of H2 gas
• B. Release of H2 gas
• C. Brick red precipitate
• D. Yellow precipitate✓

Explanation: Yellow ppt is a correct indication which is used for difference between Methanol and ethanol.

Q127. Which one of the following reaction of carboxylic acid is reversible?

• A. Esterification✓
• B. Reaction with PCI5
• C. Salt formation
• D. Reaction with SOCl2

Explanation: Among the options given, the only reversible reaction involving carboxylic acids is A) Esterification, where carboxylic acids and alcohols can interconvert to form esters and water.The other reactions involve the conversion of carboxylic acids into different compounds but do not necessarily revert back to the original carboxylic acid. Esterification is a reversible reaction involving a carboxylic acid and an alcohol, often in the presence of an acid catalyst.In this reaction, an ester and water are formed.The general reaction equation for esterification is: Carboxylic Acid + Alcohol ⇌ Ester + WaterThe reaction can proceed in both directions, forming ester from carboxylic acid and alcohol, as well as converting ester back to carboxylic acid and alcohol under suitable conditions.The equilibrium between reactants and products is established, making esterification a reversible process.

Q128. Select the best option, indicating the name of the structure given below

• A. Cation
• B. Neutral Amino Acid
• C. Internal Salt✓
• D. Anion

Explanation: There is an internal transfer of a hydrogen ion from the COOH group to the NH2 group, leaving an ion with both a negative charge and a positive charge. This is called a zwitterion, or internal salt. The term internal salt refers to the dipolar character of amino acids.

Q129. SO3 formed in the contact process is absorbed in _% H2SO2

• A. 90
• B. 80
• C. 98✓
• D. 89

Explanation: In contact process, SO3 is formed in 98% of H2SO2

Q130. Grignard reagents are prepared by the reaction of magnesium metal with alkyl halides in the presence of

• A. Dry Ether✓
• B. Sodium Lead Alloy
• C. Alcohol
• D. Water

Explanation: A is correct since Grignard reagents are prepared by the reaction of magnesium metal with alkyl halides in the presence of dry etherB is incorrect because sodium lead alloy is not use for preparation of Grignard reagentC is incorrect because alcohol is not used because it is reactiveD is incorrect because water is not used because it is reactive

Q131. Alanine is an aminoacid which showsneutral effect on litmus paper,the formula of alanine may be

• A. A✓
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: Alanine is a non-polar, aliphatic, and alpha-amino acid that contains both an amine (-NH2) and a carboxyl (-COOH) group attached to the alpha-carbon atom. It has a simple structure with a methyl (-CH3) group as its side chain. Alanine is one of the 20 common amino acids that make up proteins, and its neutral effect on litmus paper is due to its zwitterionic form at physiological pH.

Q132. An organic compound has the empirical formula C3H3O if the molar mass of the compound is 110.15 gmol-1. The molecular formula of this organic compound is: (A, of C=12, H=1.008and O=16)

• A. C6H6O2✓
• B. C3H3O
• C. C9H9O3
• D. C6H6O3

Explanation: The empirical formula mass can be calculated as follows:Empirical formula mass = (3 x atomic mass of C) + (3 x atomic mass of H) + (1 x atomic mass of O) Empirical formula mass = (3 x 12.011) + (3 x 1.008) + 16.00 Empirical formula mass = 55.05 g/molThe molecular formula mass can be calculated using the following equation:Molecular formula mass = n x empirical formula masswhere n is the number of empirical formula units in the molecular formula.n can be calculated as follows:n = Molecular formula mass / Empirical formula massn = 110.15 / 55.05 n = 2Therefore, the molecular formula is 2 times the empirical formula, and the molecular formula is:2(C3H3O) = C6H6O2So, the correct option is A) C6H6O2.

Q133. The number of molecules in 22.4 dm3 of H2 gas at 0°C and 1 atm are:

• A. 60.2 x 1023
• B. 6.02 x 1022
• C. 6.02 x 1025
• D. 6.02 x 1023✓

Explanation: This is Avogrado's number of molecules, 6.02×1023

Q134. Keeping inview the values of standard reduction potential given above, which one of the following would you select as a feasible redox chemical reaction?

