Uhs Mdcat 2009 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. The traveler _ a long detour to water the camels.

• A. Took✓
• B. Sought
• C. Saw
• D. Made

Explanation: The word "took" means to undertake or perform an action, which is the appropriate verb to use in this sentence to convey that the traveller acted by taking a detour to water the crops "Sought" means to look for, which does not make sense in this context. "Saw" means to perceive with the eyes, which is not appropriate in this sentence. "Made" means to create or construct something, which is not relevant to the sentence.

Q2. Shah Jahan _ the great mosque at Delhi.

• A. Founded✓
• B. Created
• C. Raised
• D. Established

Explanation: Founded is the more appropriate word in this context because it signifies the establishment or initiation of the construction of the mosque. "Created" might imply a more artistic or creative act, which doesn't accurately describe the process of building a mosque.

Q3. He was _ of theft in the court.

• A. Charged✓
• B. Blamed
• C. Reported
• D. Accused

Explanation: Charged - criminals in court are charged or sentenced.

Q4. He _on a very extraordinary ambition.

• A. Arrived
• B. Came
• C. Decided✓
• D. Hit

Explanation: Decided - the pronoun “on” hints that decided should be used as no other word is fitting as well as since people “decide upon” topics.

Q5. SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the Circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response From.He is better than all the boys in the class, in studies as well as in sports, and bags big prizes in various field.

• A. Better than
• B. As well as
• C. Bags✓
• D. Various

Explanation: Achieves is the correct word to be placed in place of “bags”

Q6. SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the Circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response From.One must not depend too much upon one’s hard work, as provident also plays its part.

• A. Too much
• B. One’s hard work
• C. Provident✓
• D. Plays its part

Explanation: This is the inaccurate form/ tense of provident

Q7. SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the Circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response From.His first adventure was to go round through the world at minimum cost.

• A. First adventure
• B. Go round
• C. Through✓
• D. Minimum cost

Explanation: Through is unnecessary as we have already said “go round”

Q8. SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the Circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response From.He has been working in this department since the last five years without any break.

• A. Has been working
• B. Since✓
• C. Last five years
• D. Break

Explanation: Explanation: "For" is the correct preposition to use in this context to indicate the duration of time. "Has been working" is correct to indicate that the person started working in the department in the past and continues to work there in the present. "Last five years" is correct to indicate the specific duration of time. "Break" is correct to indicate that the person has not taken any time off during the five years.

Q9. SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the Circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response From.He reached at Lahore only a few days ago, on last Friday, to be exact, and is going to stay here for some time

• A. Reached at✓
• B. A few
• C. To be exact,
• D. Is going to stay

Explanation: Explanation:"Reached at" should be replaced simply by "reached". "A few" is appropriate to indicate a small number of days. "To be exact" is also appropriate to indicate that the person arrived on a specific day, namely last Friday. "Is going to stay" is also appropriate to convey that the person plans to stay in Lahore for some time in the future.

Q10. SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the Circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response From.There was a big rally on the Mall, but as the crowd disintegrated, chaos and confusion ruled everywhere.

• A. A big rally
• B. Disintegrated
• C. Chaos
• D. Ruled✓

Explanation: ANSWER: DExplanation:Spread would be more accurate instead of ruled as these are emotions and not individuals. "A big rally" is appropriate to indicate that a large gathering of people had taken place. "Disintegrated" is also appropriate to indicate that the crowd gradually dispersed. "Chaos" is also appropriate to indicate the disorder and confusion that resulted from the dispersal of the crowd.

Q11. In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the Circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.

• A. E-mail is a relatively new mean of communication.
• B. E-mail is a relatively new means of communication.✓
• C. E-mail is a relatively new mean to communication.
• D. E-mail is a relatively new means to communication.

Explanation: Explanation:The sentence is correct because "means" is the plural form of "mean," and the preposition "of" is used correctly to indicate that email is a method or form of communication.This option is incorrect because "mean" is a singular noun, and the sentence requires the plural form of the noun.This sentence is also incorrect because " mean to communicate" is an incorrect usage. The preposition "to" should not be used to express a method or form of communication.This sentence is also incorrect because " means to communicate" is an incorrect usage. The preposition "to" should not be used to express a method or form of communication, and "means" is the correct plural form of the noun.

Q12. In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the Circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Responsen Form.

• A. As she said the computer was programmed by Mona.✓
• B. Just like she said the computer was programmed by Mona.
• C. As like she said the computer was programmed by Mona.
• D. Just like she had she said the computer was programmed by Mona.

Explanation: Explanation:"As she said" is the expression used to refer to someone's words.This sentence is incorrect because "just like" is an informal phrase and not appropriate in this context. Also, the sentence requires the use of the past tense as the event being described occurred in the past.The sentence is incorrect because "as like" is an incorrect usage. "As" or "like" can be used, but not together.The sentence is incorrect because it contains redundancy. "Had she said" is unnecessary as the tense and structure of the sentence already indicate that the event being described occurred in the past.

Q13. In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the Circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form

• A. We will discuss your problem as soon as the committee will leave.
• B. We will discuss your problem as soon as the committee left.
• C. We will discuss your problem as soon as the committee may leave.
• D. We will discuss your problem as soon as the committee leaves.✓

Explanation: Explanation:The sentence is correct because "leaves" is the simple present tense, which is the correct tense to use after "as soon as".The sentence is incorrect because the future tense "will leave" should not be used after the conjunction "as soon as". Instead, the simple present tense is used. This sentence is also incorrect because the past tense "left" should not be used after the conjunction "as soon as". Instead, the simple present tense is used.This sentence is also incorrect because "may leave" is not the correct tense to use after "as soon as". Instead, the simple present tense is used.

Q14. In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the Circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.

• A. Masood told me that he would hire more salesmen if he is in my position.
• B. Masood told me that he would hire more salesmen if he has been in my position.
• C. Masood told me that he would hire more salesmen if he has my position.
• D. Masood told me that he would hire more salesmen if he had been in my position.✓

Explanation: Explanation:Option D is correct because it uses the past perfect tense "had been" to indicate a hypothetical situation in the past. Option A uses the present tense "is" which is incorrect because the sentence is talking about a hypothetical situation in the past.Option B is incorrect because it uses the present perfect tense instead of the past perfect tense.Option C is also incorrect because it uses "has" instead of the past tense "had".

Q15. In each of the following questions, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill in the Circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.

• A. They felt bad while leaving their friends.✓
• B. They felt very badly about leaving their friends.
• C. They felt badly about leaving their friends.
• D. They felt badly while teaving their friends.

Explanation: Explanation:"Bad" is an adjective describing how they felt, so the correct sentence is:"They felt bad while leaving their friends."This option is incorrect because the adverb "very" is modifying the adjective "badly," which describes the verb "felt." Instead, it should be "They felt bad" or "They felt very bad."This option is incorrect because "badly" modifies the verb "felt," so the adjective form "bad" should be used instead.

Q16. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Circle on the MCQ Response Form.AGHAST

• A. Critical
• B. Reluctant
• C. Happy
• D. Horrified✓

Explanation: Explanation:Aghast means filled with horror or shock.Horrified also means feeling or showing horror; shockingly dreadful. So, D is the correct option.This option is not correct because critical means expressing adverse or disapproving comments or judgments.This option is incorrect because reluctant means unwilling and hesitant, disinclined.This option is also incorrect because happy means feeling or showing pleasure or contentment.

Q17. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Circle on the MCQ Response Form.INVIDIOUS

• A. Unbreakable
• B. Interesting
• C. Unpleasant✓
• D. Fair

Explanation: Explanation:Invidious means something that would cause resentment or anger in others. So, unpleasant is the correct answer.OPTION A: means that something cannot be broken and is not related to the meaning of "invidious."OPTION B: This means something engaging or captivating, and is not related to the meaning of "invidious."OPTION D: means that something is just or impartial and is not related to the meaning of "invidious."

Q18. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Circle on the MCQ Response Form.IMPROMPTU

• A. Arriving at the right time
• B. Showing signs of being good
• C. Done without preparation✓
• D. Wretched

Explanation: Explanation:This is the correct definition of "impromptu". It means something that is done or said without preparation or planning.OPTION A: This definition is not accurate for 'impromptu'.OPTION B: This definition is also not accurate for 'impromptu'.OPTION D: This definition is also not accurate for 'impromptu'.

Q19. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Circle on the MCQ Response Form.DISCERNMENT

• A. A system of controfling a country
• B. The ability to show good judgement✓
• C. The act of encouraging somebody
• D. The ability to show no concern

Explanation: Explanation:This is the correct definition of "discernment". It refers to the ability to judge well or to perceive things accurately and make good decisions.This is the definition of "governance" or "government", not "discernment".This definition does not match the word "discernment".This definition is not related to the meaning of "discernment"

Q20. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Circle on the MCQ Response Form.NEOLOGISM

• A. A new word✓
• B. Pleasant remark
• C. Brief summary
• D. Archaic expression

Explanation: Explanation:A new word refers to a recently created or invented word, or a word that has taken on a new meaning over time. So, A is the correct answer. This option does not relate to the meaning of "neologism". This option also does not relate to the meaning of "neologism". This option also does not relate to the meaning of "neologism".

Q21. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate circle on the mcq Response Form.Perish

• A. Furious
• B. Come to death✓
• C. Secret
• D. Frustrated

Explanation: "Come to death" is the correct meaning for perish, as it accurately conveys the idea of dying or ceasing to exist, often due to natural causes or other circumstances.Furious refers to being extremely angry, enraged, or incensed, and is not synonymous with perish.This is also not an accurate meaning for perish. Secret refers to something being concealed, hidden, or not revealed, and is not synonymous with perish.Frustrated refers to being dissatisfied, disappointed, or thwarted in achieving a desired outcome, and is not synonymous with perish.

Q22. Select the nearest correct meaning of the word given.BOURGEOIS

• A. Belonging to the bureaucratic class
• B. Belonging to the middle class✓
• C. Belonging to the upper class
• D. Belonging to the lower class

Explanation: BOURGEOIS means belonging to or characteristic of the middle class, typically with reference to its perceived materialistic values or conventional attitudes.Bourgeois is often mistakenly used to refer to people of considerable wealth or status, possibly because the French pronunciation causes us to associate it with opulence, yet the word is of decidedly middle-class origins.

Q23. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Circle on the MCQ Response Form.RUMINATE

• A. Eat greedily
• B. Think deeply✓
• C. Work lazily
• D. Run fast

Explanation: Explanation:This is the correct definition of "ruminate". It means to think deeply and carefully about something, often over a long period of time. This definition is incorrect for the word "ruminate". This definition is also incorrect for the word "ruminate". This definition is also incorrect for the word "ruminate".

Q24. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Circle on the MCQ Response Form.EMBELLISH

• A. Beautify✓
• B. Nominate
• C. Finish
• D. Weaken

Explanation: Explanation:"Embellish" means to make something more attractive or beautiful, often by adding decorative details. So, A is the correct answer. "Nominate" means to suggest someone as a candidate for a position, award, or honor. It is not related to the meaning of "Embellish". "Finish" means to complete or bring something to an end, and is not related to the meaning of "Embellish". "Weaken" means to make something weaker or less effective, and is not related to the meaning of "Embellish".

Q25. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Circle on the MCQ Response Form.PARABLE

• A. Impossible
• B. Sociable
• C. Allegory✓
• D. Suitable

Explanation: Explanation:"Parable" is a simple story used to illustrate a moral or spiritual lesson, like a fable. "Allegory" is a synonym of "parable"."Impossible" means something that cannot be done or achieved, and is not related to the meaning of "parable"."Sociable" means someone who enjoys being around others and is friendly and outgoing, and is not related to the meaning of "parable"."Suitable" means appropriate or fitting for a particular purpose or situation, and is not related to the meaning of "parable".

Q26. If DNA strand is GCTATGG, then mRNA strand synthesized from it would be:

• A. CGAUACC✓
• B. CGTATGC
• C. CGATACC
• D. CGUTCC

Explanation: ExplanationThe mRNA would be complementary to the given DNA strand. RNA has Uracil Base instead of thymine. Uracil will be complementary to adenine and guanine will be complementary to cytosine.

Q27. Which one of the following conditions best describes active membrane potential:

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D✓

Explanation: Explanation:When the neuron is under action potential, the charges on the membrane are reversed. As a result, the inside is positive and the outside becomes negative.

Q28. Tissue rejection is executed by:

• A. Both B and T lymphocytes
• B. Monocytes
• C. B-lymphocytes
• D. T-lymphocytes✓

Explanation: Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes are mainly responsible for graft and tissue rejection.

Q29. Which of the following statement best describes the function of sinoatrial node?

• A. It sends out electrical impulses to ventrictes to contract.
• B. It is present at upper end of the left atrium
• C. It consists of small number of diffusely oriented cardiac fibers
• D. It sends out electrical impulses to atrial muscles causing both atria to contract.✓

Explanation: Explanation:SA node or the pacemaker is located in the right atrium and it sends out impulses causing both Atria to contract. This option is incorrect because the SA node is responsible for initiating and coordinating the contraction of the Atria, not the ventricles. This option is incorrect because the SA node is located in the right atrium, near the entrance of the superior vena cava. This option is also incorrect because the SA node consists of a group of specialized cardiac muscle cells, not fibers.

Q30. A central cavity of the kidney where urine is collected after filtration is known as:

• A. Ureter
• B. Urethra
• C. Pelvis✓
• D. Urinary Bladder

Explanation: Explanation:The central cavity of the kidney is known as the renal pelvis. From here, urine enters the ureter and is carried to the bladder. This option is not correct because the ureter is a tube-like structure that carries urine from the kidneys to the bladder. This option is also incorrect because the urethra is a tube that carries urine from the bladder out of the body. This option is also incorrect because the urinary bladder is an expandable muscular sac that stores urine until it is expelled from the body through the urethra.

Q31. Aldosterone plays role in:

• A. Transport of water
• B. Uptake of sodium in loop of Henle✓
• C. Transport of K* ions inta kidney
• D. Reabsorption of water

Explanation: Explanation:Aldosterone is a hormone that is involved in osmoregulation and blood pressure regulation. It is secreted by the adrenal cortex and functions as an uptake of sodium in the loop of Henle. This option is incorrect because aldosterone is involved in regulating fluid and electrolyte balance in the body, it does not directly transport water. This option is also incorrect because aldosterone promotes the secretion of potassium ions into the urine, rather than their uptake into the kidney. This option is partially correct, as aldosterone does promote the reabsorption of water in the kidney, but this is primarily a result of its actions on sodium uptake.

