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Punjab Physics 2016 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

All 17 MCQs from Punjab Physics 2016, solved with the correct answer highlighted and a full explanation for every question. This is a free MDCAT Punjab / UHS past paper — no signup, no ads. Practise it interactively in timed mode, drill more with free MDCAT MCQs, or browse all Punjab / UHS papers.

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Q1. The open loop gain of amplifier is of the order of:

  • A. 105
  • B. 106
  • C. 104
  • D. 103

Explanation: This means a gain of 100,000. This level of gain is high and is commonly found in many general-purpose operational amplifiers used in various electronic circuits.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. This corresponds to a gain of 1,000,000. This is an extremely high gain and would be found in very specific applications where ultra-high amplification is required, such as in certain scientific instruments or specialized communication systems.
  • C. This represents a gain of 10,000. This level of gain is moderate and is commonly found in many audio amplifiers and other general-purpose amplifiers.
  • D. This indicates a gain of 1,000. This level of gain is moderate and is commonly found in many audio amplifiers and other general-purpose amplifiers.

Q2. We can find from de Broglie formula:

  • A. Wavelength
  • B. Amplitude of wave
  • C. Speed of wave
  • D. Frequency of wave

Explanation: The de Broglie formula directly calculates the wavelength of a particle based on its momentum. This wavelength is associated with the particle's wave-like behavior, as described by wave-particle duality in quantum mechanics.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. The de Broglie formula does not provide information about the amplitude of the wave associated with the particle. The amplitude of a wave is a measure of its intensity or magnitude, which is not directly related to the de Broglie wavelength.
  • C. The de Broglie formula does not provide information about the speed of the wave associated with the particle. The speed of the wave would depend on the medium through which the particle is moving, but the de Broglie formula only relates the particle's momentum to its wavelength.
  • D. The de Broglie formula does not directly provide information about the frequency of the wave associated with the particle. The frequency of the wave would depend on the speed of the wave and the medium, which are not explicitly included in the de Broglie formula.

Q3. Energy of black body radiation depends upon:

  • A. Nature of surface of body
  • B. Nature of material of body
  • C. Shape and size of body
  • D. Temperature of the body

Explanation: The energy of black body radiation is directly proportional to the temperature of the body. As the temperature increases, the amount of radiation emitted by the body increases, and the peak wavelength of the radiation shifts to shorter wavelengths (higher frequencies), as described by Wien's displacement law.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. The energy of black body radiation does not depend on the nature of the surface of the body, as long as it is a perfect black body (i.e., an idealized object that absorbs all radiation incident on it).
  • B. The energy of black body radiation does not depend on the specific material of the body, as long as it behaves as a black body.
  • C. The energy of black body radiation does not depend on the shape or size of the body, but rather on its temperature.

Q4. The following gas was identified in the sun using spectroscopy:

  • A. Hydrogen
  • B. Helium
  • C. Carbon
  • D. Nitrogen

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q5. When γ-rays are emitted, the nuclear mass:

  • A. Decreases by 4 units
  • B. Does not change
  • C. Increases by 2 units
  • D. Increases by 1 unit

Explanation: When γ-rays are emitted, the nuclear mass remains the same because γ-rays are electromagnetic radiation, not particles with mass.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. This option is incorrect because the emission of γ-rays does not involve any change in the number of protons or neutrons, so the nuclear mass does not decrease.
  • C. This option is incorrect because the emission of γ-rays does not result in the addition of any particles to the nucleus, so the nuclear mass does not increase.
  • D. This option is incorrect because the emission of γ-rays does not result in the addition of any particles to the nucleus, so the nuclear mass does not increase.

Q6. Which of the followings are not hadrons?

  • A. Muons
  • B. Mesons
  • C. Protons
  • D. Neutrons

Explanation: Muons are not hadrons. They are a type of lepton, which are particles that do not experience the strong nuclear force. Hadrons, on the other hand, are particles that are affected by the strong nuclear force, such as protons, neutrons, and mesons.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. Mesons are hadrons. They are composed of a quark and an antiquark and are affected by the strong nuclear force.
  • C. Protons are hadrons. They are composed of three quarks and are affected by the strong nuclear force.
  • D. Neutrons are hadrons. Like protons, they are composed of three quarks and are affected by the strong nuclear force.