• A. Cl- + I2 -> Cl2 + 2I-
• B. Cu + Zn2+ -> Cu2+ + Zn
• C. Mg + 2H + -> Mg2+ + H2✓
• D. 2Au + 6H+ -> 2Au3+ + 3 H2

Explanation: For a redox reaction to be feasible, the emf of it must be positive. (NOTE: When calculating emf, you take the voltage of each half equation according to the scenario, i.e. one will exhibit the same order as those shown above so, the E value is directly taken, but for some, you have to reverse the sign of the E value since the reaction, itself, is reversed).In option A, the emf is = -1.36 + 0.54 = -0.82, so NOT FEASIBLE. In option B, the emf is = -0.34 -0,76 = -1.10, so NOT FEASIBLE.In option C, the emf is = 2.37 + 0.00V = 2.37 so, it IS FEASIBLE; answer is C.In option D, the emf is = -1.50 + 0 = -1.54 (the coefficient of the reaction is not taken into account) so, it is NOT FEASIBLE.

Q135. CH3CN + HCI⟶ A + B (in the presence of water)In the above reaction,A and B are:

• A. Acetic acid and acid amide
• B. Acetic acid and methyl chloride
• C. Acetic acid and ammonia
• D. Acetic acid and ammonium chloride✓

Explanation: From Alkanenitriles: Compounds having a cyanide (-C≡N) group are called nitriles.Hydrolysis of an alkanenitrile on boiling with mineral acids or alkalis yields corresponding carboxylic acid.So this reaction gives carboxylic acid as main product and ammonium chloride as a side product.

Q136. Kirchhoff's first law/rule corresponds to:

• A. Law of conservation of energy
• B. Law Of conservation Of momentum
• C. Law of conservation of charge✓
• D. Law of conservation of mass

Explanation: Kirchhoff's first law states that the algebraic sum of current flowing into a junction is zero. This rule corresponds to conservation of charge which states that total charge in a closed system remains constant because current is the rate of flow of charge.

Q137. The area under the extension-load graph Of an elastic material whose elastic limit has not been exceeded gives its:

• A. Stress
• B. Strain energy✓
• C. Strain
• D. Young modulus

Explanation: Strain energy is the energy stored by an object undergoing deformation. Area under the extension-load graph represents work done to cause the deformation. An object which has not reached its elastic limit, the work done during stretching is recovered when it is unloaded.

Q138. Heavy nucleus of atoms go through fission so that they can:

• A. Absorb low amount of energy
• B. Absorb high amount of energy
• C. Reduce their binding energy nucleon
• D. Increase their binding energy per nucleon✓

Explanation: Maximum binding energy is achieved around Z = 50 (Iron is close to peak at Z = 56). Heavy nuclei undergo fission to decrease nuclear size and increase binding energy per nucleon.

Q139. An object is moving along a circular path of radius 4m. What will be its angular displacement if it moves 14 m on this circular path?

• A. 5.0 radians
• B. 3.5 radians✓
• C. 4.5 radians
• D. 5.5 radians

Explanation: Arc length = Radius x Angular displacementS = rθKeeping Arc length as 14m and radius as 4m, we get angular displacement as 3.5 radians.

Q140. In relation, which quantity is represented by λ?

• A. Decay constant✓
• B. Half life
• C. Activity
• D. Wavelength

Explanation: Explanation is given below.T1/2 represents the 'half-life' with 'T', implying the quantity has something to do with time, and '1/2' representing 'half'.

Q141. A particle, carrying a charge of 5e, falls through a potential difference of 25 V. What would be energy acquired by the particle in ‘J’.

• A. 1.6 x 10-19 J
• B. 125 J
• C. 125 x 10-19 J
• D. 125 x 1.6 x 10-19 J✓

Explanation: Electric Potential Energy = Electric Potential x ChargeCharge = 5 x 1.6 x 10-19 CElectric Potential Energy = 25V x (5 x 1.6 x 10-19) CThis could be manipulated to give us (125 x 1.6 x 10-19) J, which is Option D.

