Uhs Mdcat 2008 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. He was _:

• A. Robbed✓
• B. Stolen
• C. Pinched
• D. Established

Explanation: Robbed - stolen would be used for an object, pinched means to steal something and established is usually used for a company or organisation."Stolen" is used for material objects "Pinched" is slang for stealing usually inconsequentially "Established" means having existed or done something for a long time and therefore recognized and generally accepted

Q2. I am _ forward to our picnic scheduled in next month.

• A. Looking✓
• B. Planning
• C. Seeing
• D. Going

Explanation: "looking forward" means to be excited for something. In this case the subject is excited or looking forward to a picnic. "Planning forward"is not a correct expression. "Seeing to" is a correct expression but "seeing forward" is not. Speakers in the business world and in the government are fond of saying “going forward” to mean “from now on,” “in the future,” or even “now.”

Q3. Identify the word or phrase that needs to be changed for the sentence to be correct:The stories that she makes out for her children ought to be written down and published.

• A. That
• B. Makes out✓
• C. Ought to
• D. Written down
• E. No error

Explanation: "That" is correctly placed as a demonstrative pronoun.To "make out" means to manage with some difficulty to see or hear someone or something so it is incorrectly used here. "Makes" would be the correct word for the blank."Ought to" can be used to indicate light responsibility or urgency. It is correctly used in the sentence.It means to record something by writing down.An error was present in the sentence.

Q4. Choose the word most similar in meaning to the given word:Disruption

• A. Comfort
• B. Luxury
• C. Trouble✓
• D. Freedom

Explanation: Disruption means disturbance or problems which interrupt an event, activity, or process. "Trouble" has similar meanings of difficulty or problems. Hence, this is the most suitable option.

Q5. Choose the word most similar In meaning to the given word :Inevitable

• A. Doubtful
• B. Deny
• C. Unexpected
• D. Unusual✓

Explanation: Inevitable means that something is completely certain, bound to happen and can not be avoided.Unusual means to be uncommon or something out of the ordinary. Hence it is the most suitable option.

Q6. Choose the correct antonym of the given word:Eradication

• A. Suppression
• B. Termination
• C. Control
• D. Establish✓

Explanation: To establish something means to begin it or bring it about. It means the complete opposite of eradication.

Q7. Choose the correct antonym to the given word:Interruption

• A. Break
• B. Continuity✓
• C. Injury
• D. Difference

Explanation: The unbroken and consistent existence or operation of something over time is continuity. It is the opposite of interruption.

Q8. Select the nearest correct meaning of the word given.Aghast

• A. Critical
• B. Reluctant
• C. Happy
• D. Horrified✓

Explanation: "Horrified" means to be filled with horror; extremely shocked which is the same meaning as "aghast".

Q9. In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the correct one and fill the Circle corresponding to that letter in the mcq Response Form.

• A. He lacked both the training and the equipment needed in the job.
• B. He lacked both the training and the equipment needed by the job.
• C. He lacked both the training and the equipment needed on the job.
• D. He lacked both the training and the equipment needed for the job.✓

Explanation: "In the job" makes sense but it is not a correct phrase here."By the job" does not make sense. "By his boss" would have been correct."On the job" means to be present at work or at a job."For" is the correct preposition to use here. "Needed for" is a common phrase used before describing requirements

Q10. Select the nearest correct meaning of the word given.Invidious

• A. Unbreakable
• B. Interesting
• C. Unpleasant✓
• D. Fair

Explanation: "Invidious" means (of an action or situation) likely to arouse or incur resentment or anger in others. This is closest in meaning to "unpleasant" which refers to causing discomfort, unhappiness, or revulsion; disagreeable (something that is likely to arouse or incur resentment or anger in others).

Q11. In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the correct one and fill the circle corresponding to that letter in the mcq Response Form.

• A. Do not stuff your head by things you do not understand.
• B. Do not stuff your head with things you do not understand.✓
• C. Do not stuff your head for things you do not understand.
• D. Do not stuff your head in things you do not understand.

Explanation: "By" does not describe the interaction the way "with" does."With" correctly describes how the subject and object in the sentence interact; as if the head is being filled or covered with these things."For" can not be used. "Stuff in" means to meddle, in this case the speaker wants to forbid the person from consuming things they do not understand so it can't be used."With" is the correct preposition to describe something being filled or covered.

Q12. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate circle on the mcq Response Form.Vexing

• A. Annoying✓
• B. Aggressive
• C. Viable
• D. Waxy

Explanation: Vexing refers to something that is irritating, bothersome, or causing frustration.Agressive refers to being assertive, forceful, or hostile, and is not synonymous with vexing.This is not an accurate meaning for vexing. Viable refers to something that is capable of succeeding or being effective.This is also not an accurate meaning for vexing. Waxy refers to having a texture or appearance similar to wax, and is not synonymous with vexing.

Q13. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate circle on the mcq Response Form.Vague

• A. Respectful
• B. Uncertain✓
• C. Warlock
• D. Snow white

Explanation: Uncertain is the correct meaning for vague, as it accurately conveys the idea of something lacking clarity or being unclear.This is not an accurate meaning for vague. Vague refers to something that is unclear, indistinct, or not clearly defined, and is not synonymous with respectful.This is also not an accurate meaning for vague. Warlock refers to a male witch or a sorcerer.Snow White is a fictional character from a fairy tale, and is not associated with vague

Q14. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select thenearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate circle on the mcq Response Form.Mangled

• A. Dodged
• B. Grained
• C. Indisputable
• D. Damaged✓

Explanation: Damaged is the correct meaning for mangled. It conveys the idea of something being distorted, or twisted.Dodged refers to avoiding something or evading it, and is not synonymous with mangled.Grained refers to having a particular texture or pattern resembling grains, and is not synonymous with mangled.Indisputable refers to something that is beyond doubt or cannot be disputed, and is not synonymous with mangled

Q15. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate circle on the mcq Response Form.Prodigious

• A. Productive
• B. Enormous✓
• C. Prudential
• D. Waddle

Explanation: Prodigious means remarkably or impressively great in extent, size, or degree.This is not an accurate meaning for prodigious. Productive refers to being able to produce or generate results.This is also not an accurate meaning for prodigious. Prudential refers to something related to or characterized by caution or prudence, and is not synonymous with prodigious.This is also not an accurate meaning for prodigious. Waddle refers to a particular manner of walking characterized by a clumsy or awkward swaying motion, usually associated with a side-to-side movement, and is not synonymous with prodigious.

Q16. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate circle on the mcq Response Form.Astounded

• A. Shocked✓
• B. Discarded
• C. Assured
• D. Attracted

Explanation: Astounded means to be utterly shocked and surprised.This is not an accurate meaning for astounded. Discarded refers to something that has been thrown away, rejected, or abandoned.Assured refers to something that is guaranteed, certain, or confident, and is not synonymous with astounded.Attracted refers to being drawn towards something or someone, or being interested or captivated by them, and is not synonymous with astounded.

Q17. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate circle on the mcq Response Form.Sagacity

• A. Foolishness
• B. Large City
• C. Onions
• D. Wisdom✓

Explanation: Sagacity is synonymous to wisdom, intelligence, and understanding.Foolishness is not an accurate meaning for sagacity. Large city refers to the populous urban area, and is not synonymous with sagacity.Onions are a type of edible bulb vegetable, and is not synonymous with sagacity

Q18. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate circle on the mcq Response Form.Grim

• A. Gratis
• B. Restless
• C. Severe✓
• D. Grater

Explanation: Severe is the correct meaning for grim, as it accurately conveys the idea of something being forbidding or uninviting in appearance or nature, often with a sense of gloom or severity.Gratis refers to something being done or given without charge or payment, and is not synonymous with grim.Restless refers to being unable to rest or relax, often due to agitation or anxiety, and is not synonymous with grim.This is also not an accurate meaning for grim. Grater refers to a kitchen utensil used for shredding or grating food, and is not synonymous with grim

Q19. Select the nearest correct meaning of the given word; Indolently

• A. Lazily✓
• B. Indecently
• C. Ideally
• D. Gaily

Explanation: Lazily is the correct meaning for indolently, as it accurately conveys the idea of something being done in a lazy or idle manner, showing a lack of effort or energy.

Q20. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate circle on the mcq Response Form.Perish

• A. Furious
• B. Come to death✓
• C. Secret
• D. Frustrated

Explanation: "Come to death" is the correct meaning for perish, as it accurately conveys the idea of dying or ceasing to exist, often due to natural causes or other circumstances.Furious refers to being extremely angry, enraged, or incensed, and is not synonymous with perish.This is also not an accurate meaning for perish. Secret refers to something being concealed, hidden, or not revealed, and is not synonymous with perish.Frustrated refers to being dissatisfied, disappointed, or thwarted in achieving a desired outcome, and is not synonymous with perish.

Q21. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate circle on the mcq Response Form.Doze

• A. Dogged
• B. Diet
• C. Sleep✓
• D. Medicine to be taken

Explanation: Doze off is often used to describe someone who has fallen asleep.Dogged refers to being persistent, determined, or stubborn in pursuing a goal or task, and is not synonymous with doze.Diet refers to the food and drink regularly consumed by a person or animal, and is not synonymous with doze."Medicine to be taken" typically refers to a specific type of medication or treatment that is administered orally or through other means, and is not synonymous with doze.

Q22. Which of the following receptors produce sensation of pain?

• A. Mechanoreceptor
• B. Nociceptors✓
• C. Chemoreceptors
• D. Thermoreceptors

Explanation: Nociceptors are responsible for detecting pain sensations and transmitting them to the brain.This option is not correct. Mechanoreceptors are sensory receptors that respond to mechanical pressure or deformation. They are responsible for detecting sensations such as touch, pressure, and vibration, but not specifically pain.This option is also incorrect. Chemoreceptors are sensory receptors that respond to changes in chemical concentrations, such as those related to taste and smell. They are not specifically associated with the sensation of pain.Thermoreceptors are sensory receptors that respond to changes in temperature, such as those related to heat and cold. They are not specifically associated with the sensation of pain.

Q23. When your finger accidentally gets caught in a door, the pain message is sent to your brain through:

• A. Homeostasis
• B. Sensory receptors✓
• C. Caffeine
• D. The medulla

Explanation: Sensory receptors, specifically nociceptors, are responsible for sending the pain message to the brain when a finger (or any other part of the body) is accidentally caught in a door or experiences a painful stimulus.Homeostasis refers to the body's ability to maintain internal stability and balance. It is not directly involved in sending pain messages to the brain.Caffeine is a stimulant that can affect the central nervous system, but it is not directly involved in the transmission of pain messages to the brain.The medulla is a part of the brainstem that is involved in regulating various autonomic functions, such as breathing and heart rate, and it is not directly involved in the transmission of pain messages.

Q24. Neck has_ type of joint.

