Punjab Mdcat Mock Paper 4 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. My advice had no _ on him.

• A. Effect✓
• B. Affect
• C. Influence
• D. Impression

Explanation: Option A: effect is a noun.As the sentence demands a noun after the verb "had", so effect is used.Option B: affect is a verb so it is inappropriate for this sentence.Its use is as follows: The rain affected(verb) the crops.Option C: influence is also a noun but it is usually used to show a strong authority or impact so it's not suitable for the given sentence. Option D: impression is a noun.It means an opinion or a view. It doesn't fit the context so is eliminated.

Q2. Do not lose heart,it is just a _ in the teacup.

• A. Wind
• B. Cyclone
• C. Blast
• D. Storm✓

Explanation: "storm in a tea cup" is an idiom. It means great rage(anger/disturbance) or excitement about a common matter.The remaining options (a),(b) and(c) are inappropriate for the completion of this idiomatic expression.

Q3. Pakistan _ from voting against Iran in the United Nations.

• A. Prevented
• B. Detained
• C. Abstained✓
• D. Refuse

Explanation: Option A Abstained means to stop oneself from doing something. In the given sentence, Pakistan is officially refusing to vote so abstain is the most appropriate choice.The options A and B are synonyms. Both means to force or stop someone or something from happening. So they are eliminated. Option D refuse means to deny. It can be used in this way: Pakistan refused to vote. However, in the given sentence structure, it's inappropriate.

Q4. Please_the door after you.

• A. Close✓
• B. Shut
• C. Leave
• D. Knock

Explanation: The options A close or B shut both can be used but the most appropriate is A close.Option C leave doesn't fit the sentence structure.Option D knock is inappropriate for the given

Q5. SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined.Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Suddenly he stopped at the edge of the meadow, taking his pocket knife from his pocket, and cut a wisp of alfalfa.

• A. Suddenly he stopped
• B. Taking his pocket knife✓
• C. His pocket
• D. Cut a wisp of alfalfa

Explanation: B is incorrect,it should be took his pocket knife instead of taking his pocket knife to be grammatically correct.

Q6. SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined.Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. The study of population growth indicates one of the greatest paradox of our time.

• A. The study
• B. Population growth
• C. One of the
• D. Paradox✓

Explanation: D is incorrect, it should be paradoxes of our time.

Q7. SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. When a low-wage category worker finds he has to maintain a large family, his expenses may exceeds his income.

• A. When a low-wage
• B. Worker finds
• C. Maintain a large family
• D. Exceeds his income✓

Explanation: D is incorrect, it should be exceed his income instead.

Q8. She managed to _ a ticket for the cricket match.

• A. Procure✓
• B. Obscure
• C. Improvise
• D. Preclude

Explanation: Procure means to obtain (something).It is obvious that Procure will be best choice.

Q9. Things have got out of hand; we must take steps to _ the situation

• A. Rectify✓
• B. Pacify
• C. Purify
• D. Testify

Explanation: Rectify means to correct, put rightPacify means to put an end to anger, agitation or excitement.Purify means to remove contaminants from.Testify means to give evidence as a witness in a law court.

Q10. George Orwell’s Animal Farm is a stinging _ on the Russian revolution

• A. Myth
• B. Satire✓
• C. Fallacy
• D. Legend

Explanation: B. A satire uses humor and exaggeration to criticize something or someone, typically a public figure, social norm, or government policy. C. A fallacy is a false or mistaken idea. A. A myth maybe 1. a traditional story, especially one concerning the early history of a people or explaining a natural or social phenomenon, and typically involving supernatural beings or events, or 2. a widely held but false belief or idea. D. A legend is a traditional story sometimes popularly regarded as historical but not authenticated. Option B is correct because the use of the word "stinging" in the question implies that the novel criticizes the Russian Revolution.

Q11. All the _ and ceremony of the royal wedding was telecast on the national television circuit.

• A. Festival
• B. Romp
• C. Pomp✓
• D. Happiness

Explanation: Pomp is a celebration or festive display.From the information above it is clear that Pomp is the word best suited in the sentence given above.

Q12. Select the incorrect segment:Your argument is simply abstruse as there is no clarity of thought and coherence in ideas and it also lack vision.

• A. Is
• B. Of
• C. In
• D. Lack✓

Explanation: As the object described is singular i.e Vision ,the verb used should also be singular. Thus the correct form will be ….it also lacks vision.

Q13. He _ the day they had bought such a large house.

• A. Hues
• B. Rows
• C. Rues✓
• D. Dues

Explanation: Rue is the most applicable word over here as he might be having some problem due to buying such a large house. Rues means to feel regret, remorse, or sorrow for something.

Q14. Identify the incorrect segment: Amjad was not conscious to the aberration he had committed in the public meeting. It was disliked by all and sundry.

• A. to✓
• B. the
• C. in
• D. by

Explanation: The correct phrase should be "conscious of" instead of "conscious to". Therefore, the sentence should be: "Amjad was not conscious of the aberration he had committed in the public meeting."

Q15. Identify the incorrect segment: Late Agha Shahi was an outstanding genius in the international affairs. He was gifted of the acumen to judge the future events, judge the future events in advance.

• A. in
• B. of✓
• C. to
• D. in

Explanation: The correct phrase should be "gifted with" instead of "gifted of." Therefore, the sentence should be: "He was gifted with the acumen to judge the future events in advance."

Q16. Identify the incorrect segment: The old man was sitting quite bamboozled when the swindler deprived him from his pension money by his evil tricks.

• A. Quite
• B. From✓
• C. By
• D. His

Explanation: Instead of “from”, “of” will be used.

Q17. He _ the incident to the back of his mind.

• A. Revered
• B. Regulated
• C. Reagitated
• D. Relegated✓

Explanation: Relegated means to degrade or devalue something, in this case the incident, which he did by putting it at the back of his mind.

Q18. Identify the incorrect segment: The prime minister fired a broadside at the opposition leaders. A few of his remarks were not up at the mark.

• A. of
• B. were
• C. up
• D. at✓

Explanation: The correct phrase should be "upto" instead of "up at." Therefore, the sentence should be: "The prime minister fired a broadside at the opposition leaders. A few of his remarks were not up to the mark." The phrase "up to the mark" is a common idiom meaning meeting the expected standard or level of quality.

Q19. Book lungs are present in arthropods for exchange of gases in class:

• A. Crustacea
• B. Insecta
• C. Myriapoda
• D. Arachnida✓

Explanation: Respiration in class arachnida is by gills or special structures called book lungs.So option [D] The remaining options are eliminated as follows:Option [A] crustacea are aquatic arthropods and have gills for respiration.Option [B] insecta are the largest group of animal kingdom and have trachea for respiration.Option [C] myriapoda breathe through .

Q20. Larvae of which group are similar to chordates?

• A. Echinodermata✓
• B. Annelida
• C. Arthropoda
• D. Nematoda

Explanation: The larvae of echinodermata [called dipleurula larva] is characterized by bilateral symmetry.The larvae of chordates[ tornaria larva] also has bilateral symmetry so option [A] IS RIGHT.The other options are eliminated as follows:Option [B] Annelida has a free swimming trochophore larvae which is different from that of chordates.Option [C] arthropoda has larva [called instar or nymph] is different from larvae of chordates.Option [D] nematoda has a larval stage during their life cycle which is quite different from chordates

Q21. Type of respiration which involves step by step breakdown of carbon chain molecules in the cell is called:

• A. External respiration
• B. Pulmonary respiration
• C. Cellular respiration✓
• D. Cutaneous respiration

Explanation: Cellular respiration is a set of metabolic reactions and processes that take place in the cells of organisms to convert biochemical energy from nutrients into adenosine triphosphate (ATP), which is used to power various cellular activities. ATP is often referred to as the "energy currency" of the cell. Cellular respiration occurs in three main stages: glycolysis, the citric acid cycle (also known as the Krebs cycle), and oxidative phosphorylation (including the electron transport chain and chemiosmosis).

Q22. Instrument which is used to measure relative abilities of different pigments to absorb different wavelengths of light is called:

• A. Spectrometer
• B. Photometer
• C. Barometer
• D. Spectrophotometer✓

Explanation: Option[A] A spectrometer separates and measures spectral components of a physical phenomenon.Option[B] photometer is an instrument that measures the strength of electromagnetic radiation in the range from ultraviolet to infrared and including the visible spectrum.Option[c] Barometer is an instrument used to measure atmospheric PressureOption [D] A spectrophotometer performs quantitative measurements of reflectance or transmission properties of a material as a function of wavelength.

Q23. End products of yeast fermentation, bacterial fermentation and anaerobic respiration are:

• A. Citric acid, lactic acid, carbon dioxide and water
• B. Ethyl alcohol, citric acid and carbon dioxide
• C. Ethyl alcohol, lactic acid, carbon dioxide and water✓
• D. Methanol, lactic acid and citric acid

Explanation: Option[A] Citric acid is the product of Aspergillus Niger fermentation, lactic acid is the product of bacterial fermentation,carbon dioxide and water are products of anaerobic respiration Option[B] Ethyl alcohol is a product of yeast fermentation but citric acid is the product of Aspergillus fermentation.Option [C] Ethyl alcohol is produced during yeast fermentation,also known as alcoholic fermentation. Lactic acid is produced as a result of bacterial fermentation and water,carbon dioxide as the products of anaerobic respiration Option[D] Methanol is a product of bacterial fermentation as well as lactic acid also but citric acid is the product of Aspergillus Niger fermentation.

Q24. In human beings, what is the function of amylase in digestion?

• A. Digestion of triglycerides
• B. Digestion of lipids
• C. Digestion of all types of food
• D. Digestion of carbohydrates✓

Explanation: Option [A] Gastric Lipase breaks down Option [b] Lipase breaks down Lipids into fatty acids and glycerolOption[c] Enzymes are specific for each substrate. Different enzymes required for the breakdown of different types of foodOption [D] Amylase is the enzyme which breaks down starch[type of carbohydrate]into sugar

Q25. Where is the ileocolic sphincter located in your body?

• A. At the junction of esophagus and stomach
• B. At the junction of stomach and small intestine
• C. At the junction of ileum and large intestine✓
• D. At the junction of small intestine and large intestine

Explanation: Option[A] cardiac sphincter is present at the junction of oesophagus and stomachOption[b] pyloric sphincter is present at the junction of stomach and small intestineOption [C] ileocolic sphincter is located at the junction of the ileum and first portion of the colon of the large intestine.Option[d] specific positions of intestines are not described in this option.

Q26. An association between two organisms benefiting both is called

• A. Commensalism
• B. Parasitism
• C. Predation
• D. Symbiosis✓

Explanation: Option A is incorrect because Commensalism is relationship in which one organism is benefited other is neither benefited nor harmOption B is incorrect because Parasitism is relationship in which a parasite live with host body get food and shelter and in return cause diseaseOption C is incorrect because Predation is a relationship in which an animal feed on other animal and the animal feed is predator and animal that is caught and eaten is preyOption D is correct since An association between two beneficial organisms is called symbiosis

Q27. Beri Beri is due to.