Q142. The kinetic energy K.E. with which the electron strikes the target is given by:

• A. K.E. = e2V
• B. K.E. = hc/λ
• C. K.E. = hf2
• D. K.E. = eV✓

Explanation: An electron cannot travel at the speed of light, unless the wave properties are being studied it's wavelength cannot be observed; however eV is a frequent way to describe energy of an electron. Where ‘e’ is the charge of the electron and ‘V’ is the potential difference between the filament and the positive accelerating electrode

Q143. A force ‘F’ is acting at point ‘P’ of a uniform rod capable of rotating about ‘O’. What is the torque about ‘O’?

• A. (OP)(F tanϴ)
• B. (OP)(F)
• C. (OP)(F sinϴ)
• D. (OP)(F cosϴ)✓

Explanation: Torque is the cross product between the distance vector (the distance from the pivot point to the point where force is applied) and the force vector,It is important that the force being applied is perpendicular to the rotational axis therefore we will use a component of force F which is perpendicular to the rotational axis. Since the angle θ is between the force F and the perpendicular. The force applied on the rotational axis for torque will be Fcosθ.The distance given here is OP and the force applied is Fcosθ.Torque = d x FTorque = (OP)(Fcosθ)

Q144. If an electron in the ‘K’ shell is removed and an electron from the ‘L’ shell jumps to occupy the hole in the ‘K’ shell, it emits a photon of energy:

• A. hfKα = EL – EK✓
• B. hc = EL – EK
• C. h/λKα = EL – EK
• D. hfKα = EK – EL

Explanation: When an electron is removed from the K-shell, leaving a hole, an electron from a higher energy level (L-shell in this case) can jump down to fill the gap, emitting a photon of energy equal to the difference in energy between the two levels. This is known as the characteristic X-ray emission.The energy of the emitted photon is given by the equation:hfKa = EL - Ek

Q145. A radioactive nuclide decays by emitting an alpha particle, a beta particle, and a gamma ray photon, the change in the nucleon number will be:

• A. -4✓
• B. -1
• C. -2
• D. -3

Explanation: An alpha particle is a helium nucleus with two protons and two neutrons which means it has a mass number of 4. (42α)A beta particle is a fast-moving electron. An excess neutron transforms into a proton and an electron.The proton stays in the nucleus and the electron is ejected energetically. Therefore in beta emission, the nucleon number remains the same. (01β)In gamma radiation, no particle is emitted instead there is the emission of radiation hence no change in nucleon number occurs during gamma emission(00γ)Therefore, the change in nucleon number will only be caused by the emission of an alpha particle hence the change will be -4.

Q146. Work done, due to centripetal force, for circular motion will be:

• A. Reduced
• B. Zero✓
• C. Maximum
• D. Half

Explanation: The displacement of an object after one complete revolution is 0 as the object returns to its original position. The beginning and final locations of a body that travels a distance and returns to its original place are the same. The displacement is zero in this situation, but the distance travelled is not.As work done = force x displacement, given that the displacement is 0, work done is also 0.

Q147. In a practical transformer mutual induction between primary and secondary coils takes place. In such transformer what can be deduced about the power.

• A. Power output = Power input
• B. Power output > Power input
• C. Power output ≥ Power input
• D. Power output < Power input✓

Explanation: The output power in a transformer is always less than the input power because of the different losses in a transformer. The losses may be Iron loss or core loss, hysteresis loss, eddy current loss, copper loss etc.