• A. Ball and socket
• B. Pivot✓
• C. Hinge
• D. Fibrous

Explanation: The joint in the neck that allows the head to move back and forth is an example of a pivot joint.This option is not correct. Ball and socket joints allow for a wide range of motion in multiple directions. Examples of ball and socket joints in the human body include the hip and shoulder joints, but the neck does not have a ball and socket joint.This option is also incorrect. Hinge joints allow for movement in one direction, like the opening and closing of a door. Examples of hinge joints in the human body include the elbow and knee joints, but the neck does not have a hinge joint.This option is also incorrect. Fibrous joints are immovable or slightly moveable joints that are connected by dense connective tissue. Examples of fibrous joints in the human body include the sutures of the skull, but the neck does not have a fibrous joint

Q25. End product of hemoglobin break down is:

• A. Creatinine
• B. Bilirubin✓
• C. Hypoxanthin
• D. Xanthin

Explanation: Bilirubin is the end product of haemoglobin breakdown. When haemoglobin from old red blood cells is broken down, bilirubin is formed as a byproduct. Bilirubin is then processed by the liver and eventually excreted in the bile, which is eliminated from the body through faeces.Creatinine is a waste product that is produced by the muscles during their normal metabolism. It is not an end product of haemoglobin breakdown.Hypoxanthine is a purine base that is not directly related to haemoglobin breakdown.Xanthine is a purine base that is not directly related to haemoglobin breakdown

Q26. In what direction can a DNA polymerase work when catalyzing the addition of nucleotide monomers?

• A. From the 5’ toward the 3’ end of the new strand✓
• B. From the replication centers in two directions called replication forks
• C. From the 3’ to the 5’ end of the strand being assembled
• D. In both directions if DNA ligase is present

Explanation: DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the 3′-OH end, meaning the new strand grows in the 5′ → 3′ direction.

Q27. Which bond is the potential source of chemical energy for cellular activities?

• A. C-N
• B. C-O
• C. C-H✓
• D. H-O

Explanation: C-H is the potential source of chemical energy for cellular This option is not correct. C-N bonds are typically involved in protein synthesis and structural stability but are not known for their high energy potential.This option is also incorrect. C-O bonds are found in many organic molecules, including carbohydrates and lipids, and can store energy, but they are not as energy-rich as C-H bonds.This option is also incorrect. H-O bonds are involved in many biological processes, including water molecules and some biomolecules like carbohydrates and nucleic acids, but they are not a significant source of chemical energy in cellular activities

Q28. Sharks and rays are included in class:

• A. Cyclostomata
• B. Osteichthyes
• C. Chondrichthyes✓
• D. Tetrapoda

Explanation: Chondrichthyes are cartilaginous fishes having exoskeleton of cartilage. Sharks and rays are cartilaginous fishes.

Q29. In what stage of aerobic respiration is carbon dioxide produced?

• A. Glycolysis.
• B. ETC.
• C. Krebs cycle.✓
• D. Calvin cycle.

Explanation: Krebs cycle (or citric acid cycle) breaks down the pyruvic acid to carbon dioxide. This produces 2 ATP and 6 NADH for every glucose molecule entering glycolysis. The Krebs cycle takes place in the matrix of the mitochondria. The Krebs cycle produces the CO2 that you breathe out.Glycolysis is the initial stage of glucose metabolism that occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell, and does not produce carbon dioxide.ETC (Electron Transport Chain) is the final stage of aerobic respiration that occurs in the mitochondria, and does not directly produce carbon dioxide.Calvin cycle is a series of biochemical reactions that occur in the chloroplasts of plants during photosynthesis, and is not directly related to the production of carbon dioxide in aerobic respiration

Q30. Which of the following does not have specialized respiratory organs?

• A. Hydra✓
• B. Cockroach
• C. Birds
• D. Both A and B

Explanation: Hydra has neither blood and blood vessels, nor organs of excretion and respiration, which are carried on individually by each cell. Due to the thinness of the body wall and circulation of water in the gastrovascular cavity, most of the cells of the body remain freely exposed to the surrounding water.

Q31. Hummingbirds belong to the category:

• A. Heterotherms✓
• B. Endotherms
• C. Ectotherms
• D. None of these

Explanation: Heterotherms are those animals who are capable of varying degrees of endothermic heat production but generally do not regulate their body temperature within a narrow range.

Q32. Syphilis is caused by:

• A. Spirochete✓
• B. Nostoc
• C. Water blooms
• D. Cyanobacteria

Explanation: Syphilis is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum, which belongs to the spirochete group. Spirochetes are notable for their spiral shapes and unique motility mechanisms. This bacterial group includes pathogens known for causing various diseases, with Treponema pallidum specifically linked to syphilis. In contrast, the other options are related to cyanobacteria, which are photosynthetic bacteria not associated with sexually transmitted infections. Nostoc and cyanobacteria are both non-pathogenic in the context of syphilis, and water blooms are an environmental concern rather than a bacterial classification.

Q33. In moths male is _.

• A. Heterogametic
• B. Dieogametic
• C. Homogametic✓
• D. Both B and C

Explanation: Moths and butterflies, have a female heterogametic sex chromosome system, with most females having a ZW constitution while males are ZZ.

Q34. When carbon dioxide pressure increases, the capacity of haemoglobin to hold oxygen:

• A. Increases many folds
• B. Decreases✓
• C. Remains constant
• D. Is doubled

Explanation: Since CO2 reacts with water to form carbonic acid, an increase in CO2 results in a decrease in blood pH resulting in haemoglobin proteins releasing their loads of oxygen. Conversely a decrease in CO2 provokes an increase in pH, which results in haemoglobin picking up more oxygen.

Q35. The soluble part of the cytoplasm is termed as:

• A. Cisternae
• B. Cytosol✓
• C. Endocytosis
• D. Both A and B

Explanation: The cytosol (the soluble portion of the cytoplasm outside the organelles) is mostly composed of water and many low molecular weight compounds.

Q36. Name the enveloped RNA virus that causes infusion hepatitis.

• A. HBV
• B. HAV
• C. HCV✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: Hepatitis C virus (HCV), is an enveloped single-stranded RNA virus which appears to be distantly related (possibly in its evolution) to flaviviruses, although hepatitis C is not transmitted by arthropod vectors.

Q37. In general, asexual reproduction is common in:

• A. Humans
• B. Basidiomycota
• C. Deuteromycota✓
• D. Basidiospores

Explanation: Deuteromycota commonly reproduce via asexual reproduction throught the conidia; a sexual phase has not yet been observed. Basidiomycota mainly sexually reproduce through basidiospores; asexual reproduction is uncommon. Humans cannot reproduce asexually.

Q38. Name the vertebrates which are without jaws.

• A. Osteichthyes
• B. Cyclostomata✓
• C. Chondrichthyes
• D. None of these

Explanation: Cyclostomi, often referred to as Cyclostomata, is a group of vertebrates that comprises the living jawless fishes: the lampreys and hagfishes.

Q39. The total inside capacity of lungs of adult human beings when fully inflated is:

• A. 5 ml
• B. 50 ml
• C. 500 ml
• D. 5000 ml✓

Explanation: The total lung capacity is approximately 5 L. Of this, 1.5 L, the residual volume, remains at the end of forced expiration. The volume of gas, 3.5 L, that can be inhaled from forced expiration to forced inspiration is the vital capacity. The normal tidal volume (500 mL) is a small proportion of the maximum 3.5 L that is possible. The tidal volume is situated in the middle of the vital capacity, so that the inspiratory reserve volume is approximately 1.5 L, as is the expiratory reserve volume.

Q40. Which of the following belong to collenchyma cells?

• A. Fibers.
• B. Vessels.
• C. Sclereides.
• D. None of these.✓

Explanation: The first three options are features of schlerenchyma.

Q41. Which of the following promotes both leaf and fruit growths?

• A. Auxins.
• B. Gibberellins.✓
• C. Abscisic acid.
• D. Ethane.

Explanation: Gibberellins promote leaf and fruit growths.

Q42. Name the external factor of growth in plants.

• A. Carbon dioxide.
• B. Water.✓
• C. Hormones.
• D. Nutrition.

Explanation: Environmental factors that affect plant growth include light, temperature, water, and humidity.

Q43. The genes of blue opsin are present on:

• A. Autosome 9.
• B. Autosome 7.✓
• C. Autosome 1.
• D. Autosome 3.

Explanation: b) Autosome 7: This is the correct option. The genes for blue opsin (a type of photoreceptor in the eye) are located on chromosome 7, which is one of the autosomes in the human genome.

Q44. The dew drops on tips of grass leaves is an example of:

• A. Infestation.
• B. Exudation.✓
• C. Bleeding.
• D. Imbibition.

Explanation: Closely associated with root pressure is a phenomenon called guttation or exudation. It is the loss of liquid water through water secreting glands or hydrathodes.

Q45. Which of the following modifies proteins and lipids by adding carbohydrates?

• A. Golgi Apparatus✓
• B. Plasma membrane
• C. Polysome
• D. None of these

Explanation: The most important function of Golgi Apparatus is to modify the proteins and lipids by adding carbohydrates and converting them into glycoproteins and glycolipids.

Q46. Which of the following are spiral-shaped bacteria?

• A. Cocci
• B. Bacilli
• C. Pseudomonas
• D. Spirillum✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Spirillum, which are bacteria characterized by their spiral shape. They are distinct from other bacterial shapes such as cocci (spherical) and bacilli (rod-shaped). Spirilla are typically motile, possessing flagella that aid in their movement. The other options, Cocci, Bacilli, and Pseudomonas, do not exhibit a spiral shape and are therefore incorrect in the context of this question.

Q47. Which of the following is used for lowering blood cholesterol?

• A. Neurospora.
• B. Aspergillus.
• C. Griseofulvin.
• D. Lovastatin.✓

Explanation: Statins are the most common medicine for high cholesterol. They reduce the amount of cholesterol your body makes.

Q48. Which of the following are called placental mammals?

• A. Prototheria
• B. Metatheria.
• C. Eutheria.✓
• D. All of these.

Explanation: c) Eutheria: This is the correct option. Eutheria, also known as placental mammals, are a diverse group of mammals that give birth to more fully developed live young. These mammals have a placenta that provides nourishment and support to the developing embryo inside the mother's womb.

Q49. The attraction among water molecules which hold water together is called:

• A. Tension.
• B. Cohesion.✓
• C. Adhesion.
• D. Ambibition.

Explanation: Cohesion: Hydrogen bonds make water sticky. Water has an amazing ability to adhere (stick) to itself and to other substances. The property of cohesion describes the ability of water molecules to be attracted to other water molecules, which allows water to be a "sticky" liquid.

Q50. Pick the paratonic movement from the following:

• A. Nastic.✓
• B. Growth.
• C. Turgor.
• D. Tactic.

Explanation: Nastic movements are a type of paratonic movement.