• A. Metabolic disorder
• B. Chemical causes
• C. Nutritional deficiency✓
• D. Mental Illness

Explanation: Option A is incorrect because Beri beri is nutritional disorderOption A is incorrect since a metabolic disorder occurs when the metabolism process fails whereas beri beri is caused by deficiency of vitamin B1.Option B is incorrect because Beri beri is nutritional disorderOption B is incorrect since chemical diseases happens due to diseases, injuries, aging, chronic stress and poor nutrition whereas beri beri is caused by deficiency of vitamin B1.Option C is correct since Beri beri is nutritional disorder caused by deficiency of Vitamin B1Option D is incorrect because Beri beri is nutritional disorderOption D is incorrect since mental illness are disorders that affect your mood, thinking and behavior whereas beri beri is caused by deficiency of vitamin B1.

Q28. An activated enzyme consisting of polypeptide and a cofactor is known as

• A. Amylase
• B. Apoenzyme
• C. Holoenzyme✓
• D. Coenzyme

Explanation: Option A is incorrect because Amylase is the enzyme that breakdown carbohydratesOption B is incorrect because Apoenzyme is the enzyme with its cofactor removed it is non functionalOption C is correct since Holoenzyme is an activated enzyme consisting of polypeptide and a cofactorOption D is incorrect because Coenzyme is a type of cofactor that loosely attached to the protein part

Q29. _ forms weak linkages with enzymes and their effect can be neutralized completely or partly by an increase in the concentration of the substrate.

• A. Only competitive Inhibitors
• B. Reversible inhibitors✓
• C. Irreversible inhibitors
• D. Both reversible and irreversible inhibitors

Explanation: The explanation is as follows: (PTB, Chapter 3)

Q30. In prokaryotic cell, wall strengthening material is

• A. Cellulose
• B. Silica
• C. Chitin
• D. Peptidoglycan✓

Explanation: The prokaryotic cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan.

Q31. The entire cell wall of bacteria is often regarded as a single huge molecule or molecular complex called

• A. Capsule
• B. Secondary wall
• C. Slime capsule
• D. Sacculus✓

Explanation: This is factual recall. The entire cell wall of bacteria is often regarded as a single huge molecule or molecular complex called the sacculus.

Q32. The simplest independent unit of life is known as:

• A. Bacterial colony
• B. Cell✓
• C. Chloroplast
• D. DNA

Explanation: The cell is the simplest entity that can exist as an independent unit of life. Every known living organism is either a single cell or an ensemble of a few to many cells.

Q33. The process by which unwanted structures within the cell are engulfed and digested within the lysosome is known as:

• A. Endocytosis
• B. Exocytosis
• C. Hydrolysis
• D. Autophagy✓

Explanation: Autophagy is a type of endocytosis that involves the engulfment and digestion of damaged or unnecessary cell parts by the cell itself. This process is essential for maintaining cell health and survival

Q34. The production of genetically identical copies of organisms by asexual reproduction is called:

• A. Genetic engineering
• B. Integrated disease management
• C. Hydroponic culture technique
• D. Cloning✓

Explanation: The production of genetically identical copies of organisms by asexual reproduction is called cloning.

Q35. The _ model of plasma membrane suggests that proteins are embedded in lipid bilayer:

• A. Unit membrane
• B. Fluid mosaic✓
• C. Permeable
• D. Ultracentrifuge

Explanation: According to the Fluid Mosaic Model, cell membranes are quasi-fluidic in nature with a viscous lipid bilayer having proteins at places like mosaic both on the outer surface and embedded inside. Singer and Nicolson have described the cell membrane as a 'protein iceberg' in the sea of lipids.

Q36. The function of nucleolus is to make:

• A. rDNA
• B. RNA
• C. Ribosomes✓
• D. Chromosomes

Explanation: The function of the nucleolus is to make ribosomes. The nucleolus is a distinct subcompartment within the cell nucleus, and it plays a vital role in ribosome biogenesis, which is the process of producing ribosomes, the cellular machinery responsible for protein synthesis. The nucleolus is responsible for making ribosomes by transcribing, processing, and assembling the components of ribosomes before exporting them to the cytoplasm, where they perform their crucial role in protein synthesis. Ribosomes are essential cellular structures involved in protein synthesis. They read the genetic information encoded in messenger RNA (mRNA) and use this information to assemble amino acids into polypeptide chains, which eventually fold into functional proteins.

Q37. Lipid metabolism is the function of:

• A. Mitochondria
• B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
• C. RER
• D. SER✓

Explanation: Fact: Smooth endoplasmic reticulum(SER) is involved in lipid metabolism.

Q38. The term which is employed to the loss of appetite due to fear of becoming obese is:

• A. Obesity
• B. Anorexia nervosa✓
• C. Dyspepsia
• D. Bulimia nervosa

Explanation: Option[a] Obesity is defined as accumulation of abnormal or excessive fat that may impair healthOption [B] Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterised by an abnormally low body weight and intense fear of gaining weight.Option [c] Dyspepsia means indigestion,refers to discomfort or pain that occurs in upper abdomen often after eating or drinkingOption [d] Bulimia is an eating disorder characterised by uncontrolled episodes of overeating(bingeing)

Q39. Which one of the following acts as functional unit of lungs in man?

• A. Air sac✓
• B. Trachea
• C. Larynx
• D. Bronchioles

Explanation: Option [A] Air sacs,alveoli are present at the end of bronchioles in lung where lungs and blood exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide during inhalation and exhalationOption[b] Larynx(voice box) it contains vocal cords not the part of lungsOption[c] Trachea that connects the larynx to lungs. Acts as a passage of air into lungs.( not the part of lungs)Option[d] Bronchioles are the smaller branches of the bronchi that enter each lung. Bronchioles give rise to alveoli (air sacs)

Q40. Which one of following factors is directly proportional to oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin:

• A. Carbon dioxide
• B. Temperature
• C. pH✓
• D. Light

Explanation: Option [A] the greater the carbon dioxide the lesser the capacity to carry oxygen, as Co2 increases more H+ ions are produced in blood,decreasing the Ph subsequently decreasing affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen(inversely proportional)Option[b] With the increase in temperature the ability of haemoglobin to carry oxygen decreases (inversely Proportional)Option [C] With the increase in Ph the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen increases as there are lesser H+ ions produced due to less amount of Co2 resulting in lesser O2 being dissociated from the Hb molecule. ( directly proportional with increase in Ph Hb molecules carries more oxygen) Option[d] Light has no effect on haemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen

Q41. Expiration in human beings is carried out by:

• A. Contraction of lungs
• B. Contraction of intercostal membrane
• C. Relaxation of intercostal and diaphragm muscles✓
• D. Contraction of diaphragm muscles

Explanation: Option [a] Lungs do not contractOption[b] Internal intercostal muscles contractOption [C] During expiration External intercostal muscles relax and internal intercostal muscles contract bringing rib cage down to its normal position, muscles of diaphragm Also relax with chest cavity also being reduced Option [d] Diaphragm muscles relaxes during expiration,contraction of diaphragm does not occur

Q42. Which one of the following is a precursor of steroid hormones?

• A. Glycerol
• B. Sterol
• C. Amino acids
• D. Cholesterol✓

Explanation: Option[A] Lipids are made from glycerolOption[b] Sterols are sub groups of steroidsOption[c] Amino acid is the basic unit of protein. Twenty different types of amino acid combine in different arrangements to forms various different proteinsOption [D] All steroid hormones are derived from cholesterol molecules.

Q43. Krebs cycle takes place in

• A. Dictyosomes
• B. Mitochondrial matrix✓
• C. lysosomes
• D. Vesicles of endoplasmic reticulum

Explanation: "The explanation for this question will be added soon!"

Q44. Chemically, viruses are made up of

• A. Nucleic acid only
• B. Protein only
• C. Nucleic acid and protein✓
• D. Core and coat

Explanation: Option A is incorrect because Genome of virus is only made up of nucleic acidOption B is incorrect because Capsid of virus is made up of proteinOption C correct since virus is made up of both protein that form capsid and nucleic acid that form genomeOption D is incorrect because core is protein and coat is also protein but host cell derived

Q45. Widespread epidemic disease, influenza is caused by:

• A. DNA virus
• B. RNA enveloped virus✓
• C. DNA enveloped virus
• D. RNA virus

Explanation: Influenza is caused by an enveloped RNA virus.

Q46. When the division of cells is in three planes, the arrangement is known as

• A. Diplococcus
• B. Sarcina✓
• C. Streptococcus
• D. Staphylococcus

Explanation: Option A is incorrect because Division in one plane that form a pair of coocci is called diplococcusOption B is correct since Division in three planes produces an arrangement called sarcina that is a cube of 8 cocciOption C is incorrect because Streptococcus is division in one plane and has more than 2 cocciOption D is incorrect because Staphylococcus is arrangement in which cocci are arranged in irregular , often grape like cluster

Q47. Bacterial ‘death rate’ is equal to ‘birth rate; in

• A. Lag phase
• B. Log phase
• C. Death phase
• D. Stationary phase✓

Explanation: Option A is incorrect because Lag phase is phase of no growth and bacteria prepare themselves for divisionOption B is incorrect because Log phase is the phase of rapid growth, bacteria divide at exponential rateOption C is incorrect because Death phase is phase in which bacteria start dying, and death rate is more than reproduction rateOption D is correct since At stationary phase bacterial death rate is equal to reproduction rate

Q48. The enzymes of lysosomes are synthesized on:

• A. RER✓
• B. SER
• C. Chloroplast
• D. Golgi apparatus

Explanation: All enzymes are proteins in nature. Lysosomal enzymes are synthesized on RER then transported with the help of SER towards Golgi complex from where they bud off in the form of primary lysosomes.

Q49. Amino acid in which the R-group is hydrogen is:

• A. Glycine✓
• B. Alanine
• C. Leucine
• D. Valine

Explanation: Glycine is the simplest stable amino acid with the molecular formula C2H5NO2.

Q50. Acyl-glycerols like fats and oils are esters formed by condensation reaction between:

• A. Fatty acids and water
• B. Fatty acids and alcohols✓
• C. Fatty acids and glucose
• D. Fatty acids and phosphates

Explanation: Acyl-glycerols, such as fats and oils, are esters formed by a condensation reaction between fatty acids and alcohols. In this reaction, a glycerol molecule reacts with three fatty acid molecules, resulting in the formation of a triglyceride.

Q51. Which of the following is purine:

• A. Guanine✓
• B. Cytosine
• C. Thymine
• D. Uracil

Explanation: Guanine is a purine base. It is one of the four nitrogenous bases found in DNA and RNA.

