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Punjab Physics 2017 Paper 3 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

All 17 MCQs from Punjab Physics 2017 Paper 3, solved with the correct answer highlighted and a full explanation for every question. This is a free MDCAT Punjab / UHS past paper — no signup, no ads. Practise it interactively in timed mode, drill more with free MDCAT MCQs, or browse all Punjab / UHS papers.

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Q1. The force experienced by a unit +ve charge placed at a point in an electric field is called as:

  • A. Coulomb's force
  • B. Magnetic force
  • C. Loreutz’s force
  • D. Electric field intensity

Explanation: The electric field intensity, often denoted by E, is the force experienced by a unit positive charge placed at a point in an electric field. It represents the strength of the electric field at that point and is directed in the direction of the field lines. Mathematically, it is expressed as E = F / q, where E is the electric field intensity, F is the force experienced by the charge, and q is the magnitude of the charge.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Coulomb's force, also known as electrostatic force, is the force of attraction or repulsion between two charged objects. It is given by Coulomb's law, which states that the magnitude of the force is directly proportional to the product of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. Mathematically, it is expressed as F = k * (q1 * q2) / r2, where F is the force, q1 and q2 are the charges, r is the distance between the charges, and k is the Coulomb constant.
  • B. Magnetic force is the force experienced by a moving charged particle in a magnetic field. It is perpendicular to both the velocity of the particle and the magnetic field and is given by the formula F = q * v * B * sin(theta), where F is the force, q is the charge of the particle, v is its velocity, B is the magnetic field strength, and theta is the angle between the velocity and the magnetic field.
  • C. The Lorentz force is the combination of electric and magnetic forces on a point charge due to electromagnetic fields. It is given by the formula F = q * (E + v * B), where F is the total force, q is the charge of the particle, E is the electric field, v is the velocity of the particle, and B is the magnetic field. The Lorentz force accounts for both the electric and magnetic effects on a moving charge.

Q2. The unit of RC is:

  • A. Volt
  • B. Second
  • C. Coulomb
  • D. Ampere

Explanation: In the context of RC circuits, RC represents the time constant, which is the product of the resistance (R) and the capacitance (C). The unit of resistance is ohms (Ω), and the unit of capacitance is farads (F), so the unit of RC is ohm-farads (Ω·F). However, the time constant RC itself is in seconds (s), as it represents the time taken for the voltage across the capacitor in an RC circuit to reach approximately 63.2% of its final value during charging or discharging.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. The volt (V) is the unit of electric potential difference, which is the energy required to move a unit charge between two points in an electric field. It is not the unit of RC.
  • C. The coulomb (C) is the unit of electric charge, representing the amount of charge transported by a current of one ampere in one second. It is not the unit of RC.
  • D. The ampere (A) is the unit of electric current, representing the rate of flow of electric charge. It is not the unit of RC.

Q3. Kirchhoff's first rule is manifestation of law of conservation of:

  • A. Mass
  • B. Energy
  • C. Momentum
  • D. Charge

Explanation: Kirchhoff's first rule, or Kirchhoff's current law, is a manifestation of the law of conservation of electric charge. This law states that the total electric charge in an isolated system remains constant over time, meaning that charge is neither created nor destroyed. Kirchhoff's first rule specifically applies to electrical circuits, where it states that the algebraic sum of currents entering and exiting a junction (or node) in a circuit is zero, based on the conservation of charge.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Kirchhoff's first rule, or Kirchhoff's current law, does not relate to the conservation of mass. It deals with the conservation of electric charge in an electrical circuit. Mass conservation, on the other hand, refers to the principle that the mass of a closed system remains constant over time, as long as no mass is added or removed from the system.
  • B. Kirchhoff's first rule is not directly related to the conservation of energy. While energy conservation is a fundamental principle stating that the total energy of an isolated system remains constant, Kirchhoff's first rule focuses on the conservation of electric charge in a circuit, not energy.
  • C. Kirchhoff's first rule is also not related to the conservation of momentum. Momentum conservation states that the total momentum of an isolated system remains constant if no external forces act on it. Kirchhoff's first rule, on the other hand, deals with the conservation of electric charge in an electrical circuit, not momentum.