Q51. It controls the several automatic functions like breathing, heart rate and blood pressure:

• A. Midbrain.
• B. Medulla.✓
• C. Pons.
• D. Cerebellum.

Explanation: Medulla controls several automatic functions, such as breathing, heart rate, blood pressure and swallowing.

Q52. Which of the following has 40 chromosomes?

• A. Corn.
• B. Frog.
• C. Sugarcane.
• D. Mouse.✓

Explanation: Corn has 20 chromosomes, frog has 26 chromosomes, Sugarcane has 80 chromosomes and mouse has 40 chromosomes

Q53. The cell suspension culture of _ produces quinine.

• A. Soybean.
• B. Digitalis lanata
• C. Cinchona ledgeriana.✓
• D. Luceferin.

Explanation: Quinine is a bitter compound that comes from the bark of the cinchona tree.

Q54. Which one of the following is most slender in structure?

• A. Microtubules
• B. Microfilaments✓
• C. Intermediate filaments
• D. Both A and B

Explanation: Microfilaments are the most slender components of the cytoskeleton, made of actin, which allows them to provide flexible support and enable cell movement. Microtubules, although important for maintaining cell shape and facilitating intracellular transport, are thicker and more rigid. Intermediate filaments provide mechanical support and are intermediate in thickness between microfilaments and microtubules.

Q55. Name the human tissues that contain about 85 % water:

• A. Nerve cells
• B. Bone cells
• C. Brain cells✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The correct answer is Brain cells. Brain tissue is composed of approximately 85% water, which is crucial for its function, affecting brain volume, nutrient transport, and waste removal. Nerve cells, while also reliant on water, have a slightly lower water content. Bone cells, on the other hand, have a much lower water content due to their mineralized nature. Therefore, the only option that accurately reflects a high water content similar to the one in the question is brain cells.

Q56. Which of the following are colorless?

• A. Chloroplasts
• B. Chromoplasts
• C. Leucoplasts✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: Chloroplasts are green in colour due to the presence of green pigment " chlorophyll". Chromoplasts are colored and help for pollination and seed dispersal. Leucoplasts are colorless and are found in underground parts of the plant and store food.

Q57. Name the one involved in DNA replication.

• A. Cysts.
• B. Ribosomes.
• C. Mesosomes.✓
• D. Spores.

Explanation: These extensions help in the synthesis of the cell wall and replication of DNA

Q58. Which of the following has rootless sporophytes?

• A. Psilopsida.✓
• B. Lycopsida.
• C. Tracheophyta.
• D. Sphenopsida.

Explanation: a) Psilopsida: Psilopsida, also known as whisk ferns, have rootless sporophytes. Sporophytes are the diploid stage in the plant life cycle that produces spores. In whisk ferns, the sporophytes lack true roots.

Q59. Chlorophylls absorb mainly _ wave length.

• A. Yellow.
• B. Violet-blue.✓
• C. Green.
• D. Indigo.

Explanation: All plants have chlorophyll a which absorbs most strongly at ~450 nm, or a bright blue color.

Q60. _ did not have the adaptations to remove the flooding of their cells in fresh water.

• A. Both B, D.
• B. Hydrophytes
• C. None of B, D.
• D. Xerophytes.✓

Explanation: Xerophytes are plants adapted to arid or dry environments. They have adaptations to conserve water and tolerate drought conditions. Since they are not present in freshwater so, they don't have adaptations to remove the flooding of their cells.

Q61. Which of the following is made up of bones and cartilage?

• A. Endoskeleton.✓
• B. Hydrostatic skeleton.
• C. Exoskeleton.
• D. Both A and B.

Explanation: Endoskeleton is an internal skeleton, such as the bony or cartilaginous skeleton of vertebrates.

Q62. This disease is characterized by the decline in brain function.

• A. Alzheimer's disease.✓
• B. Epilepsy.
• C. Parkinson's disease.
• D. None of these.

Explanation: Alzheimer's disease is a brain disorder that slowly destroys memory and thinking skills and eventually the ability to carry out the simplest tasks.

Q63. Prophase, metaphase and telophase are subdivisions of:

• A. Mitosis
• B. Karyokinesis✓
• C. Cytokinesis
• D. None of these

Explanation: M phase of cell cycle is divided into karyokinesis and cytokinesis. Karyokinesis is the division of nucleus. It is further divided into prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase while cytokinesis refers to the division of whole cell.

Q64. Organs are functionally different but structurally alike are _.

• A. Analogous.
• B. Homologous.✓
• C. Unilogous.
• D. Hypologous.

Explanation: Homologous organs are defined as the organs of different animals that are having a similar structure but differ in their functions.

Q65. Which of the following gives blue color with iodine?

• A. Starch.✓
• B. Glycogen.
• C. Cellulose.
• D. All of these.

Explanation: Starch gives blue colour with iodine.

Q66. Herpes simplex is caused by _ virus.

• A. Enveloped RNA.
• B. DNA Virus.✓
• C. RNA tumor.
• D. Both B and C.

Explanation: b) DNA Virus: This is the correct option. Herpes simplex is caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV), which is a DNA virus. There are two types of HSV: HSV-1, which typically causes oral herpes, and HSV-2, which is often associated with genital herpes.

Q67. Name the cyanobacteria which are helpful in fixing atmospheric nitrogen.

• A. Heterocysts.✓
• B. Akinetes.
• C. Nostoc.
• D. Hormogonia.

Explanation: Heterocysts are specialized cells found in certain filamentous cyanobacteria that are crucial for the process of nitrogen fixation. These cells create an anaerobic environment that is necessary for the nitrogenase enzyme complex to function effectively and convert atmospheric nitrogen gas (N2) into ammonia (NH3), which can then be utilized by the organism and other nearby plants.

Q68. Name the class that contains seedless plants.

• A. Angiospermae.
• B. Gemnospermae.
• C. Paraphsys.
• D. Filicineae.✓

Explanation: d) Filicineae: Filicineae, also known as ferns, are a class of seedless vascular plants. They reproduce via spores and do not produce seeds. While they are seedless, the term "Filicineae" is more commonly used to refer to the fern family rather than a class.

Q69. Which form of anaerobic respiration occurs in muscle cell of humans and other animals during extreme physical activities?

• A. Alcoholic fermentation.
• B. Lactic acid fermentation.✓
• C. Glycolysis.
• D. Pyruvic acid oxidation.

Explanation: The product of this reaction is lactic acid. This builds up in muscles causing pain and tiredness, which can lead to cramp. After you finish vigorous exercise you continue to breathe deeply and quickly for a short period.

Q70. How much water approximately is required to excrete 1 kg of ammonia nitrogen?

• A. 500 ml
• B. 300 litre.
• C. 5 litre.
• D. 500 litre.✓

Explanation: 1kg of ammonia to be excreted in the form of Ammonia requires 500 liters of waterUrea requires 50 liters of waterUric acid requires 1 liter of water

Q71. Which disease causes immobility and fusion of vertebral joint?

• A. Sciatica.
• B. Disc slip.
• C. Spondylosis.✓
• D. Rickets.

Explanation: c) Spondylosis: This is the correct option. Spondylosis is a degenerative condition that affects the spine, leading to the deterioration of the vertebral joints and the formation of bone spurs. Over time, this can result in immobility and fusion of the vertebral joints, causing stiffness and reduced flexibility.

Q72. Which hormone continues to promote protein synthesis throughout the body even after the cease in growth?

• A. TSH
• B. ACTH
• C. ADH
• D. STH✓

Explanation: Somatotrophin hormone (STH) continues to promote protein synthesis throughout the body even after adolescence.

Q73. Position of a gene on the chromosome is called its:

• A. Phenotype.
• B. Junction.
• C. Locus.✓
• D. Genotype.

Explanation: A locus is the specific physical location of a gene or other DNA sequence on a chromosome, like a genetic street address.

Q74. Pick the biotic component from the following.

• A. Soil
• B. Atmosphere
• C. Water
• D. Animals✓

Explanation: d) Animals: This is the correct option. Animals are biotic components of the environment. They are living organisms that interact with other biotic and abiotic components, contributing to the overall ecosystem dynamics.

Q75. The two strands in DNA are coiled _ to each other.

• A. Parallel
• B. Both A, C
• C. Antiparallel✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: Coiling of two strands is opposite i.e they are coiled antiparallel to each other.

Q76. Name the class without antennae.

• A. Arachnida.✓
• B. Insecta.
• C. Myriapoda.
• D. Crustacea.

Explanation: a) Arachnida: Arachnids are a class of arthropods that include spiders, scorpions, ticks, and mites. Arachnids typically do not have antennae. Instead, they have specialized structures called pedipalps that serve sensory and feeding functions.

Q77. The African sleeping sickness is caused by:

• A. Entamoeba histolytica.
• B. Zooflagellates.
• C. Trypanosoma.✓
• D. Ciliates.

Explanation: African Trypanosomiasis, also known as “sleeping sickness”, is caused by microscopic parasites of the species Trypanosoma brucei. It is transmitted by the tsetse fly (Glossina species), which is found only in sub-Saharan Africa.

Q78. Which of the following does not belong to angiospermic families?

• A. Picea.✓
• B. Rosaceae.
• C. Poaceae.
• D. Fabaceae.

Explanation: Picea belongs to Class Gymnospermae.

Q79. Name the nutrition resulted by feeding on dead and decaying matter.

• A. Saprophytic.✓
• B. Symbiotic.
• C. Parasitic.
• D. Both B and C.

Explanation: Saprophytes are living organisms that live and feed on the remains of other organisms i.e on dead and decaying organisms.

Q80. How many grams of nitrogen can be eliminated in form of uric acid by 50 ml of water?

• A. 20
• B. 30
• C. 25
• D. 50✓

Explanation: Since only 1 ml of water is required to eliminate 1 g of nitrogen in the form of uric acid, then 50 g of nitrogen will be eliminated by 50 ml of water

Q81. Which disease is caused by low calcium in the blood?

• A. Tetany.✓
• B. Muscle fatigue.
• C. Cramp.
• D. Sciatica.

Explanation: Tetany is the disease caused by low calcium in the blood

Q82. It is known that red light_ flowering in the long day plants.

• A. Synchronizes.
• B. Promotes.✓
• C. Inhibits.
• D. Does not affect.

Explanation: It has been found that red light Inhibits flowering the short day plants but promotes flowering in long day plants.

Q83. The colour phenotype of the grain is the sum of individual effects of _ alleles.

• A. Six✓
• B. Four
• C. Five
• D. Five or three

Explanation: Three different gene pairs at three different loci contribute to the wheat grain color. So, each individual would contain six alleles for the trait.

Q84. In _ zone the light is insufficient to support photosynthesis.

• A. Desert.
• B. Littoral.
• C. Profundal.✓
• D. All of these.

Explanation: The profundal zone is a deep zone of an inland body of freestanding water, such as a lake or a pond, located below the range of effective light penetration.