Q52. If the co-factor is covalently or tightly and permanently bonded to enzyme then it will be called:

• A. Coenzyme
• B. Prosthetic group✓
• C. Activator
• D. Apoenzyme

Explanation: A prosthetic group is a non-protein molecule that is tightly and permanently bound to an enzyme. It is necessary for the enzyme's structure and function.

Q53. Granulocytes or white blood cells are produced in:

• A. Lymph nodes
• B. Red bone marrow✓
• C. Tonsils
• D. Spleen

Explanation: Option[a] Lymph nodes don’t have a role in production of WBC,they filter substances that travel through lymphatic fluid.Option [B] Bone marrow makes stem cells, which then produces RBC,WBC and plateletsOption[c] The main function of tonsils is fighting infection, they contain a lot of WBC but do not produce them.Option[d] Spleen controls the levels of blood cells including WBC,RBC and platelets, it removes old or damaged RBC whereas WBC are destroyed in the lymphatic system.

Q54. Which one of the following statements best describes the function of sinoatrial node?

• A. It sends out electrical impulses to atrial muscles causing both atria to contract✓
• B. It consists of small number of diffusely oriented cardiac fibres
• C. It sends out electrical impulses to ventricular muscles causing both ventricles to contract
• D. It is present at upper end of left atrium

Explanation: Option [A] Sinoatrial node also known as the pacemaker is responsible for initiating the heartbeat,it generates an electrical impulse that causes both the atria to contract at the same time.Option[b] No function of Sino atrial node mentionedOption[c] Sino atrial node does not send electrical impulse to ventricles,ventricles only contract after Atrioventricular node picks up the electrical impulse and it travels through median septum causing ventricles to contract (downwards to upwards)Option[d] Sino atrial node is present in the upper wall of right atrium

Q55. The flow of lymph in lymphatic vessels is maintained by:

• A. Heart, activity of smooth muscles and valves
• B. Activity of skeletal muscles, heart and breathing movements
• C. Breathing movements, activity of skeletal muscles and valves✓
• D. Exercise, breathing movements and heart

Explanation: Option[a] heart has no role in lymph flowOption[b] Heart has no role in lymphOption [C] All mentioned factors affect the flow of lymph in lymphatic vessels i.e deep breathing helps the flow of the lymph fluid through the body,movement of skeletal muscle increases the lymph flow and valves function to bias lymph flow back towards the heart.Option[d] Heart and exercise play no role in lymph flow

Q56. Metabolic waste from metabolism of nucleic acid is:

• A. Uric acid✓
• B. Creatine
• C. Urea
• D. Creatinine

Explanation: Option [A] Uric acid is the chemical created when the body breaks down substances called purines,nucleic acid contains purines adenine,GuanineOption[b] Creatine is found naturally in muscle cells,it helps muscles produce energy during heavy lifting or high intensity exerciseOption[c] Urea is produced due to oxidation of excess amino acids in liverOption[d] creatinine is the waste product made by muscles from the normal wear and tear on muscles of the body.

Q57. The central metabolic station and clearing house of a body is:

• A. Liver✓
• B. Kidney
• C. Nephron
• D. Glomerulus

Explanation: Option [A] Liver plays a central role in all metabolic processes in the body. Responsible for metabolism of fats,proteins and carbohydrates. It is also involved in detoxification [as it filters all of the blood and breaks down poisonous substances such as alcohol and drugsOption[b] Kidney is the main excretory organ and is involved in formation of urine to excrete out all the waste products out of the body via urineOption[c] Nephron is the functional unit of kidney involved in formation of urineOption[d] Glomerulus is a network of small blood vessels in each nephron enclosed in a sac called Bowman’s

Q58. Trypanosoma is a human parasite causing

• A. African sleeping sickness✓
• B. European sleeping sickness
• C. Indonesian sleeping sickness
• D. American sleeping sickness

Explanation: Option A is correct since Trypanosoma is a parasite that causes African sleeping sickness that is transmitted by the tsetse fly

Q59. Fungi store surplus food in the form of

• A. Cellulose
• B. Glycogen✓
• C. Starch
• D. Both B and C

Explanation: Option A is incorrect because Fungi do not store food in form of celluloseOption B is correct since Fungi store surplus food usually as lipid droplet or glycogen formOption C is incorrect because Fungi do not store food in form of starch .Plants store food in form of starchOption D is incorrect because Fungi do not store food in form of starch

Q60. Which of the following is exclusive character of mammals?

• A. Homeothermic
• B. Hair✓
• C. Poikliothermic
• D. Four chambered heart

Explanation: Option A is incorrect because Besides mammals many other classes are homeothermsOption B is correct sine Exclusives features of mammals includes hair on body and mammary glandsOption C is incorrect because Mammals are not poikilothermsOption D is incorrect because Birds and crocodile also have four chambered heart

Q61. Overactivity of sympathetic nervous system causes

• A. Disturbance of Vision
• B. Constipation
• C. Decrease in Blood Pressure
• D. Increase in Heart Rate✓

Explanation: The sympathetic nervous system responds to dangerous/stressful situations by pumping blood at a faster rate to the muscles.

Q62. Which structures respond when they are stimulated by impulse coming through the motor neuron?

• A. Receptors
• B. Responses
• C. Effectors✓
• D. Transduction

Explanation: After a stimulus is received, the central nervous responds by sending a response via a motor neuron which transports the signal to the effector, which carries out the action.

Q63. Respiratory centre is located in

• A. Cerebrum
• B. Cerebellum
• C. Medulla✓
• D. Hypothalamus

Explanation: The medulla is responsible for, among other things, the controlling of involuntary activities, such as heartbeat, respiration, etc.

Q64. Optimum pH value for the working of pancreatic lipase is:

• A. 4.50
• B. 7.60
• C. 2.00
• D. 9.00✓

Explanation: Optimum pH values for the catalytic activity of pepsin, sucrose, catalase and pancreatic lipase are 2.00, 4.50, 7.00 and 9.00, respectively.

Q65. The view that active site of an enzyme is flexible and when a substrate combines with it, cause changes in enzyme structure is known as:

• A. Lock & key model
• B. Induced fit model✓
• C. Sliding filament model
• D. Specificity model

Explanation: According to the lock and key model, the active site of an enzyme is a rigid structure. The sliding filament model explains muscle movement, while the specificity model means that every enzyme reacts with a specific substrate.

Q66. All coenzymes are derived from:

• A. Proteins
• B. Metal ions
• C. Carbohydrates
• D. Vitamins✓

Explanation: Coenzymes are small organic molecules that assist enzymes in catalyzing biochemical reactions. They are often derived from vitamins, which are essential organic compounds that the body requires in small amounts for various metabolic processes.

Q67. Reverse transcription is used to make DNA copies of:

• A. Host RNA
• B. Viral RNA✓
• C. Host DNA
• D. Viral DNA

Explanation: The retroviruses have a special enzyme called reverse transcriptase, which can convert a single-stranded RNA genome into double stranded viral DNA.

Q68. Which of the following bacteria have more lipids in their cell wall

• A. Gram positive bacteria have more lipids in their cell wall
• B. Gram negative bacteria have more lipids in their cell wall✓
• C. Lipids are absent in cell wall of both gram positive and negative bacteria
• D. Both have equal amount of lipids

Explanation: Gram-negative bacteria have a more complex cell wall structure compared to gram-positive bacteria. The outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria contains lipopolysaccharides (LPS), which are lipid-rich molecules. This presence of LPS contributes to a higher lipid content in the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria. In contrast, gram-positive bacteria have a simpler cell wall structure with a thicker layer of peptidoglycan and fewer lipids.

Q69. The muscles that control urine in bladder are known as:

• A. Striated muscles
• B. Smooth muscles
• C. Sphincter muscles✓
• D. Circular muscles

Explanation: Option[a] Striated muscles are either skeletal muscles or cardiac muscles not in the urinary bladder.Option[b] Smooth muscles are present throughout the body ,also exists throughout urinary system where it functions to help rid of toxins and maintain electrolyte balance but does not control the urine in bladderOption [C] Bladder has sphincter muscles,which is a smooth voluntary muscles and control the flow of urine out.Option[d] Circular muscles have a role in opening and closing of passages in the human body to regulate the flow of substances

Q70. The living cells of cartilage are called:

• A. Chrondrocytes✓
• B. Osteoblasts
• C. Ostecytes
• D. Osteoclasts

Explanation: Option [A] Chondrocytes are the cell responsible for cartilage formation cell,they are the only cells found in healthy cartilageOption[b] Osteoblasts are the bone cells primarily responsible for bone matrix proteins and mineral during early bone formationOption[c] osteocytes regulate local mineral deposition and chemistry at the bone Matrix levelOption[d] osteoclasts is a-specialised cell that absorbs and removes bone,allowing for the development of a new bone and mantainenance bone strength.(bone dissolving cells)

Q71. The disease which causes immobility and fusion of vertebral joints is:

• A. Osteomalacia (soft bones)
• B. Disc slip
• C. Arthritis
• D. Spondylosis✓

Explanation: Options [A] osteomalacia is a group of diseases in which bone resorption outpaces bone deposit[ it means there is more bone depletion than bone deposition].It is the softening of bones.Option [B] disc slip or herniated disc involves the rupture of annulus fibrosis followed by protrusion of the spongy nucleus pulposis.Option [C] arthritis is an inflammatory or degenerative disease that damage joints.Option [D] Spondylosis is the disease which causes immobility and fusion of joint. It is an age related condition in which the joint and cartilage lined disc are affected. So option [D] is right.

Q72. During muscle contraction:

• A. I-band shortens✓
• B. Myosin filaments shorten
• C. Actin filaments shorten
• D. Z-line disappears

Explanation: Option [A] During muscle contraction the following things happen:I band shortensZ lines come closerH zone disappearsHENCE option [A] is right.Option [B] is incorrect because myosin[thick] filaments do not shorten during contraction.Option [C] is incorrect because actin [thin] filaments do not shorten .Option [D] is incorrect because Z lines do not disappear but they just come closer together

Q73. Hormones are the organic compounds of varying structural complexity. Which of the following is not a function or property of these compounds?

• A. They initiate new biochemical reactions✓
• B. They are poured directly into blood
• C. They may be proteins
• D. They affect target cells

Explanation: Option [A] Hormones do not start a new biochemical reaction itself instead whenever a stimulus hormone is released in blood and reaches the target site to perform a corrective mechanism.Option[B] Hormones are directly released into blood and reach their target site via bloodOption[C] They can be proteins eg insulin,glucagonOption[D] Hormones affect only the target cells to perform a corrective mechanism eg glucagon only affects liver cells.

Q74. Reflexes and instincts type of behaviours respond to which combination/s?

• A. Biological rhythms, territorial, courtship and development
• B. The responses that do produce same result in different conditions
• C. Aggression, mating and altruism✓
• D. The responses that are predetermined like differentiation.