Q148. If ‘m’ is the mass, ‘c’ is the velocity of light and x = mc2, then dimensions of ‘x’ will be:

• A. [LT-1]
• B. [ML2T-2]✓
• C. [MLT-1]
• D. [MLT-2]

Explanation: The equation x = mc² represents the relationship between mass and energy, where x is the energy equivalent of a mass m, and c is the speed of light.To determine the dimensions of x, we need to consider the dimensions of each variable in the equation. The dimensions of mass are [M], the dimensions of the speed of light are [LT-1].Using the rules of dimensional analysis, we can find the dimensions of x by substituting the dimensions of m and c into the equation and simplifying:x = mc²= [M][LT-1]²= [M][L2T-2]Therefore, the dimensions of x are [ML2T-2], which is option B.

Q149. In a radioactive phenomenon observation is shown in the figure where α deviates less than β in some electric or magnetic field (not shown in the figure). What is the reason for less deviation?

• A. α is charged particle
• B. α is neutral particle
• C. α is heavier particle✓
• D. α is lighter particle

Explanation: In a magnetic or electric field, deviation occurs to the charge of a particle and how much a particle deviates depends on the mass of a particle. An alpha particle is identical to the nucleus of the Helium-4 atom. It consists of two protons and two neutrons bound together having a mass of four units and a positive charge of two. A gamma particle has no charge and no mass, hence it is undeflected. A beta particle has a negative charge and lower mass as compared to an alpha particle.Alpha particles deflect the least because it is heavier than beta and gamma.42α ,0-1β ,00γ .

Q150. Flow speed of the fluid through a non-uniform pipe increases from 1 m/sec to 3 m/sec. If change in P.E. is zero, then pressure difference between two points will be: (density of the fluid = 1000 kg/m3).

• A. 1000 N/m2
• B. 9000 N/m2
• C. 8000 N/m2
• D. 4000 N/m2✓

Explanation: According to Bernoulli's equation, the pressure difference between two points in a fluid is related to the change in velocity of the fluid and the density of the fluid.The equation is given as:P1 + (1/2)ρv1² = P2 + (1/2)ρv2²where P1 and P2 are the pressures at two different points in the pipe, v1 and v2 are the velocities at those points, and ρ is the density of the fluid.In this problem, we are given that the change in potential energy is zero, which means that we can neglect the potential energy term in Bernoulli's equation.Also, the density of the fluid is given as 1000 kg/m³.Using Bernoulli's equation, we can write:P1 + (1/2)ρv1² = P2 + (1/2)ρv2²Since the change in potential energy is zero, the pressure difference between the two points is given by:ΔP = P1 - P2 = (1/2)ρ(v2² - v1²)Substituting the given values, we get:ΔP = (1/2) x 1000 x (3² - 1²)ΔP = 4000 N/m²Therefore, the pressure difference between the two points is 4000 N/m². Option D is the correct answer.

Q151. When the length of a simple pendulum is doubled, the ratio of the new frequency to the old frequency is:

• A. 1/4
• B. 1/2
• C. √2
• D. 1/√2✓

Explanation: f = 1/2π × √(g/L)where 'g' is the acceleration due to gravity and 'L' is the length of the pendulum.When the length of the pendulum is doubled, the new length becomes 2L. Therefore, the new frequency can be calculated using the same formula:f' = 1/2π × √(g/2L)To find the ratio of the new frequency to the old frequency, we can divide f' by f:f'/f = [1/2π × √(g/2L)] / [1/2π × √(g/L)]f'/f = √(L/2L)f'/f = √(1/2)f'/f = 1/√2Therefore, the correct option is D) 1/√2

Q152. The Coulomb's force between two point charges q1=1C and q2 is 2N. Where the distance between them is 3m, the charge q2 is:

• A. 1 x 10-9 C
• B. 1 x 109 C
• C. 2 x 10-9C✓
• D. 4 x 10-9 C

Explanation: From coulomb’s law we knowF=Kq1q2/r²Rearranging the equation, we get:q2=Fxr²/Kxq1 =2x9/9x10⁹x1 =2x10-⁹C Ans

Q153. A 5 watt LED bulb converts 80% of the power into light photons wavelength 660 nm. What is the number of photons emitted from the bulb in one second.