Q85. The optimum temperature for enzymes of human body is:

• A. 32 F
• B. 313 K
• C. 46 C
• D. 37 C✓

Explanation: This optimal temperature is usually around human body temperature (37 oC) for the enzymes in human cells

Q86. Which of the following damages wooden ships?

• A. Sepia.
• B. Teredo.✓
• C. Limax.
• D. Ostrea.

Explanation: Teredo is one of the genera wood-boring bivalve shipworms.

Q87. Which of the following may build coral reefs along with coral animals?

• A. Myxomycota
• B. Green algae
• C. Brown algae
• D. Red algae✓

Explanation: Some red algae incorporate calcium carbonate in their cell walls from the ocean and take part in building coral reefs alongwith coral animals.

Q88. Which of the following do not have a body cavity?

• A. Pseudocoelomata
• B. Coelomata
• C. Acoelomata✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: Acoelomate is an animal that does not possess a body cavity

Q89. Name the neurotic disorder characterized by bouts of over eating of fattening foods.

• A. Bulimia nervosa.✓
• B. Anorexia nervosa.
• C. Dyspepsia.
• D. Salmonella.

Explanation: Bulimia nervosa, also known as simply bulimia, is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging; and excessive concern with body shape and weight.

Q90. Which one of these is an example of tubular excretory system called metanephridia?

• A. Planaria.
• B. Cockroach.
• C. Hydra.
• D. Earthworm.✓

Explanation: Earthworms are Annelids possessing complex metanephridia.

Q91. Name the human tissues that contain about 85% water

• A. Nerve cells.
• B. Brain cells.✓
• C. Bone cells.
• D. None of these.

Explanation: b) Brain cells: Brain cells, which include various types of neurons and glial cells, also contain a significant amount of water due to their high metabolic activity and the need for proper communication within the nervous system. However, they typically contain about 85% water.

Q92. Which type of bonding is present in NH4Cl?

• A. Ionic
• B. Covalent
• C. Coordinate covalent
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: In the NH4Cl molecule, an ionic bond is formed between NH4+ and Cl– ions. 3 covalent bonds are formed between N and three H atoms. One coordinate bond is formed between N and one H atom.

Q93. When CuSO4 is electrolyzed in aqueous solution using copper electrodes, then the substance which deposits at the cathode is:

• A. Copper metal✓
• B. Copper ions
• C. Hydrogen
• D. Oxygen

Explanation: Since reduction takes place cupric ions present in the electrolyte gain two electrons and get converted into copper metal. Copper metal is deposited on the copper electrode since reduction reaction occurs at the cathode.

Q94. Aldehydes can be synthesized by the oxidation of:

• A. Primary alcohols✓
• B. Secondary alcohols
• C. Organic acids
• D. Inorganic acids

Explanation: Consider any 1° alcohol. For simplicity consider it to be open-chain alcohol. There we find the Carbon atom directly attached to the -OH group has 2H atoms. And now oxidation occurs, one H gets removed from the Oxygen atom and the other H from the remaining 2.Thereby formation of a -HC=O, which is an Aldehyde. Again on oxidation of aldehydes, Oxygen gets attached to the Carbon directly attached to the -OH group thereby giving you carboxylic Acid. So basically oxidation is the main and the only factor which we find here and it is nothing but the removal of H atoms or addition of O atoms.

Q95. The products of the fermentation of a sugar are ethanol and:

• A. Water
• B. Oxygen
• C. Carbon dioxide✓
• D. Sulfur dioxide

Explanation: Ethanol fermentation, also called alcoholic fermentation, is a biological process that converts sugars such as glucose, fructose, and sucrose into cellular energy, producing ethanol and carbon dioxide as by-products.

Q96. _ serve as carriers of heredity from one generation to the other.

• A. Lipids.
• B. Caseins.
• C. Formaldehydes.
• D. Nucleoproteins.✓

Explanation: DNA is the genetic material, where a gene is a functional unit of DNA. Chromosomes are the carrier molecules for DNA that help in the transfer of genes from one generation to another.

Q97. _ extraction is controlled by partition law.

• A. Iodine.
• B. Benzoic acid.
• C. Solvent.✓
• D. Stationery.

Explanation: Solvent extraction is an equilibrium process controlled by distribution law or partition law. It states that a solute distributes itself between two immiscible liquids in a constant ratio of concentrations irrespective of the amount of solute added. The law is based on experimental evidence.

Q98. The process of effusion is best understood by _ law.

• A. Graham's✓
• B. Charles's
• C. Boyle's
• D. None of these

Explanation: Effusion refers to the movement of gas particles through a small hole. Graham's Law states that the effusion rate of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of the mass of its particles.

Q99. _ has dipole moment.

• A. CO✓
• B. CO2
• C. Benzene
• D. All of these

Explanation: In the free carbon monoxide molecule, a net negative charge δ– remains at the carbon end and the molecule has a small dipole moment of 0.122 D.

Q100. _ is used as catalyst in Haber's process for NH3 gas manufacture.

• A. Iron✓
• B. Carbon
• C. Copper
• D. Silver

Explanation: An iron catalyst is used in the Haber process because iron is durable, cheap, and effective at catalysis.

Q101. In many of its properties _ is quite different from the other alkali metals.

• A. Li✓
• B. Be
• C. Na
• D. K

Explanation: Lithium is harder than other alkali metals. The melting and boiling point is higher than other alkali metals. Out of all the other alkali metals, it is the least reactive metal.

Q102. Which element forms long chains alternating with oxygen?

• A. Carbon.✓
• B. Nitrogen.
• C. Silicon.
• D. All of these.

Explanation: a) Carbon: This is the correct option. Carbon is the element that forms long chains alternating with oxygen. One of the most well-known examples of this is carbohydrates, where carbon atoms form long chains or rings that alternate with oxygen atoms. Carbohydrates are essential biomolecules and include sugars, starches, and cellulose.

Q103. The percentage of carbon in medium carbon steel is:

• A. 0.7-1.5
• B. 0.1-0.2
• C. 0.2-0.7✓
• D. 1.6-2.00

Explanation: Plain carbon steel is an alloy of iron and carbon. It has good machinability and malleability. The medium-carbon steels have a carbon content of 0.30% to 0.60%.

Q104. Name the rare halogen among the following.

• A. F
• B. Cl
• C. I
• D. At✓

Explanation: Astatine is extremely rare and is considered one of the rarest naturally occurring elements on Earth. It is radioactive element with very short half-lives and thus does not occur naturally.

Q105. Which bond will break when electrophile attacks an alcohol?

• A. O - H✓
• B. C - O
• C. Both A and B
• D. None of these

Explanation: Which bond breaks depends on the nature of the attacking reagent. If a nucleophile attacks C-O bond will break, and if an electrophile attacks the O-H bond will break. Since the question says an electrophile is attacking so, A option O-H is our correct answer.

Q106. The extent of un-saturation in a fat is expressed as its:

• A. Acid number
• B. Iodine number✓
• C. Saponification number
• D. None of these

Explanation: Iodine value, also called Iodine Number, in analytical chemistry, a measure of the degree of unsaturation of oil, fat, or wax; the amount of iodine, in grams, that is taken up by 100 grams of the oil, fat, or wax.

Q107. The process of filtration is used to separate particles _ from liquids.

• A. Radial.
• B. Angular.
• C. Insoluble.✓
• D. Soluble

Explanation: The insoluble solid particles can be separated from the liquid by filtration. A filter paper is made into a cone & placed in a funnel, the liquid flows through the cone and solid particles remain in the cone.

Q108. London forces are very significant in _

• A. Sulphur.
• B. Phosphorous
• C. Argon✓
• D. Sugar.

Explanation: London forces are significant in noble gases like argon. Noble gases are known for their weak intermolecular interactions, mainly London forces, due to their closed-shell electron configurations.It exists as individual atoms.

Q109. Which of the following formation is endothermic reaction?

• A. 2 H2 (g) + O2 (g) -> 2H2O (l)
• B. C(s) + O2 (g) -> CO2(g)
• C. N2(g) + O2 (g) -> N2O2 (g)✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: Because heat is absorbed in this reaction. All the other reactions are exothermic as the heat is released during the process.

Q110. Name the partially miscible liquids from the following?

• A. Alcohol-ether.
• B. Nicotine-water.✓
• C. Benzene-water.
• D. Both A and B.

Explanation: The nicotine-water system has an LCST of 61 °C, and also a UCST of 210 °C at pressures high enough for liquid water to exist at that temperature. The components are therefore miscible in all proportions below 61 °C and above 210 °C (at high pressure), and partially miscible in the interval from 61 to 210 °C.

Q111. All3 (Aluminium Iodide) is electrically a _

• A. Conductor
• B. Non - conductor✓
• C. Semiconductor
• D. None of these

Explanation: A non-conductor, also known as an insulator, is a material that does not allow electric current to flow through it easily. Aluminium iodide is not typically considered a non-conductor, as it can conduct electricity to some extent when dissolved in water. It does not conduct heat or electricity, as its a covalent compound.

Q112. The elements of lllA to VlllA subgroups except He are known as _ block elements.

• A. Q
• B. S
• C. P✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: The p-block is on the right side of the standard periodic table and encompasses elements in groups 13 to 18.

Q113. Concentrated nitric acid gives_ when it reacts with tin.

• A. Nitric oxide
• B. Meta stannic acid.✓
• C. Ammonium nitrite
• D. None of these.

Explanation: Nitric acid is a very strong acid and is also known as aqua fortis. When metallic tin reacts with concentrated nitric acid it forms metastannic acid, nitrogen oxide gas, and water. When metallic tin reacts with very dilute nitric acid it forms ammonium nitrate, water, and tin nitrate.

Q114. Sulphuric acid is used to manufacture:

• A. HCL and HN03.✓
• B. H3P04.
• C. Both A and B
• D. Both HCI and 2COOH.

Explanation: Concentrated sulphuric acid has a high boiling point (356°C). So, it is considered to be non-volatile. Hence, it is used for preparing volatile acids like Hydrochloric acid and Nitric acids from their salts by double decomposition.

Q115. Alkanes containing _ carbon atoms are waxy solids.

• A. Up to 4.
• B. 5 to 17.
• C. 18 or more.✓
• D. None of these.

Explanation: Alkanes containing 18 or more carbon atoms are waxy solids. This is due to the increased molecular weight and the closer packing of molecules as the carbon chain length increases. Options A and B are incorrect as alkanes with up to 17 carbon atoms are not necessarily waxy solids. Option D is also incorrect as Option C provides the correct information.

Q116. Which of the following is used to make chloral hydrate?

• A. Acetaldehyde.✓
• B. Formaldehyde.
• C. None of these.
• D. Both A and B.

Explanation: Chloral is produced by chlorinating acetaldehyde or ethanol in an acidic solution by gradually increasing the temperature from 0 °C to 90 °C.

Q117. Ten moles of hydrogen are allowed to react with 6 moles of oxygen. How much water will be obtained from reaction on complete consumption of one gas?