Explanation: A is incorrect because development is not a type of reflexes and instincts.B is incorrect because reflexes and instincts are extremely complex behaviours.C is correct since reflexes and instincts include biological rhythms,territorial behaviour, courtship, mating, aggression, social hierarchies and social organizations.D is incorrect because reflexes and instincts have no role in differentiation like processes.

Q75. A neurological condition characterised by involuntary tremors, diminished motor activity and rigidity is called

• A. Epilepsy
• B. Parkinson’s Disease✓
• C. Alzheimer’s Disease
• D. Cerebellar Tumours

Explanation: Parkinson’s Disease is characterized by shaking, stiffness and lack of balance and co-ordination, all of these fulfilling the requirements of the question.

Q76. A type of cell in human testes which produces testosterone is called:

• A. Interstitial Cells✓
• B. Germ Cells
• C. Sertoli Cells
• D. Spermatocytes

Explanation: In the testes, interstitial cells are present in the connective tissue surrounding the sperm producing tubules, and are respnsible for the production and secretion of testosterone.

Q77. Breakdown of endometrium during menstruation is due to

• A. Increase in Level of LH
• B. Decrease in Level of Progesterone✓
• C. Increase in Level of Progesteron
• D. Increase in Level of Oestrogen

Explanation: Explanation for this question will be added soon.

Q78. Oogonia are produced in the germ cells of:

• A. Both Uterus and Cervix
• B. Cervix
• C. Uterus
• D. Ovary✓

Explanation: Oogonia are produced by primordial germ cells during fetal development, in large numbers in the ovary.

Q79. Which of the following diseases can be prevented through vaccination?

• A. AIDS and Cancer
• B. Malaria and AIDS
• C. Typhoid and Cancer
• D. Measles and Mumps✓

Explanation: Measles and mumps, both can be prevented by a joint two-dose vaccine, i.e. the MMR vaccine.

Q80. Newly produced cells/individuals which are identical in each other are known as

• A. Genetically Modified
• B. Transgenic Animals
• C. Transgenic Bacteria
• D. Clones✓

Explanation: Cells/individuals which are genetically identical to each other are called clones.

Q81. _ is most abundant carbohydrate in nature.

• A. Waxes
• B. Glycerol
• C. Starch
• D. Cellulose✓

Explanation: Cellulose, a fibrous carbohydrate found in all plants, is the structural component of plant cell walls. Because the earth is covered with vegetation, cellulose is the most abundant of all carbohydrates, accounting for over 50% of all the carbon found in the vegetable kingdom.

Q82. Which of the following is a keto sugar:

• A. Glyceraldehyde
• B. Dihydroxy-acetone✓
• C. Ribose
• D. Glucose

Explanation: Dihydroxy-acetone is a keto sugar. It is a three-carbon sugar with a ketone functional group.

Q83. The cavity between body wall and alimentary canal is:

• A. Coelom✓
• B. Mesoderm
• C. Endoderm
• D. Mesoglea

Explanation: Coelom is a cavity between the body wall and alimentary canal which is lined by mesoderm.

Q84. The layer which forms the lining of digestive tract and glands of digestive system is:

• A. Ectoderm
• B. Mesoderm
• C. Endoderm✓
• D. Mesoglea

Explanation: The endoderm is the source of epithelial lining of the digestive tract along with pancreas and gall-bladder.

Q85. Which one of the following vitamins is produced by microflora of large intestine?

• A. Vitamin K✓
• B. Vitamin C
• C. Vitamin A
• D. Vitamin D

Explanation: Vitamin K is majorly synthesized by intestinal microflora. Vitamin K is produced by the microflora (bacteria) present in the large intestine of humans. These bacteria produce various forms of vitamin K, including vitamin K1 (phylloquinone) and vitamin K2 (menaquinone). Vitamin K plays a crucial role in blood clotting and bone metabolism.

Q86. _ is activated to_ by Enterokinase/enteropeptidase enzyme secreted by the lining of duodenum:

• A. Pepsinogen, Pepsin
• B. Pepsinogen, Trypsin
• C. Trypsinogen, Trypsin✓
• D. Chymotrypsinogen, Chymotrypsin

Explanation: Trypsinogen is activated to trypsin by the enzyme Enterokinase/Enteropeptidase, which is secreted by the lining of the duodenum. Trypsin is an important digestive enzyme involved in the breakdown of proteins in the small intestine. The activation of trypsinogen to trypsin is an essential step in the digestion of dietary proteins.

Q87. Plasma is the ionized gas mixture which consists of:

• A. Ions and electrons
• B. Electrons and neutral atoms
• C. Electrons, ions and neutral atoms✓
• D. Ions and neutral atoms

Explanation: A is incorrect as plasma is composed of ions,electrons and neutrals atoms.B is incorrect as plasma is composed of ions,electrons and neutrals atomsC is correct as plasma is composed of ions,electrons and neutrals atomsD is incorrect as plasma is composed of ions,electrons and neutrals atoms

Q88. In the structure of NaCl, each Na+ is surrounded by _ Cl- ions.

• A. Four
• B. Eight
• C. Five
• D. Six✓

Explanation: A is incorrect as 6 electrons are present around each Na+ in a NaCl structure.B is incorrect as 6 electrons are present around each Na+ in a NaCl structureC is incorrect as 6 electrons are present around each Na+ in a NaCl structureD is correct as 6 electrons are present around each Na+ in a NaCl structure.NaCl has a cubic crystal system and a face-centered cubic crystalline structure. NaCl has four cations and four anions in a face-centered cubic unit cell.

Q89. A spontaneous process is

• A. Unidirectional and irreversible
• B. Irreversible and a real process
• C. Unidirectional and a real process
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: A is incorrect because spontaneous process is also real processB is incorrect because spontaneous process is also unidirectionalC is incorrect because spontaneous process is also irreversible processD is correct because spontaneous process is a process which takes place on its own without any outside assistance. It is unidirectional, irreversible and a real process.

Q90. Which one is the highest power multiple?

• A. Giga
• B. Tera✓
• C. Mega
• D. Deca

Explanation: Giga=10^9Tera=10^12Mega=10^6Deca=10^10The largest power multiple here is tera.So option B is correct.

Q91. When ethanoic acid reacts with methylamine, an amide is formed. What is the structure of the amide formed?

• A. A
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D✓

Explanation: When ethanoic acid reacts with methylamine, it undergoes a condensation reaction to form an amide. The reaction can be represented as:CH3COOH + CH3NH2 → CH3CONHCH3 + H2OThe product formed is methyl ethanamide, which has the structure CH3-CO-NH-CH3. It is also commonly known as N-methyl acetamide. In the amide, the carbonyl group (C=O) of ethanoic acid reacts with the nitrogen atom of the methylamine, and a peptide bond is formed between them. Amides are important functional groups in biochemistry and are present in many biomolecules such as proteins and nucleic acids.

Q92. Organic compound containing both amino and carboxyl group is known as:

• A. Amino acid✓
• B. Fatty acid
• C. Saccharide
• D. Amide

Explanation: An amino acid is an organic molecule that is made up of a basic amino group (−NH2), an acidic carboxyl group (−COOH), and an organic R group (or side chain) that is unique to each amino acid.

Q93. Alanine is an aminoacid which showsneutral effect on litmus paper,the formula of alanine may be

• A. A✓
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: In a neutral amino acid, the number of basic groups (-NH2) is equal to the number of acidic groups (-COOH).

Q94. Which of the following structures is not an alpha amino acid?

• A. A
• B. B✓
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: An amino acid is a molecule containing both amine and carboxyl functional groups. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins. The α-Amino acid is the most important type. α-Amino acid consists of an amino, a carboxyl, an R group, and a hydrogen atom that attaches to the same a-carbon atom

Q95. The relative energies of 4s, 4p and 3d orbitals are in the order:

• A. 3d < 4p <4s
• B. 4s < 3d < 4p✓
• C. 4p < 4s < 3d
• D. 4p < 3d < 4s

Explanation: The Aufbau principle states that electrons fill lower-energy atomic orbitals before filling higher-energy ones (Aufbau is German for "building-up"). By following this rule, we can predict the electron configurations for atoms or ions. To find the energy of orbitals, we use the (n+l) principle where n= energy level, while l= orbital level. For 4s: n+l= 4 + 0 = 4For 3d: n+l= 3 + 2= 5For 4p: n+l = 4+ 1= 5 (but since the distance of 4p is greater than that of 3d, 3d gets filled first) Final order: 4s<3d<4p

Q96. A sample of Neon is found to exist as 20Ne, 21Ne, 22Ne. Mass spectrum of ‘Ne’ is as follows: What is the relative atomic mass (Ar value) of Neon?

• A. 20.18✓
• B. 20.28
• C. 20.10
• D. 20.22

Explanation: Relative atomic mass = Sum of product of isotopic masses and relative abundances/100 Relative atomic mass = [(20 × 90.92) + (21 × 0.26) + (22 × 8.82)] / 100 Relative atomic mass = 20.179 ≈ 20.18

Q97. Which one of the following noble gases are used for providing an inert atmosphere for welding?

• A. Helium✓
• B. Neon
• C. Argon
• D. Krypton

Explanation: One of the uses of He is to provide an inert atmosphere for welding purposes. It is a fact and should be memorised.

Q98. Which one of the following is the correct equation of 1st ionization of sulphuric acid?

• A. H2SO4(aq) + H2O(l) --> 2H+ + SO42-
• B. H2SO4(aq) + H2O(l) --> H+(aq) + HSO4-✓
• C. H2SO4(aq) + H2O(l) --> 2H+ + SO42-
• D. H2SO4(aq) + H2O(l) --> H3O+ + SO42-

Explanation: The 1st ionisation equation involves dissociation of 1 H+ ion from H2SO4, followed by second H+ dissociation in the second ionisation.

Q99. Which one of the following is the correct chemical reaction for Ammonia formationby Haber process?

• A. N2(g) + H2(g) ⇌ 2NH(g)
• B. 2N(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ NH3(g)
• C. 2N(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
• D. N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)✓

Explanation: Below is the true reaction of haber's process: N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) It is a fact and should be memorized.

Q100. If halogenoalkanes are mixed with an excess of ethanoic ammonia and heated under pressure, amine are formed. Which amine is formed in the following reaction?CH2CH3Br + NH3 Amine

• A. CH3―CH2―NH―CH2―CH3
• B. CH3―CH2―NH2✓
• C. CH3―CH2―CH2―NH2
• D. H2N―CH2―CH2―NH2

Explanation: With bromoethane and ammonia, ethyl ammonium bromide is formed as shownbelow

Q101. Which one of the following alcohol is indicated by formation of yellow crystals in theIodoform test?