• A. 5.8 x 1034
• B. 7.5 x 1018
• C. 6.6 x 107
• D. 1.3 x 1019✓

Explanation: Photon energy formula: E=hc/λ , where h is planck's constantλ =660nmc= 3*108 m/sh= 6.626 × 10-34 JsE=6.626*10-34 * 3*108 / 660*10-9 (Js*m/s/m = J)E=3.01*10-19J(per photon)Total energy= 1sec*5watt*80/100(efficiency) = 4 ws = 4JNo. of photons = Total energy/E = 4J/3.01*10-19J = 1.3*1019

Q154. What will be the effect on the capacitance of a capacitor if area of each plate is doubled while separation between the plates is halved?

• A. Capacitance remains same
• B. Capacitance becomes double
• C. Capacitance becomes four times✓
• D. Capacitance reduces to half

Explanation: The formula for capacitance is𝐶=ε𝐴 / 𝑑where,A is the area of the plate, d is the distance between the two parallel plates.If area is doubled, it becomes 2Aif distance is halved it becomes d/2So the new capacitance will be,𝐶2=ε2𝐴÷ 𝑑/2 = 4ε𝐴/𝑑Since 𝐶1 = ε𝐴/𝑑𝐶2= 4𝐶1Hence capacitance will become 4 times.

Q155. Arshad is driving down 7th street, he drives 150m in 18s.Assume he does not speed up or slow down, what is his speed?

• A. 0.38m/s
• B. 126m/s
• C. 8.33m/s✓
• D. 58.33m/s

Explanation: We need to calculate the constant speed, the formula for it is given: speed= distance/time = 150/18 = 8.33m/s Hence the right answer is option C.

Q156. In the shown figure, calculate the total work done on the gas when it is transformed from state a to state c, along the path indicated?

• A. 1500 J
• B. 3000 J
• C. 4500 J✓
• D. 5000 J
• E. 9, 500 J

Explanation: The thermodynamic work done is W = PdVAs dV = 0 for path b to c it will not contribute any work.The work done will come from path a to b and the required work done,W = ( 3 x 105) x (25 - 10) 10-3 = 4500 J

Q157. What is the instantaneous power dissipated through a resistor of resistance 10 ohm if it is connected to an AC source of frequency 15 Hz at 1/180 sec if peak value is 20 V?

• A. 10 W✓
• B. 100 W
• C. 40 W
• D. Cannot be determined

Explanation: UsingVo = V sin(2𝜋ft) = 20 x sin (2𝜋 x 15 x 1/180) = 10 VUsingP = v2/ R = 102 / 10 = 10 W

Q158. Force is a derived quantity, its derived unit can be expressed in terms of the base units as:

• A. Kgms-2✓
• B. Kgcms-2
• C. Kgm2s2
• D. Kgms2

Explanation: The following is the solution:Since F=ma ,where m: mass in kg,a: acceleration in m/s²,F = Kgms-2 = Newton

Q159. Coulomb's law is given by the formula:F=kq1 q2 / r2The magnitude of k having the unit of Nm2 C-2 for free space is equal to:

• A. 9 x 107
• B. 6 x 107
• C. 10 x 109
• D. 9 x 109✓

Explanation: The Coulomb constant, the electric force constant, or the electrostatic constant (denoted ke, k or K) is a proportionality constant in electrostatics equations. In SI units it is equal to 8.9875517923(14)×109 (9*109)kg⋅m3⋅s−2⋅C−2

Q160. Which of the following gives the relationship between linear velocity and angular velocity?

• A. v = rω✓
• B. v = rθ
• C. v=sω
• D. v=sθ

Explanation: The greater the rotation angle in a given amount of time, the greater the angular velocity. Angular velocity ω is analogous to linear velocity v. We can write the relationship between linear velocity and angular velocity in two different ways: v=rω or ω=v/r.