• A. 10 moles.✓
• B. 8 moles.
• C. 6 moles.
• D. 4 moles.

Explanation: Balance chemical equation2H2 + O2 -> 2H20Now we will compare the moles of H2 and O2 with water from the balanced chemical equation.H2 : H202 : 210 : 10O2 : H201 : 26 : 2x6=12The number of moles of water produced by hydrogen is less so hydrogen will be limiting reactant and it will limit the yield of water thus, 10 moles of water produced.

Q118. The highest temperature a substance can exist as _ is called its critical temperature.

• A. Solid.
• B. Liquid.✓
• C. Gas
• D. Isotope

Explanation: In thermodynamics, in the PV diagram, if liquid and vapor are present in equilibrium at a point, we call it a critical point. So, a substance can exist in its liquid state before.

Q119. _ hybridization leads to a regular tetrahedral structure:

• A. sp3✓
• B. sp2
• C. sp
• D. All of these

Explanation: In hybridization, carbon's 2s and three 2p orbitals combine into four identical orbitals, now called sp3 hybrids. In the water molecule, the oxygen atom can form four sp3 orbitals.Two of these are occupied by the two lone pairs on the oxygen atom, while the other two are used for bonding.

Q120. Osmotic pressure of a solution is _ property.

• A. Obligative.
• B. Fractional.
• C. Colligative✓
• D. Automated.

Explanation: Osmotic pressure is a 'colligative' property, like freezing point depression, which means that it depends on the number of particles in solution but not on their chemical identity

Q121. Magnesium reacts with hydrogen at high pressure in the presence of catalyst _ forming magnesium hydride.

• A. Dolomite.
• B. Mgl2✓
• C. Mg3N2
• D. Epsom salt

Explanation: In 1951 preparation from the elements was first reported involving direct hydrogenation of Mg metal at high pressure and temperature (200 atmospheres, 500 °C) with MgI2 catalyst: Mg + H2 → MgH.

Q122. Which element has the largest number of allotropic forms?

• A. Phosphorous
• B. Sulphur✓
• C. Oxygen
• D. Both A & C

Explanation: Sulphur is the correct answer as it has the largest number of allotropic forms, including rhombic, monoclinic, plastic, and cyclo-octasulphur. In contrast, phosphorus has fewer allotropic forms despite being well-known for them, and oxygen primarily exists as diatomic molecules (O2) with ozone (O3) being its only allotrope, which is significantly fewer than those of sulphur. Therefore, sulphur stands out as the element with the greatest variety of allotropes.

Q123. With increase in number of unpaired electrons, paramagnetism:

• A. Increases.✓
• B. Decreases.
• C. Remains constant.
• D. Decreases then increases.

Explanation: Paramagnetism is due to the presence of unpaired electrons in the material, so most atoms with incompletely filled atomic orbitals are paramagnetic, although exceptions such as copper exist. Due to their spin, unpaired electrons have a magnetic dipole moment and act like tiny magnets.

Q124. Which metal is commonly used to remove air bubbles from molten metals?

• A. Aluminium.✓
• B. Potasium.
• C. Sodium.
• D. Calcium.

Explanation: In aluminum or aluminum alloy casting, the bubbles of an inert gas like argon or nitrogen are passed through the molten metal to perform degassing. This degassing process removes the hydrogen gas from the molten alloys.

Q125. Which of the following bonds has minimum bond energy?

• A. C - F
• B. C - Cl
• C. C - I✓
• D. C - Br

Explanation: C-I bond is the longest bond of all the options as atomic radius increases down the group, iodine is furthest down hence minimum bond energy would be for the weakest bond that is, C-I.

Q126. Which of the following does not react with water?

• A. Li
• B. Na
• C. Mg
• D. Be✓

Explanation: d) Be (Beryllium): This is the correct option. Beryllium does not react with water. It has a strong affinity for oxygen and forms a protective oxide layer, which prevents further reactions with water or air.

Q127. Al2O3(SiO2).2H2) is called:

• A. Clay✓
• B. Talc
• C. Asbestos
• D. None of these

Explanation: Clays used in ceramics and pottery are composed of one or more minerals and may contain up to 40-50% silica.

Q128. CaO forms fertilize slag by reacting with:

• A. P2O5✓
• B. Fe2O3
• C. Silica
• D. FO

Explanation: a) P2O5 (Phosphorus Pentoxide): This is the correct option. Calcium oxide (CaO) reacts with phosphorus pentoxide (P2O5) to form calcium phosphate (Ca3(PO4)2), which is a component of fertilizers and is commonly used to improve soil fertility.

Q129. _is colorless volatile liquid at room temperature.

• A. HCl
• B. HF✓
• C. HI
• D. HBr

Explanation: Due to the small size and high electronegativity of Fluorine, it does very strong Hydrogen Bonding in an HF molecule. So it's stable enough to exist as a colorless fuming liquid at 293°K boiling point. Hence, HF is a colorless fuming liquid while HCl, HBr, and HI are gases.

Q130. Hydrogen passed through phenol at 150 C in the presence of _ catalyst gives cyclohexanol.

• A. Tin
• B. Nickel✓
• C. Iron
• D. Sodium

Explanation: Benzene ring of phenol reacts with Hydrogen in the presence of a catalyst such as Rhodium, platinum, or Raney Nickel to form Cyclohexanol.

Q131. Ethanol-water is a/an _mixture.

• A. Azeotropic✓
• B. Ideal
• C. Benedict's
• D. Aliphatic

Explanation: It has a constant boiling point.

Q132. The mobile phase in paper chromatography is usually:

• A. A non-polar organic solvent✓
• B. Water
• C. Sulfuric acid
• D. Silver nitrate

Explanation: The correct answer is a non-polar organic liquid. In paper chromatography, the mobile phase is typically a non-polar organic solvent that moves up the paper, carrying the different components of the mixture with it. This helps separate the components based on their affinity to the stationary phase, which is usually water (a polar substance) within the paper. This polarity difference is crucial for separation. Water is incorrect as it serves as the stationary phase. Sulphuric acid and silver nitrate are not used as mobile phases in this technique due to their inappropriate properties for chromatography.

Q133. The amount of heat absorbed by one mole of solid at 1 atm when it melts into liquid form is denoted by _ .

• A. ΔHv
• B. ΔHf✓
• C. ΔHi
• D. ΔHs

Explanation: The molar heat of fusion (ΔHfus) of a substance is the heat absorbed by one mole of that substance as it is converted from a solid to a liquid. Since the melting of any substance absorbs heat, it follows that the freezing of any substance releases heat.

Q134. In synthetic fibres, _ bonding is responsible for tensile strength.

• A. Nitrogen
• B. Hydrogen✓
• C. Oxygen
• D. None of these

Explanation: In synthetic fibers, hydrogen bonding plays a crucial role in providing tensile strength. The hydrogen bonds form intermolecular forces that help hold the polymer chains together, enhancing the material's ability to withstand pulling forces. While nitrogen and oxygen can be present in the polymer structure, they are not primarily responsible for tensile strength. Therefore, hydrogen is the correct answer, as it directly contributes to the strength through its bonding.

Q135. Boiling point of HF is _ H2O.

• A. Lower than✓
• B. Higher than
• C. Equal to
• D. Almost same as

Explanation: H2O have a greater boiling point than HF because H2O can form 4 hydrogen bond while HF has 2 hydrogen bond and to break all the hydrogen bonds more energy is needed by H2O than HF.

Q136. _ is necessary for development of leaves and it tends to accumulate in leaves and bark.

• A. NO2
• B. Calcium
• C. Gypsum
• D. Nitrogen✓

Explanation: d) Nitrogen: This is the correct option. Nitrogen is necessary for the development of leaves and is a critical component of chlorophyll, which is essential for photosynthesis. Nitrogen tends to accumulate in leaves, as it is a major component of proteins and other cellular structures. However, it does not specifically accumulate in bark.

Q137. Which of the following is pale yellow to reddish yellow in color?

• A. Pb2O✓
• B. PbO2
• C. PbO
• D. 2PbCO3.Pb(OH)2

Explanation: a) Pb2O (Lead(II) Oxide): Lead(II) oxide is commonly known as lead oxide or litharge. It is a yellow to reddish-yellow powder and is used in various industrial applications, including the manufacturing of glass, ceramics, and pigments.

Q138. In which of the following is carbon double bonded with itself?

• A. Alkane.
• B. Ether.
• C. Alkene.✓
• D. Alkyne.

Explanation: Only Alkene has C=C.

Q139. In this process, higher hydrocarbons can be cracked at lower temperature and lower pressure.

• A. Thermal cracking
• B. Catalytic cracking✓
• C. Steam cracking
• D. Reforming

Explanation: Catalytic cracking is a process in which complex hydrocarbons are broken down into simpler molecules.

Q140. Acetic acid is called _ acid.

• A. Methanoic
• B. Ethanoic✓
• C. Propanoic
• D. Butanoic

Explanation: Acetic acid (CH3COOH), also called ethanoic acid, the most important of the carboxylic acids. A dilute (approximately 5 percent by volume) solution of acetic acid produced by fermentation and oxidation of natural carbohydrates is called vinegar; a salt, ester, or acylal of acetic acid is called acetate.

Q141. Na may be denoted by _ electron configuration notation.

• A. 1s2 2s1
• B. [Ar] 4s1
• C. [Ne] 3s1✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1

Q142. Which is the best drying agent in desiccators?

• A. KOH
• B. Gypsum
• C. CaCl2✓
• D. Silica sand

Explanation: The anhydrous calcium chloride will absorb any water (including condensation, vapour etc) in its environment. It effectively traps that water by changing its molecular make-up.

Q143. 100 m3 of a gas at 3 atm pressure and 27 oc is transferred to a chamber of 300 m3 volume maintained at a temperature of 327 oc. What will be the pressure in chamber?

• A. 6 atm
• B. 4 atm
• C. 2 atm✓
• D. 1 atm

Explanation: Use the combined gas law.P₁V₁/T₁ = P₂V₂/T₂P₁ = initial pressure = 3 atmV₁ = initial volume = 100 m³T₁ = initial temperature= 27° C+273.15 =300.15KP₂ = final pressure = ? atmV₂ = final volume = 300 m³ T₂ final temperature= 327° C + 273.15 = 600.15 KCalculate the final pressure (P₂).P₂ = P₁V₁T₂/V₂T₁P₂ = (3 atm × 100 m³ × 600.15 K)/(300 m³ × 300.15 K) = 2 atm

Q144. The crystals of _ are ionic solids

• A. Sugar
• B. Iron
• C. Diamond
• D. Na✓

Explanation: Ions bound together by electrostatic attraction form ionic crystals. Their arrangement varies depending on the ions' sizes or the radius ratio

Q145. Which material possesses the highest pH?

