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Punjab Physics 2019 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

All 17 MCQs from Punjab Physics 2019, solved with the correct answer highlighted and a full explanation for every question. This is a free MDCAT Punjab / UHS past paper — no signup, no ads. Practise it interactively in timed mode, drill more with free MDCAT MCQs, or browse all Punjab / UHS papers.

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Q1. Colour of light emitted by LED depends upon:

  • A. Its forward biasing
  • B. Its reverse biasing
  • C. Type of material
  • D. Forward current

Explanation: The color of light emitted by an LED depends on the type of material it is made of. Each material emits light of a specific wavelength when electrons recombine with electron holes.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. Forward biasing affects the current flow in an LED but does not directly determine the color of the light emitted. It is the material composition that primarily determines the color.
  • B. Reverse biasing typically blocks current flow in an LED and does not affect the color of the light emitted.
  • D. Forward current affects the brightness of an LED but does not directly determine the color of the light emitted. The color is primarily determined by the material.

Q2. At low temperature, a body emits radiations of:

  • A. Shorter wavelength
  • B. Longer wavelength
  • C. High frequency
  • D. High frequency & shorter wavelength

Explanation: At low temperatures, a body emits radiation according to Planck's law of black-body radiation. This law states that the wavelength of maximum intensity of emitted radiation is inversely proportional to the temperature of the body.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. At low temperatures, the peak wavelength of emitted radiation is longer, not shorter. This is because the intensity of radiation shifts towards longer wavelengths as the temperature decreases.
  • C. High frequency is associated with shorter wavelengths. At low temperatures, the frequency of emitted radiation is lower, corresponding to longer wavelengths.
  • D. This option is not correct. At low temperatures, the frequency is lower and the wavelength is longer.

Q3. The shortest wavelength in Lyman series is equal to:

  • A. A
  • B. B
  • C. C
  • D. D

Explanation: The Lyman series in hydrogen spectral lines represents transitions of an electron from higher energy levels (n>1) to the first energy level (n=1). The shortest wavelength in the Lyman series corresponds to the transition from the n=2 energy level to the n=1 energy level, which emits ultraviolet radiation.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. This option is not specified and does not correspond to any specific value or concept in the context of the question.
  • C. This option is not specified and does not correspond to any specific value or concept in the context of the question.
  • D. This option is not specified and does not correspond to any specific value or concept in the context of the question.

Q4. Question is given below!

  • A. A
  • B. B
  • C. C
  • D. D

Explanation: Here, X represents H because it equalizes the proton nunber and mass number.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. As per the explanation, this option is not the correct one.
  • C. As per the explanation, this option is not the correct one.
  • D. As per the explanation, this option is not the correct one.

Q5. If the charges are doubled and the distance between them is also doubled, then Coulomb's force will be:

  • A. Double
  • B. Halved
  • C. Remains same
  • D. Four times

Explanation: If the charges are doubled and the distance between them is also doubled, the force will remain same.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. If the charges are doubled and the distance between them is also doubled, the force will remain same.
  • B. If the charges are doubled and the distance between them is also doubled, the force will remain same.
  • D. If the charges are doubled and the distance between them is also doubled, the force will remain same.

Q6. A rubber ball of radius 2cm has a charge of 5μc on its surface, which is uniformly distributed, the value of E at its centre is:

  • A. 10NC-1
  • B. Zero
  • C. 2.5NC-1
  • D. 5x10-6NC-1

Explanation: To find the electric field at the center of a uniformly charged sphere, we treat the sphere as a point charge located at its center. The electric field (E) at a distance (r) from a point charge (Q) is given by (E = \frac{k \cdot Q}{r^2}), where (k) is the Coulomb constant ((k \approx 9 \times 10^9 , \text{N m}^2/\text{C}^2)). For the given sphere, with a charge of (5 , \mu\text{C}) and a radius of (2 , \text{cm}), the electric field at the center is calculated as:[ E = \frac{k \cdot Q}{r^2} = \frac{9 \times 10^9 \cdot 5 \times 10^{-6}}{(0.02)^2} = \frac{45 \times 10^3}{0.0004} = 112500 , \text{N/C} = 1.125 \times 10^5 , \text{N/C} ]

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. This is incorrect because the electric field at the center of a uniformly charged sphere is not this high. The electric field inside a uniformly charged sphere is zero.
  • B. This is incorrect. While the electric field inside a uniformly charged sphere is zero, this is not the case at the center of the sphere.
  • C. This is incorrect. The electric field at the center of a uniformly charged sphere is not this value.

Q7. Which one of the following relation is correct?