• A. MethanoL
• B. Ethanol✓
• C. Butanol
• D. Propanol

Explanation: Ethanol is the only primary alcohol to give the triiodomethane (iodoform) reaction.If "R" is a hydrocarbon group, then you have secondary alcohol. Lots of secondaryalcohols give this reaction, but those that do all have a methyl group attached to thecarbon with the -OH group.All other alcohols do not have -OH group attached to carbon attached to a methylgroup

Q102. Sublimation is used to purify

• A. Ammonium sulphate
• B. Sodium chloride
• C. Benzoic acid✓
• D. Lead carbonate

Explanation: A is incorrect because ammonium sulphate is not purified by sublimationB is incorrect because sodium chloride is not purified by sublimationC is correct since sublimation is used to purified solids like ammonium chloride, iodine, naphthalene and benzoic acid etcD is incorrect because lead carbonate is not purified by sublimation

Q103. The purity of a substance can be identified by

• A. Sublimation
• B. Filtration
• C. Chromatography✓
• D. Solvent extraction

Explanation: A is incorrect because sublimation is used to purify solids not identificationB is incorrect because filtration is used to separate insoluble particles from liquidsC is correct since chromatography is useful in organic synthesis for separation, isolation and purification of the productsD is incorrect because solvent extraction is technique a solute can be separated from a solution by shaking the solution with a solvent in which the solute is more soluble and added solvent does not mix with the solution

Q104. Which one of the following mathematical expressions represents the Avogadro’s law?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D✓

Explanation: D is correct as Avogadros law states - Equal volume of all ideal gases at equal temperature contain equal number of moles

Q105. The root mean square velocity of gases is inversely proportional to the square root of their:

• A. Molar mass✓
• B. Temperature
• C. Pressure
• D. Volume

Explanation: A is correct as r.m.s velocity of gases is inversely proportional to the square root of their molar masses.B is incorrect as r.m.s velocity is directly proportional to square of temperatureC is incorrect as r.m.s velocity isnt dependent upon pressureD is incorrect as r.m.s velocity isnt dependent upon volume

Q106. The skeletal formula of dipeptide formed between aspartic acid and phenylalanine is given below: How many functional groups are present in its formula?

• A. 5✓
• B. 2
• C. 4
• D. 3

Explanation: Carboxylic acid (COOH), Amine (NH2), Amide (O=C-NH), ester (O=C-O-), phenyl (benzene ring).

Q107. In basic conditions, amino acid exists in which of the following forms?

• A. A
• B. B
• C. C✓
• D. D

Explanation: They exist in the form Zwitterions which means they contain basic -COO- and acidic -NH3+ group.

Q108. The following dipeptide is called:

• A. Glycyl glycine
• B. Glycyl alanine✓
• C. Alaninyl alanine
• D. Alaninyl glycine

Explanation: It is being formed by the removal of a water molecule when glycine is linked to alanine. It is a dipeptide formed from glycine and L-alanine residues.

Q109. The principal energy storage carbohydrate in animals is:

• A. Glucose
• B. Starch
• C. Protein
• D. Glycogen✓

Explanation: Glucose is the main source of fuel for our cells. When the body doesn't need to use glucose for energy, it stores it in the liver and muscles. This stored form of glucose is made up of many connected glucose molecules and is called glycogen.

Q110. Starch is a polymer of:

• A. Fructose
• B. d-D- Glucose (d=alpha)✓
• C. B-D Glucose
• D. Sucrose

Explanation: Starch is constituted by α-D-glucose units, which can be organized to form two distinct molecules, amylose and amylopectin. Use the image below to help recall:

Q111. Ethyl butyrate and butyl butanoate are esters with the flavor of:

• A. Pear
• B. Banana
• C. Pineapple✓
• D. Apple

Explanation: Ethyl butyrate and butyl butanoate are esters with the flavour of pineapple. It is a fact and should be memorized.

Q112. The formula of 2, 4, 6-tribromo phenol is

• A. A
• B. B✓
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: Carbons are numbered according to the placement of the -OH group. The carbon to which the OH group is attached is C1. The bromines must be attached to C2, C4 and C6 on the benzene going in a clockwise direction from C1.

Q113. Which one of the following groups is indicated when HCl is formed by reaction ofethanol with phosphorus pentachloride

• A. Amino group
• B. Hydroxyl group✓
• C. Halide group
• D. Hydride group

Explanation: When a -OH group(hydroxyl group) containing organic compound is reacted with with phosphorus pentachloride, it forms HCI an halogen by the reaction equation shown below: The reaction is represented as: CH3CH2OH + PCl5 → CH3CH2Cl + POCl3 + HCl Therefore, the correct answer is (B) Hydroxyl group, which is the functional group present in ethanol that is replaced by a chlorine atom during the reaction.

Q114. A student mixed ethyl alcohol with a small amount of sodium dichromate and added it to the hot solution of dilute sulphuric acid. A vigorous reaction took place. He distilled the product formed immediately. What was the product?

• A. Acetone
• B. Acetic acid
• C. Dimethyl ether
• D. Acetaldehyde✓

Explanation: Acetaldehyde is the product of the described reaction. The oxidation of ethanol with sodium dichromate and dilute sulfuric acid results in the formation of acetaldehyde as an intermediate product. Acetaldehyde is an aldehyde and is often further oxidized to acetic acid under more vigorous conditions or in the presence of excess oxidizing agents.

Q115. If we are given the mass of one substance, we can calculate volume of other substances and vice a versa with the help of balanced chemical equation. This is called

• A. Mass-mass relationship
• B. Mass-mole relationship
• C. Mole-volume relationship
• D. Mass-volume relationship✓

Explanation: A is incorrect because Mass-Mass relationship is used if mass of a substance is given and we have to calculate the mass of other substanceB is incorrect because Mass-Mole relationship is used if mass of a substance is given and we have to calculate the moles of other substanceC is incorrect because Mole-Volume relationship is used if moles of a substance are given and we have to calculate the volume of other substanceD is correct since Mass-volume relationship is used if we are given the mass of one substance, we can calculate the volume of other substances and vice versa with the help of a balanced chemical equation.

Q116. Which type of force is present in gasoline?

• A. Dipole-dipole forces
• B. Dipole-induced dipole forces
• C. London dispersion forces✓
• D. Hydrogen bonding

Explanation: A is incorrect because dipole-dipole forces only occur in polar molecules.B is incorrect as dipole-induced dipole forces are present between polar and non-polar molecules.C is correct as london dispersion forces occur between non polar molecules and gasoline is non polar.D is incorrect as hydrogen bonding only occurs between atoms with high electro-negativity.

Q117. Solubility of Ce2(SO4)3

• A. Increases with temperature
• B. Decreases with temperature
• C. Shows exceptional behavior✓
• D. Remains constant

Explanation: A is incorrect because the solubility of Ce2(SO4)3 does not increase with increase in temperatureB is incorrect because the solubility of Ce2(SO4)3 does increase but this behaviour is not constantC is correct because the solubility of Ce2(SO4)3 shows exceptional behaviour whose solubility decrease with increase in temperature and become constant from 40C onwardsD is incorrect because the solubility of Ce2(SO4)3 does not remains constant

Q118. The reaction between fats and caustic soda is called:

• A. Hydrogenolysis
• B. Fermentation
• C. Esterification
• D. Saponification✓

Explanation: The chemical reaction between any fat and sodium hydroxide is a saponification reaction

Q119. Macromolecules are described as large molecules built up from small repeating units called:

• A. Monomers✓
• B. Isomers
• C. Metamers
• D. Tautomers

Explanation: A monomer is a molecule that “can undergo polymerization thereby contributing constitutional units to the essential structure of a macromolecule

Q120. An organic compound has the empirical formula C3H3O if the molar mass of the compound is 110.15 g.mol-1. The molecular formula of this organic compound is: (A, of C=12, H=1.008and O=16)

• A. C6H6O2✓
• B. C3H3O
• C. C9H9O3
• D. C6H6O3

Explanation: Empirical formula mass= 55 Molecular mass= 110. Therefore, multiply the empirical formula by 2 to get C6H6O2

Q121. When 8 grams (4 moles) of H2 react with 2 moles of O2 , how many moles of water will be formed?

• A. 5
• B. 4✓
• C. 6
• D. 3

Explanation: The balanced chemical equation for the reaction between hydrogen gas and oxygen gas to form water is:2H2 + O2 → 2H2OFrom the equation, we can see that 2 moles of hydrogen gas react with 1 mole of oxygen gas to form 2 moles of water. Therefore, 4 moles of hydrogen gas will react with (1/2) x 4 = 2 moles of oxygen gas to form (2 x 4) = 8 moles of water.So, the answer is 8/2 = 4 moles of water.

Q122. The angle between unhybridized p-orbital and three sp2 hybrid orbitals of each carbon atom in ethene is

• A. 120°
• B. 90°✓
• C. 109.5°
• D. 180°

Explanation: 90: Option B is correct. In ethene (C2H4), each carbon atom is sp2 hybridized. The three sp2 hybrid orbitals are arranged in a trigonal planar geometry, with bond angles of 120 degrees between them. The unhybridized p-orbital is perpendicular to the plane formed by the sp2 hybrid orbitals. Here's a link to an image from LibreTexts that illustrates the arrangement of the sp2 hybrid orbitals and the unhybridized p-orbital in ethene.

Q123. In ‘H-F’ bond electronegativity difference is ‘1.9’. What is the type of this bond?

• A. Polar covalent bond✓
• B. Non-polar covalent bond
• C. Pi (π) bond
• D. Co-ordinate covalent bond

Explanation: Fluorine is the most electronegative element with an electronegativity of 4.0 on the Pauling scale, while hydrogen has an electronegativity of 2.1. Due to this significant difference in electronegativity, the electron pair in the H-F bond is pulled towards fluorine, creating a partial negative charge on fluorine and a partial positive charge on hydrogen. Thus creating a polar covalent bond.

Q124. Electronic configuration of Manganese (Mn) is

• A. A✓
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: The electronic configuration Mn is [Ar] 3d5 4s2. Option A is the only option that depicts this electronic configuration. It is a fact and should be memorised.

Q125. Primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols can be identified and distinguished by

• A. Lucas test✓
• B. Iodoform test
• C. Baeyer’s test
• D. Silver mirror test

Explanation: The Lucas test differentiates between primary, secondary, and tertiary alcohols. It works because secondary carbocations are more stable and form faster than primary carbocations, and tertiary carbocations are so stable that the reaction takes place almost immediately

Q126. The structural formula of the product of reaction of acetone with 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine is:

• A. A
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D✓

Explanation: The reaction of 2,4- dinitrophenylhydrazine (2,4-DNPH) and acetone in the presence of acid leads to the formation of acetone 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazone as shown in the equation below. 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine + acetone + acid → acetone 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazone + water

Q127. Which one of the following molecules has zero dipole moment?