• A. Soft drinks
• B. Bananas
• C. Milk of magnesia✓
• D. Sea water

Explanation: The basic pH of milk of magnesia helps neutralize overactive stomach acids that cause heartburn.

Q146. The electron present in a particular orbit _ energy.

• A. Releases
• B. Does not radiate✓
• C. Absorbs
• D. None of these

Explanation: It's because there are only a limited number of stable states an electron in an atom can be in.

Q147. Al2F2SiO4 is named as:

• A. Gibbsite✓
• B. Emerald
• C. Bauxite
• D. Cryolite

Explanation: a) Gibbsite: Gibbsite is a mineral composed of aluminum hydroxide (Al(OH)3). It is not the same as Al2F2SiO4.

Q148. Name the oxide in which N has the highest oxidation number.

• A. Nitrous oxide
• B. Nitric oxide
• C. Nitrogen peroxide✓
• D. Nitrous anhydride

Explanation: Nitric oxide =+2Nitrous oxide = +1Nitrous anhydride= +3Nitrogen peroxide= +5

Q149. Sulphur has oxidation state of:

• A. ±2
• B. +4 and +6
• C. None of these
• D. Both A and B✓

Explanation: In H₂SO₄, the oxidation number of S is +6.In H₂SO₃, the oxidation number of S is +4.In Na₂S₂O₃, the oxidation number of S is +2.

Q150. CH3-O-CH3 is example of _ isomerism.

• A. Metamerism
• B. Functional group✓
• C. Chain
• D. Position

Explanation: CH3-O-CH3 exhibits functional group isomerism. The compounds having the same molecular formula but different functional groups are said to exhibit functional group isomerism.

Q151. _ are product of reaction of an alcohol and aromatic bi-functional acids.

• A. Acrylic resins
• B. Polyester resins✓
• C. PVCs
• D. Polyamide resins

Explanation: Polyester resins are synthetic resins formed by the reaction of dibasic organic acids and polyhydric alcohols.

Q152. When a helium atom loses an electron, it becomes:

• A. An alpha particle
• B. Proton
• C. A positive helium ion✓
• D. A negative helium ion

Explanation: Helium’s atomic number is 2 which means a neutral helium atom has 2 protons and 2 electrons , when helium loses an electron it has 1 electron left. This means it has 1 more proton than electron giving it an overall positive charge hence helium becomes a positive ion on losing electron and gets charge of +1.

Q153. Beta ray emitted by a radioactive substance is:

• A. An electron which was existing outside the nucleus.
• B. An electron which was existing inside the nucleus.
• C. An electron emitted by the nucleus as a of the decay of neutrons inside the nucleus.✓
• D. A pulse of electromagnetic waves.

Explanation: An unstable atom can attain stability by radioactive decay such as alpha, beta or gamma decay. When a β particle is leaving the parent atom it increases the atomic number (Z) by 1. Beta rays emit as a proton and electron from the nucleus. The proton remains in the nucleus while an electron will escape the nucleus as it has de-Broglie wavelength.

Q154. An electric charge in uniform motion produces:

• A. An electric field.
• B. A magnetic field.
• C. Both magnetic and electric fields.✓
• D. Neither magnetic nor electric fields.

Explanation: An electric charge produces an electric field around it, and when the electric charge is in motion it causes a change in position of the electric field. This changing electric field allows the production of a changing magnetic field .Therefore there will be both magnetic and electric fields present. However, if the electric charge was stationary there would be no change in the electric field hence no change in the magnetic field.Electric charge needs to be in motion to allow production of both electric and magnetic fields.

Q155. What is emitted by a hot metal filament in a cathode ray tube?

• A. X-ray
• B. Proton.
• C. Electron.✓
• D. Photon.

Explanation: Heating the metal filament in the cathode ray tube causes an increase in energy of the filament which enables electrons to be released from the filament; this is called thermionic emission. This method is what JJ Thomson used for the discovery of electrons using the cathode ray tube experiment.

Q156. If the mass of the bob of a pendulum is doubled its time period is:

• A. Halved.
• B. Doubled.
• C. Unchanged.✓
• D. Increase four times.

Explanation: The time period of a pendulum does not depend on the mass of the bob. So if the mass of bob is doubled, the time period will remain unchanged.The time period of a simple pendulum is given by the equation, T=2π √(L/g), where ‘L’ is the length of the pendulum string and ‘g’ is the acceleration due to gravity.Hence the time period depends on the length of the string by =T∝L

Q157. The centre of Newton rings is dark due to:

• A. Polarization
• B. Destructive interference.✓
• C. Constructive interference.
• D. Reflection.

Explanation: During constructive interference the path difference between the concave lens and the reflective surface i.e. glass slab must be an odd multiple of λ/2, [2n-1×(λ/2)], where n=natural numbers, for destructive interference it must be an even multiple of λ/2, the centre point of newton rings is formed at the point of contact between the lens and the glass. Since the path difference is zero, the condition of destructive interference is satisfied and the centre point is dark.

Q158. Which one is a stable element on the basis of binding energy?

• A. Sn
• B. Ba
• C. Kr
• D. Fe✓

Explanation: Binding energy is the energy required to bind the nucleons inside the nucleus. Binding energy is the measure of stability. According to the binding energy per nucleon vs mass number graph, Fe-56 has the maximum value of binding energy per nucleon (8.75 MeV).

Q159. Resistance in RC circuit of time constant 2 seconds is 1000 Ohms. What is value Of C in the circuit?

• A. 2 u farad.
• B. 20 u farad
• C. 200 u farad
• D. 2000 u farad✓

Explanation: An RC time constant is given by,t=R×C.Given that,t=2 secondR= 1000 Ohms then,2=1000 x CC = 2/1000C= 0.002C = 2 x 10-3 FC = 2 x 10-3 / 10-6C = 2000 uF

Q160. The Lenz’s law refers to induced _.

• A. emf.
• B. Resistance.
• C. Shear
• D. Currents.✓

Explanation: Lenz's law refers to induced currents and not to induced EMF, which means that we can apply it directly to closed conducting loops or coils. The Lenz law is:"The direction of the induced current is always so as to oppose the change which causes the current.

Q161. In which of the following, output is similar to NAND gate if input A=0 and input B = 1.

• A. NOR.
• B. XNOR.
• C. XOR.✓
• D. Both B and C.

Explanation: In logic gates, a NAND gate produces an output of 1 unless both inputs are 1. For inputs A=0 and B=1, the NAND gate outputs 1. An XOR gate outputs 1 when the inputs are different, which they are in this case (A=0, B=1), resulting in the same output as the NAND gate. Other gates like NOR and XNOR do not match this behavior with the same inputs.

Q162. For atomic hydrogen, which of the following series lie in visible region of electromagnetic spectrum?

• A. Lyman series.
• B. Paschen series.
• C. BaImer series.✓
• D. Bohr series.

Explanation: Electrons transitioning from a higher state to an nth state leads to emission of radiation of different wavelengths. In this case Transition from higher states to n=2 leads to emission of radiation with wavelengths 656.3nm and 365.0nm. These wavelengths fall in the visible region and constitute the Balmer series.

Q163. _ are the particles that experience Strong Nuclear force.

• A. Electrons.
• B. Muons.
• C. Neutrinos.
• D. Neutrons.✓

Explanation: Strong nuclear force is experienced by particles in the nucleus, it is the attractive force that holds the nucleus together. Neutrons and protons experience strong nuclear force. Rest of the particles have negligible mass compared to neutrons.

Q164. The vertical velocity of the ball is thrown upward _ with time.

• A. Linearly✓
• B. Remains constant.
• C. Doubles.
• D. Decreases parabolically.

Explanation: The correct answer is Linearly because when a ball is thrown upward, it experiences a constant acceleration due to gravity which acts downward. As a result, the vertical velocity decreases at a constant rate. This linear decrease means that for every second the ball travels upward, its vertical velocity reduces by a fixed amount until it reaches its maximum height and then becomes negative as it falls back down.Option Remains constant is incorrect because the vertical velocity changes as the ball moves against gravity. Option Doubles is also incorrect because the vertical velocity does not double; it decreases instead. Finally, Decreases parabolically is misleading as it describes the path of the ball rather than the linear change in velocity.

Q165. The force required to bend the normally straight path of a particle into a circular path is called:

• A. Travelling force
• B. Centrifugal force
• C. Bending force
• D. Centripetal force✓

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The centripetal force is the force directed toward the center of the circular path, and it is responsible for keeping an object in circular motion. It is necessary to counteract the tendency of an object to move in a straight line (tangentially) and instead make it move in a curved path.

Q166. A disc at rest without slipping, rolls down a hill of height (3 x 9.8) m. What is its speed in m/sec when it reaches the bottom?

• A. 11.4 m/s.
• B. 19.6 m/s.✓
• C. 22.8 m/s.
• D. 9.8 m/s.

Explanation: The problem involves applying the conservation of energy principle. Initially, the disc is at rest at the top of the hill, possessing only potential energy (PE = mgh). As it rolls down, this energy is converted into kinetic energy, which includes both translational (1/2 mv²) and rotational (1/2 Iω²) components. For a disc, the moment of inertia I = 1/2 mR², and the relationship between linear velocity v and angular velocity ω is ω = v/R. Substituting these into the energy equation gives mgh = 1/2 mv² + 1/4 mv², simplifying to mgh = 3/4 mv². Solving for v gives v = sqrt(4gh/3), which evaluates to 19.6 m/s when h is substituted as 3 × 9.8 m.Options A, C, and D are incorrect due to miscalculations or misunderstandings of how energy is distributed and converted during the disc's motion.

Q167. Tuning of the radio is the best example of electrical_

• A. Resonance✓
• B. Resistance.
• C. Current.
• D. None of these.

Explanation: When the frequency of the transmitted wave matches the one displayed on the radio, which is done by tuning it, the amplitude of the sound waves can be heard clearly but when the frequency is changed drastically the sound disappears, resonance only occurs when two waves are of near equal frequency which is best shown by the tuning of the radio.

Q168. A standing wave pattern is formed when the length of string is an integral multiple of wavelength.

• A. Triple.
• B. Full.
• C. Half.✓
• D. Double.

Explanation: Standing or stationary waves are formed when the vibrating medium is made to vibrate giving rise to a waveform without displacing the medium, the medium displays the wavelength of the waveform, which is confined to the length of the spring (normally the medium used). The equation L= n λ/2 shows length being half of the wavelength, where n is the harmonic, n=1 first fundamental, n=2 second fundamental.

Q169. Which of the following lights travels the fastest in optical fibres?

• A. Visible light.
• B. Invisible infra-red.✓
• C. Ultra-violet.
• D. Ordinary light.

Explanation: In a material the speed of a wave, light, becomes v=c/n, where n is the refractive index of the material, n differs for each wavelength where it becomes shorter as the wavelength becomes longer since IR has the longest wavelength it disperses the least and is the fastest in optical fibres.

Q170. The algebraic sum of potential changes in a circuit is zero is Kirchhoff's _ rule.