Q4. Electrical energy is measured in:

  • A. Kilowatt
  • B. Horse Power
  • C. Kilowatt hour
  • D. Watt

Explanation: A kilowatt hour (kWh) is a unit of energy. It is equal to the amount of energy used by a one-kilowatt electrical device in one hour. Kilowatt hours are commonly used to measure electrical energy consumption in homes and businesses.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. A kilowatt (kW) is a unit of power, which is the rate at which energy is transferred or converted. It measures how much energy is used per unit of time. While kilowatts are used to measure the power of electrical devices, they do not directly measure electrical energy.
  • B. Horsepower (HP) is another unit of power, primarily used to measure the power of engines and motors. Like kilowatts, horsepower is a measure of the rate at which energy is transferred or converted, but it is not used to measure electrical energy.
  • D. A watt (W) is also a unit of power, equal to one joule per second. It is commonly used to measure the power of small electrical devices. While watts measure power, they do not directly measure electrical energy.

Q5. A charge particle moving in magnetic field experiences a force given by:

  • A. A
  • B. B
  • C. C
  • D. D

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q6. The SI unit of induced emf is:

  • A. Ohm
  • B. Tesla
  • C. Volt
  • D. Henry

Explanation: The volt (V) is the SI unit of electromotive force (emf) or electric potential difference. It measures the amount of work required to move a unit charge between two points in an electric circuit. Induced emf is also measured in volts.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. The ohm (Ω) is the SI unit of electrical resistance, measuring how much a material or device opposes the flow of electric current. It is not the unit of induced electromotive force (emf).
  • B. The tesla (T) is the SI unit of magnetic flux density, measuring the strength of a magnetic field. While magnetic fields can induce emf, the tesla is not the unit of induced emf itself.
  • D. The henry (H) is the SI unit of inductance, measuring the ability of a coil to produce an induced emf in response to a change in current. While inductance is related to induced emf, the henry is not the unit of induced emf itself.

Q7. If we make the magnetic field stronger, the value of induced current is:

  • A. Decreased
  • B. Increased
  • C. Vanished
  • D. Constant

Explanation: An increase in the magnetic field strength leads to a higher rate of change of magnetic flux through a conductor. This increased rate of change of magnetic flux induces a greater emf in the conductor, resulting in a larger induced current. Therefore, the induced current is increased when the magnetic field strength is increased.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. When the magnetic field strength is increased, the rate of change of magnetic flux through a conductor also increases. According to Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction, this increase in the rate of change of magnetic flux induces a greater electromotive force (emf) in the conductor. This greater emf tends to produce a larger current in the conductor, so the induced current is not decreased.
  • C. If the magnetic field becomes extremely strong and saturates the conductor, or if the conductor is completely removed from the magnetic field, the induced emf and current would indeed vanish. However, this is not the typical outcome of increasing the magnetic field strength within the limits of the conductor's capacity to carry current.
  • D. If the magnetic field strength remains constant, there would be no change in the rate of change of magnetic flux through the conductor. In such a case, the induced emf and current would remain constant according to Faraday's law. However, in the scenario described where the magnetic field strength is increased, the induced current would increase rather than remain constant.

Q8. Power dissipation in a pure inductive circuit is:

  • A. Infinite
  • B. Zero
  • C. Maximum
  • D. Minimum

Explanation: In a pure inductive circuit, the power dissipation is indeed zero. This is because in an ideal inductor, the voltage and current are out of phase by 90 degrees. This means that the power dissipated as heat, which is given by P = I2 * R, where I is the current and R is the resistance, is zero since R is zero in an ideal inductor.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. The power dissipation in a pure inductive circuit is not infinite. In an ideal inductor, which has no resistance, there is no power dissipated as heat. The energy is stored in the magnetic field and returned to the circuit when the current changes.
  • C. The power dissipation in a pure inductive circuit is not maximum. As mentioned earlier, in an ideal inductor, there is no resistance to dissipate power as heat. Therefore, the power dissipation is actually zero, not maximum.
  • D. The power dissipation in a pure inductive circuit is also not minimum. In an ideal inductor, the power dissipation is zero because there is no resistance in the circuit to dissipate power as heat. There is no minimum power dissipation; it is simply zero.