  • A. Joule=volt x ampere
  • B. Joule=coulomb / volt
  • C. Joule=volt / ampere
  • D. Joule=coulomb x volt

Explanation: In electric circuits, work (energy) is done when a charge (coulomb) moves through a potential difference (voltage). The amount of work done (energy transferred) is equal to the product of the charge and the voltage, which is expressed as joule = coulomb x volt.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. The unit of energy (joule) is not equal to the product of voltage (volt) and current (ampere). However, power (measured in watts) is equal to voltage multiplied by current (P = VI), and power multiplied by time gives energy (P = E/t).
  • B. This equation does not represent a valid relation between energy (joule), charge (coulomb), and voltage.
  • C. The unit of energy (joule) is not equal to voltage divided by current. However, the equation for power (P = VI) can be rearranged as joule = volt x ampere.

Q8. In carbon resistors, which colour band indicates the tolerance of ±10%?

  • A. White
  • B. Silver
  • C. Gold
  • D. Violet

Explanation: A white band in a carbon resistor indicates a tolerance of ±10%. This means that the actual resistance of the resistor can vary by up to 10% from the stated value.B) Silver: A silver band usually indicates a

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. This colour doesn't indicate the tolerance of 10%.
  • C. A gold band is commonly used to indicate a tolerance of ±5% in carbon resistors. In some cases, it can represent a tolerance of ±10% in other types of resistors, but not in carbon resistors.
  • D. Violet is not typically used to indicate the tolerance in carbon resistors. It may represent a different value or specification in other types of resistors.

Q9. For an open circuit, terminal potential difference 'Vt' is:

  • A. Vt=2emf
  • B. Vt=emf
  • C. Vt>emf
  • D. Vt<emf

Explanation: In an open circuit, the terminal potential difference is equal to the emf of the source since there is no current flowing and no voltage drop across any internal resistance.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. This is incorrect. In an open circuit, the terminal potential difference is not twice the emf; it is equal to the emf.
  • C. This is incorrect. The terminal potential difference cannot be greater than the emf of the source in an open circuit.
  • D. This is incorrect. The terminal potential difference is not less than the emf of the source in an open circuit; it is equal to the emf.

Q10. An electron travelling at 106m/s enters parallel in a magnetic field of 1 tesla, the magnetic force acting on it is:

  • A. Zero
  • B. 10-12N
  • C. 103eN
  • D. 1.6ex 10-13N

Explanation: Zero is correct. Since the electron is moving parallel to the magnetic field, the angle between the velocity vector and the magnetic field vector is 0, and the sine of 0 is 0. Therefore, the magnetic force acting on the electron is zero.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. This option suggests a magnetic force of (10^{-12}) Newtons. However, when an electron moves parallel to a magnetic field, the magnetic force acting on it is zero because the sine of the angle between the velocity vector and the magnetic field vector is zero.
  • C. This option suggests a magnetic force of (10^3) eN (electrostatic newtons). However, the concept of "electrostatic newtons" is not a standard unit.
  • D. This option suggests a magnetic force of (1.6 \times 10^{-13}) Newtons. Again, the correct answer for this scenario is zero, as explained above.

Q11. When a charged particle is projected opposite to the direction of magnetic field, it experiences a force equal to:

  • A. quB cosθ
  • B. quB sin 90
  • C. quB
  • D. Zero

Explanation: When a charged particle is projected opposite to the direction of the magnetic field, the angle between the velocity vector and the magnetic field vector is 180 degrees. As mentioned earlier, in this case, the sine of 180 degrees is 0, so the magnetic force acting on the particle is zero.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. This option includes the cosine of the angle between the velocity and the magnetic field. However, for a 180-degree angle, the cosine is -1, which would result in a force of -( quB ), not zero.
  • B. This option suggests that the force is ( quB ) times the sine of 90 degrees. While the sine of 90 degrees is 1, this formula is not applicable for a particle projected opposite to the field, where the angle is 180 degrees.
  • C. When a charged particle moves opposite to the direction of the magnetic field, the angle between the velocity vector and the magnetic field vector is 180 degrees. In this case, the sine of 180 degrees is 0, so the magnetic force is actually zero, not ( quB ).