• A. First.
• B. Second.✓
• C. Third.
• D. None of these.

Explanation: KVL, Kirchoff's voltage law or Kirchoff's loop rule states that within a closed loop containing multiple emf sources and resistors, their sum would be zero taking the current flow as acw or cw within the loop let's us apply the conventions of the rule to find the value of unknown potential drop/rise.

Q171. In LED when an electron combines with a _ during forward bias conduction, a photon of visible light is emitted.

• A. High voltage.
• B. Photon.
• C. Hole.✓
• D. Positron.

Explanation: A hole or an electron hole is a point in an atom, a lattice or a structure where an electron can exist but does not because it has been excited to a higher energy level. when it returns to its normal energy level it emits a photon.

Q172. For photons of energy greater than 1.02 MeV the probability of pair production occurrence _ as the energy increases.

• A. Increase.✓
• B. Completely diminishes.
• C. Reduces to half.
• D. Remains unchanged.

Explanation: The requirement for a photon to carry out pair production is a minimum energy level of 1.02 MeV, if the energy level increases the probability that pair production occurs due to that photon increases. The excess energy is converted into the kinetic energy of the electron positron pair.

Q173. The neutron is assumed to be made of:

• A. One up quark and two down quarks.✓
• B. Up quarks and two down quarks.
• C. Two up quarks and one down quark.
• D. One up quark and one down quark.

Explanation: The sum of the relative masses of one up quark and two down quarks is equal to the mass of a neutron and the overall charge by adding the charge of one up quark and one down quark will give an overall charge of zero which is the charge of a neutron. The charge of one up quark is +2/3e and the charge of one down quark is -1/3e. Therefore 2(-1/3)+(+2/3) = 0

Q174. An _ missile is called a ballistic missile.

• A. Un-powered and guided.
• B. Un-guided and powered.
• C. Powered and guided.
• D. Un-powered and un-guided.✓

Explanation: A ballistic missile follows a ballistic trajectory, these missiles are propelled by a rocket engine for only the first part of its flight; which means they are only guided during the first part of the flight. When the fuel is exhausted, no more thrust is provided and the missile enters free flight where, for the rest of the flight the unpowered missile follows an arcing trajectory. Before entering the re-entering phase. Therefore, a ballistic missile is an unguided and unpowered missile.

Q175. Two cylinders of equal mass are made from the same material. The one with the larger diameter accelerates _ the other under the action of the same torque.

• A. Faster than.✓
• B. Slower than.
• C. Equal to.
• D. None f these.

Explanation: a) Faster than: This option suggests that the cylinder with the larger diameter accelerates at a faster rate than the other cylinder under the same torque. This is the correct answer. According to the principle of rotational dynamics, the moment of inertia of an object increases with its radius (diameter), and therefore a larger diameter cylinder will have a larger moment of inertia. As a result, it will require a smaller angular acceleration (angular velocity change per unit time) to achieve the same angular speed as the smaller diameter cylinder when acted upon by the same torque.

Q176. The angular frequency of simple pendulum is proportional to:

• A. l
• B. 1/l
• C. √l
• D. 1/ √l✓

Explanation: f=1/2π √(g/l)2πf=√(g/l)Given that ω=2πf where ω is angular frequency,ω=√(g/l)ω∝1/√l

Q177. Two waves of slightly different frequencies and travelling in the same direction produce _.

• A. Interference.
• B. Polarization.
• C. Stationary waves.
• D. Beats.✓

Explanation: Two waves of slightly different frequencies travelling in the same direction produce beats. Beats are the superposition of two waves of slightly different frequencies but the same amplitude. This resulting wave is a combination of constructive and destructive interference which are alternating in time between the two giving the wave a time varying amplitude. We can say that beats are produced by interference. Hence the answer ‘beats’ is correct.

Q178. A single mode step index fibre has a core of about _ um diameter

• A. 50 to 1000
• B. 50
• C. 30
• D. 5✓

Explanation: A single mode or monomode step index fibre allows the propagation of only one transverse electromagnetic mode and hence the core diameter must be of the order of 2 µm to 10µm.

Q179. A 5 ohm resistor is indicated by a single _ colour band around its body.

• A. Red
• B. Green✓
• C. Blue
• D. Brown

Explanation: A carbon-composition resistor can have 4 to 6 bands. The assignment of colour according to their bands is shown in the table.The mnemonic to memorise the sequence of colours may be ‘‘Big Boys Race Our Young Girls But Violet Generally Wins”

Q180. Practically _ current flows in a reverse p-n junction.

• A. No✓
• B. Very large
• C. Few milliamperes
• D. Both A and C

Explanation: a) No: This option suggests that practically no current flows in a reverse p-n junction. When a p-n junction is reverse-biased (i.e., the p-side is connected to the negative terminal of a voltage source and the n-side is connected to the positive terminal), only a very small leakage current flows. This current is typically so small that it can be considered negligible for most practical purposes.

Q181. Cesium coated oxidised silver emits electrons for _ light.

• A. Infrared.✓
• B. Ultraviolet.
• C. Visible.
• D. Green.

Explanation: In photocell cesium, coated oxidised silver cathode emits electrons for infrared light.

Q182. The cobalt is absorbed by:

• A. Bones
• B. Skin
• C. Liver✓
• D. Thyroid gland

Explanation: Cobalt is absorbed by the small intestine to the blood and later absorbed by the liver, as it is a core element of vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) which is required for the production of red blood cells in animals.

Q183. In a step-down transformer, the output current _.

• A. Is reduced
• B. Is increased✓
• C. Remains same
• D. None of these

Explanation: A transformer essentially converts between voltage and current using a magnetic field, a step down transformer, steps down the input voltage i.e the secondary voltage is less than the primary voltage .Power can be found by multiplying voltage with current. P= V x IAt primary the equation stands P= Vp x IpAt secondary the equation stands P= Vs x IsSince power remains constant in transformer Pp = PsThe relation becomes Vp/Vs=Ip/IsIn a step down transformer, the secondary voltage becomes less than primary voltage which means voltage decreases and secondary current becomes more than primary current which means current increases. This is to reduce energy loss and keep the power constant.

Q184. Force in terms of base units is expressed as:

• A. Kg ms-2✓
• B. Kgm2s-2
• C. Kgm2s-3
• D. None of these

Explanation: According to Newton’s 2nd lawF=maWhere F is force , m is mass and a is acceleration . The unit of mass is ‘kg’ and the unit of acceleration is ‘m/s2’ .The units of F will be,F=kgm/s2F=kgms-2

Q185. 100 joules work has been done by an agency in 10 seconds. What is the power of agency?

• A. 1000 watt
• B. 100 watt
• C. 10 watt✓
• D. 0.10 watt

Explanation: Power is the amount of energy transferred or converted per unit time.Power = energy / timeGiven that,Work done = 100JTime taken= 10sPower = energy / timePower= 100/10Power=10 Watt

Q186. The acceleration is proportional to the displacement and is directed towards the mean position in _ motion.

• A. Gravity
• B. Simple harmonic✓
• C. Uniform
• D. Projectile

Explanation: One of the conditions for the back and forth motion to be classified as Simple Harmonic Motion is the acceleration being directly proportional to displacement and being directed towards the mean position.

Q187. In gases, the speed of sound is inversely proportional to _ of the density when other factors are the same.

• A. Square root✓
• B. Square
• C. Third power
• D. Third root

Explanation: Speed of sound (v) in gas is directly proportional to square root of isothermal elasticity (K) i.e. compression-rarefaction under constant temperature, and inversely proportional to square-root of density (ρ)This is given by Newton’s formula,V = √ (k/ρ).therefore , from the formula it can be seen thatv=√ (1/ρ)Hence, speed of sound is inversely proportional to square root of the density.

Q188. A watch maker uses _ to repair the watches.

• A. Telescope
• B. Convex mirror
• C. Convex lens✓
• D. Concave lens

Explanation: Convex lenses are used in eyeglasses as they increase refraction and accordingly reduce the focal length hence making the images look larger than they are which allows a watchmaker to be able to clearly see the small gears and be able to repair and manufacture watches which contain crucial small parts. This can be seen in the diagram below.

Q189. A 2m long pipe is open at both ends. What is its harmonic frequency?

• A. 42.5 Hz
• B. 85 Hz✓
• C. 220 Hz
• D. None of these

Explanation: The speed of the sound is = 340m/sIn an open pipe , the length of the pipe contains half a wavelength which means L= λ/2.Using the universal wave equation ,v=fλf=v/λWhere λ = 2L, where L = λ/2When harmonies are involved, ‘n’ is used to distinguish between speed.f=vn/2LWhere L is 2mf=340 x 1 / 2 x 2F=85Hz

Q190. A wire has resistance 100 ohm at 0 C and 200 Ohm at 100 C. What is its temperature coefficient in K-1?

• A. -0.01
• B. -1/273
• C. 0.01✓
• D. 1/273

Explanation: (The mcq option seem incorrrect, the only explanation possible is as follows;)Given that,Resistance at 0°C = 100ΩResistance at 100°C = 200ΩWe have to find temperature coefficient of wire in Kˉ¹Resistance of conductor depends on the length of conductor, area of cross-section of conductor and temperature.Using the Formula,ΔR = R × α × ΔT where,‘ΔR’ denotes change in resistance‘R’ denotes initial resistance‘α’ denotes temperature coefficient‘ΔT’ denotes change in temperatureInitial temperature = 0°C = 273KFinal temperature = 100°C = 373KΔR = R × α × ΔT(R₂ - R₁) = R₁ × α × (T₂ - T₁)(200-100) = 100 × α × (373-273)100 = 100 × α × 100α = 1/100α = 1 × 10ˉ² Kˉ

Q191. The net magnetic field created by the electrons within an atom is due to the field created by their _ motion.

• A. Orbital
• B. Spin✓
• C. Orbital & spin
• D. Orbital X spin

Explanation: Electrons have negative charge. When a charge spins, a magnetic field is created around it. Hence the spinning of electrons produces a magnetic dipole. If the majority of electrons in the atom spins in the same direction, a strong magnetic field is produced. The direction of the electron spin determines the direction of the magnetic field. (B)

Q192. At high temperature, the proportion of _ wavelength radiation increases.

• A. AM radio
• B. Long radio
• C. Shorter✓
• D. Both A and C

Explanation: When the temperature of an object is increased it emits light of shorter wavelength according to E=hc/lambda, since the energy of the object increases the wavelength becomes short.

Q193. In photoelectric effect, removal of photons is observed at _ energies.

• A. Low
• B. High✓
• C. Intermediate
• D. Both A and C

Explanation: Energy will be emitted when electrons jump from higher energy levels to lower energy levels.

Q194. Which device is the most efficient?