Q9. A device through which direct current cannot flow is:

  • A. Inductor
  • B. Capacitor
  • C. Thermistor
  • D. Resistor

Explanation: A capacitor is a passive electronic component that stores energy in an electric field. It consists of two conductive plates separated by an insulating material (dielectric). A capacitor blocks DC due to its ability to store charge. When a DC voltage is applied, the capacitor charges up and blocks any further flow of DC, behaving like an open circuit to DC. However, capacitors allow alternating current (AC) to pass through, as they charge and discharge with the changing polarity of the AC signal.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. An inductor is a passive electronic component that stores energy in a magnetic field when current flows through it. In an ideal inductor with no resistance, direct current (DC) can flow through it without any impedance. However, in real-world scenarios, inductors do have some resistance, which can limit the flow of DC to some extent.
  • C. A thermistor is a type of resistor whose resistance changes significantly with temperature. It is used for temperature sensing and compensation in circuits. A thermistor can conduct both DC and AC, depending on its resistance at a given temperature. It does not inherently block DC.
  • D. A resistor is a passive electronic component that limits or controls the flow of electric current in a circuit. It dissipates electrical energy in the form of heat. A resistor allows both DC and AC to flow through it, providing a fixed amount of resistance to the current. It does not block DC.

Q10. The magnetism produced by electrons within an atom is due to their:

  • A. Spin motion
  • B. Orbital motion
  • C. Both spin and orbital motion
  • D. Vibratory motion

Explanation: The total magnetic moment of an atom is the vector sum of the magnetic moments due to the spin and orbital motion of its electrons. Therefore, the magnetism produced by electrons within an atom is due to both their spin and orbital motion.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Electrons have a property called "spin," which is an intrinsic form of angular momentum. Spin is a fundamental property of electrons and is one of the reasons why electrons exhibit magnetic behavior. However, the magnetic moment due to spin alone is relatively small compared to the total magnetic moment of an atom.
  • B. Electrons in an atom also exhibit orbital motion around the nucleus. This orbital motion of electrons creates a magnetic moment due to the moving charge, similar to a current loop. The magnetic moment due to the orbital motion of electrons is typically larger than that due to their spin
  • D. Electrons do not exhibit vibratory motion in the context of their magnetism. The magnetism of electrons is primarily due to their spin and orbital motion, as explained above.

Q11. Conversion of AC into DC is called as:

  • A. Rectification
  • B. Amplification
  • C. Oscillation
  • D. Quantization

Explanation: Rectification is the process of converting alternating current (AC) into direct current (DC). This is typically done using a device called a rectifier, which allows current to flow in only one direction.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. Amplification is the process of increasing the magnitude of a signal, such as voltage, current, or power. It is not directly related to converting AC into DC.
  • C. Oscillation refers to the repetitive variation, typically in voltage or current, around a central value. It is not the process of converting AC into DC.
  • D. Quantization is the process of approximating a continuous range of values by a finite set of discrete values. It is commonly associated with digital signals and is not directly related to converting AC into DC.

Q12. The potential barrier for silicon is:

  • A. 0.9 V
  • B. 0.8 V
  • C. 0.7 V
  • D. 0.3 V

Explanation: The potential barrier for silicon is often considered to be around 0.7 V. This value represents the energy barrier that must be overcome for a charge carrier (such as an electron or hole) to move across the junction between a p-type and an n-type semiconductor.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. This value is not typically associated with the potential barrier for silicon. In semiconductor physics, the term "0.9 V" is often related to the forward voltage drop of a silicon diode, not the potential barrier.
  • B. Similar to option A, this value is not commonly associated with the potential barrier for silicon in semiconductor physics.
  • D. This value is not typically associated with the potential barrier for silicon. In semiconductor physics, the potential barrier for silicon is commonly considered to be around 0.7 V.

Q13. Aging process of the human body is slowed down by motion at very high speed is predicted by?

  • A. Newton
  • B. Einstein
  • C. Faraday
  • D. Coulomb

Explanation: Albert Einstein's theory of special relativity predicts that time dilation occurs as objects move at speeds approaching the speed of light. This means that time appears to pass more slowly for an object in motion relative to an observer at rest. This prediction has been experimentally confirmed and is known as the "twin paradox," where one twin ages more slowly than the other due to differences in their motion.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. While Newton made significant contributions to physics, including the laws of motion and universal gravitation, he did not predict or address the effects of motion at very high speeds on the aging process of the human body.
  • C. Michael Faraday was a pioneering scientist in the field of electromagnetism and made significant contributions to the understanding of electric and magnetic fields. However, he did not predict or address the effects of motion at very high speeds on the aging process.
  • D. Charles-Augustin de Coulomb was a physicist known for Coulomb's law, which describes the electrostatic force between charged objects. Similar to Faraday, Coulomb did not predict or address the effects of high-speed motion on the aging process.