Q32. Technique used for non-surgical removal of kidney stone is called:

• A. Ultrasound
• B. Dialysis
• C. Lithotripsy✓
• D. X-ray

Explanation: Explanation:Lithotripsy means breaking stones. It is a non-invasive procedure. Kidney stones are broken with the help of shock waves.This option is incorrect because ultrasound is a diagnostic imaging technique that uses high-frequency sound waves to create images of the body's internal organs and structures.This option is also incorrect because dialysis is a treatment for kidney failure that involves filtering waste products from the blood using a machine.This option is also incorrect because X-rays may be used in the diagnosis and monitoring of kidney stones, but they are not used in the actual removal of the stones.

Q33. Microcephaly, the small sized skull is due to:

• A. Nutritional Cause
• B. Hormonal Causes
• C. Skeleton Damage
• D. Genetic Defect✓

Explanation: Explanation: Microcephaly, the small-sized skull, is usually due to a genetic defect. It can also be caused by environmental factors such as infections, exposure to toxic substances, and lack of proper nutrition during fetal development, but genetic causes are the most common. Genetic causes may include mutations in genes involved in brain development, chromosomal abnormalities, or inherited conditions that affect brain growth.

Q34. The joints that allow movements in several directions are:

• A. Hinge Joints
• B. Fibrous Joints
• C. Ball and Socket Joints✓
• D. Cartilaginous Joints

Explanation: Explanation:The joints that allow movements in several directions are called ball and socket joints. This option is not correct because hinge joints allow movement in one plane only. This option is also incorrect because fibrous joints show no movement. This option is also incorrect because Cartilaginous joints show very limited movement.

Q35. The collagen fibers of bone are hardened by deposit of:

• A. Calcium phosphate✓
• B. Calcium carbonate
• C. Calcium oxalate
• D. Calcium bicarbonate

Explanation: Explanation:The collagen fibers of bone are hardened by the deposition of calcium phosphate, which forms the mineral component of bone tissue known as hydroxyapatite.This option is incorrect. Calcium carbonate is a mineral that is found in some types of rocks and the shells of marine organisms, but it is not a major component of bone tissue.Calcium oxalate is a compound that can form crystals in the urinary tract, but it is not involved in the hardening of bone tissue.Calcium bicarbonate is a compound that is formed when carbon dioxide dissolves in water, but it is not involved in the hardening of bone tissue.

Q36. Which of the following neurotransmitters lies outside the central nervous system?

• A. Serotonin
• B. Acetylcholine✓
• C. Dopamine
• D. Adrenaline

Explanation: Explanation:The neurotransmitter that lies outside the central nervous system is Acetylcholine, it is only present in the PNS. Serotonin and Dopamine are present in the CNS. Adrenaline is present in both CNS and PNS

Q37. Which hormonal pair shares a common hypothalamic releasing factor?

• A. STH and LH
• B. FSH and STH
• C. ACTH and LH
• D. FSH and LH✓

Explanation: Explanation:FSH and LH are both gonadotropins that are involved in the regulation of reproductive function. They are produced by the anterior pituitary gland and are regulated by the hypothalamic hormone GnRH.STH (somatotropin hormone, also known as growth hormone) and LH (luteinizing hormone) do not share a common hypothalamic-releasing factor. STH is regulated by the hypothalamic hormone GHRH (growth hormone-releasing hormone), while LH is regulated by the hypothalamic hormone GnRH (gonadotropin-releasing hormone).FSH (Follicle-stimulating hormone) and STH don't share a common hypothalamic releasing factor. FSH is regulated by the hypothalamic hormone GnRH, while STH is regulated by GHRH.FSH (Follicle-stimulating hormone) and STH don't share a common hypothalamic releasing factor. FSH is regulated by the hypothalamic hormone GnRH, while STH is regulated by GHRH.

Q38. Which of the following will happen if fertilization does not occur?

• A. Menopause starts
• B. FSH secretion is increased
• C. Corpus luteum degenerates✓
• D. Progesterone secretion is increased

Explanation: Explanation:If fertilization does not take place corpus luteum degenerates and progesterone levels decrease leading to menstruation and the start of the next cycle.Menopause is a natural process that occurs in women around the age of 50-55, and is characterized by the cessation of menstrual periods due to the depletion of ovarian follicles. Menopause is not directly related to fertilization.FSH secretion is not increased in the absence of fertilization due to negative feedback from the absence of the hormone progesterone.Progesterone secretion is not increased in the absence of fertilization because it is primarily secreted by the corpus luteum, which degenerates if fertilization does not occur

Q39. Newborn infant may acquire serious eye infections, if his/her mother has:

• A. Genital herpes
• B. Gonorrhea✓
• C. AIDS
• D. Syphilis

Explanation: Explanation:Gonorrhea is a bacterial infection caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhea. If a mother has gonorrhea at the time of delivery, the bacteria can infect the infant's eyes as they pass through the birth canal, leading to a condition called neonatal conjunctivitis or ophthalmia neonatorum. This infection can cause serious eye damage if left untreated. Genital herpes is a viral infection caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV). While HSV can be transmitted from mother to infant during childbirth, it is not a common cause of eye infections in newborns. AIDS is not a common cause of eye infections in newborns.Syphilis is a relatively rare cause of eye infections in newborns compared to gonorrhea.

Q40. At the cephalic end of primitive streak, closely packed cells form a loci thickening known as:

• A. Hensen's Node✓
• B. Primitive Ridge
• C. Gastrocoel
• D. Primitive Gut

Explanation: Explanation:At the cephalic end of the primitive streak, closely packed cells form a locai thickening known as Hensen's node. It is the site where the gastrulation begins and the 3 germ layers are first formed.This option is not correct. The primitive ridge is a thickened area of the ectoderm that lies above the notochord in the developing embryo. It is formed during neurulation and serves as a signaling center that regulates the patterning of the neural tube.This option is also incorrect. The gastrocoel is a cavity that forms in the developing embryo as the gut tube forms by folding the endodermal layer. It eventually becomes the lumen of the developing digestive tract.This option is also incorrect. The primitive gut is the initial tube-like structure that develops from the endoderm during gastrulation. It later gives rise to the digestive tract and associated organs.

Q41. In plants, the red light favours:

• A. Enhancement of cell differentiation
• B. Maturation of the cells
• C. Elongation of cells✓
• D. Enhancement of cell division

Explanation: Explanation:Red light favours elongation of cells and blue light enhances cell division but retards cell enlargement.When red light can influence the differentiation of certain cell types in plants, it is not the primary effect of red light.Red light is not known to have a significant effect on the maturation of cells in plants.Red light is also not known to have a direct effect on cell division in plants, although it can indirectly influence cell division by promoting plant growth and providing the necessary conditions for cell division to occur.

Q42. The reaction between the phosphate group of one nucleotide and hydroxyl group of another is a synthesis in DNA molecule.

• A. Dehydration✓
• B. Oxidation
• C. Rehydration
• D. Reduction

Explanation: Explanation:This is a dehydration reaction involving the formation of phosphodiester bonds.This option is incorrect. Oxidation is a chemical reaction that involves the loss of electrons by a molecule, atom, or ion.This option is also incorrect. Rehydration is the process of adding water to a substance to restore its moisture content.This option is also incorrect because reduction is a chemical reaction that involves the gain of electrons by a molecule, atom, or ion.

Q43. Enzyme which attaches the Okazaki fragments in lagging strand is called:

• A. Restriction endonuclease
• B. DNA helicase
• C. Primase
• D. DNA ligase✓

Explanation: Explanation:DNA Ligase is an enzyme that catalyzes the formation of a phosphodiester bond between adjacent Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand during DNA replication. This reaction joins the fragments together into a continuous strand. DNA Ligase is therefore essential for the completion of DNA replication on the lagging strand. Restriction endonuclease is an enzyme that cleaves DNA at specific sites called restriction sites. It is not involved in the attachment of Okazaki fragments during DNA replication. DNA helicase is an enzyme that unwinds the double-stranded DNA molecule at the replication fork during DNA replication. However, it is not involved in the attachment of Okazaki fragments during DNA replication.Primase is an enzyme that synthesizes a short RNA primer on the DNA template strand during DNA replication. However, it is not involved in the attachment of Okazaki fragments during DNA replication.

Q44. In phenylketonuria, phenylalanine is not degraded because of defective enzyme:

• A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase✓
• B. Phenylalanine oxidase
• C. Phenylalanine phosphate
• D. None of these

Explanation: Explanation:Phenylalanine hydroxylase is an enzyme that converts the amino acid phenylalanine to tyrosine. In PKU, genetic mutations result in a deficiency or absence of functional phenylalanine hydroxylase, leading to the buildup of phenylalanine and its by products in the blood and tissues.Phenylalanine oxidase is not a human enzyme and is not involved in the normal metabolism of Phenylalanine.Phenylalanine phosphate is not an enzyme but a metabolic intermediate of phenylalanine that is not directly involved in the pathogenesis of PKU.

Q45. Males with XXY chromosomes suffer from:

• A. Klinefelter’s Syndrome✓
• B. Down's Syndrome
• C. Jacob's Syndrome
• D. Edward’s Syndrome

Explanation: Explanation:XXY chromosomes in a male cause Klinefelter's syndrome.This option is not correct. Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21, leading to characteristic physical features and intellectual disability.This option is also incorrect. Jacob's syndrome, also known as XYY syndrome, is a genetic disorder in which males have an extra Y chromosome, resulting in a karyotype of 47, XYY.This option is also incorrect. Edward's syndrome, also known as trisomy 18, is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 18. It is associated with severe developmental abnormalities and a high rate of infant mortality.

Q46. Internal program of events and sequences of morphological changes by which cell commit a suicide is collectively called:

• A. Necrosis
• B. Metastasis
• C. Epistasis
• D. Apoptosis✓

Explanation: Explanation:The internal program of events and sequences of morphological changes by which a cell commits suicide is collectively called apoptosis. Apoptosis is also known as programmed cell death.This option is incorrect. Necrosis is the death of body tissue due to a very low blood supply and can be caused due to injury, etc.This option is also incorrect. Metastasis refers to the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor site to other parts of the body.Epistasis is a genetic phenomenon where the expression of one gene is influenced by another gene. It occurs when the alleles of one gene modify or mask the effects of another gene.

Q47. Phragmoplast is formed from vesicle which originates from:

• A. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
• B. Ribosome
• C. Golgi Complex✓
• D. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

Explanation: Explanation:The phragmoplast is formed by vesicles that originally arise from the Golgi complex. Smooth Endoplasmic reticulum is an organelle involved in various cellular functions such as lipid synthesis, drug metabolism, and calcium storage. It does not play a direct role in the formation of the phragmoplast.Ribosomes are cellular structures that are involved in protein synthesis. They are not involved in the formation of the phragmoplast.The rough endoplasmic reticulum is an organelle involved in the synthesis and modification of proteins. It is not directly involved in the formation of the phragmoplast.

Q48. When phenotype of a heterozygote is in between the phenotypes of both the homozygous parents, it is called:

• A. Incomplete dominance✓
• B. Pleiotropy
• C. Epistasis
• D. Codominance

Explanation: Explanation:This is known as incomplete dominance when none of the two alleles can completely suppress the other. For example, when pink flowers are produced from red and white parents.This option is not correct. Pleiotropy is a genetic phenomenon in which a single gene has multiple effects on the phenotype.This option is also incorrect. Epistasis is a genetic phenomenon in which the expression of one gene is influenced by another gene.This option is also incorrect. In codominance, both alleles in a heterozygote are expressed equally, resulting in a phenotype that shows both traits simultaneously.

Q49. Which one is correct about blood?

• A. Will produce anti-Rh antibodies if given Rh* blood✓
• B. Rh* antigens are present on RBCs
• C. Cannot produce anti-Rh antibodies in any case
• D. Rh* antibodies are present in blood

Explanation: Explanation:If Rh- person receives Rh antigen through the wrong Rh+ blood transfusion, he will begin to produce anti-Rh antibodies against Rh antigens.

Q50. Temperature-insensitive (thermostable) enzyme used in PCR is:

• A. DNA polymerase I
• B. DNA ligase
• C. DNA polymerase ITI
• D. Taq polymerase✓

Explanation: Explanation:Taq polymerase is very thermo stable as it is derived from bacteria Thermophilus aquaticus that lives in hot geysers. DNA polymerase l is an enzyme involved in DNA replication, repair, and recombination. It has a relatively low thermostability and is not commonly used in polymerase chain reaction (PCR).DNA Ligase is an enzyme that catalyzes the formation of phosphodiester bonds between adjacent DNA strands. It is not used as a thermostable enzyme in PCR.DNA polymerase lll is the primary enzyme involved in DNA replication in bacteria. It has a moderate level of thermostability but is not commonly used in PCR

Q51. Cloning is a form of:

• A. Parthenogenesis
• B. Apomixis
• C. Sexual Reproduction
• D. Asexual Reproduction✓

Explanation: Cloning produces genetically identical individuals without gamata fusion, so it is a form of asexual reproduction.

Q52. Antigens to treat Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma are produced by:

• A. Wheat Plant
• B. Tobacco Plant✓
• C. Rice Plant
• D. Corn Plant

Explanation: Explanation:Tobacco plants are commonly used for producing antigens to treat non-hodgkin lymphoma.Wheat is not commonly used for producing antigens to treat non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.Rice is not commonly used for producing antigens to treat non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.Corn is also not commonly used for producing antigens to treat non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.

Q53. The survival of an organism during the struggle for existence is not random, but depends on:

• A. Its genetic constitution✓
• B. Its ability to over-produce
• C. Its ability to acquire characters
• D. Its ability to over-eat

Explanation: According to Darwin's theory of natural selection, the survival of an organism is influenced by its genetic constitution. Organisms with favorable genetic traits that enhance their ability to survive and reproduce are more likely to pass these traits on to the next generation. While overproduction and the ability to acquire new characteristics can influence reproductive success, these factors are inherently reliant on genetic factors. Overeating, on the other hand, is not typically advantageous and can be harmful, reducing an organism's fitness in its environment.