Q7. Selenium is a:

  • A. Conductor
  • B. Photoconductor
  • C. Insulator
  • D. Semiconductor

Explanation: Semiconductors are materials that have electrical conductivity between that of conductors and insulators. Selenium falls into this category and is used in various electronic devices.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Conductors are materials that allow the flow of electrical current easily. Selenium is not typically considered a good conductor; it is a semiconductor.
  • C. Insulators are materials that do not conduct electricity. While selenium is not a good conductor, it is not a perfect insulator either. It lies in the middle, making it a semiconductor.
  • D. Semiconductors are materials that have electrical conductivity between that of conductors and insulators. Selenium doesn't fall into this category.

Q8. Capacitance of a capacitor does not depend upon:

  • A. Distance between plates
  • B. Area of plates
  • C. Electric field between plates
  • D. Medium between plates

Explanation: The capacitance of a capacitor does not depend on the electric field between the plates. The electric field is determined by the voltage applied to the capacitor and the distance between the plates, but it does not affect the capacitance itself.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. The capacitance of a capacitor is directly proportional to the inverse of the distance between the plates. This means that as the distance between the plates decreases, the capacitance increases.
  • B. The capacitance of a capacitor is directly proportional to the area of the plates. This means that as the area of the plates increases, the capacitance also increases.
  • D. The capacitance of a capacitor depends on the dielectric constant of the medium between the plates. The dielectric constant is a measure of how easily the medium can be polarized by an electric field. A higher dielectric constant leads to a higher capacitance.

Q9. Kirchhoff's voltage rule is a way of stating conservation of:

  • A. Energy
  • B. Momentum
  • C. Charge
  • D. Angular momentum

Explanation: Kirchhoff's voltage rule, also known as Kirchhoff's second law or the loop rule, is a statement of the conservation of energy in electrical circuits. It states that the total voltage around any closed loop in a circuit is equal to the sum of the voltage drops within that loop.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. Kirchhoff's voltage rule is not related to momentum. Momentum is a property of moving objects and is conserved in systems where no external forces are acting.
  • C. While Kirchhoff's voltage rule involves the movement of charge (electric current) in a circuit, it is not a statement of the conservation of charge. The conservation of charge is a fundamental principle in physics stating that the total electric charge in an isolated system remains constant over time.
  • D. Kirchhoff's voltage rule is not related to angular momentum. Angular momentum is a property of rotating objects and is conserved in systems where no external torques are acting.

Q10. If F1 and F2 are forces acting on α — Particle and electron respectively, when moving perpendicular to the magnetic field, then:

  • A. F1=F2
  • B. F1> F2
  • C. F1< F2
  • D. F1=4F2

Explanation: The force experienced by a charged particle moving perpendicular to a magnetic field is given by the formula F = qvB, where q is the charge of the particle, v is its velocity, and B is the magnetic field strength. Since the charge of an α-particle (2e) is greater than the charge of an electron (e), the force experienced by the α-particle (F₁) would be greater than the force experienced by the electron (F₂).

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. This option is incorrect because the forces experienced by charged particles moving perpendicular to a magnetic field depend on the charge of the particle and its velocity, but not on the mass of the particle. Therefore, the forces on the α-particle and the electron would not be equal.
  • C. This option is incorrect because the forces experienced by charged particles moving perpendicular to a magnetic field depend on the charge of the particle and its velocity, but not on the mass of the particle. Therefore, the forces on the α-particle and the electron would not be equal. The forces on the α-particle and the electron would not be equal.
  • D. This option is incorrect because the charge of an α-particle is 2e, not 4e. The forces on the α-particle and the electron would not be in a 1:4 ratio.

Q11. Which of the following is not accurate measuring device?

  • A. Digital multimeter
  • B. CRO
  • C. Potentiometer
  • D. Voltmeter

Explanation: A potentiometer is not typically considered a primary measuring device. It is used to manually adjust voltage levels in a circuit or as a variable resistor. While it can be used for measurement purposes in some configurations, it is not as precise or commonly used as the other options listed.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. A digital multimeter is an accurate measuring device used to measure voltage, current, and resistance. It is commonly used in electrical and electronic testing.,
  • B. A CRO is an accurate measuring device used to display and analyze the waveform of electrical signals. It is widely used in electronic testing and design.
  • D. A voltmeter is an accurate measuring device used to measure voltage in a circuit. It is commonly used in electrical and electronic testing.