• A. Nuclear reactor✓
• B. Storage battery
• C. Silicon solar cell
• D. Dry battery cell

Explanation: a) Nuclear reactor: A nuclear reactor is a device that generates electricity by harnessing the energy released during nuclear reactions, typically nuclear fission. Nuclear reactors are highly efficient in terms of energy generation, as they produce a large amount of energy from a relatively small amount of fuel. However, they also pose safety and environmental concerns, including the management of radioactive waste.

Q195. The units of E in E = mc2 are

• A. Kgms-2
• B. Nms-2
• C. Kgm2s-2✓
• D. Both B and C

Explanation: E=mc²Where E is energy, m is mass and c is the speed of light, the unit of mass is kg and the unit of speed is m/s hence,E=mc²E=(kg)(m/s)²E=kgm2s-2

Q196. Work done on a body equals change in its _ energy.

• A. Total
• B. Potential
• C. Kinetic
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: Since the type of work that is being done isn't specified, a body can have either kinetic energy due to motion or potential energy due to its motion; either or both of these energies can be affected depending on how the work is done . The work could affect the total energy of the body where the work done could result in a change in the kinetic and potential energy alternatively a change in heat energy could also be observed. Hence all of these.

Q197. A pipe varies uniformly in diameter from 2m to 4m. An incompressible fluid enters the pipe with velocity 16 m/s. What is velocity of fluid when it leaves the pipe?

• A. 64 m/s
• B. 32 m/s
• C. 8 m/s
• D. 4 m/s✓

Explanation: Given that,d1=2md2=4mV1=16m/sV2=𝑥From flow rate,A1V1 =A2V2(πr2)1V1=(πr2)2V2(d12/4)V1=(d22/4)V2By substituting the given values,𝑥= V2 = 4m/s

Q198. Transverse waves cannot be setup in _.

• A. Metals
• B. Solids
• C. Fluids✓
• D. Soil

Explanation: For transverse waves the displacement of the medium is perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave.Transverse waves cannot propagate in a gas or a liquid because there is no mechanism for driving motion perpendicular to the propagation of the wave. However, it may occur on the surface of liquid, throughout solid or on a string. Therefore it cannot be set up in fluids as they are liquids.Image reference

Q199. The ratio of the _ is called magnification.

• A. Image size to object size.✓
• B. Object size to image size.
• C. Eyepiece size to object size.
• D. None of these.

Explanation: The magnification produced by a lens is defined as the ‘ratio of the height of the image or image distance, to the height of the object or object distance’, It is denoted by,m=height of image/height of objectm=hi/ho

Q200. Which of the following has the highest resistivity?

• A. Germanium✓
• B. Silver
• C. Copper
• D. Platinum

Explanation: Resistivity (ρ), is resistance R of a specimen such as a wire, multiplied by its cross-sectional area A, and divided by its length 1ρ = RA/l . The units of which are ohm.meter.The resistivity depends on the material of the conductor and the values of each element in a descending order is as follows,4.6×10-1, germanium10.6×10-8, platinum1.6×10-8, copper1.59×10-8, silverGermanium has the highest resistivity, while Silver has the least resistivity.

Q201. An n-type semiconductor is made by doping silicon crystal with _.

• A. Indium
• B. Aluminium
• C. Arsenic✓
• D. Both B and C

Explanation: N- type semiconductor is denoted by positive ion and free electron.Silicon Si has 4 valence electrons and Arsenic As has 5 valence electrons in their respective outermost shells. Si and As doping allows formation of a covalent bond of 4 electrons from both elements while one electron from Si remains free for conduction, forming an N type semiconductor.

Q202. Objects cannot be accelerated to the speed of light in free space is consequence of

• A. Mass variation
• B. Energy - mass relationship
• C. Inertia forces
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: In this case, we look at mass alteration as the speed of object increases.The mathematical expression can be given as, m=mo/√(1-v2/ c2)If v2 = c2Then, m=mo/√(1-c2/ c2),m=mo/√(1-1)m=mo/0m=∞Since the mass would increase to infinity, the energy required to accelerate it would be infinity which is not possible.

Q203. A certain radioactive mass decays from 64 gm to 2 gm in 20 days. What is its half - life?

• A. 5 days
• B. 4 days✓
• C. 10 days
• D. 6 days

Explanation: Radioactive decay is an exponential decay process. Half life measures the time it takes for a given amount of the substance to become reduced by half as a consequence of decay; hence, half life is called half of decay.64—32—16–8–4-2 Half life=5Number of half lives= 20/5 = 4 days

Q204. If inductance is denoted by L and resistance by R, which of the following is true for a choke?

• A. R is large, L is very small
• B. R is very small, L is large✓
• C. Both R and L are large
• D. Both R and L are very small

Explanation: In an ideal choke, a coil should have almost zero internal resistance, R≈0, if a coil has resistance it will consume power.Since R needs to be zero, L will be greater than R. L>R.

Q205. A force 2i + j has moves its point of application form (2,3) to (6,5). What is work done?

• A. -10
• B. +10✓
• C. -18
• D. +18

Explanation: Work is a scalar quantity and work done is a dot product of force and displacement.The difference between the two pints will be our distance.d =(6i+5j)-(2i+3j)d=6i-2i+5j-3jd=4i+2jIf we apply force and there will be displacement then it is called work.wd = f . dW=(2i+j).(4i+2j)W=2x4 + 1x2W =8+2W =+10J

Q206. The escape velocity corresponds to _ energy gained by the body, which carries it to an infinite distance from the surface of earth.

• A. Total
• B. Potential
• C. Initial kinetic✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: Escape velocity Is the velocity required by a body to get out of the earth's gravitational pull and leave the earth without further propulsion, which means no further acceleration is required by the object to leave the earth after the object has attained escape velocity. The initial kinetic energy which associates with movement allows the object to cover an infinite distance from the earth’s surface.

Q207. The drag force decreases as the speed of an object moving through fluid _.

• A. Increases
• B. Decreases✓
• C. Remains constant
• D. Both B and C

Explanation: Drag force is a resistive force, which can only increase as forward force increases. This is in accordance with Newton's Law that every force has an equal and opposite force acting on it.

Q208. Light year is a measure of:

• A. Distance✓
• B. Time
• C. Intensity of light
• D. Velocity

Explanation: A light-year is the distance a beam of light travels in a single Earth year, which equates to approximately 6 trillion miles or 9.7 trillion kilometres. As opposed to what the name implies, a light-year is a measurement of distance and not time.

Q209. A yellow light of wavelength 500 nm emitted by a single source passes through two narrow slits 1 mm apart. How far apart are two adjacent bright fringes when interference is observed on a screen 10 m away?

• A. 5 mm✓
• B. 1.33 mm
• C. 0.5 mm
• D. 50 mm

Explanation: x=λ D/a, where λ is the wavelength of light, D is the distance between screen and slits, a is the slit separation, and x is the fringe separation, all measured in metres. λ =500nm=500×10ˆ-9 m D=10m a=1mm=1×10ˆ-3 m x=500×10ˆ-9×10/1×10ˆ-3 x=5×10ˆ-3 x=5mm

Q210. The heat produced by a current I in the wire of resistance R during time interval t is:

• A. I2/Rt
• B. I2Rt✓
• C. I2/R/t
• D. IR2t

Explanation: Work done when an electric charge Q moves against a potential difference is given by,W=QxVSince current is I=Q/tQ=IxtBy ohm's law, V/I=RV=IxRBy combining the equations we achieve,W=I x t x I x RW= I2RtWe assume that all electrical work done is converted into heat energy we can predict,Heat produced, H=I2Rt joules

Q211. Which of the following is the most ductile?

• A. Glass
• B. Copper✓
• C. Cast iron
• D. High carbon steel

Explanation: Ductility is the property of being drawn into wires, it is a permanent strain tension test.Copper can be drawn into very thin wires as it is a metal; its atoms have the ability to roll over each other into new positions without breaking the metallic bond.While cast iron is brittle and will break due to its weak tensile strength means that it will fracture before it bends or distorts.In case of high carbon steel, the carbon atoms are much smaller than iron atoms and as more carbon is put into a lattice or iron atoms, it becomes harder for the iron atoms to slide easily past each other because of the carbon, and the steel becomes much more brittle and less ductile.For glass, the molecular structure is made up of tetrahedral crystals which do not have large-area orderly crystalline structure therefore they rupture under stress.Hence copper is the most ductile.

Q212. Shah Jahan _ the great mosque at Delhi.

• A. Founded
• B. Built✓
• C. Raised
• D. Established

Explanation: The correct answer is 'Built' as Shah Jahan physically constructed the great mosque at Delhi. 'Founded' and 'Established' are more appropriate for organizations or institutions, while 'Raised' is not typically used to describe building construction.

Q213. He _on a very extraordinary ambition.

• A. Arrived
• B. Came
• C. Decided✓
• D. Hit

Explanation: Decided - the pronoun “on” hints that decided should be used as no other word is fitting as well as since people “decide upon” topics.

Q214. He was _ of theft in the court.

• A. Charged✓
• B. Blamed
• C. Reported
• D. Accused

Explanation: Charged - criminals in court are charged or sentenced.

Q215. SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the Circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response From.His first adventure was to go round through the world at minimum cost.

• A. First adventure
• B. Go round
• C. Through✓
• D. Minimum cost

Explanation: Through is unnecessary as we have already said “go round”

Q216. Our flight was _ from Lahore to Islamabad airport.

• A. Diverted✓
• B. Reflected
• C. Deflected
• D. Shifted

Explanation: To divert something means to change its current path to a different one. In this example the plane lands in a different location compared to its original one due to being diverted.Reflect means for a surface or body to throw back heat, light, or sound without absorbing it.To deflect means for an object to change direction after hitting something. Or for one to cause someone to deviate from an intended purpose.To shift means too change position. The plane can shift from one runway to another but it is more appropriate to say that it diverted its route from one to another.

Q217. The presence of armed guards _ us from doing anything disruptive.

• A. Defeated
• B. Excited
• C. Irritated
• D. Prevented✓

Explanation: Defeated means to be overtaken by an enemy.Excited means to be enthusiastic and cannot be used in this scenario.Irritated means to feel annoyed or slightly angry. Prevented - To be prevented from something means to be completely stopped from doing it. The presence of guards ensures that disruption is prevented

Q218. SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the Circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response From.One must not depend too much upon one’s hard work, as provident also plays its part.

• A. Too much
• B. One’s hard work
• C. Provident✓
• D. Plays its part

Explanation: This is the inaccurate form/ tense of provident

Q219. SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the Circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response From.He is better than all the boys in the class, in studies as well as in sports, and bags big prizes in various field.

• A. Better than
• B. As well as
• C. Bags✓
• D. Various

Explanation: Achieves is the correct word to be placed in place of “bags”

Q220. The local team scored three goals _ the first half of the match.

• A. At
• B. For
• C. In✓
• D. On

Explanation: The sentence should read: "The local team scored three goals in the first half of the match."The preposition "in" indicates a time period or a duration, showing that the goals were scored during the first half of the match