Q54. Evolutionary relationships amongst species are reflected in their:

• A. DNA and proteins✓
• B. DNA and gene
• C. RNAs and proteins
• D. DNA and RNAs

Explanation: Explanation:Evolutionary relationships among species are reflected in their DNA and proteins – in their genes and gene products. If two species have genes and proteins with sequences of monomers they match closely, the sequences must have been copied from a common ancestor.Evolutionary relationships amongst species are reflected in their DNA and proteins, not in DNA and gene.Evolutionary relationships amongst species are reflected in their DNA and proteins, not in RNAs and proteins.Evolutionary relationships amongst species are reflected in their DNA and proteins, not in DNA and RNAs.

Q55. If all the members of a population are homozygous for the same allele, that allele is said to be:

• A. Random in population’s pool
• B. Random in a species
• C. Fixed in population's pool
• D. Fixed in the gene pool✓

Explanation: Explanation:If all individuals in a population are homozygous for the same allele, then that allele is fixed in the population's gene pool, meaning that it is the only allele present for that particular trait in the population.This option is not correct. If all individuals in a population have the same allele, then that allele is not random in the population's gene pool; rather it is fixed.This concept of an allele being random in a species does not make sense because alleles are specific variations of genes that exist within a population, not across an entire species.If all the members of a population are homozygous for the same allele, that allele is said to be fixed in the gene pool, not fixed in the population pool.

Q56. Diseases in living organisms which are caused by parasites are called:

• A. Disinfestations
• B. Infections
• C. Antisepsis
• D. Infestations✓

Explanation: Explanation:Diseases in living organisms which are caused by parasites are called Infestations. Infestations occur when parasites, such as lice, fleas, ticks, or mites, invade the body of their host and cause harm.Disinfestations and antisepsis refer to the processes of removing or killing parasites and preventing infection, respectively.Infections are diseases caused by the invasion and multiplication of pathogens such as viruses, bacteria, fungi, or parasites within a host organism.

Q57. The nutrient cycles are also called:

• A. Biogeochemical cycles✓
• B. Bioelement cycles
• C. Biochemical cycles
• D. Geochemical cycles

Explanation: Explanation:The nutrient cycles are primarily referred to as "Biogeochemical cycles" because they involve the cycling of nutrients such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus, and other elements through biological, geological, and chemical processes in the environment.This option is incorrect because the term "Bioelement" is not commonly used to refer to nutrients or chemical elements in the context of nutrient cycling.This option is also incorrect because biochemical reactions do occur in nutrient cycling, the term does not accurately describe the cycling of nutrients through ecosystems.This option is also incorrect because nutrient cycling does involve geological processes, it also involves biological and chemical processes that are not included in the term "Geochemical cycles"

Q58. The productivity of aquatic ecosystem is determined by:

• A. Water
• B. Light
• C. Light and nutrients✓
• D. Nutrients

Explanation: Nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus are necessary for the growth of primary producers such as algae, while light is necessary for photosynthesis to occur. The availability of these factors influences the productivity of the aquatic ecosystem. Water is necessary for the existence of aquatic ecosystems, but it is not a direct determinant of their productivity. Light is necessary for photosynthesis to occur. Nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus are necessary for the growth of primary producers such as algae.

Q59. What is the drawback of nuclear energy?

• A. It causes radiation pollution✓
• B. It is very expensive
• C. It is not long lasting
• D. It pollutes the air

Explanation: Explanation:One of the major drawbacks of nuclear energy is the risk of radiation pollution in the event of accidents, such as the Chernobyl and Fukushima disasters, which can have devastating impacts on the environment and human health.This option is not correct because while the initial cost of building nuclear power plants can be high, the cost of generating electricity from nuclear energy is relatively low.This option is also incorrect because nuclear energy can provide a long-lasting source of energy, as the fuel used in nuclear reactors can last for many years.This option is also incorrect because nuclear energy does not emit air pollutants such as carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide, or nitrogen oxides, which are associated with air pollution.

Q60. Arteriosclerosis is:

• A. A metabolic disorder
• B. A degenerative disorder✓
• C. An infectious disorder
• D. A genetic disorder

Explanation: Arteriosclerosis is classified as a degenerative disorder because it involves the progressive deterioration of the arterial walls, leading to reduced elasticity and narrowing of the arteries. This condition is primarily influenced by factors such as high cholesterol, high blood pressure, and lifestyle choices, rather than a direct result of genetic mutations or infectious agents. While metabolic factors can contribute to its development, the disorder itself is not classified under metabolic disorders. Understanding the nature of the processes involved helps distinguish it from genetic or infectious disorders.

Q61. Antibiotics act against:

• A. Bacterial diseases✓
• B. Allergies
• C. Viral Diseases
• D. Bacterial and Viral Diseases

Explanation: Antibiotics are medications specifically designed to treat bacterial infections by either killing the bacteria or inhibiting their growth. They are ineffective against viruses because viruses have different structures and replication processes that antibiotics do not target. For example, antibiotics are not suitable for treating the common cold or flu, which are viral infections. Allergies are immune responses to allergens, not infections, so antibiotics have no impact on them either.

Q62. The immediate source of energy for cellular metabolism is

• A. Lipids
• B. Carbohydrates
• C. ATP✓
• D. Proteins

Explanation: ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is the immediate source of energy for cellular metabolism because it directly powers cellular activities by releasing energy upon the hydrolysis of its phosphate bonds. Other options, such as lipids and carbohydrates, are involved in energy storage and production but do not directly provide immediate energy to cells. Lipids are used for long-term energy storage, carbohydrates are metabolized to produce ATP, and proteins primarily serve structural and functional roles, not as direct energy sources.

Q63. Haemoglobin exhibits:

• A. Secondary Structure
• B. Quaternary Structure✓
• C. Primary Structure
• D. Tertiary Structure

Explanation: Explanation:Haemoglobin is a globular protein made up of four polypeptide chains. As it is made up of more than one chains, it is said to have quarternary structure. This option is not correct. This refers to the local folding patterns that occur within the protein chain, such as alpha helices and beta sheets. This option is also incorrect. Primary structure refers to the linear sequence of amino acids that make up the protein chain. This option is also incorrect. This refers to the overall 3D shape of the protein, which is determined by the interactions between the amino acid side chains.

Q64. Pepsin enzyme is produced in an inactive form and is activated in situation when it is required because:

• A. Not produced in complete form
• B. It does not work efficiently at that time
• C. Quite capable of destroying cells internal structure✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Explanation:Pepsin is a protein-digesting enzyme and is capable of destroying cells' internal structure, as a result, it is secreted in an inactive form.This option is not correct because pepsinogen is the complete precursor to pepsin. It contains all the necessary amino acids to form Pepsin.This option is also incorrect because it is produced in an inactive form to prevent it from digesting the cells that produce it.

Q65. Enzyme, after catalysis, detaches itself from the product:

• A. Completely
• B. Changed
• C. Incompletely
• D. Unchanged✓

Explanation: Enzymes themselves do not undergo any permanent changes during the catalysis process and are not consumed in the reaction. They are free to catalyze another reaction with the same substrate or a different one.These options are incorrect because enzymes do not detach completely from the product after catalysis, but instead, they are reused for subsequent reactions.This option is incorrect because some enzymes typically detach completely from the product after catalysis.

Q66. A group of ribosomes attached to messenger RNA is known as:

• A. Ribosome
• B. Nucleosome
• C. Lysosome
• D. Polysome✓

Explanation: Explanation:When more than one ribosome is attached to a single mRNA, they form a polysome. This allows more than one protein to be formed at the same time.This option is not correct. The ribosome is a cellular organelle that is responsible for protein synthesis.This option is also not correct. Nucleosome is a basic structural unit of DNA packaging in eukaryotic cells, consisting of a segment of DNA wound around a core of histone proteins.This option is also not correct. Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles that contain enzymes responsible for breaking down and recycling cellular waste and debris

Q67. Detoxification of harmful drugs within the cell is done by:

• A. Nucleolus
• B. Smooth surface endoplasmic reticulum✓
• C. Ribosomes
• D. Food vacuoles

Explanation: The detoxification of drugs is the function of SER while protein synthesis is the function of RER. Mechanical support, however, is the function of both RER and SER.

Q68. Tay-Sach’'s disease is due to the presence of an enzyme that is inverted in the catabolism of:

• A. Proteins
• B. Ascorbic Acid
• C. Carbohydrates.
• D. Lipids✓

Explanation: Explanation:Tay Sach disease is a lipid storage disease. The enzyme absent is involved in catabolism of lipids. Proteins are broken down into their constituent amino acids by a different set of enzymes, and the presence of absence of these enzymes is not associated with Tay-Sachs disease. Ascorbic acid, also known as Vitamin C, is not catabolized by any known enzyme that is associated with Tay-Sachs disease. Carbohydrates are broken down into simpler sugars by different enzymes, and the presence or absence of these enzymes is not associated with Tay-Sachs disease.

Q69. What is true about pattern baldness?

• A. It is autosomal recessive disease in males
• B. It is X-linked disease
• C. It is autosomal dominant disease in males✓
• D. It is Y-linked disease

Explanation: Explanation:It is a autosomal dominant disease in males, but it is sex influenced character as a result a female heterozygous for this trait will not show this character.Patten baldness, also known as androgenetic alopecia, is not an autosomal recessive disease.This option is also incorrect. Pattern baldness is not an X-linked disease.This option is also incorrect. Y-linked diseases are rare and are passed on exclusively from fathers to their sons, which is not the case for pattern baldness.

Q70. Symptoms of Herpes Simplex is:

• A. Abdominal Pain
• B. Vesicular lesions in the epithelial layer✓
• C. Fever
• D. Failure of immune system

Explanation: Explanation:This is a common symptom of herpes simplex, which presents as painful, fluid-filled blisters or vesicles on or around the lips, mouth, or genital area. Abdominal pain is not a typical symptom of herpes simplex. Fever is a symptom of herpes simplex which may occur along with the appearance of vesicular lesions, but vesicular lesions is the common cause.The failure of the immune system is not a symptom of herpes simplex.

Q71. The major cell infected by HIV is

• A. Leukocyte
• B. Monocyte
• C. Helper T-lymphocyte✓
• D. B-lymphocyte

Explanation: The correct answer is helper T-lymphocytes (option C). Leukocytes are white blood cells involved in immunity, including neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes. Monocytes are phagocytic cells that engulf pathogens and produce cytokines. B-lymphocytes produce antibodies when activated by helper T-lymphocytes. Helper T-lymphocytes coordinate the immune response by producing cytokines that activate other immune cells, and HIV specifically targets these cells, leading to AIDS.

Q72. ._ are used as important vectors in genetic engineering.

• A. Ribosomes
• B. Plasmids✓
• C. Nucleoids
• D. Mesosomes

Explanation: Explanation:This option is correct because plasmids are one of the most useful and important vectors. They have natural palindromes and antibiotic resistance genes that make them useful vectors to produce transgenic bacteria.This option is not correct because Ribosomes are non membranous organelles that are sites of protein synthesis.This option is also incorrect because nucleoid is the region that has the bacteria's own DNA.This option is also incorrect because mesosomes are small invagination of bacteria's cell membrane and are site of cellular respiration, DNA replication etc.

Q73. Which of the following is aerobic bacterium?

• A. Spirochete
• B. E. coli
• C. Cyanobacteria
• D. Pseudomonas✓

Explanation: Explanation:This option is correct because pseudomonas is an aerobic bacteria. This option is not correct because Spirochete is an anaerobic bacterium. This option is incorrect because E.coli is a facultative anaerobe.This option is also incorrect because cyanobacteria are also anaerobic.

Q74. The giant amoebas inhabit mud at the bottom of freshwater ponds and obtain energy from:

• A. Microscopic bacteria
• B. Anaerobic bacteria
• C. Aerobic bacteria
• D. Methanogenic bacteria✓

Explanation: Explanation:The giant amoebas obtain energy from methanogenic bacteria which reside inside them, giant amoebas inhabit the mud at the bottom of the freshwater ponds where they contribute to degradation of organic molecules.The giant amoebas inhabit mud at the bottom of freshwater ponds and obtain energy from methanogenic bacteria, not from microscopic bacteria.The giant amoebas inhabit mud at the bottom of freshwater ponds and obtain energy from methanogenic bacteria, not from microscopic bacteria The giant amoebas inhabit mud at the bottom of freshwater ponds and obtain energy from methanogenic bacteria, not from aerobic bacteria.

Q75. A large group of parasitic protozoa, some of which causes various diseases such as malaria to humans, are:

• A. Apicomplexans✓
• B. Annelida
• C. Platyhelminthes
• D. Arthropods

Explanation: Explanation:A large group of parasitic protozoa, some of which causes various diseases such as malaria to humans, are Apicomplexans.Annelids are a phylum of segmented worms that included earthworms, leeches, and various marine worms. They are not parasitic protozoa. Platyhelminthes are a phylum of worms that includes many parasitic species, such as tapeworms and flukes. However, they are not protozoa. Arthropods are a phylum of joint-legged invertebrates that includes insects, spiders, and crustaceans. They are not protozoa, although some Arthropods can be vectors for protozoan diseases (such as mosquitoes and malaria).

Q76. Penicillin is obtained from:

• A. Penicillium notatum✓
• B. Aspergillus fumigatus
• C. Aspergillus flavus
• D. Penicillium chrysogenum

Explanation: Penicillium notatum is the fungus from which Alexander Fleming first isolated penicillin in 1928, marking a groundbreaking advancement in the treatment of bacterial infections. While Penicillium chrysogenum is used in industrial production today due to its higher yield of penicillin, Penicillium notatum remains historically important for its initial role in antibiotic discovery. Aspergillus fumigatus and Aspergillus flavus are unrelated to penicillin production, with the former being a pathogen and the latter a producer of harmful toxins.

Q77. Which of the following components is less resistant to decay?

• A. Lignin
• B. Starch✓
• C. Chitin
• D. Cellulose

Explanation: Starch is the correct answer because it serves as an energy reserve in plants and is more readily broken down by enzymes and microorganisms, making it less resistant to decay. In contrast, lignin and cellulose have complex structures that provide high resistance to decay, while chitin offers moderate resistance due to its durable nature.

Q78. _ are bioindicators of air pollution.

• A. Cyanobacteria
• B. Mycorrhizae
• C. Fungi
• D. Lichens✓

Explanation: Explanation:Correct answer is lichen as they are used as an bioindicator specifically for air pollution. Cyanobacteria are not typically used as bioindicators of air pollution, as they are more commonly found in aquatic environments such as lakes and oceans. Mycorrhizae are symbiotic associations between fungi and the roots of plants. While they can play a role in soil health, they are not typically used as bioindicators of air pollution. Fungi are important decomposers in the ecosystem, but they are not typically used as bioindicators of air pollution.