• A. NH3
• B. CHCl3
• C. BF3✓
• D. H2O

Explanation: A is incorrect because NH3 molecule has dipole moment 1.49B is incorrect because CHCl3 molecule has dipole moment 1.01C is correct since BF3 molecule has dipole moment 0 because of its geometryD is incorrect because H2O molecule has dipole moment 1.85

Q128. The standard enthalpy of solution of NH4Cl is _ kJmol-1.

• A. +16.2✓
• B. -25.0
• C. +4.98
• D. +26.0

Explanation: A is correct since enthalpy of solution is +16.2kJmol-1B, C and D are incorrect because the given values of enthalpy are not correct.

Q129. The Kc has following units for the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) ⇋ 2HI (g)

• A. mol3dm-6
• B. moldm-3
• C. mol-3dm6
• D. No unit✓

Explanation: A, B and C are incorrect since the given units aren't correct according to the equationD is correct since In equation both sides moles are equal so Kc has no unit.

Q130. The number of molecules in 22.4 dm3 of H2 gas at 0 °C and 1 atm are

• A. 60.2 x 10^23
• B. 6.02 x 1022
• C. 6.02 x 1025
• D. 6.02 x 1023✓

Explanation: This is Avogrado's number of molecules, 6.02×10^23

Q131. Correct order of boiling points of the given liquids is:

• A. H2O > HF > HCl > NH3
• B. HF > H2O > HCl > NH3
• C. H2O > HF > NH3 > HCl✓
• D. HF > H2O > NH3 > HCl

Explanation: H2O has a greater boiling point than HF because H2O can form 4 hydrogen bonds while HF has 2 hydrogen bonds and to break all the hydrogen bonds more energy is needed by H2O than HF. Due to the strong force of intermolecular hydrogen bonding. Due to the high difference in the electronegativity of hydrogen and fluorine as compared to that of hydrogen and nitrogen, more amount of energy is required to break the hydrogen-fluorine bond. Because of the high electronegativity of nitrogen than chlorine, the bond between N−H is stronger than a bond between H−Cl. Therefore the boiling point of NH3 is more than HCl.

Q132. With the increase in the value of Principal Quantum Number ‘n’, the shape of the s-orbitals remains the same although their sizes

• A. Decrease
• B. Increase✓
• C. Remain the same
• D. May or may not remain the same

Explanation: For a given atom, the s orbitals also become higher in energy as n increases because of their increased distance from the nucleus.

Q133. ‘∆H’ will be given a negative sign in

• A. Exothermic reactions✓
• B. Decomposition reactions
• C. Dissociation reaction
• D. Endothermic reactions

Explanation: A system that releases heat to the surroundings, an exothermic reaction, has a negative ΔH by convention because the enthalpy of the products is lower than the enthalpy of the reactants of the system.

Q134. The percentage of carbon in different types of iron products is in the order of

• A. Cast Iron > Wrought Iron > Steel
• B. Wrought Iron > Steel > Cast Iron
• C. Cast Iron > Steel > Wrought Iron✓
• D. Cast Iron < Steel > Wrought Iron

Explanation: Wrought iron is an iron alloy with a very low carbon content (less than 0.08%). Typically there is less than 0.40% carbon in most steels. In contrast to that of cast iron (2.1% to 4%)

Q135. The pH of acid rain is

• A. 7
• B. Between 5 and 7
• C. Below 5✓
• D. Between 7 and 14

Explanation: Acid rain has a pH of below 5. It is a fact and should be memorized.

Q136. Which one of the following products is obtained when sulphur trioxide is absorbed inconcentrated sulphuric acid?

• A. Oleum✓
• B. Aqua Regia
• C. Hydrogen sulphide
• D. Sulphate ion

Explanation: The sulphur trioxide is first dissolved in concentrated sulphuric acid: The product is known as fuming sulphuric acid or oleum.

Q137. The inter-ionic distance in a crystal lattice of KCl is

• A. 314 pm✓
• B. 181 pm
• C. 95 pm
• D. 300 pm

Explanation: A is correct since the interionic distance of crystal lattice of KCl is 314pmB is incorrect because the interionic distance of crystal lattice of KCl is not 181pmC is incorrect because the interionic distance of crystal lattice of KCl is not 95pmD is incorrect because the interionic distance of crystal lattice of KCl is not 300pm

Q138. The number of bonds in nitrogen molecule is

• A. One σ and two π✓
• B. One σ and one π
• C. Three σ only
• D. Two σ and one π

Explanation: A is correct since nitrogen molecule has three bonds one σ and two π.B is incorrect because nitrogen molecule has two π bondsC is incorrect because nitrogen molecule also contain π bondsD is incorrect because nitrogen molecule has only one σ bond

Q139. Which one of the following pair of compounds is cis and trans isomers of eachother?

• A. A✓
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: Isomers are those compounds that have diff structures but the same molecular formula, which is the case in A only, they form cis- trans isomers. (having equal no. of carbon and hydrogen atoms)

Q140. The force which can do no work on the body on which it acts:

• A. Frictional force
• B. Elastic force
• C. Gravitattional force
• D. Centripetal force✓

Explanation: So, option D is the correct answer. The centripetal force can do no work on the body on which it acts as the centripetal force is the force that keeps an object moving in a circular path. It always acts perpendicular to the displacement of the object, which means it does no work on the object. The centripetal force only changes the direction of the object's velocity, not its magnitude.

Q141. The expression for centripetal force is given by:

• A. mrω2✓
• B. m2v2/r2
• C. m2v2/r
• D. mv2/r2

Explanation: The expression for centripetal force is Fc = mv2/r or Fc = mrω2

Q142. A bus and a car, moving at the same speed, are brought to rest by applying the same retarding force then:

• A. bus will come to rest in a shorter distance
• B. car will come to rest in a shorter distance✓
• C. both will come to rest in the same distance
• D. none of the above

Explanation: The distance they move will depend on their deceleration, which in turn would depend on the frictional force exerted by their respective brakes. If both were to experience the same frictional force 'F', then as per F=ma it is evident that the car having the lesser mass will decelerate faster ( greater magnitude of deceleration) and will therefore come to a halt sooner. Conceptually this is due to the effect of inertia as the bus has a greater mass of two vehicles.

Q143. By burning 1 g of coal, the energy produced is 2 kcal. Then for 1 kWh, the quantity of coal required will be nearly:

• A. 9 kg
• B. 4/5 kg
• C. 3/7 kg✓
• D. 3/14 kg

Explanation: This is the following solution:

Q144. A stone dropped from the roof of a building takes 4 s to reach the ground. The height of the building is:

• A. 9.8 m
• B. 19.6 m
• C. 39.2 m
• D. 78.4 m✓

Explanation: Alternatively, we can also use the 2nd equation of motion: s = ut + 1/2at2 = (0)(4) + (1/2)(9.8)(4)(4) = 78.4m So, the height of the building is 78.4 m.

Q145. The oscillating object overshoots the rest position due to:

• A. Restoring force
• B. Inertia✓
• C. Gravitational potential energy
• D. Elastic potential energy

Explanation: To get oscillations, a body is pulled away from its resting or equilibrium position and then released. The body oscillates due to a restoring force. Under the action of this restoring force, the body accelerates and overshoots the rest position due to inertia.

Q146. In case of harmonic oscillator total energy remains

• A. variable
• B. infinity
• C. constant✓
• D. zero

Explanation: During the oscillations, the total energy is constant and equal to the sum of the potential energy and the kinetic energy of the system, ETotal=12kx2+12mv2=12kA2. Hence total energy of the particle performing SHM is conserved.

Q147. The angular measurement is known as _ measurement

• A. parameter
• B. area
• C. circumference✓
• D. all of these

Explanation: As θ= Angular displacement or measurement Explanation for this question will be added soon.As θ= Angular displacement or measurement S= arc length or circumference r= radius of circle Since θ= S/r Hence angular displacement is related to circumference or arc length as rhey are directly related.

Q148. A car is moving in a circular track of radius 20m at a constant speed of 20m/sec. Find the centripetal acceleration?

• A. 20 m/s2✓
• B. 40 m/s2
• C. 30 m/s2
• D. 10 m/s2

Explanation: The formula for centripetal acceleration =v2/r, hence, 202/20=20m/s2

Q149. When the length of simple pendulum is doubled, the ratio of its new time period to old time period is:

• A. 3√2
• B. 1√2
• C. 2√2
• D. √2✓

Explanation: Using this formula, we see that doubling length results in multiplying time period with √2.

Q150. For projectile motion, in the absence of air resistance:

• A. Horizontal acceleration is zero✓
• B. Vertical acceleration is zero
• C. Horizontal force is constant
• D. Vertical speed is constant

Explanation: Air resistance acts on horizontal component, mainly. In the absence of air resistance, there will be no horizontal acceleration. Vertical acceleration is due to gravity, hence options B and D are wrong. In the absence of air resistance, no horizontal force will be applied and thus, option C is wrong.

Q151. Arshad is driving down 7th street, he drives 150m in 18s.Assume he does not speed up or slow down, what is his speed:

• A. 0.38m/s
• B. 126m/s
• C. 8.33m/s✓
• D. 58.33m/s

Explanation: We need to calculate the constant speed, the formula for it is given as: speed= distance/time = 150/18 = 8.33m/s Hence the right answer is option C.

Q152. Work done will be zero if angle between force and displacement is:

• A. 0°
• B. 60°
• C. 270°✓
• D. 360°

Explanation: The formula for work done is displacement multiplied by the force in the direction of the displacement thus we incorporate the angle between the force and the displacement given the directions of the two vectors don’t align. The formula transforms to ‘Displacement times Force Cos (X)’ where X is the angle between the force and the displacement. If the force is perpendicular to the displacement, it won’t have any influence on the displacement making the work done zero because cos 90 or cos 270 equals zero.

Q153. When an ideal gas of constant mass is heated in a container of fixed volume, what is the reason for the increase in pressure of the gas?

• A. The number of molecules per unit volume increases
• B. The molecules occupy greater volume of the container
• C. The average force per impact at the container wall increases✓
• D. The molecules collide with each other with greater force

Explanation: The number of molecules per unit volume cannot increase because as specified by the question statement, the mass is constant. Moreover, molecules can only occupy the volume of the container. Since the volume of the container is fixed, they can't occupy a greater volume. Molecules do collide with each other with greater force but that is not the reason for the increase in the pressure of the gas. Molecules of gases are contiually colliding with each other and with the walls of the container. When a molecule collides with the wall, it exerts a small force on the wall. The pressure exerted by the gas is due to the sum of all these collision forces with the wall. As heat is supplied, molecules gain greater Kinetic Energy and collide with the wall harder and faster.

Q154. Some ice, at its melting point, is added to m kg of water at the initial temperature of 290K. The ice melts completely and the final temperature of the water is 273K. If c is the specific heat capacity of the water and L is the latent heat of fusion of ice, what is the minimum mass of ice that is required?