Q12. Self inductance does not depend upon:

  • A. Number of turns of the coil
  • B. Area of cross-section of the core
  • C. Nature of material of the core
  • D. Current though inductor

Explanation: The self-inductance of a coil does not depend on the area of cross-section of the core. The self-inductance is primarily determined by the geometry of the coil (number of turns, length of the coil, and diameter of the coil) and the permeability of the core material.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. The self-inductance of a coil is directly proportional to the square of the number of turns of the coil. This means that as the number of turns increases, the self-inductance also increases.
  • C. The self-inductance of a coil depends on the nature of the material of the core. The permeability of the core material affects the magnetic field produced by the current flowing through the coil, which in turn affects the self-inductance.
  • D. The self-inductance of a coil is directly proportional to the current flowing through the coil. This means that as the current increases, the self-inductance also increases.

Q13. Efficiency of transformer is not affected by:

  • A. Input voltage
  • B. Core of transformer
  • C. Insulation between sheets
  • D. Resistance of coils

Explanation: The efficiency of a transformer is not directly affected by the input voltage. Efficiency is determined by the ratio of output power to input power, and variations in input voltage do not affect this ratio as long as the transformer is operating within its designed voltage range.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. The core of a transformer affects its efficiency by influencing the magnetic flux and losses in the transformer. A good core material with low hysteresis and eddy current losses will contribute to higher efficiency.
  • C. Insulation between the sheets of the transformer's core helps to reduce eddy current losses and improve efficiency. Better insulation can lead to higher efficiency.
  • D. The resistance of the coils affects the efficiency of a transformer by contributing to copper losses. Lower resistance coils result in lower losses and higher efficiency.

Q14. In RLC series circuit at resonance the phase difference between capacitor and inductor reactances is:

  • A. 90°
  • B. 270°
  • C.
  • D. 180°

Explanation: At resonance, the reactance of the capacitor cancels out the reactance of the inductor, leaving only the resistance in the circuit. This results in a purely resistive impedance, and the phase difference between the capacitor and inductor voltages is 0°.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. At resonance in an RLC series circuit, the reactance of the capacitor (Xc) is equal in magnitude but opposite in sign to the reactance of the inductor (Xl). This results in a total impedance (Z) that is purely resistive. However, the phase difference between the capacitor and inductor voltages is not 90° at resonance.
  • B. This phase difference is not applicable in this context. A 270° phase difference would imply a leading phase for one component and a lagging phase for the other, which is not the case at resonance in an RLC series circuit.
  • D. This phase difference is not applicable at resonance. A 180° phase difference would imply that the capacitor and inductor voltages are completely out of phase, which is not the case at resonance in an RLC series circuit.

Q15. Electrons vibrating 94,000 times each second will produce radio waves of frequency?

  • A. 94 Hz
  • B. 940 Hz
  • C. 940 KHz
  • D. 94 KHz

Explanation: The frequency of the vibrating electrons is 94,000 times per second, which is 94,000 Hz or 94 kHz. Radio waves typically range from about 3 kHz to 300 GHz, so a frequency of 94 kHz falls within the radio wave range.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. As per the explanation, this is not the correct option.
  • B. As per the explanation, this is not the correct option.
  • C. As per the explanation, this is not the correct option.

Q16. Which of the followings does not undergo plastic deformation?

  • A. Copper
  • B. Wrought iron
  • C. Lead
  • D. Glass

Explanation: Lead does not undergo plastic deformation to a significant extent. It is a soft metal with low tensile strength and is more likely to undergo elastic deformation or fracture under stress rather than plastic deformation.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Copper can undergo plastic deformation. It is a ductile metal, meaning it can be hammered, stretched, or drawn into thin wires without breaking.
  • B. Wrought iron can undergo plastic deformation. It is a relatively soft and malleable form of iron that can be forged and shaped when heated.
  • D. Glass does not undergo plastic deformation. It is a brittle material that tends to fracture rather than deform when subjected to stress.

Q17. The gain of transistor amplifier depends upon?

  • A. Resistance connected with collector
  • B. Resistance connected at base
  • C. Input voltage
  • D. Output voltage

Explanation: The gain of a transistor amplifier is significantly influenced by the resistance connected at the base. The base resistor sets the base current, which in turn controls the collector current and the amplification factor of the transistor.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. The gain of a transistor amplifier is influenced by the resistance connected with the collector. In common emitter configuration, a higher collector resistance can lead to higher voltage gain due to the higher output impedance.
  • C. The gain of a transistor amplifier is indirectly influenced by the input voltage. The input voltage affects the base current, which then influences the collector current and gain. However, the gain itself is more directly related to the base current and resistance.
  • D. The gain of a transistor amplifier is indirectly influenced by the output voltage. The output voltage is a result of the input signal being amplified and is influenced by the gain of the amplifier, but it is not a determining factor in the gain calculation.

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