Q79. The gymnosperms are called ‘Naked Seeded’ plants because they bear naked:

• A. Antheridia
• B. Ovules✓
• C. Fruits
• D. Archegonia

Explanation: Explanation:The term gymnosperm literally means naked seeds. The ovules in these plants are usually borne on exposed surfaces of fertile leaves. These ovules unlike those of angiosperms are not enclosed but lie naked on the surface of fertile leaves. Antheridia are structures in plants that produce and contain male gametes (sperm). They are not directly related to the term "naked seeded" used to describe gymnosperms. Gymnosperms donot produce fruits, which are the defining characteristic of angiosperms. Archegonia are structures in plants that produce and contain female gametes (eggs). They are not directly related to the term "naked seeded" used to describe gymnosperms.

Q80. The integumented indehiscent megasporangium is called:

• A. Seed
• B. Archegonium
• C. Megagametophyte
• D. Ovule✓

Explanation: Explanation: The integumented indehiscent megasporium is called ovule. The integumented indehiscent megasporium is called ovule, not seed. Archegonia are structures in plants that produce and contain female gametes (eggs). They are found in bryophytes and some ferns, but not in seed plants. This option is also incorrect. The integumented indehiscent megasporium is called ovule, not megagametophyte.

Q81. Pulses are present in the family:

• A. Caesalpiniaceae
• B. Fabaceae✓
• C. Gramineae
• D. Mimosaceae

Explanation: Explanation:This option is correct because family Fabaceae also known as family leguminosea contains legumes and pulses. The pulses belong to the family Fabaceae or leguminosea. The members of this family include sweet pea, pea, legumes, etc. These are leguminous plants. This means that most of them have nodules in their roots that enclose symbiotic bacteria.The family Caesalpiniaceae is another family of flowering plants, but it is not known for producing pulses. The family Gramineae, also known as Poaceae, includes grasses and cereal crops such as wheat, rice, and corn. While these crops are important sources of food, they are not considered pulses.The family Mimosaseae includes many species of trees and shrubs, but it is not known for producing pulses.

Q82. It is an endoparasite of humans, cattle and pig that completes its life cycle in two hosts:

• A. Stingray
• B. Liver fluke (Fasciola)✓
• C. Aurelia
• D. Schistosoma

Explanation: The liver fluke (Fasciola hepatica) is an endoparasite of humans, cattle, and sheep. It completes its life cycle using two hosts: a snail as the intermediate host and a mammal (human, cattle, or sheep) as the definitive host. Tapeworms (Taenia) also infect humans and animals but usually require only one intermediate host, and Aurelia (jellyfish) and Schistosoma (blood fluke) have different life cycles.

Q83. Tse-tse fly causes the sleeping sickness and skin diseases by transmitting:

• A. Plasmodium
• B. Trypanosoma✓
• C. Anopheles
• D. Insects

Explanation: Explanation:Tse-tse fly causes the sleeping sickness and skin diseases by transmitting Trypanosoma. Plasmodium is the protozoan parasite that causes malaria, a mosquito-borne disease. It is not transmitted by the tse-tse fly. Anopheles is a genus of mosquito that is known to transmit the Plasmodium parasite that causes malaria. It is not directly involved in the transmission of sleeping sickness. This option is also incorrect because insects can transmit a wide range of diseases, but not sleeping sickness.

Q84. Coelom is a cavity lined by:

• A. Mesoderm✓
• B. Epiderm
• C. Endoderm
• D. Ectoderm

Explanation: Explanation:The coelom cavity is present between the body wall and the alimentary canal and is lined by Mesoderm.OPTION B: The epidermis is the outermost layer of skin in vertebrates, and it is derived from the mesoderm, not the ectoderm.This option is also incorrect because the coelom is a cavity lined by Mesoderm, not endoderm.This option is also incorrect because the ectoderm is the outermost germ layer, and it gives rise to the epidermis, nervous system, and other tissues in the body.

Q85. Which of the following molecules is reduced by accepting hydrogen in the Calvin cycle?

• A. 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate✓
• B. Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate
• C. 3-phosphoglycerate
• D. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

Explanation: The molecule that is reduced by accepting hydrogen in the Calvin cycle is 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate. This reduction step, driven by NADPH, converts 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate into glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate, representing the key phase where energy and reducing power from light reactions are used to form carbohydrate precursors.

Q86. The molecule formed after first phosphorylation during glycolysis is:

• A. Fructose-6-phosphate
• B. Glucose-1-phosphate
• C. Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate
• D. Glucose-6-phosphate✓

Explanation: Explanation:When glucose enters the Cytoplasm, the first reaction of Glycolysis is addition of a phosphate molecule into the glucose forming glucose-6-phosphate. The reaction is catalyzed by hexokinase. Then Isomerase converts it to fructose-6-phosphate and phosphofructokinase carries out the second phosphorylation converting it to fructose-1,6-phosphate.

Q87. Krebs Cycle in mitochondria takes place in:

• A. Cytosol
• B. Matrix✓
• C. Outer Membrane
• D. Inner Membrane

Explanation: Explanation:Krebs cycle takes place in the mitochondrial matrix because the enzymes of this cycle are present here. This option is not correct because Glycolysis takes place in cytosol. This option is also incorrect because no reaction takes place in the outer membrane. This option is also incorrect because Oxidative phosphorylation and ETC takes place in inner membrane.

Q88. At the junction between esophagus and the stomach there is a special ring of muscles called:

• A. Cardiac Sphincter✓
• B. Esophageal Sphincter
• C. Ileocolic Sphincter
• D. Pyloric Sphincter

Explanation: Explanation:The junction between esophagus and stomach is known as cardiac sphincter. This option is not correct because esophageal sphincter refers to the upper esophageal sphincter located at the top of the esophagus, which helps to prevent air from entering the esophagus during breathing. This option is also incorrect because Ileocolic sphincter is located at the junction of the ileum (the final portion of the small intestine) and the colon (large intestine).This option is also incorrect because Pyloric sphincter is between the junction of stomach and duodenum.

Q89. Hepatic and pancreatic secretions are also stimulated by a hormone called:

• A. Gastrin
• B. Secretin✓
• C. HCl
• D. Enterokinase

Explanation: Secretin is the correct answer because it is a hormone released by the small intestine in response to acidic chyme. It stimulates the pancreas to secrete bicarbonate, which neutralizes stomach acid and promotes liver bile production, thus facilitating digestion. In contrast, gastrin primarily stimulates the stomach's activity; HCl is a gastric secretion rather than a hormone, and enterokinase is an enzyme that activates other digestive enzymes but does not stimulate secretion from the liver or pancreas.

Q90. Like pepsin, trypsin is also secreted as inactive trypsinogen, which is activated by:

• A. Enterokinase✓
• B. Chyme
• C. Lipase
• D. Erypsin

Explanation: Explanation:Like Pepsin, trypsin is also secreted as inactive trypsinogen, which is activated by enterokinase. This option is not correct because chyme is the semi-liquid, partially digested food that enters the duodenum after the stomach. This option is also incorrect because lipase digests fats to fatty acids and glycerol. This option is also incorrect. Erypsin digests peptone to amino acids.

Q91. During photorespiration, the glycolate is converted into glycine in a structure of ceil called:

• A. Golgi Bodies
• B. Mitochondria
• C. Glyoxysome
• D. Peroxisome✓

Explanation: Explanation:In the Peroxisomes, glycolate is oxidized with O2 uptake to glyoxylate by glycolate oxidase, and the glyoxylate is converted to glycine by glutamate glyoxylate amino-transferase.This option is not correct. Golgi bodies are organelles involved in processing and sorting proteins and lipids in eukaryotic cells. This option is also incorrect because mitochondria are organelles responsible for producing ATP through cellular respiration, which occurs in the presence of oxygen. Glyoxisome is an organelle found in plant cells that is involved in lipid metabolism, particularly in the conversion of stored lipids into carbohydrates. It is not directly involved in the process of photorespiration.

Q92. The respiratory pigment, which has much higher affinity to combine with oxygen, is:

• A. Myoglobin✓
• B. Haemoglobin
• C. Globin
• D. Hemocyanin

Explanation: Explanation:The respiratory pigment, which has much higher affinity to combine with oxygen is Myoglobin. The respiratory pigment, which has much higher affinity to combine with oxygen is Myoglobin, not Haemoglobin. This option is not correct because globin is a protein that makes up a part of haemoglobin. This option is also incorrect because hemocyanin is a respiratory pigment found in some invertebrates that uses copper rather than iron to bind to oxygen.

Q93. Most of the carbon dioxide is carried in the blood in the form of

• A. Bicarbonate✓
• B. COz
• C. Carboxyhemoglobin
• D. Blood plasma protein

Explanation: Explanation:The majority of carbon dioxide molecules are carried as part of the bicarbonate buffer system.This option is not correct. Only a small amount of carbon dioxide is carried in the blood in its gaseous form.Carboxyhaemoglobin is a compound formed by the binding of carbon monoxide to haemoglobin. It is not involved in the transport of carbon dioxide in the blood. Blood plasma proteins do not play a significant role in the transport of carbon dioxide in the blood.

Q94. Antibiotics are actually:

• A. Globular proteins✓
• B. Fibrous proteins
• C. Glycoproteins
• D. Glycolipids

Explanation: Explanation:This is a fact. Antibiotics are actually Globular proteins. Antibiotics are actually globular proteins, not fibrous proteins.Glycoproteins are proteins that have carbohydrate molecules attached to them. They are involved in a variety of biological processes, including cell signaling and recognition. While there are some glycoproteins that have antimicrobial properties, antibiotics are not glycoproteins. Glycolipids are a class of lipids that have carbohydrate molecules attached to them. They are primarily found in cell membranes and play a role in cell signaling and recognition. Antibiotics are not glycolipids.

Q95. Heparin prevents blood clots and is released by:

• A. Eosinophils
• B. Neutrophils
• C. Monocytes
• D. Basophils✓

Explanation: Explanation:Heparin prevents blood clots and is released by Basophils. Hence, D is the correct option. Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell involved in the immune response against parasites and allergic reactions. They donot release heparin. Neutrophils are the most abundant type of white blood cell and play a key role in fighting infections. They donot release heparin. Monocytes are a type of white blood cell that can differentiate into macrophages and dendritic cells. They are involved in the immune response and play a role in phagocytosis. They donot release heparin.

Q96. Which of the following is an exothermic reaction?

• A. H+(aq) + OH−(aq) -> H2O(l)✓
• B. 1/2 H2(g) -> H(g)
• C. Na(g) -> Na+(g) + 1e−
• D. 1/2 Cl2(g) -> Cl(g)

Explanation: Explanation:Neutralization is always an exothermic reaction. Hence, the correct answer is A. These options are incorrect because they are atomization reactions and involve the breaking of bonds. This option is not correct because it is an Ionization reaction and involves the removal of electrons from the valence shell.

Q97. The rate equation determined experimentally for this reaction: (CH3)3―C―Br + H2O → (CH3)3―C―OH + HBr, is Rate = k[(CH3)3CBr] Hence it is which of the follwing?

• A. Fractional Order
• B. Pseudo First Order✓
• C. First Order
• D. Second Order

Explanation: Explanation:The reaction is pseudo first order. Water is in excess as it is the solvent as a result will not affect the reaction order. If we don't take water in consideration the order of reaction is 1, because the exponent of [(CH3)3-C-Br] is one. As water is not taken into consideration the reaction is pseudo first order.

Q98. Equilibrium constant Kc for H2O ----> H+ + OH− can be written as follows:

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C✓
• D. Option D

Explanation: Explanation:It is the fact. Equilibrium constant is products/reactants. Hence the equilibrium constant Kc for H2O → H+ + OH- can be written as follows: Kc = [products] /[reactants] Kc = [H+] + [OH-] / [H2O]

Q99. The protonation of carboxylic acid is:

• A. Option A
• B. Option B✓
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: Explanation:During protonation, the double bond between the carbon and oxygen is broken. As a result, a long pair is present on the oxygen atom as a result hydrogen ion can form the bond with it. Thus the correct option is B.

Q100. Each molecule of haemoglobin is made up of nearly:

• A. 11000 atoms
• B. 10000 atoms✓
• C. 6600 atoms
• D. 6800 atoms

Explanation: Explanation:Each molecule of Haemoglobin is made up of nearly 10,000 atoms and it is 68000 times heavier than a hydrogen molecule.

Q101. A limiting reactant is the one which:

• A. Is mostly a cheaper substance and taken in larger quantity
• B. Is consumed earlier and controls the amount of product formed in a chemical reaction✓
• C. Gives greatest number of moles of products
• D. Is left behind after the completion of reaction

Explanation: Explanation: A limiting reactant is the one which is consumed earlier and controls the amount of product formed in a chemical reaction. Hence, correct option is B. This option is not correct. A limiting reactant is not mostly a cheaper substance and taken in larger quantity. This statement is also incorrect. A limiting reactant don't gives greatest number of moles of products. This statement is also incorrect. A limiting reactant does not left behind after the completion of reaction.

Q102. During isotopic analysis, the pressure of the vapours of the ions maintained in the ionization chamber of mass spectrometer Is:

• A. Around 10-7 torr✓
• B. 1 torr
• C. Around 10-3 torr
• D. 10-7 torr

Explanation: Explanation:The pressure of these vapors is kept very low that 10-6 to 10-7 torr. "1 torr" is a higher pressure range that may be used in some mass spectrometers for certain types of analyses, but it is generally not used for isotopic analysis. These options are also incorrect. During isotopic analysis, the pressure of the vapors of the ions maintained in the ionization chamber of mass spectrometer is around 10-7 torr, not 10-3 or any other.

Q103. The acid which can be purified by the sublimation is:

• A. Acetic Acid
• B. Oxalic Acid
• C. Benzoic Acid✓
• D. Citric Acid

Explanation: Explanation:Benzoic acid has a high melting point (122°C) and a low vapor pressure, which allows it to sublime at room temperature and atmospheric pressure. Hence, the acid which can be purified by the sublimation is benzoic acid.Acetic acid has a low boiling point (118.1°C) and cannot be purified by sublimation. Oxalic acid has a decomposition temperature lower than its melting point, so it cannot be purified by sublimation. Citric acid has a decomposition temperature lower than its melting point, so it cannot be purified by sublimation.