• A. 17mc/L✓
• B. L/17mc
• C. 17m/Lc
• D. 290m/Lc

Explanation: Refer to the working below:

Q155. In simple harmonic motion, acceleration will be maximum, when object is at:

• A. Maximum displacement from the mean position✓
• B. Center position
• C. Half of the maximum displacement from mean position
• D. Mean position

Explanation: When displacement is maximum, acceleration will be maximum. The displacement and acceleration are related by the equation, a= -w2x, where 'a' (acceleration) and 'x' (displacement) are propotional.

Q156. Object A has a charge of 15 mC, and object B has a charge of 10 mC. Which statement is true about the electric forces on the objects?

• A. FAB = -3 FBA
• B. FAB = - FBA✓
• C. 3 FAB = - FBA
• D. -3 FAB = 2 FBA

Explanation: .

Q157. Three resistors each having value 'R' are connected as shown in figure. What is the equivalent resistance between 'X' and 'Y'?

• A. 3R✓
• B. R
• C. R/3
• D. R3

Explanation: The resistors are connected in a series so the final resistance between x and y would be the sum of all resistances, R+R+R=3R

Q158. The diagram shows a small magnet hanging on a thread near the end of a solenoid carrying a steady current ‘I’. What happens to the magnet as the iron core is inserted into the solenoid?

• A. It moves towards solenoid and rotates through 180˚
• B. It moves towards the solenoid✓
• C. It moves away from solenoid
• D. It moves away from solenoid and rotates through 180˚

Explanation: According to the right-hand grip rule, a north pole is induced at the end of the solenoid which faces the south pole of the magnet. Since opposite poles attract, the magnet will move towards the solenoid.

Q159. The speed of sound through a gas is measured as 340 m/s at pressure P1 and temperature T1. What will be the speed of sound if the pressure of a gas is doubled but the temperature is kept constant?

• A. 342 m/s
• B. 340 m/s✓
• C. 170 m/s
• D. 680 m/s

Explanation: According to laplace equation v=√(γP/p), the pressure and velocity are directly related however if the pressure is doubled then density would also double naturally, so the speed of sound would remain the same.

Q160. The formula for electric field strength is ‘E = F/Q’, where E is electric field strength and F is force and Q is charge. Which one of the following options gives the correct base units for electric field strength?

• A. kgms-3A-1✓
• B. kgs-2A-3
• C. kg2m-2s-3A
• D. ms-1A-3

Explanation: Force-mass x acceleration-kg x ms-2. Q=current(1) x time(t)=IT=A.s E=F/Q-kg ms-2/As . E=kgms-3A-1 As it is a numerical, it can have only one possible answer.

Q161. If electrons of charge ‘e’, with rest mass ‘m’, are accelerated through a potential difference ‘V’ and strike a metal target, then velocity of electrons is:

• A. Ve/m
• B. √(Ve/m)
• C. √(Ve/)2m
• D. √(2Ve/m)✓

Explanation: √(2Ve/m): This option suggests that the velocity of electrons is the square root of twice the potential difference (2V) divided by the rest mass (m). This option introduces a factor of 2 in the numerator, which is incorrect based on the equation for velocity.Based on the correct equation, the velocity of electrons accelerated through a potential difference (V) can be calculated using the formula:velocity = √(2eV/m)Therefore, the correct answer is option d) √(2Ve/m).Please note that 'e' represents the charge of an electron, 'm' represents the rest mass of an electron, and 'V' represents the potential diffe√(2Ve/m): This option suggests that the velocity of electrons is the square root of twice the potential difference (2V) divided by the rest mass (m). This option introduces a factor of 2 in the numerator, which is incorrect based on the equation for velocity.Based on the correct equation, the velocity of electrons accelerated through a potential difference (V) can be calculated using the formula:velocity = √(2eV/m)Therefore, the correct answer is option d) √(2Ve/m).Please note that 'e' represents the charge of an electron, 'm' represents the rest mass of an electron, and 'V' represents the potential difference.

Q162. If a resistor having resistance ‘R’ is cut into three equal parts, then theequivalent of parallel combination is:

• A. 6/R
• B. 3/R
• C. . R/9✓
• D. R/3

Explanation: Since wire with resistance R is cut in 3 equal parts therefore each part will have resistance R/3. Using: 1 𝑅 𝑇 = 1 𝑅 1 + 1 𝑅 2 +... 1 𝑅 𝑛 When we input R/3 as R1 , R2 and R3 we get the answer as RT = R/9. The original resistor is cut into three equal parts, so each part has a resistance of R/3.Now, we can calculate the equivalent resistance of the three parts in parallel:1/Req = 1/(R/3) + 1/(R/3) + 1/(R/3) = 3/R + 3/R + 3/R = 9/RTaking the reciprocal of both sides:Req = R/9

Q163. If ‘A’ is fundamental dimension of ampere then the dimension of magnetic field strength is:

• A. [MT2A-2]
• B. [MT-²2AL²]✓
• C. [LMT2A-2]
• D. [MLT2A-2]

Explanation: 𝐹 = 𝐵𝐼𝐿𝑆𝑖𝑛θ ⇒ 𝐵 = 𝐹/𝐼𝐿𝑆𝑖𝑛θ Using dimensional analysis, 𝐵 = 𝑘𝑔.𝑚.𝑠 −2 𝐴×𝑚 Simplifying, we get the answer Dimension of magnetic field strength is: MT-2AL2

Q164. For a certain organ pipe, three successive resonance frequencies are observed at 425, 595, and 765 Hz. The speed of the sound in air is 340 m/s. The pipe is:

• A. Closed pipe of length 1 m✓
• B. Closed pipe of length 2 m
• C. Open pipe of length 1 m
• D. Open pipe of length 2 m

Explanation: To find out which organ pipe is used, first we will take the ratio of 3 observed harmonics: 425:595:765 5x 85 : 7x 85 : 9x 85 Since each successive harmonic is an odd number;the organ pipe is most likely an closed one and 85Hz is common for all so it is fundamental frequency or f=425/5 = 85Hz f=595/7 =85Hz f=765/9= 85Hz Now: For fundamental frequency: L =v/4f = 340/85x4 = 1m answer!

Q165. A negatively charged particle initially at rest is placed in an electric field that varies from point to point. There are no other fields. Then:

• A. The particle moves along the electric line of force passing through it.
• B. The particle moves opposite to the electric line of force passing through it.
• C. The direction of acceleration of the particle is tangential to the electric line of force at every instant.✓
• D. The direction of acceleration of the particle is normal to the electric line of force at every instant.

Explanation: As a general rule in electrostatics, electric field lines point in the direction of decreasing electric potential. imagine a stationary positive charge at the origin. We know that for positive charges, the electric field lines point outwards.Now you try to bring another positive charge near to the stationary one at origin. As you go closer, they both will repel and make it difficult to get closer. Difficulty to get closer = more work to be done Work done = Charge*potential difference This implies,as you get closer: You go against electric field It gets more difficult due to repulsion Hence more work is done Thus potential difference increases This means as you go against the electric field, the potential increases and if you go in the direction of Electric field, the potential decreases.so If a negative charge is initially at rest in an electric field, it will tend to move opposite to the electric field( F =qxE) where, F is the force vector, q is the charge, and E is the electric field vector). Therefore, a negative charge naturally moves in the direction of increasing potential. A charge in a pure electric field will follow the tangent of an electric field line. Therefore, the direction of acceleration of the particle is tangential to the electric line of force at every instant. The charged particle can move along the electric line of force; if it is at rest and initial velocity of the particle makes a certain angle with the electric field,Then it cannot move along the electric line of force.

Q166. The wave in which crest and trough superimpose each other is ?

• A. Sound wave
• B. Light wave
• C. Stationary wave✓
• D. All of these

Explanation: Stationary waves, also known as standing waves, are formed by the combination of two waves with the same frequency and amplitude, moving in opposite directions. When these waves superimpose at some points, the energy is added. For instance, if a crest is superimposed by a crest, or a trough is superimposed by a trough, an antinode is observed. Alternatively, at some points, the energies may be canceled out/ For instance, a crest can be superimposed by a trough or vice versa, forming a node.

Q167. In a full-wave rectification, the number of diodes used are:

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4✓

Explanation: The full-wave rectifier circuit consists of 4 diodes arranged in a tetrahedral connection. When we have the upper side of the AC supply as positive, the current flows through D1 to the load and returns through D2 at the temporary negative terminal of the AC supply. When the bottom side of the AC supply is positive, due to the constant change in polarity, the current, conventionally, flows through D3 to the load and returns to the supply by passing through D4. It reaches the supply at the now negative terminal of the AC supply which is the upper side of the supply.

Q168. The number of diodes in bridge rectifier is

• A. 4✓
• B. 3
• C. 2
• D. 5

Explanation: It is a fact that a bridge rectifier has 4 diodes. It is also called a full wave rectifier.

Q169. The wavelength of the electromagnetic wave having frequency of 3 kHz will be?

• A. 120 km
• B. 100 km✓
• C. 80 km
• D. 140 km

Explanation: λ = v / f Inputting speed of light or 3 x 108 m/s as v and 3 x 103 Hz as f gives us 1 x 105 m or 100 km.

Q170. In a practical transformer mutual induction between primary and secondary coils takes place. In such transformer what can be deduced about the power.

• A. Power output = Power input
• B. Power output > Power input
• C. Power output ≥ Power input
• D. Power output < Power input✓

Explanation: The output power in a transformer is always less than the input power because of the different losses in a transformer. The losses may be Iron loss or core loss, hysteresis loss, eddy current loss, copper loss etc.

Q171. Which one of the following is not electromagnetic in nature.

• A. X-rays
• B. Gamma rays
• C. Cathode rays✓
• D. Infrared rays

Explanation: Cathode ray is made up of electrons, so it is not an electromagnetic wave. They are deflected neither by the electric field nor by the magnetic field.

Q172. Which of the following has zero average value in a plane electromagnetic wave:

• A. kinetic energy
• B. magnetic field
• C. electric field
• D. both (b) and (c)✓

Explanation: In an electromagnetic wave, the average value of the electric field or magnetic field is zero, because electromagnetic waves are sinusoids and the average of a sinusoid over 1 period is zero.

Q173. Which of the following statements about electromagnetic waves is/are correct? (1) X-rays in vacuum travel faster than light waves in vacuum. (2) The energy of X-ray photon is greater than that of a light photon (3) Light can be polarised but X-ray cannot.

• A. 1 and 2
• B. 2 and 3
• C. 1, 2 and 3
• D. 2 only✓

Explanation: Since X-ray is an electromagnetic wave they travel with same speed of light in the vacuum that is 3x106 m/s

Q174. Which radiation passes through black body?

• A. Alpha
• B. Gamma✓
• C. Beta
• D. White

Explanation: Option B is correct since gamma radiation passes through the black body (fact).Option A is incorrect since alpha radiations die before they can penetrate the black body.Option C is incorrect since beta rays are not absorbed by the black body Option D is incorrect since the black body does not emit light at all frequencies equally, it follows Planck's law.