Q14. Due to the annihilation of electron and positron, the number of photons produced is:

  • A. 1
  • B. 2
  • C. 3
  • D. 4

Explanation: The annihilation of an electron and a positron produces two photons. This is because the total energy and momentum of the initial particles must be conserved in the process. The two photons produced move in opposite directions to conserve momentum, and each carries energy equivalent to the rest mass energy of the electron or positron.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. According to the process of electron-positron annihilation, when an electron and a positron collide, they annihilate each other and their mass is converted into energy in the form of photons. Since both the electron and positron have a rest mass energy equivalent to each other (and opposite in sign), the total energy available for photon production is twice the rest mass energy of either particle. This energy is divided between two photons, each carrying half of the total energy, according to the principle of conservation of energy and momentum.
  • C. The annihilation of an electron and a positron produces two photons, not three. Conservation of energy and momentum requires that the total energy of the photons is equal to the total energy of the electron and positron before annihilation, which is twice the rest mass energy of either particle.
  • D. The annihilation of an electron and a positron produces two photons, not four. Conservation of energy and momentum dictates that the total energy available for photon production is equal to the total energy of the initial particles, which is twice the rest mass energy of either particle, divided between two photons.

Q15. Helium Neon laser discharge tube contains Neon?

  • A. 15%
  • B. 18%
  • C. 25%
  • D. 85%

Explanation: This is the correct percentage of neon in a helium-neon laser discharge tube. The majority of the gas in the tube is helium, which is used as the primary gas to create the discharge. Neon is added in a smaller percentage (around 18%) to help stabilize the discharge and enhance the laser's efficiency and output.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. Neon is added in a smaller percentage (around 15%) to help stabilize the discharge and enhance the laser's efficiency and output.
  • C. This option suggests that the helium-neon laser discharge tube contains 25% neon. While the percentage of neon can vary depending on the specific design and application, 25% is generally higher than the typical percentage of neon in a helium-neon laser discharge tube. The actual percentage is closer to 18%.
  • D. This option suggests that the helium-neon laser discharge tube contains 85% neon. However, this is not correct. The percentage of neon in a helium-neon laser discharge tube is much lower, typically around 18%. Helium is the primary gas used in the tube, with neon added in a smaller percentage to improve the laser's performance.

Q16. The number of protons in any atom are equal to the number of:

  • A. Electrons
  • B. Neutrons
  • C. Positrons
  • D. Mesons

Explanation: In an atom, the number of protons is equal to the number of electrons. This equality ensures that the atom is electrically neutral, as the positive charge of the protons is balanced by the negative charge of the electrons.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. Neutrons are neutral particles found in the nucleus of an atom. While the number of neutrons can vary for different isotopes of the same element, the number of neutrons is not necessarily equal to the number of protons in an atom.
  • C. Positrons are positively charged antiparticles of electrons. They are not typically found in stable atoms and do not play a role in determining the number of protons in an atom.
  • D. Mesons are a type of subatomic particle composed of one quark and one antiquark. They are not typically found in stable atoms and do not play a role in determining the number of protons in an atom.

Q17. Geiger Muller counter can be used to detect:

  • A. Charge
  • B. Mass
  • C. Charge/mass
  • D. Nuclear radiations

Explanation: A Geiger-Muller counter is a type of radiation detector commonly used to detect and measure ionizing radiation, including alpha and beta particles, as well as gamma rays. It operates by detecting the ionization produced by the radiation in a gas-filled tube, which triggers a measurable electrical pulse.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. While a Geiger-Muller counter detects ionizing radiation, including charged particles such as alpha and beta particles, it does not directly measure the charge of particles. Instead, it detects the ionization produced by the radiation in a gas-filled tube.
  • B. A Geiger-Muller counter does not detect mass. It is used to detect and measure ionizing radiation, primarily alpha and beta particles, as well as gamma rays.
  • C. A Geiger-Muller counter does not directly measure the charge-to-mass ratio of particles. It is used to detect the presence and intensity of ionizing radiation but does not provide information about the charge-to-mass ratio of the particles causing the radiation.

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