Q104. Paper chromatography is used for:

• A. Elemental Analysis
• B. Qualitative Analysis✓
• C. Industrial Purification
• D. Structural Analysis

Explanation: Explanation:Chromatography is very useful for organic synthesis for separation, purification, and isolation of products. They are equally important for quantitative and qualitative analysis and for determination of purity of a substance. Elemental analysis involves determining the elemental composition of a substance. Paper chromatography is not used for this purpose since it separates components based on their physical properties rather than their elemental composition.Industrial purification typically involves separating and purifying a specific component from a mixture at a large scale. Paper chromatography is not commonly used for industrial purification. Paper chromatography is used for qualitative analysis, not for structural analysis.

Q105. In the process of respiration, there is application of:

• A. Dalton’s Law✓
• B. Charles’s Law
• C. Boyle’s Law
• D. Graham’s Law

Explanation: Explanation:Dalton's law states that the total pressure exerted by a mixture of non reacting gases is equal to the sum of their individual partial pressures. In the process of respiration, there is application of Dalton's law. This law is not directly applicable to respiration, as changes in temperature are not a major factor in the gas exchange that occurs in the lungs. This law is also not directly applicable to respiration, as changes in volume and pressure are not the primary driving forces behind gas exchange in the lungs. In the process of respiration, there is application of Dalton's law, not Graham's law.

Q106. The formula of acrylonitrile is:

• A. CH2=CH―CN✓
• B. CH3―CH2―CH2―CN
• C. CH3―CH2―CN
• D. CH3―CN

Explanation: Explanation:This is the formula of acrylonitrile, which is an organic compound used in the production of synthetic fibers and resins. This option is not correct. This is the formula for propionitrile, which is another organic compound with a slightly longer carbon chain than acrylonitrile.This option is also incorrect. This is the formula for ethyl cyanide, which is a different organic compound with a longer carbon chain and a different functional group than acrylonitrile.This option is also incorrect. This is the formula for acetonitrile, which is yet another organic compound with a different carbon chain and different functional group than acrylonitrile.

Q107. During nitration of benzene, the active nitrating agent is:

• A. NO2-
• B. HNO2
• C. NO3-
• D. NO2+✓

Explanation: Explanation:During the nitration of benzene which is an electrophilic substitution reaction, the active nitrating agent is NO2+. Sulfuric acid reacts with nitric acid to produce this electrophile. NO2- is a negatively charged ion and is not capable of nitration. HNO2 is nitrous acid and is not a strong nitrating agent. It is used in diazotization reactions to convert primary amines into diazonium salts. NO3 is a nitrate ion and is not a good nitrating agent. Nitrate ions can be reduced to nitrite ions (NO2-) which can act as nitrating agents in certain conditions, but they are not as strong as NO2+.

Q108. Which compound is the most reactive one?

• A. Ethyne
• B. Ethane
• C. Benzene
• D. Ethene✓

Explanation: Explanation:Correct answer is Ethene because the general order of reactivity is as follows: Alkene > Alkyne > AlkaneWhile Benzene is unique in its behavior though resembles alkenes in addition reactions but to high stability of the molecule it requires dramatic conditions for substitution reactions in order to generate electrophile.

Q109. Grignard reagents are prepared by the reaction of magnesium metal with alkyl halides in the presence of:

• A. Dry Ether✓
• B. Alcohol
• C. CS2
• D. CCl4

Explanation: Explanation:Grignard reagents are prepared by the reaction of magnesium metal with alkyl halides in the presence of dry ether. Alcohols are not typically used in the preparation of grignard reagents because they can react with the grignard reagent and produce unwanted byproducts.Carbon disulfide (CS2) is sometimes used as a solvent for the preparation of grignard reagents, but it is not as common as dry ether. Carbon tetrachloride is not used in the preparation of grignard reagents because it does not solvate the magnesium metal and alkyl halide well enough.

Q110. When n-butyl magnesium iodide is treated with water, the product is:

• A. n-butane✓
• B. Propane
• C. Iso-butane
• D. Alcohol

Explanation: Explanation:Alkanes are produced when grignard reacts with:Water Ammonia AlcoholAs a result, n-butane will be produced in the above reaction. This option is not correct because propane is not formed by the reaction of n-butyl magnesium iodide with water. This option is also incorrect because iso-butane is not formed by the reaction of n-butyl magnesium iodide with water. This option is also incorrect because alcohol is not formed by the reaction of n-butyl magnesium iodide with water.

Q111. Two radioactive elements X and Y have half-lives of 25 minutes and 75 minutes respectively. Sample of X and Y initially contain equal number of atoms. After 150 minutes, what is the value of the following fraction?No. of nuclei of X unchanged/No. of nuclei of Y unchanged

• A. 1: 16✓
• B. 16: 1
• C. 1: 8
• D. 8: 1

Explanation: Number of half-lives = 150 min / 25 min = 6 half-livesSimilarly, for element Y, with a half-life of 75 minutes, after 150 minutes, we can calculate the number of half-lives as follows:Number of half-lives = 150 min / 75 min = 2 half-livesFor element X: (1/2) ^ 6 = 1/64 For element Y: (1/2) ^ 2 = 1/4Therefore, the fraction of the number of nuclei of X remains unchanged to the number of nuclei of Y remains unchanged is:(1/64) / (1/4) = 1/64 * 4/1 = 1/16 This can be simplified to: 1:16So, the correct answer is option (a) 1:16.

Q112. Phenol reacts with concentrated H2SO4 to give:

• A. Ortho hydroxy benzene sulphonic acid
• B. Meta hydroxy benzene sulphonic acid
• C. Ortho and para hydroxy benzene sulphonic acid✓
• D. Para hydroxy benzene sulphonic acid

Explanation: Explanation:This product is formed in the reaction of phenol with concentrated sulfuric acid. The -SO3H group can be substituted at either the Ortho or para positions on the benzene ring. Thus, both ortho and para hydroxy benzene sulphonic acid are formed. This product is formed in the reaction of phenol with concentrated sulfuric acid. This product is not formed in the reaction of phenol with concentrated sulfuric acid. This product is also formed in the reaction of phenol with concentrated sulfuric acid.

Q113. Phenol can be distinguished from alcohol by adding:

• A. Br2/H2O✓
• B. FeSO4
• C. Cl2/H2O
• D. FeCl3

Explanation: Explanation:An aqueous solution of phenol reacts with bromine water to give white ppt of 2,4,6-tribromophenol . This is a test for presence of phenol. As a result, it can be used to differentiate between phenol and alcohol. FeSO4 does not react with either phenol or alcohols in a way that can be used to distinguish them from each other.Both phenol and alcohols can react with chlorine water to give a color change, but this test is not specific to phenol and cannot be used to distinguish it from alcohols. Phenols and alcohols react with FeCl3 to form a colored complex, known as ferric phenoxide. This test is used to detect the presence of Phenols, but it cannot be used to distinguish between phenols and alcohols.

Q114. In the conversion of ethylene into acetaldehyde, cupric chloride acts as:

• A. Initiator
• B. Promoter✓
• C. Catalyst
• D. Reactant

Explanation: Explanation:In the conversion of ethylene into acetaldehyde, cupric chloride acts as promoter. An initiator is a substance that initiates or starts a chemical reaction. Cupric chloride does not initiate the reaction between ethylene and oxygen to form acetaldehyde. Cupric chloride does not act as a catalyst in the conversion of ethylene into acetaldehyde since it is consumed during the reaction. A reactant is a substance that undergoes a chemical reaction. Cupric chloride is not a reactant in the conversion of ethylene into acetaldehyde.

Q115. When acetone is heated in the presence of K2Cr2O7/H2SO4, the products formed are:

• A. Maleic Acid and Fumaric Acid
• B. Acetic Acid and Formic Acid✓
• C. Formic Acid and Oxalic Acid
• D. Oxalic Acid and Acetic Acid

Explanation: Explanation:This is an oxidation reaction. Acetone is a symmetrical ketone. Hence, when acetone is heated in the presence of K2Cr2O7/H2SO4, the products formed are acetic acid and formic acid. This option is not correct. The products formed are acetic acid and formic acid, not Maleic acid and fumaric acid.This option is also incorrect. The products formed are acetic acid and formic acid, not formic acid and oxalic acid. This option is also incorrect. The products formed are acetic acid and formic acid, not oxalic acid and acetic acid.

Q116. Which acid is used in the manufacture of plastics?

• A. Carbolic Acid
• B. Acetic Acid✓
• C. Carbonic Acid
• D. Oxalic Acid

Explanation: Explanation:Acetic acid is used in the manufacture of plastics such as poly vinyl acetate (rayon) and cellulose acetate (silk).Carbolic acid, also known as phenol, is not used in the manufacture of plastics.Carbonic acid is not used in the manufacture of plastics.Oxalic acid is also not commonly used as a monomer in the manufacture of plastics.

Q117. Which of the following compounds will react with Tollen’s Reagent?

• A. Formic acid
• B. Acetone
• C. Acetaldehyde✓
• D. Butanone

Explanation: Explanation:Aldehydes react with tollen's reagent . So, the correct answer is C.This option is not correct because it is ethanoic acid. These options are also incorrect because they are ketones.

Q118. In conjugated protein molecules, the protein is attached or conjugated to some non-protein group which are called:

• A. Prosthetic Group✓
• B. Hydrogen Bonding
• C. Aldehyde Group
• D. Peptide Linkage

Explanation: Explanation:In conjugated protein molecules, the protein is attached or conjugated to some non-protein group which is called prosthetic group. Hydrogen bonding is not related to conjugated proteins. Hydrogen bonding is a type of intermolecular force that occurs between a hydrogen atom and in one molecule and an electronegative atom (such as oxygen, nitrogen, or flourine) in another molecule.Aldehyde group is a functional group that contains a carbon atom double-bonded to an oxygen atom and single bonded to a hydrogen atom or another group. Aldehyde groups are not typically found in prosthetic groups of conjugated proteins. Peptide linkage refers to the covalent bond between two amino acids in a protein molecule. While peptide linkages are important for the structure and function of proteins, they are not considered prosthetic groups in conjugated proteins.

Q119. Micronutrients are required in quantity ranging from:

• A. 6 — 200 g per acre✓
• B. 4-40 g per acre
• C. 6 — 200 kg per acre
• D. 4 - 40 kg per acre

Explanation: Explanation:Micronutrients are required in quantity ranging from 6-200 grams per acre.

Q120. Potassium fertilizers are especially useful for:

• A. Mango
• B. Tobacco✓
• C. Wheat
• D. Rice

Explanation: Explanation:Potassium fertilizers are especially useful for tobacco, coffee, potato, and corn.This option is not correct. Potassium fertilizers are especially useful for tobacco, not for mango. These options are also incorrect. Potassium fertilizers are especially useful for tobacco, not for wheat and rice respectively.

Q121. The yellowish colour of photochemical smog is due to the presence of:

• A. Nitrogen dioxide✓
• B. Dinitrogen trioxide
• C. Nitrous oxide
• D. Nitric oxide

Explanation: Explanation:The yellowish color of photochemical smog is primarily due to the presence of nitrogen dioxide (NO2), which is a brownish-yellow gas. Dinitrogen trioxide (N2O3) and nitric oxide (NO) are also nitrogen oxides, but they donot contribute significantly to the color of photochemical smog. Nitrous oxide (N2O) is a different compound that is not typically present in photochemical smog.

Q122. The incarnation process can reduce the volume of the water by:

• A. One half
• B. Not affected
• C. One third
• D. Two third✓

Explanation: Explanation:The incarnation process can reduce the volume of the water by two third. These options are also incorrect. The incarnation process can reduce the volume of the water by two third, not by one half or one third respectively. This option is also incorrect. the incarnation process can affect the volume of the water by two third.

Q123. _ % of the known universe is in the plasma state.

• A. 30
• B. 99✓
• C. 50
• D. 80

Explanation: Explanation:The plasma is in four states of matter. It consists of neutral particles, positive ions, and negative electrons. 99% of the known universe is in the plasma state.

Q124. Absolute zero is unattainable. Current attempts have resulted in temperature as low as:

• A. 10-4 K
• B. 10-2 K
• C. 10-1 K
• D. 10-5 K✓

Explanation: Explanation:Current attempts have resulted in temperature as low as 10-5 K. Hence, the correct answer is D.

Q125. Electron gas theory was proposed to explain the bonding in solids:

• A. Molecular
• B. Ionic
• C. Covalent
• D. Metallic✓

Explanation: Explanation:Electron gas theory was proposed by Drude and Loren. It helps explain the bonding in metals. According to this theory, each atom in a metal crystal loses all of its valence electrons. These electrons form a pool or a gas. The positively charged metal ion are held together by electron gas.This option is not correct because molecular solids are held together by covalent bonds between molecules. This option is also incorrect because ionic solids are held together by electrostatic attractions between positively and negatively charged ions. This option is also incorrect because covalent solids are held together by covalent bonds between atoms, and they often have high melting points and are very hard.

Q126. In proteins, there are on the average _ amino acid units for each turn in helix:

• A. 25
• B. 27✓
• C. 21
• D. 23

Explanation: Explanation:In proteins, there are on the average 27 amino acid units for each turn in helix. In an alpha-helix structure, there are, on average, 3.6 amino acid units for each turn. Since there are approximately 7.5 turns in a complete alpha-helix, there are on average 27 amino acid units per helix.

Q127. In atomic particles:

• A. Mass of neutron is almost equal to mass of electron
• B. e/m of a proton is almost equal to e/m of electron
• C. Mass of proton is almost equal to mass of electron
• D. Charge of proton is almost equal to charge of electron✓

Explanation: Explanation:Both protons and electrons have the same charge in the atomic particles. Hence, the correct answer is D. This option is not correct. The mass of protons and neutrons is 1836 times greater than electrons. This option is also incorrect. As the electron and proton have different masses, the e/m value becomes different.

Q128. The extent of bonding of a light ray after passing through prism depends upon:

• A. Wavelength of photons✓
• B. Wave number of photons
• C. Energy of photons
• D. Frequency of photons

Explanation: Explanation:The extent of bonding of a light ray after passing through prism depends upon wavelength of photons. Wave number of photons is inversely proportional to the wavelength, and is related to the energy of photons, but it is not a factor that determines the extent of bonding in a prism. Energy of photons is related to their frequency and wavelength, but it is not a factor that determines the extent of bonding in a prism. The extent of bonding of a light ray after passing through the prism depends upon wavelength of photons, not on frequency of photons.