Q161. If one mole of an ideal gas is heated at constant pressure, then the first law of thermodynamics can be written as:

• A. CpΔT = CvΔT + PΔV✓
• B. CvΔT = CpΔT + PΔV
• C. CpΔT = CvΔT + VΔP
• D. ΔCpT = ΔCvT + PΔV

Explanation: Heat supplied to the gas at constant pressure isΔQ=nCPΔTChange in internal energy,ΔU=nCVΔTChange in work done,ΔW = PΔVAccording to the first law of thermodynamicsΔQ=ΔU+ΔWnCPΔT= nCVΔT + PΔV

Q162. Velocity of electron moving in first orbit of hydrogen is:

• A. 2.19 x 107 m/sec
• B. 2.18 x 107 m/sec
• C. 2.2 x 108 m/sec
• D. 2.19 x 106 m/sec✓

Explanation: The velocity of an electron in the first orbit of hydrogen can be calculated using the Bohr model formula: v = n × h / (2π × m × r), where: n is the principal quantum number (1 for the first orbit), h is Planck's constant (6.63 × 10-34 Js), m is the mass of the electron (9.1 × 10-31 kg), r is the radius of the orbit (0.529 × 10-10 m). Substituting these values gives a velocity of approximately 2.19 × 106 m/s. The other options are incorrect as they either exceed feasible values or are too high for the first orbit.

Q163. If the velocity of the body changes by equal amount in equal intervals of time, the body is said to have:

• A. Variable acceleration
• B. Uniform acceleration✓
• C. Uniform velocity
• D. Negative acceleration

Explanation: The correct answer is uniform acceleration. This is because the definition of uniform acceleration is when the velocity of a body changes by equal amounts in equal intervals of time, indicating a consistent rate of change in velocity.Option A is incorrect because variable acceleration involves changes in velocity that are not consistent over time.Option C is incorrect because uniform velocity implies no change in speed, which contradicts the condition of changing velocity.Option D is incorrect because negative acceleration refers to a reduction in speed, not necessarily at a uniform rate.

Q164. The relation ‘PV = nRT’ shows which law of physics:

• A. Charles Law
• B. Avogadro’s Law
• C. Newton’s Constant
• D. Ideal Gas Law✓

Explanation: The ideal gas law, also called the general gas equation, is the equation of state of a hypothetical ideal gas. It shows the relation between the pressure P, volume V, and temperature T of gas in the limit of low pressures and high temperatures, such that the molecules of the gas move almost independently of each other. In such a case, all gases obey an equation of state known as the ideal gas law: PV = nRT, where n is the number of moles of the gas and R is the universal (or perfect) gas constant.

Q165. Which relation exactly describes the isothermal process?

• A. Q = W✓
• B. W = -U
• C. Q = -ΔU
• D. Q = ΔU + W

Explanation: An isothermal process is a thermodynamic process in which the temperature of a system remains constant. The transfer of heat into or out of the system happens so slowly that thermal equilibrium is maintained. In an isothermal process, T = 0. If T = 0, then we can say that U = 0. According to the 1st law of thermodynamics, Q = U+W. In this case, the first law can be written as Q=W

Q166. The resistance between two opposite faces of a square thin film of area 1 mm2 having a thickness of 1 m if the resistivity of the material is 10-6 Ω will be:

• A. 1000 Ω
• B. 100 Ω
• C. 1 Ω✓
• D. 10 Ω

Explanation: Given data Area, A= 1mm2 Resistivity, ρ= 10-6Ωm Thickness, x= 10-6m Now we have Resistance, R=ρl/A where A= = length (l) x thickness (x) Thus, R= ρll.x Or R= ρ/x Substituting the values , R= 10-6Ωm10-6m R= 1Ω

Q167. The life time of an electron in an excited state is about 10-8 s. What is its uncertainty in energy during this time?

• A. 1.05 x 10-41 J
• B. 1.05 x 10-26 J✓
• C. 1.15 x 1010 J
• D. 2.19 x 10-40 J

Explanation: The uncertainty in energy can be determined using the energy-time uncertainty principle: ΔE = h/Δt, where h is Planck's constant (approximately 6.626 x 10-34 Js) and Δt is the time the electron spends in the excited state (10-8 s). Plugging these values into the formula, we get ΔE ≈ 1.05 x 10-26 J, which corresponds to Option B. Option A and D provide values that are too small to be realistic, while Option C presents an unrealistically large value for this context.