Q12. In order to increase the range of voltmeter RH is:

  • A. Increased
  • B. Decreased
  • C. Unchanged
  • D. increased by 4 times

Explanation: Increasing the resistance in series with the voltmeter (RH) will increase the range of the voltmeter. This is because a higher RH will allow the voltmeter to measure higher voltages without exceeding its maximum reading capability.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. Decreasing RH would reduce the range of the voltmeter, as it would limit the maximum voltage that the voltmeter can measure.
  • C. Keeping RH unchanged will not change the range of the voltmeter. The range is determined by the resistance in series with the voltmeter, so changing RH is necessary to alter the range.
  • D. Increasing RH by 4 times would significantly increase the range of the voltmeter. This is because the voltage measured by the voltmeter is inversely proportional to the total resistance (RH + RMeter), so increasing RH would increase the maximum voltage that can be measured.

Q13. Which device permits the flow of D.C?

  • A. Capacitor
  • B. Photocell
  • C. Inductor
  • D. Transformer

Explanation: An inductor permits the flow of DC. It resists changes in current, so when DC flows through an inductor, it builds up a magnetic field that allows the current to continue flowing.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. A capacitor blocks the flow of DC. It allows the flow of AC by charging and discharging, but it blocks DC because it becomes fully charged and does not allow any further current to pass.
  • B. Photocell, also known as a photoresistor or light-dependent resistor, is a device whose resistance decreases with increasing incident light intensity. It is not directly related to the flow of DC.
  • D. Transformer is a device that is used to change the voltage level of AC power. It does not directly permit or block the flow of DC.

Q14. For an ideal step up transformer:

  • A. Np>Ns
  • B. Vsls>Vplp
  • C. Vs<Vp
  • D. Is<Ip

Explanation: In an ideal transformer, the ratio of the primary voltage (Vp) to the secondary voltage (Vs) is equal to the ratio of the number of turns in the primary coil (Np) to the number of turns in the secondary coil (Ns). Therefore, for a step-up transformer, where the secondary voltage is greater than the primary voltage, VsNs > VpNp.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. In an ideal step-up transformer, the number of turns in the primary coil (Np) is actually greater than the number of turns in the secondary coil (Ns). This is because the transformer steps up the voltage, and according to the transformer equation ( \frac{V_s}{V_p} = \frac{N_s}{N_p} ), for a step-up transformer, Ns must be greater than Np.
  • C. This statement is false for a step-up transformer. In a step-up transformer, the output voltage (Vs) is greater than the input voltage (Vp).
  • D. In an ideal transformer, the ratio of the primary current (Ip) to the secondary current (Is) is equal to the inverse ratio of the number of turns in the coils. Therefore, for a step-up transformer, where the primary current is less than the secondary current, IpNp < IsNs.

Q15. When a metal detector comes close to a metal then its frequency:

  • A. Becomes double
  • B. Remains same
  • C. Becomes half
  • D. Increases

Explanation: The frequency of the metal detector remains constant when it comes close to a metal object.

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. The frequency of a metal detector does not change when it comes close to a metal object. The frequency of the electromagnetic waves generated by the metal detector remains constant.
  • C. The frequency does not change to half when a metal detector detects a metal object. It stays the same as before.
  • D. The frequency does not increase when a metal detector detects a metal object. The frequency remains constant regardless of the presence of metal objects.

Q16. In RLC series circuit, at higher frequencies:

  • A. XL=XC
  • B. XL>XC
  • C. XL<XC
  • D. XL=0

Explanation: At higher frequencies (above the resonant frequency), the inductive reactance XL is greater than the capacitive reactance XC in an RLC series circuit. This is because the inductive reactance XL increases linearly with frequency (XL = 2πfL), while the capacitive reactance XC decreases inversely with frequency (XC = 1/(2πfC)).

Why the other options are wrong
  • A. At a certain frequency called the resonant frequency, the inductive reactance (XL) is equal to the capacitive reactance (XC), and the net reactance in the circuit is zero. This is the condition for resonance, but it is not generally true at higher frequencies.
  • C. This is not typically the case at higher frequencies in an RLC series circuit. At higher frequencies, XL is greater than XC.
  • D. XL does not become zero at higher frequencies in an RLC series circuit. XL can approach zero at the resonant frequency, but at higher frequencies, XL is greater than XC.

Q17. Which one belongs to trivalent group?

  • A. Aluminium
  • B. Antimoney
  • C. Phosphorous
  • D. Arsenic

Explanation: Aluminium is a member of the trivalent group because it commonly forms the Al3+ ion.

Why the other options are wrong
  • B. Antimony is not a member of the trivalent group. It commonly forms ions with a 3- or 5+ charge.
  • C. Phosphorus is not a member of the trivalent group. It commonly forms ions with a 3- or 5+ charge.
  • D. Arsenic is not a member of the trivalent group. It commonly forms ions with a 3- or 5+ charge.

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