Q129. Splitting of spectral lines in closely spaced lines in presence of magnetic field is called:

• A. Stark Effect
• B. Zeeman Effect✓
• C. Photoelectric Effect
• D. Compton Effect

Explanation: Explanation: Splitting of spectral lines in closely spaced lines in presence of magnetic field is called Zeeman effect. This option is not correct. Stark effect is the splitting of spectral lines in an electric field, and is caused by the interaction between the electric field and the charged particles in the atom or molecule.This option is also incorrect because photoelectric effect is the phenomenon in which electrons are emitted from a material when light is shown on it. It occurs when photons of light have enough energy to knock electrons out of the material. This option is also incorrect because Compton effect is the scattering of X-rays and gamma rays by matter, which causes a shift in the wavelength of the radiation.

Q130. A bond is not formed:

• A. When both attractive and repulsive forces are balanced
• B. When attractive forces overcome repulsive forces
• C. When repulsive forces are negligible
• D. When repulsive forces exceed attractive forces✓

Explanation: Explanation:Bond is formed when either the attraction and repulsion are equal or the force of attraction is greater than repulsion. As a result, the bond is not formed when the repulsion is greater than attraction. Bond is formed when both forces become equal to each other. Bond is also formed when attraction forces dominate repulsive forces. Bond is also formed when repulsive forces becomes equal to zero.

Q131. If the electronegativity difference between bonded atoms is zero, the bond between the two atoms is:

• A. Polar
• B. Partially Ionic
• C. Non-polar✓
• D. Both B and C

Explanation: Explanation:If the electronegativity difference between bonded atoms is zero, the bond between the two atoms is non-polar.This option is not correct. If the difference is greater than 0.4, the bond becomes polar. This option is also not correct. If the difference is greater than 1.7, the bond becomes ionic.

Q132. VSEPR theory helps in explaining:

• A. Attraction between atoms
• B. Size of molecule
• C. Nature of bond
• D. Shape of molecule✓

Explanation: Explanation:VESPR theory helps in explaining shape of molecules. The attraction between atoms is mainly explained by different theories such as the Coulombic attraction, covalent bonding, and ionic bonding. VESPR theory does not address this phenomenon. The size of a molecule is not directly explained by VESPR theory, although the size of atoms and their hybridization is considered when determining the shape of a molecule. The nature of a bond is mainly explained by different theories such as valence bond theory, molecular orbital theory, and hybridization theory. VESPR theory does not address this phenomenon directly.

Q133. Which of the following formations is an endothermic reaction?

• A. C(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
• B. N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
• C. 2H2O(l) → 2H2(g) + O2(g)✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Explanation:This reaction is endothermic reaction: 2H2O (l) → 2H2 + O2 This reaction is Exothermic reaction, not endothermic. This reaction is also exothermic reaction, not endothermic reaction.

Q134. Solubility of KCIO; can be decreased in H2O by:

• A. Removing K+ ions from the solution
• B. Removing ClO3- ions from the solution
• C. Adding KCl from outside✓
• D. Adding NaNO3 from outside

Explanation: Explanation:Adding KCl would increase the K+ ion concentration thus shifting the equilibrium to the left due to common ion effect, thus decreasing solubility of KClO3.Removing K+ ions from the solution, would increase the solubility of KClO3, as there would be less competition for the water molecules by K+ ions. Removing ClO3-1 ions from the solution, would also increase the solubility of KClO3, as there would be fewer anions in the solution to repel the ClO3-1 ions. Adding NaNO3 from outside, would not have any effect on the solubility of KClO3, as it is a different compound and does not interact with KClO3 in water to affect its solubility.

Q135. 36 g of HCl dissolves in 100 g of solution. The density of HCl is 1.19 gcm-3. The molar mass of the HCl solution will be:

• A. 36.5 g/mol✓
• B. 38.0 g/mol
• C. 100 g/mol
• D. 11.73 g/mol

Explanation: Explanation:Ar of H is 1 and Ar of Cl is 35.5. Mr = 35.5 + 1 = 36.5 g/mol

Q136. The heat of hydration decreases with the increase in:

• A. Number of neutrons
• B. Size of cations✓
• C. Size of atomic radii
• D. Number of electrons

Explanation: Explanation:As cation radius increases, charge density decreases, thus heat of hydration decreases.This option is not correct because the number of neutrons does not affect the charge or size of the ion, which are the primary factors that determine the heat of hydration. This option is also incorrect because the size of atomic radii is not directly related to the size or charge of the ion. This option is also incorrect because the number of electrons does not directly affect the size of charge of the ion.

Q137. Stronger the oxidizing agent, greater is the:

• A. Redox Potential
• B. Oxidation Potential
• C. EMF of the cell
• D. Reduction Potential✓

Explanation: A stronger oxidizing agent means it undergoes reduction more easily and thus has greater standard reduction potential. Reduction potential (Eo) is defined as a tendency of a chemical species to be reduced by gaining an electron and is defined with electrochemical reference of hydrogen, which is globally given the reduction potential of zero.

Q138. The emf produced by Galvanic Cell is known as:

• A. Redox Potential
• B. Cell Potential✓
• C. Oxidation Potential
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Explanation:The emf produced by the Galvanic cell is known as cell potential, which is the difference in reduction potentials of the two half-cells. This option is not correct because redox potential is a measure of the overall tendency of a system to undergo both oxidation and reduction.This option is also incorrect because the oxidation potential is related to the strength of a reducing agent, not the end product of a galvanic cell.

Q139. In nickel-cadmium battery, the cathode is composed of:

• A. Cd
• B. Ni(OH)2
• C. Ni
• D. NiO2✓

Explanation: Explanation:The correct option is NiO2 because the cathode in a nickel-cadmium battery is typically composed of nickel oxyhydroxide (NiOOH) which is oxidized to form NiO2 during battery discharge.This option is not correct because cadmium (Cd) is the active material in the anode of a NiCd battery. This option is also incorrect because Ni(OH)2 is a common cathode material in nickel-metal hydride (NiMH) batteries, but not in NiCd batteries.This option is also incorrect because nickel metal (Ni) is not a suitable cathode material in a NiCd battery due to its poor electrochemical performance.

Q140. Concentrated sugar solution undergoes hydrolysis into glucose and fructose by enzyme called:

• A. Zymase
• B. Invertase✓
• C. Cellulose
• D. Urease

Explanation: Explanation:Concentrated sugar solution undergoes hydrolysis into glucose and fructose by enzyme called Invertase. This option is not correct because zymase is an enzyme complex that catalyzes the fermentation of glucose into ethanol and carbon dioxide in yeast cells. This option is not correct because concentrated sugar solution undergoes hydrolysis into glucose and fructose by enzyme called Invertase, not cellulose.This option is also incorrect because Urease is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide.

Q141. In Modern Periodic Table, the elements in Group II-B are:

• A. Zn, Cd, Pb
• B. Zn, Cd, Hg✓
• C. Zn, Cd, Ba
• D. Zn, Cd, Bi

Explanation: Explanation:In modern periodic table, the elements in group ll-B are Zn, Cd, and Hg. This option is not correct. Lead (Pb) belongs to Group IV-B of the modern periodic table. This option is also incorrect because Barium (Ba) belongs to Group ll-A of the modern periodic table. This option is also incorrect because Bismuth (Bi) belongs to Group V-A of the modern periodic table.

Q142. Hydrogen loses an electron to form:

• A. H+✓
• B. H2−2
• C. H
• D. H−

Explanation: Explanation:The correct answer is H+ because when hydrogen loses an electron, it becomes a positively charged ion called a hydrogen ion or a proton. This is a dihydrogen anion which consists of two hydrogen atoms and two extra electrons, and is not formed by the loss of a single electron by hydrogen. This refers to the hydrogen atom which has one proton and one electron, and does not involve the loss of an electron. This is a hydride ion which is formed when hydrogen gains an electron, rather than loses an electron.

Q143. Which metal occurs as skeletal material in egg shells?

• A. Calcium✓
• B. Barium
• C. Beryllium
• D. Strontium

Explanation: Explanation:Calcium is found in egg shells, sea shells, teeth, and bones. Barium is a toxic element and is not found in eggshells.Berrylium is a rare and expensive metal that is not used in everyday materials such as eggshells.Strontium is a silvery-white metal that is not typically found in eggshells.

Q144. At which condition are hydrides of alkaline earth metals formed:

• A. At high pressure✓
• B. At room temperature
• C. At high temperature
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Explanation:Molten alkaline earth metal reacts with hydrogen at high pressure and in presence of catalyst forming hydrides. At room temperature, the hydrides of alkaline earth metals are not typically formed because the hydrogen molecules are not sufficiently energetic to react with the metal atoms. While high temperatures may promote the formation of hydrides, it is typically high pressures that are required to form stable hydrides of the alkaline earth metals

Q145. Which metal carbide is formed readily by the direct reaction?

• A. Rubidium
• B. Potassium
• C. Sodium
• D. Lithium✓

Explanation: Explanation:Lithium carbide is the only alkali metal carbide formed via direct reaction. Rubidium carbide can be formed by reaction with carbon at high temperatures, but it is not as readily formed as lithium carbide. Potassium carbide can be formed by the direct reaction of potassium metal and carbon at high temperatures, but it is not as readily formed as lithium carbide. Sodium carbide can be formed by the direct reaction of sodium metal and carbon, but it is not as readily formed as lithium carbide and requires higher temperatures and pressures.

Q146. Asbestos is hydrated _ magnesium silicate.

• A. Calcium
• B. Aluminium
• C. Barium
• D. Iron✓

Explanation: Explanation:The correct answer is calcium because asbestos is a term used to describe a group of six naturally occurring fibrous minerals that are composed of hydrated magnesium silicate and other elements. While there are silicate minerals that contain aluminium, such as kaolinite and feldspar, asbestos is not composed of hydrated aluminum silicate. Asbestos is not compsed of hydrated barium silicate, but there are silicate minerals that contain barium, such as barite. Asbestos is not composed of hydrated carbon silicate, but there are silicate minerals that contain carbon, such as serpentine.

Q147. Formula of lead suboxide is:

• A. Pb2O3
• B. Pb2O✓
• C. PbO
• D. Pb3O4

Explanation: Explanation:The chemical formula of lead suboxide is Pb2O. This option is not correct. This is lead oxide or red lead.This option is also incorrect. This is lead (ll) oxide, which is also known as litherage. This option is also incorrect because it is known as lead tetraoxide or minium.

Q148. Phosphine can be produced by _ of phosphorous acid.

• A. Hydration
• B. Hydrolysis
• C. Oxidation
• D. Reduction✓

Explanation: Explanation:Phosphine can be produced by reduction of phosphorous acid (H3PO3) with a reducing agent such as sodium hypophosphite (NaPO2H2) or zinc (Zn). Hydration refers to the addition of water to a compound, and it is not a method for producing phosphine from phosphorus acid. Hydrolysis is a reaction in which a compound is broken down by water, and it is not a method for producing phosphine from phosphorus acid. Oxidation involves the loss of electrons by a compound, and it is not a method for producing phosphine from phosphorus acid.

Q149. Which Noble Gas is used in bacterial lamps?

• A. Xenon✓
• B. Radon
• C. Argon
• D. Krypton

Explanation: Explanation:Xenon is used in bacterial lamps, also known as excimer lamps, which are used to disinfect air and surfaces in hospitals and other environments. Radon is a radioactive noble gas and is not used in bacterial lamps. Argon is not typically used in bacterial lamps but is used in other applications such as welding and lighting. Krypton is not typically used in bacterial lamps but is used in other applications such as lighting and lasers.

Q150. The most durable metal plating on iron to protect against corrosion is:

• A. Tin plating
• B. Zinc plating✓
• C. Nickel plating
• D. Copper plating

Explanation: Explanation:The most durable metal plating on iron to protect against corrosion is zinc plating. Tin plating is used to protect iron from rusting, but it is not as durable as zinc plating. Nickel plating is often used for decorative purposes and to improve wear resistance, but it is not as effective at protecting iron from corrosion as zinc plating. Copper plating is not as effective at protecting iron from corrosion as zinc plating, and it is often used for decorative purposes.

Q151. Colour of the transition metal ions/compounds is due to the electrons present in:

• A. d-orbital✓
• B. s-orbital
• C. p-orbital
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Explanation:The color of the transition metal ions/compounds is due to the electrons present in d-orbital. The s-orbitals are typically filled with electrons in the ground state of an atom, and they are not involved in the color of transition metal ions/compounds. The p-orbitals are also typically filled with electrons in the ground state of an atom, and they are not directly involved in the color of transition metal ions/compounds.

Q152. Chromyl Test is performed to confirm:

• A. Cl− ions✓
• B. SO4−2 ions
• C. PO4−3 ions
• D. Cr+3 ions

Explanation: Explanation:The chromyl chloride test is performed to detect chloride ions in the qualitative analysis. When any chloride salt for example sodium chloride (NaCl) is heated with acidified potassium dichromate, it gives fumes of chromyl chloride which is used to be in orange-red color. This confirms the presence of chloride ions in the salt.The chromyl test is not used to confirm the presence of sulfate ions (SO4-2). The chromyl test is not used to confirm the presence of phosphate ions (PO4-3). The chromyl test is also not used to confirm the presence of chromium ions (Cr+3).

Q153. Linear shape is associated with a set of hybrid orbitals?

• A. sp2
• B. sp3
• C. dsp2
• D. sp✓

Explanation: Explanation:The linear shape is associated with a set of hybrid orbitals that are sp-hybridized. This option is not correct. sp² hybrid orbitals result in a Trigonal planar shape. This option is also incorrect. sp³ hybrid orbitals result in a Tetrahedral shape.This option is also incorrect. dsp² hybrid orbitals result in a square planar shape.

Q154. Which one of the following compounds show cis-trans isomerism?

• A. 1-butene
• B. 1-hexene
• C. 1-bromo-2-chloropropene✓
• D. Propene

Explanation: Explanation:1-bromo-2-chloropropene has two different groups (bromo and chloro) attached to the double bond, allowing for the possibility of cis-trans isomerism. 1-butene has only one substituent attached to the double bond and cannot exhibit cis-trans isomerism.1-hexene also has only one substituent attached to the double bond and cannot exhibit cis-trans isomerism. Propene has only one substituent attached to the double bond and cannot exhibit cis-trans isomerism.

Q155. CH3―CH2―MgBr + H2O -> Br-Mg-OH + X , Where ‘X’ is:

• A. Propane
• B. Butane
• C. Methane
• D. Ethane✓

Explanation: Explanation:The reaction is a typical Grignard reagent hydrolysis reaction where the Grignard reagent (CH3CH2MgBr) reacts with water to form an alcohol and a metal hydroxide salt. The balanced chemical equation is:CH3-CH2-MgBr + H2O → CH3-CH2-OH + Mg(OH)BrSo, the product X is Ethane, which is the alcohol formed in the reaction.