Q168. If the general equation for destructive interference is given by the relation Optic path difference = (m +12), where ‘m’ is an integer, then the first dark fringe that appears from ’m’ will be equal to:

• A. 23
• B. 12
• C. 0✓
• D. 1

Explanation: If general equation for destructive interference is given by the relation Optic path difference = (m+(1/2)), where 'm' is an integer, then first dark fringe that appears from 'm' will be equal to 0For destructive interference • m = 0 would give us the angle of the first-order dark fringe • m = 1 would give us the second-order fringe, etc. For both bright and dark fringes, the first-order fringe is the one closest to the central maximum.

Q169. A wire is stretched by a force ‘F’ which causes an extension ∆l, the energy stored in the wire is:

• A. F∆l
• B. 2F∆l
• C. ½ F∆l2
• D. ½ F∆l✓

Explanation: Given that, force applied = F . extension = ∆l and we assume the length of the wire to be = L.If the elastic limit is not exceeded then the stress is directly proportional to strain.Where stress is the amount of force applied per unit area (σ = F/A)And strain is extension per unit length (ε = ∆l/l)Hence,Energy stored = ½ x stress x strain x volumeEnergy stored = ½ x (F/A) x (∆l/L) x A x LEnergy stored = ½ F∆l

Q170. A heat engine operating according to the second law of thermodynamics rejects one fourth of the heat taken from a high temperature reservoir. What is the percentage efficiency of a heat engine?

• A. 100%
• B. 25%
• C. 50%
• D. 75%✓

Explanation: The percentage efficiency of a heat engine is given by:Efficiency = (Useful work output / Heat input) x 100%According to the second law of thermodynamics, some heat must be rejected to a low temperature reservoir during the operation of a heat engine. Let Qh be the heat taken from a high temperature reservoir, and Qc be the heat rejected to a low temperature reservoir. The net work output of the engine is given by:W = Qh - QcGiven that the engine rejects one-fourth of the heat taken from the high temperature reservoir, we can write:Qc = Qh/4Substituting this in the above equation for W, we get:W = Qh - Qh/4 = 3Qh/4The efficiency of the engine is therefore:Efficiency = (W / Qh) x 100%Efficiency = [(3Qh/4) / Qh] x 100%Efficiency = 75%Therefore, the correct option is D) 75%.

Q171. ‘F’ is the maximum force acting on a conductor. Now if we change the direction of the conductor by making an angle of 45° with the magnetic field, then the force becomes:

• A. F/2
• B. 2F
• C. F/√2✓
• D. √2 F

Explanation: As we know, the force experienced by the current-carrying conductor is given by F'=IBLsinθ If θ= 45o F'=Fsin45° F'=F(0.707) F'=F/√2

Q172. Statements: I. Ms. Kulsoom labelled Mr. Waleed as a deserter. II. Ms. Kulsoom offered an apology.

• A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect✓
• B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
• C. Both statements I and II are independent causes
• D. Both statements I and II are the effects of independent cause

Explanation: Labeling someone a deserter (a serious accusation) could likely lead to consequences or social pressure. Offering an apology suggests that Ms. Kulsoom recognized her action was wrong or caused harm, and she's trying to rectify the situation. Thus, the initial action (labeling) is the cause, and the apology is a direct result (the effect).

Q173. Children are in pursuit of a dog whose leash has broken. James is directly behind the dog. Ruby is behind James. Rachel is behind Ruby. Max is ahead of the dog walking down the street in the opposite direction. As the children and dog pass, Max turns around and joins the pursuit. He runs in behind Ruby. James runs faster and is alongside the dog on the left. Ruby runs faster and is alongside the dog on the right. Which child is directly behind the dog?