Q175. If the number of turns of a solenoid circular coil is doubled, but the current in the coil and radius of the coil remains the same, then what will be the magnetic flux density produced by the coil?

• A. Magnetic flux density will be halved
• B. Magnetic flux density increases by different amount at different points
• C. Magnetic flux density remains unchanged
• D. Magnetic flux density will be doubled✓

Explanation: According to formula B=µ0 nI, if n is doubled then magnetic flux density (B) would also be doubled

Q176. If ‘m’ is the mass, ‘c’ is the velocity of light and x = mc2, then dimensions of ‘x’ will be:

• A. [LT-1]
• B. [ML2T-2]✓
• C. [MLT-1]
• D. [MLT-2]

Explanation: The equation x = mc² represents the relationship between mass and energy, where x is the energy equivalent of a mass m, and c is the speed of light.To determine the dimensions of x, we need to consider the dimensions of each variable in the equation. The dimensions of mass are [M], the dimensions of the speed of light are [LT-1].Using the rules of dimensional analysis, we can find the dimensions of x by substituting the dimensions of m and c into the equation and simplifying:x = mc²= [M][LT-1]²= [M][L2T-2]Therefore, the dimensions of x are [ML2T-2], which is option B.

Q177. Which one of the following is I-V curve of a junction diode?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B✓
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: The primary function of a semiconductor diode is rectification of AC to DC. When a diode is forward biased ; the higher potential is connected to its Anode, it will pass current. When the diode is reverse biased ; the higher potential is connected to its Cathode, the current is blocked.Then a PN junction needs a bias voltage of a certain polarity and amplitude for current to flow. This bias voltage also controls the resistance of the junction and therefore the flow of current through it.This can further be explained by the diagram below

Q178. Which of the following is the proper way to study the sinusoidal waveform of voltage?

• A. Voltage is connected to ‘Y’ input and time base is switched on✓
• B. Voltage is connected to ‘X’ input and time base is switched off
• C. Voltage is connected to ‘Y’ input and time base is switched off
• D. Voltage is connected to ‘X’ input and time base is switched on

Explanation: If an AC voltage is applied across the Y-plates when the timebase is on then the sinusoidally varying voltage makes the spot move up and down around its rest position as it moves across the screen and you see a sine wave graph.

Q179. What is the output of the truth table?

• A. A
• B. A AND C
• C. B
• D. NO CORRECT OPTION✓

Explanation: A.B means that A AND B imply that 0 AND 0 should give 1, 1 and 0 should give 1 and 1 and 1 should give 0.

Q180. A radioactive isotope 'W' decays to 'X' which decays to 'Y' and 'Y' decays to 'Z' as represented by the figure below What is the change in the atomic number from 'W' to 'Z'?

• A. Increase by 3
• B. Increase by 5
• C. Decrease by 3✓
• D. Decrease by 5

Explanation: The explanation for this question will be added soon!

Q181. The range Of the projectile depends upon the velocity of the projection and the angle of the projection i.e 45. For a fixed velocity, when the angle of projection is larger than 45. Which of the following is correct?

• A. The height attained by the projectile will be more but the range is less✓
• B. Both the height and the range attained by the projectile will be more.
• C. The height attained by the projectile will be less but the range is more.
• D. Both the height and the range attained by the projectile will be less.

Explanation: In the formula for range, it is maximum when the value of sin(2θ) is maximum. This value occurs when 2θ is equal to 90 therefore θ = 45. Beyond θ = 45, the Range decreases. The height increases beyond θ = 45 because it is calculated using Sin(θ).

Q182. The image received of absorbed x rays is

• A. inverted
• B. real
• C. any of a or b✓
• D. virtual

Explanation: The image received of absorbed X-rays can be either inverted or real, depending on the specific setup and configuration of the imaging system. In some cases, the X-ray image may appear inverted compared to the actual object being imaged. In other cases, the image may be a real representation of the object. Therefore, option C, "any of a or b," is the correct answer.

Q183. Wavelength of X-rays is the order of:

• A. 10-6 m
• B. 10-10 m✓
• C. 10-13 m
• D. 100 m

Explanation: X-ray wavelength is in range of 10−11 m to 10−8 m

Q184. Laser beam can be used to generate three-dimensional image of object in a process called:

• A. Computed technology
• B. Computed tomography
• C. Holography✓
• D. Computerized axial tomography

Explanation: Holography is a technique based on wave interference to record and form three-dimensional images. Lasers offer a practical way to produce sharp holographic images because of their monochromatic and coherent light for pronounced interference patterns.

Q185. Which of the following can be used to produce population inversion for the emission of Laser?

• A. Optical pumping✓
• B. Optical fibre
• C. Optical instrument
• D. Optical polarization

Explanation: Optical pumping is the process of photon emission at an element, since amplification of photons is needed to produce a laser, photon pumping is done to cause excitation of electrons to help with it.

Q186. Which set of the prefixes gives values in increasing order?

• A. Pico, Mega, Kilo, Tera
• B. Pico, Micro, Mega, Giga✓
• C. Tera, Pico, Micro, Kilo
• D. Giga, Kilo, Milli, Nano

Explanation: Pico, Micro, Mega, Giga are the prefixes in increasing order as highlighted below

Q187. Which feature of the following graph represents Young’s Modulus?

• A. Area under graph
• B. Gradient of the graph
• C. Reciprocal of the gradient✓
• D. Product of gradient and area of the curve.

Explanation: Young's modulus of elasticity (E), also known as the elastic modulus, is the ratio between stress and strain: Es/e, as shown below:

Q188. Three 6 Ω are connected as shown in the diagram What is the resistance between points ‘A’ and ‘B’

• A. 6 Ω
• B. 16 Ω
• C. 4 Ω
• D. 2 Ω✓

Explanation: If looked into closely, these resistors are actually parallel to each other.The total resistance is equal to:1/R=1/R1+1/R2+1/R31/R=⅙+⅙+⅙=3/61/R=½R=2 ohms.

Q189. Due to current in a straight conductor the difference between magnetic field lines

• A. Increases away from conductor✓
• B. Decreases away from conductor
• C. Increases towards conductor
• D. Decreases and then increases towards conductor

Explanation: The difference between the magnetic field lines increases as shown below:

Q190. In population inversion (Ruby Laser) atoms can reside in the excited state for:

• A. 10-11
• B. 10-8✓
• C. 10-3
• D. 10+3

Explanation: The electrons in ruby lasers reside in the excited state for 10 -8 seconds. The electrons then release radiationless energy to achieve the metastable state and reside there for 10 -3 seconds. This allows us to achieve population inversion. In a ruby laser, the atoms can reside in the excited state for a relatively long duration. The typical time for which the atoms can remain in the excited state in a ruby laser is on the order of microseconds (10^-8 seconds).

Q191. The de Broglie wavelength of a particle of mass 1 gram and velocity 100 ms-1 is:

• A. 6.63 x 10-35
• B. 6.63 x 10-34
• C. 6.63 x 10-33✓
• D. 6.63 x 10-32

Explanation: .de Broglie reasoned that matter also can show Wave-particle duality just like light, since light can behave both as a wave (it can be diffracted and it has a wavelength) and as a particle (it contains packets of energy hν). And also reasoned that matter would follow the same equation for wavelength as light namely, λ = h / p Where p is the linear momentum, as shown by Einstein. P=mv The de Broglie wavelength formula: λ=h/mv h=Plank’s constant = 6.63x10-34 m=1g=10-3kg ( 1/1000) v=100m/s λ=h/mv λ=6.63x10-34/ 10-3x100 = 6.63x10-33m

Q192. What is the number of spectral series in the hydrogen spectrum?

• A. Four
• B. Three
• C. Five✓
• D. One

Explanation: The five spectral series are Lyman, Balmer, Paschen, Brackett and Pfund. In the Lyman series, the electron falls back to n = 1. The spectral lines obtained are in the UV region of the electromagnetic spectrum. In the Balmer series, the electron falls back to n = 2 and the spectral lines obtained are in the visible region of the EM spectrum. Paschen, Brackett, and Pfund spectral lines are obtained in the Infrared region of the EM spectrum.

Q193. In Double Slit experiment, the fringe spacing of the diffracted rays increases when:

• A. the wavelength of the diffracted rays increases✓
• B. the distance between the slits increases
• C. the distance from mid points of the slits to the central of the fringe on the screen increases
• D. the distance between the screen and the slits decreases

Explanation: Increasing wavelength of light source or distance between slit and screen would increase the fringe separation. Decreasing slit separation increases the fringe spacing.

Q194. 8, 10, 14, 18, _ , 34, 50 , 66:

• A. 24
• B. 25
• C. 26✓
• D. 27

Explanation: The increasing order is +2,+4, +4, +8, +16, +16 8 + 2= 10 10 + 4= 14 14 + 4 = 8 18 + 8= 26

Q195. What letter comes next in the following series? B D G K P

• A. C
• B. E
• C. B
• D. V✓
• E. Q

Explanation: B c D D e f G G h i j K K l m n o P P q r s t u V

Q196. From the following which word does not belong to the others:

• A. Index
• B. Book✓
• C. Glossary
• D. Chapter

Explanation: An index, glossary, and chapter are all parts of a book. Option A does not belong because the book is the whole, not a part.

Q197. Statement:Should coal engines be replaced by electric engines in trains? Arguments:(I) Yes. Coal engines cause a lot of pollution.(II) Yes. Electric engines are good on performance, easy to operate, and low on maintenance.(III) No. Pakistan does not produce enough electricity to fulfill its domestic needs also.

• A. All arguments are strong
• B. Only arguments I and II are strong✓
• C. Only arguments II and III are strong
• D. Only arguments I and III are strong

Explanation: Coal engines are responsible for creating a huge amount of pollution in contrary to, electric engines. Also their performance, operation, and maintenance is easy as compared to electric engines. Arguments I and II seem to be true but argument III does not provide a convincing reason and hence does not hold strong.

Q198. Statement: Should children be prevented completely from watching television? Arguments: (I) No. We get vital information regarding education through television. (II) Yes. It hampers the study of children. (Ill) Yes. Young children are misguided by certain programmes featuring violence.

• A. Only I, II and Ill are strong
• B. Only I is strong
• C. Only I and III are strong✓
• D. Only I and II are strong

Explanation: Both arguments (I) and (III) are strong.

Q199. Statements: No cities are countries. No countries are villages. Conclusions: (I) Some countries are cities. (II) No villages are the city.

• A. Only conclusion (I) follows
• B. Only conclusion (II) follows
• C. Both conclusions follow
• D. Both of the conclusions do not follow✓

Explanation: The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows, Conclusion: (i)Some countries are city - It is not possible,hence false. (ii)No villages are city - It is possible but not definite,hence false. Hence,neither conclusion (i) nor conclusion (ii) follows.