Q156. If R1 = 10 kΩ and R2 = 100 kΩ then the gain of op-amplifier as inverting amplifier is:

• A. –1
• B. 10
• C. –10✓
• D. 1

Explanation: Explanation:The gain of an inverting amplifier using an operational amplifier is given by the ratio of the feedback resistor to the input resistor with a negative sign. G = R2 / R1Substituting the given values of R1 and R2, we get: G = -100kΩ / 10kΩ = -10Therefore, the gain of the operational amplifier as the inverting amplifier is -10.

Q157. If inputs A = 1, B = 0 and output X = 1, then it corresponds to the operation of a:

• A. AND Gate
• B. XNOR Gate
• C. NAND Gate✓
• D. NOR Gate

Explanation: Explanation:If inputs A = 1, B = 0, and output X = 1, the it corresponds to the operation of a NAND Gate. An AND Gate produces an output of 1 only when both inputs are 1, which is not case here. An XNOR Gate produces an output of 1 only when both inputs are the same, which is not the case here. A NOR Gate produces an output of 0 only when both inputs are 1, which is not the case here.

Q158. The value of Stefan’s Boltzmann Constant is:

• A. 4.28 x 10-7 Wm-2K-4
• B. 4.28 x 10-4 Wm-2K-4
• C. 3.62 x 10-4 Wm-2K-4
• D. 5.67 x 10-8 Wm-2K-4✓

Explanation: Explanation: The value of Stefan's Boltzmann constant is 5.67 × 10-8Wm-2K-4. It relates the total amount of energy radiated per unit surface area of a black body per unit time to its temperature.

Q159. Einstein’s photoelectric equation is given by:

• A. hf - ϕ = ½ mv2✓
• B. E = hc2
• C. E = mc2
• D. hf = ½ mv2

Explanation: Explanation:Einstein's photoelectric equation states that the maximum energy of a photoelectron is equal to the difference between the work function and the energy of the incoming photon. This option is not correct. E=hc² is the equation for the total energy of a photon, where h is Planck's constant and c is the speed of light in a vaccum.This equation is related to the theory of relativity and does not directly apply to the photoelectric effect.This equation is not valid for any physical phenomenon.

Q160. In Compton Effect, the value of h/moc is given by:

• A. 1.43 x 10-11 m
• B. 2.43 x 10-12 m✓
• C. 2.56 x 10-12 m
• D. 3.46 x 10-6 m

Explanation: Explanation: This value is a constant and is given as: = h / moc = 6.63 × 10-23 / (9.1093837015 × 10-31kg) (3× 108 ms-1) = 2.43 × 10-12m

Q161. If a particle of mass 5.0 mg moves with the speed of 8.0 m/sec, then the de-Broglle’s wavelength will be:

• A. 1.68 x 10-27 m
• B. 1.65 x 10-29 m
• C. 1.70 x 10-25 m
• D. 1.66 x 10-29 m✓

Explanation: Explanation: The de Broglie's wavelength (λ) of a particle is given by the equation: λ = h / pWhere h is the planck's constant and p is the momentum of the particle. The momentum (p) of a particle of mass (m) and velocity (v) is given by: p = mvPutting the values in the above equations, we get: p = (5 × 10-6kg)×(8m/s) = 4 × 10-5 kgms-1 λ = h/p = 6.626 × 10-34Js / 4 × 10-5 kgms-1 λ = 1.6565 × 10-29 m

Q162. LASER is a device which can produce:

• A. Intense beam of light
• B. Coherent beam of light
• C. Intense, Coherent, Monochromatic beam of light✓
• D. Monochromatic beam of light

Explanation: Explanation:LASER (Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation) is a device that produces a beam of light through the process of stimulated emission. The light produced by a laser is intense because all the photons in the beam are in phase and coherent, meaning that they have the same wavelength, frequency, and direction of propagation. Additionally, the light is monochromatic, meaning that it consists of a single color or wavelength. LASER can produce an intense beam of light by amplifying light waves using stimulated emission.LASER produces a coherent beam of light where all the light waves have the same frequency and are in phase with each other. LASER also produces a monochromatic beam of light with a single frequency and color.

Q163. A crack allows greater amount of X-rays to pass, which appears on photographic film as:

• A. Blurry Area
• B. Bright Area
• C. Dark Area✓
• D. Red Area

Explanation: Explanation:A crack allows greater amount of X-rays to pass, which appears on photographic film as dark area. This option is not correct because a blurry area can occur due to a patient movement it other factors that can cause image degradation, but not due to a crack. These options are incorrect because X-rays donot produce colors, and therefore, the appearance of a bright or red area on the X-ray film is not possible.

Q164. The emission of γ-radiations from the nucleus is generally represented by the equation:

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D✓

Explanation: Explanation:γ radiation causes no change in the atomic mass or atomic number. This is because γ radiation is a form of electromagnetic radiation. The emission of gamma radiations from the nucleus is generally represented as: .

Q165. For intermediate energy of radiations, the dormant process is:

• A. Compton Effect✓
• B. Photoelectric Effect
• C. Nuclear Effect
• D. Pair Production

Explanation: Explanation:For intermediate energy of radiations, the dormant process is Compton effect. This option is not correct. At low energies, the dominant process is photoelectric effect. This option is also not correct. This is a process in which high-energy radiation interacts with the nucleus of an atom, resulting in the emission of nuclear particles such as alpha, beta, or gamma rays.This option is also incorrect. At high energies, the dominant process is pair production.

Q166. The dimensions of gravitational constant “G” are:

• A. [ML-2T-1]
• B. [ML-2T-2]
• C. [M2L-2T-1]
• D. [M-1L3T-2]✓

Explanation: Explanation: F = G (m1) (m2) / r² G = F (r²) / (m1) (m2) G = [MLT-2] [L²] / [M] [M] = [M-1L³T-2] These dimensions correspond to surface gravity or acceleration due to gravity. These dimensions correspond to force per unit mass or pressure. These dimensions correspond to the inverse of the square of a length or area.

Q167. Ultraviolet radiations cause:

• A. Severe Crop Damage
• B. Decay of Microorganisms
• C. Sunburn, Blindness, Skin Cancer
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: Explanation:Ultraviolet radiation can cause severe crop damage, decay of microorganisms, sunburn, blindness, and skin cancer. UV radiation can cause severe damage to crops by disrupting the process of photosynthesis and causing leaves to wilt and die. This can lead to significant losses in crop yields. UV radiation can damage the DNA of microorganisms, leading to their death and decay. UV radiation can penetrate the skin and cause DNA damage in skin cells, leading to sunburn, premature aging, and an increased risk of skin cancer. It can also damage the eyes, leading to cataracts and other eye conditions.

Q168. Unit vector in the direction of vector 2i - 4j will be:

• A. 2i − 4j / √6
• B. 4i − 2j / √10
• C. i − 2j / √5✓
• D. i − 2j / √7

Explanation: Explanation: Magnitude of 2i - 4j = √(2² + (-4)²) = √20 = 2√5For unit vector = (2i -4j) / 2√5 = i - 2j / √5

Q169. If the force of magnitude 8 N acts on a body in direction making an angle 30, its X and Y components will be:

• A. Fx = 3√3 Fy = 4
• B. Fx = 4√3 Fy = 8
• C. Fx = 4√3 Fy = 4✓
• D. Fx = 8 Fy = 4√3

Explanation: Explanation: Fx = Fcosθ = 8cos(30°) = 4 (2) (√3/2./2) = 4√3 Fy = Fsinθ = 8sin(30) = 8 (½) = 4So, Fx = 4√3 and Fy = 4.

Q170. Two waves of slightly different frequencies and travelling in the same direction lead to:

• A. Stationary Waves
• B. Beats✓
• C. Interference
• D. Both B and C

Explanation: Explanation:Two waves of slightly different frequencies and travelling in the same direction lead to the production of beats. This option is not correct. Stationary waves are produced when two waves with the same frequency meet travelling in opposite directions. This option is also incorrect because Interference is the vector addition of displacement of two waves.

Q171. What is it that we use to calculate the speeds of distant stars and galaxies?

• A. Doppler Effect✓
• B. Beats
• C. Interference
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Explanation:The Doppler effect is the phenomenon where the frequency of a wave (such as light or sound) appears to change when the source or the observer is in motion relative to each other. By analysing the shift in the frequency of light emitted by a distant star or galaxy, astronomers can determine its velocity relative to Earth. Beats can be used to measure the frequency difference between the two waves, but they are not typically used in astronomical measurements. Interference can be used to study the properties of light and other waves, but it is not typically used to calculate the speeds of distant stars and galaxies.

Q172. In Young’s Double Slit Experiment, if the distance between slits and screen is doubled, then fringe spacing becomes:

• A. Zero
• B. Double the original value✓
• C. One
• D. Half of the original value

Explanation: Explanation:The Fringe spacing would be doubled. This is because the fringe spacing is proportional to the distance between the slits and the screen, so if this distance is doubled, the fringe spacing would also be doubled.The fringe spacing would not become zero or one respectively. If the distance between slits and screen is doubled, then fringe spacing becomes double of the original value, not half of the original value.

Q173. In Michelson’s interferometer 792 bright fringes pass across the field of view when its movable mirror is displaced through 0.233 mm using the equation l = m λ / 2 the wavelength of light used is:

• A. 588 nm✓
• B. 348 nm
• C. 620 nm
• D. 400 nm

Explanation: Explanation: L = mλ / 2 λ = 2L / m = 2 × 0.233 × 10-3 / 792 = 2 × 233 × 10-6 / 792 = 466 × 10-6 / 792 = 0.588 × 10-6 m = 588 × 10-9 m λ = 588 nm

Q174. In Michelson‘s Experiment, the formula to calculate the speed of light is:

• A. c = 2 fd
• B. c = 2π f / d
• C. c = 16 f / d
• D. c = 16 fd✓

Explanation: Explanation:c = 16fd is the correct formula to calculate the speed of light in Michelson's Experiment. In this formula, c is the speed of light, f is the frequency of the light source, and d is the distance travelled by light between the mirrors. By measuring the interference pattern produced by the two beams of light in Michelson's interferometer, the distance travelled by light (d) can be calculated, and hence the speed of light "c" can be determined using this formula. This option is not correct because the formula c = 2fd does not include the number of fringes observed, which is a critical factor in the experiment.This option is incorrect because the formula c = 2πf /d is the formula for calculating the wavelength of light, not the speed of light. This option is incorrect because this formula does not include the distance between the mirrors (d), which is necessary to calculate the speed of light.

Q175. The information received at the other end of a fibre can be inaccurate due to of the light signal.

• A. Longer wavelengths
• B. Frequency
• C. Intensity
• D. Dispersion or Spreading✓

Explanation: Explanation:Dispersion is a phenomenon in which the different wavelengths of light travel at different speeds through a fibre, causing the light pulses to spread out over time and space. This can result in overlapping of adjacent pulses, causing information loss and inaccuracies. This option is not correct because longer wavelengths generally suffer less from dispersion than shorter wavelengths.This option is also incorrect because the frequency of the light signal does not directly affect the dispersion of the signal in the fibre. This option is also incorrect because the intensity of the light signal can be amplified or attenuated by optical amplifiers or attenuators, but it does not directly affect the dispersion of the signal in the fibre.

Q176. The pressure on the other sides and everywhere inside the vessel will be according to the:

• A. Pascal's Law✓
• B. Hooke's Law
• C. Boyle’s Law
• D. Charles’s Law

Explanation: Explanation:By Pascal's law, pressure on each side of the container and everywhere in the container is the same provided the density of the gas is uniform. Hooke's law is related to the deformation of a solid object due to the application of an external force, and does not apply to fluids in vessels. Boyle's law and Charles' law both describe the behaviour of gases under specific conditions, and are not directly related to the pressure inside a vessel containing a fluid.

Q177. The value of universal; Gas Constant ‘R’ is:

• A. 8.314 Jmol-2K-1
• B. 1.38 Jmol-1 K-2
• C. 1.38 Jmol-1K-1
• D. 8.314 Jmol-1 K-1✓

Explanation: Explanation: The value of the universal gas constant R depends on the units of pressure, volume, and temperature used. In SI units, the value of R is approximately 8.314Jmol-1K-1.

Q178. For adiabatic process, the First Law of Thermodynamics is:

• A. W = ∆U + Q
• B. Q = – W
• C. Q = W
• D. W = – ∆U✓

Explanation: Explanation:For an adiabatic process, no heat is transferred between the system and its surroundings, so the term for heat (Q) is zero. Therefore, the first law of thermodynamics for an adiabatic process can be expressed as: W = -∆UWhere W is the work done by the system and ∆U is the change in internal energy of the system. This option is not correct because it includes the term for heat (Q), which is zero for an adiabatic process. This option is also incorrect because it assumes that all the energy input to the system is converted into work, which is not necessarily true.This option is also incorrect because it assumes that all the work done by the system is converted into heat, which is not necessarily true.

Q179. The entropy of the universe always:

• A. Decreases
• B. Increases✓
• C. Remains the same
• D. Both A and B

Explanation: The energy of the universe increases because energy never flows uphill spontaneously. Energy always flows downhill, and this causes an increase in entropy. Entropy is the spreading out of energy, and energy tends to spread out as much as possible. It flows spontaneously from a hot (i.e. highly energetic) region to a cold (less energetic) region. As a result, energy becomes evenly distributed across the two regions, and the temperature of the two regions becomes equal. The same thing happens on a much larger scale. The Sun and every other star are radiating energy into the universe. Mathematically, consider the total energy q that is transferred from a hot region at temperature T1 to a cold region at temperature T2. The entropy S1 of the hot region is defined as S1=qT1 The entropy S2 of the cold region is S2=qT2 Therefore, during the energy transfer, the change in entropy is ΔS=S2−S1 =qT2−qT1 =q(T2−T1) Since T2<T1,1T2>1T1​ and ΔS is positive. The total entropy of the system increases. Since energy never flows spontaneously in the other direction, the total entropy of the universe is always increasing.