• A. James
• B. Ruby
• C. Rachel
• D. Max✓

Explanation: After all the switches were made, Max is directly behind the dog, James is alongside the dog on the left, Ruby is alongside the dog on the right, and Rachel is behind Max.

Q174. Only one meaningful word can be formed by rearranging the letters of the given jumbled word. Find out that word. MUSPOPAPOTIH

• A. METAMORPHIC
• B. PHILANTHROPIST
• C. HIPPOCAMPUS
• D. HIPPOPOTAMUS✓

Explanation: Count the number of letters of the word given in the question and then corroborate it with the options.

Q175. l.The car manufacturing companies have recently increased the prices of mid-sized cars. ll. The Government recently increased the duty on mid-sized cars.

• A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
• B. Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
• C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes.
• D. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.✓

Explanation: In this logical reasoning question, we are examining the cause and effect relationship between the two statements. Statement II states that the government has increased the duty on mid-sized cars, which would logically increase production costs for car manufacturers. In response to this increased cost, car manufacturers would raise the prices of mid-sized cars, as indicated in Statement I.Therefore, Statement II (government increased duty) is the cause, and Statement I (car manufacturers increased prices) is the effect.Other options are incorrect because they either suggest that the price increase caused the duty increase, both are effects of a common cause, or both occurred independently, none of which align with the logical progression from cause to effect in the given statements.

Q176. Asiya goes 30 km towards North from a fixed point, then after turning to her right she goes another 15 km. Then she takes another right and goes 30km. How far and in what direction is she from her starting point?

• A. 10 km east
• B. 15 km east✓
• C. 20 km east
• D. 25 km east

Explanation: Option B is correct. In reference to the given image her current position is 15km East from the point where she started.

Q177. If ‘-’ means ‘+’, ‘+’ means ‘-’, ‘*’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘*’ then which of the following will be the correct equation?

• A. 10 + 5 - 14 ÷ 10 * 15 = 158
• B. 30 + 5 + 14 - 10 * 15 = 122
• C. 30 - 5 + 14 ÷ 10 * 15 = 162
• D. 30 * 5 - 4 ÷ 10 + 15 = 31✓
• E. None of these

Explanation: Your equation is:10 + 5 - 14 ÷ 10 * 15 = 158First, replace the symbols:+ → -- → +÷ → ** → ÷Thus, the equation becomes:10 - 5 + 14 * 10 ÷ 15Now, solve step-by-step following BODMAS:Multiplication and Division first:14 * 10 = 140140 ÷ 15 ≈ 9.333...Now the equation becomes:10 - 5 + 9.333...Left to right (Addition/Subtraction):10 - 5 = 55 + 9.333... = 14.333...Thus:Final result: 14.333..

Q178. Directions: In the following question, a number sequence is given with one term missing. Choose the correct term that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given sequence.Q.4 2,14,32,56,86,?

• A. 120
• B. 116
• C. 128
• D. 122✓

Explanation: To solve the sequence 2, 14, 32, 56, 86, ?, observe the differences between consecutive terms:14 - 2 = 1232 - 14 = 1856 - 32 = 2486 - 56 = 30The differences form the sequence 12, 18, 24, 30, which increases by 6 each time.Following this pattern, the next difference should be 30 + 6 = 36.Add this difference to the last number in the sequence: 86 + 36 = 122.Therefore, the correct answer is 122. Other options do not follow this pattern and thus are incorrect.

Q179. Statements: 1. Mara runs faster than Gail. 2. Lily runs faster than Mara. 3.Gail runs faster than Lily. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is:

• A. True
• B. False✓
• C. Uncertain
• D. None of these

Explanation: The first two statements establish the speed order: Lily > Mara > Gail. Based on this, Lily is the fastest runner. Therefore, the statement "Gail runs faster than Lily" must be false.

Q180. Pick the odd word out:

• A. Just
• B. Fair
• C. Equitable
• D. Biased✓

Explanation: The words "just," "fair," and "equitable" are all synonyms related to impartiality and justice. "Biased" is an antonym, meaning to show prejudice for or against something, making it the odd one out.