Q180. The work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to another against the electric field is a measure of:

• A. Capacitance
• B. Potential difference between two points✓
• C. Intensity of electric field
• D. Resistance between two points

Explanation: Explanation:The workdone in moving a unit positive charge from one point to another against the electric field is equal to the potential difference between the two points. This is known as the voltage or electric potential difference, and is measured in volts (V). This option is not correct because capacitance is a measure of the ability of a system to store electrical charge. This option is also incorrect because intensity of electric field is a measure of the force per unit charge at a point in the electric field.This option is also incorrect because resistance is a measure of how much an object or material resists the flow of electric current.

Q181. In Milikan‘s Method, the radius of droplet can be calculated by:

• A. r = √qvt / 2ρg
• B. r2 = 9ηvt / ρg
• C. r2 = 9ηvt / 2ρg✓
• D. r = 9ηvt / 2ρg

Explanation: Explanation If ρ is the density of the droplets then its volune can be expressed as: V = 4/3 πr³As, ρ = m / VSo, ρ = m / (4/3 πr³ρ) m = 4/3 πr³ρ —---------(1)Using strokes law: 6πηrvt = mg m = 6πηrvt / g —------------(2)Comparing equation (1) and (2), we get 6πηrvt /g = 4/3 πr³ρ r² = 9ηvt / 2ρg

Q182. The scalar product of i and k is:

• A. Zero✓
• B. 90°
• C. 1
• D. -1

Explanation: Explanation:Since i and k are mutually perpendicular, thus angle is 90°, cos90° = 0, therefore scalar product is zero. This option is not correct because 90 degrees is the angle between two vectors in a plane, not between i and k. This option is also incorrect because scalar product of two unit vectors cannot be greater than 1.This option is also incorrect because scalar product of two unit vectors cannot be less than -1.

Q183. If the body is rotating with uniform angular velocity, then its torque is:

• A. Zero✓
• B. Clockwise
• C. Maximum
• D. Remains the same

Explanation: Explanation:If the body is rotating with uniform angular velocity, its angular momentum remains constant, and therefore there is no change in its rotational motion. Since torque is the rate of change of angular momentum, the torque acting on the body is zero. This option is not correct because if there is a clockwise torque acting on the body, it will cause the angular velocity to change, which is not the case when the body is rotating with uniform angular velocity. This option is also incorrect because the maximum torque occurs when the force is perpendicular to the axis of rotation.This option is also incorrect because if the body is rotating with uniform angular velocity, then its torque is zero, not remains the same.

Q184. Speed of light, radio waves and microwaves in vacuum is:

• A. 3 x 105 ms-1
• B. 3 x 103 ms-1
• C. 3 x 106 ms-1
• D. 3 x 108 ms-1✓

Explanation: Explanation:The speed of light, radio waves, and microwaves in the vaccum is the same, which is approximately 3 × 108 m/s. This speed is denoted by the symbol "c" and is considered a fundamental constant in physics. It is also the maximum speed at which any object or information can travel in the universe according to the theory of relativity.

Q185. A body is moving with an initial velocity of 2 kms-1. After a time of 50 secs its velocity becomes 1.5 kms-1, Its acceleration will be:

• A. 30 m/s2
• B. 40 m/s2
• C. 20 m/s2
• D. -10 m/s2✓

Explanation: Explanation:The acceleration of the body can be calculated using the formula: a = vf - vi / tSubstituting the given values, we get: a = (1.5 km/s - 2 km/s) / 50s = -0.01 km/s²Multiplying by 1000 to convert km/s² to m/s², we get: a = -10 m/s²Therefore, the acceleration of the body is 10 m/s². The negative sign indicates that the acceleration is in the opposite direction to the initial velocity.

Q186. When a car moves with constant acceleration, the velocity-time graph is a:

• A. Straight line✓
• B. Parabola
• C. Horizontal line
• D. Exponential curve

Explanation: Explanation:The slope of the velocity - time graph is equal to acceleration. As body moves with constant acceleration, the velocity-time graph will be a straight line. Slope = Constant

Q187. In elastic collision, when a massive body collides with light body at conditions m1 >> m2 and v2 = 0 ms-1, then the change in velocity will be written as:

• A. v1’ ≈ −v1 ; v2’ ≈ v1
• B. v1’ ≈ v1 ; v2’ ≈ 0
• C. v1’ ≈ v1 ; v2’ ≈ 2v1✓
• D. v1’ ≈ −v1 ; v2’ ≈ 0

Explanation: Explanation:V1' = (m1 - 0/m1 + 0) v1 + (2(m2) (0)/0 +m2) V1' = (m1 / m2) v1 + 0V1' = v1 + 0V1' = v1V2' = (2m1v1 / m1) + (0 - m1 / m1 + 0) (0)V2' = 2v1Hence, v1' = v1 and v2' = 2v1

Q188. If a certain force acts on an object and changes its kinetic energy from 65 J to 130 J, then work done by the force will be:

• A. 92.5 J
• B. 97.5 J
• C. 65 J✓
• D. 130 J

Explanation: Explanation:Final Kinetic energy (K.Ef) = 130 JInitial Kinetic energy (K.Ei) = 65 JWorkdone = W = ?As we know that: W = K.Ef - K.Ei = 130 - 65 J W = 65 J

Q189. A bullet train is lifted above the rails due to magnetic effect, thus friction is reduced to minimum and speed can be enhanced up to:

• A. 500 Km min-1
• B. 500 Km sec-1
• C. 1000 Km h-1
• D. 500 Km h-1✓

Explanation: Explanation:The lifting of a bullet train above the rails due to magnetic fields reduces friction, allowing the train to reach higher speeds. However, the maximum speed achievable by a magnetic levitation train is currently around 500 Kmh-1

Q190. In certain circuit, if the transistor has a collector current of 10 mA and base current of 50 uA, then the current gain of the transistor is:

• A. 250
• B. 100
• C. 150
• D. 200✓

Explanation: Explanation: Collector currect: Ic = 10mA = 10 × 10-3 A Base current = IB = 50μA = 50 × 10-6 A Current gain = β = ?As we know that, β = Ic / IB = 10 × 10-3 / 50 × 10-6 = 0.2 × 10³ β = 200

Q191. A signal that is applied at the inverting input terminal of an op-amplifier undergo amplification, at the output terminal with a phase shift of:

• A. 0°
• B. 270°
• C. 360°
• D. 180°✓

Explanation: Explanation:When an operational amplifier is used as an inverting amplifier, the output terminal with a phase shifted of 180°. G = -R2 / R1Here the negative sign indicates the phase inversion.

Q192. Solar energy at normal incidence outside the earth’s atmosphere is about:

• A. 2.5 kWm-2
• B. 0.6 kWm-2
• C. 1.4 kWm-2✓
• D. 2.0 kWm-2

Explanation: Explanation:Solar energy at normal incidence outside the Earth's atmosphere is also known as solar constant. The solar constant is the amount of solar radiation per unit area that falls on a surface that is perpendicular to the Sun's rays when the Earth is at an average distance from the Sun. The value of the solar constant is about 1.4 kWm-2. This energy value is the amount of energy that would be received per unit area outside the Earth's atmosphere when the sun is at its zenith.

Q193. Linear velocity or tangential velocity of any particle moving in a circular path of radlus 2m with angular velocity 8 rads-1 will be:

• A. 16 ms-1✓
• B. 4 ms-1
• C. 10 ms-1
• D. 6 ms-1

Explanation: Explanation: The linear velocity or tangential velocity (v) of a particle moving in a circular path is given by the product of the radius (r) and angular velocity (ω), i.e., v = rω Given r = 2m and ω = 8rads-1. Substituting the values, we get: v = rω = 2m × 8rads-1 = 16 m/s

Q194. What is torque ‘τ’ in a circular motion?

• A. τ = mr2π
• B. τ = mr2α✓
• C. τ = mrα
• D. τ = mr2 /α

Explanation: Explanation:Torque in circular motion is the rotational equivalent of force in linear motion. It is a measure of the rotational force that causes an object to rotate about an axis. The torque is given by the product of the moment of inertia (mr²) and the angular acceleration (α) of the rotating object. Torque = Iα = mr²α (I = mr²)This option is not correct because π is not related to the torque.This option is also incorrect because it does not include the distance from the axis of rotation (r). This option is also incorrect because it is the reciprocal of the correct formula of torque.

Q195. If the mass attached with a spring becomes four times, the time period of vibration becomes:

• A. One fourth
• B. 3/4
• C. Half
• D. Double✓

Explanation: Explanation: T = 2π√m/kKeeping in mind the above relation, time period is directly proportional to the square root of mass. So, the correct answer is D.

Q196. A body of mass 6 g falls under action of gravity. At initial position ‘A’ its P.E. is 480 J and K.E. is 0 J. During its downward journey at point ‘B’ its energies will be (g = 10 ms-2)

• A. P.E. = 300 J and K.E. = 180 J✓
• B. P.E. = 180 J and K.E. = 300 J
• C. P.E. = 230 J and K.E. = 250 J
• D. P.E. = 250 J and K.E. = 230 J

Explanation: Explanation:At point A, P.E = 480 JSince, P.E = mgh 480 = 6 × 10 × h h = 480 / 60 h = 8m above groundAt B, having fallen 3m, height above ground at B = 8 - 3 = 5mP.E at B = mgh = 6 × 10 × 5 = 300 JK.E at B = 480 - 300 = 180 J as total energy is conserved at any point.

Q197. A tiny droplet of oil of density ‘ρ’ and radius ‘r’ falls through air under force of gravity. If viscosity of air is ‘η’, the terminal velocity acquired by the oil drop is given by:

• A. vt = 4gr2ρ / 9η
• B. vt = 9ηr2ρ / 4g
• C. vt = 2gr2ρ / 9η✓
• D. vt = 9ηr2ρ / 2g

Explanation: Explanation:Using strokes law, 6πηrvt = mg Where, m = 4/3 πr³ρComparing both equations, we get: r² = 9ηvt /2ρg vt = 2gr²ρ / 9η

Q198. Torricelli’s theorem be written as:

• A. v2 = √ 2g (h1 - h2)✓
• B. v2 = √ g (h2 - h1)
• C. v2 = √ 2g (h2 - h1)
• D. v2 = √ g (h1 - h2)

Explanation: Explanation:Torricelli's theorem states that the velocity (v) of a liquid flowing out of an orifice at the bottom of a container is equal to the velocity acquired by a freely falling body from a height (h1 - h2), where h1 is the height of the liquid surface above the orifice and h2 is the height of the orifice above the ground. Mathematically, it can be expressed as: v2 = √ 2g (h1 - h2)Where g is the acceleration due to gravity.

Q199. When the spaceship rotates with _ frequency, the artificial gravity like earth is produced to inhabitants of the ship

• A. 2π √ R / g
• B. 2π √ ℓ / g
• C. 1 / 2π √ R / g
• D. f ≥ √(g / r)✓

Explanation: Explanation:When a spaceship raotates, the centripetal force creates a sensation of artificial gravity on the spaceship's interior. The frequency of rotation required to produce this artificial gravity is given by the formula: f = 1/2π √(g/R)Where f is the frequency of rotation, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and R is the radius of the spaceship.

Q200. In a microwave oven, the wave produced has a wavelength of 12 cm at a frequency of:

• A. 2.45 GHz✓
• B. 2452 Hz
• C. 2456 Hz
• D. 2455 Hz

Explanation: The electromagnetic waves used in a microwave oven have a frequency of 2.45 x 10° Hz.

Q201. Speed of the waves is equal to:

• A. fλ
• B. λ/T
• C. Both A and B✓
• D. λT

Explanation: Explanation:The speed of a wave can be calculated using the formula: v = fλwhere v is the wave speed, f is the frequency of the wave, and λ is the wavelength of the wave.As we know that: f = 1/TSo, v = λ/TWhere T is the period of the wave.Hence the speed of the wave is equal to fλ and λ/T.

Q202. A particle carrying charge of 2e falls through a potential difference of 3.0 V. Calculate the energy required by it

• A. 9.6 x 10-19 J✓
• B. 9.1 x 10-19 J
• C. 1.6 x 10-19 J
• D. 6.0 x 10-19 J

Explanation: Explanation: Charge = q = 2e Potential difference = V = 3V Energy = E = ?As we know that, E = qV = (2e)(3V) = 6eV E = 6 (1.6 × 10-19) E = 9.6 × 10-19 J

Q203. The deviation of I-V graph from the straight line is due to:

• A. Decrease in temperature and decrease in resistance
• B. Increase in temperature and increase in resistance✓
• C. Decrease in temperature and increase in resistance
• D. Increase in temperature and decrease in resistance

Explanation: Explanation:The deviation of an I-V graph from a straight line is due to the fact that the resistance of a material changes with temperature. As the temperature of a material increases, its resistance also increases,. which cause the I-V graph to deviate from a straight line.This option is not correct because a decrease in temperature and resistance would result in a decrease in the deviation of the I-V graph from a straight line. This option is also incorrect because a decrease in temperature and an increase in resistance would result in a smaller deviation of the I-V graph from a straight line. This option is also incorrect because an increase in temperature and a decrease in resistance would result in a smaller deviation of the I-V graph from a straight line.

Q204. The fractional change in resistance per Kelvin is known as:

• A. Temperature coefficient of resistance✓
• B. Thermal coefficient
• C. Linear coefficient of expansion
• D. Volumetric coefficient of expansion

Explanation: Explanation:The temperature coefficient of resistance is defined as the fractional change in resistance per Kelvin of temperature change. It is a measure of how much the resistance of a material changes with temperature. This option is not correct because thermal coefficient is a vague term and can refer to various coefficients that describe the thermal properties of a material.This option is also incorrect. Linear coefficient of expansion is a measure of how much a material expands when heated.This option is also incorrect. Volumetric coefficient of expansion is a measure of how much a material's volume changes when heated.

Q205. The energy supplied by the cell to the charge carriers is derived from the conversion of:

• A. Heat energy into Electrical energy
• B. Chemical energy into Electrical energy✓
• C. Solar energy into Electrical energy
• D. Mechanical energy into Electrical energy

Explanation: Explanation:The energy supplied by the cell to the charge carriers is derived from the conversion of chemical energy into electrical energy. This option is not correct because a thermoelectric cell converts heat energy into electrical energy.This option is also incorrect because a solar cell converts solar energy into electrical energy. This option is also incorrect because a generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.

Q206. Force experienced by a moving change in a magnetic field is:

• A. F = BA cosϴ
• B. F = μo NI
• C. F = q (v x B)✓
• D. F = I (L x B)

Explanation: Explanation:For a charge moving in a magnetic field the force is directly proportional to the charge, velocity of the charge carrier and magnetic field Intensity. As a result, the magnitude of the force is: F = q (v × B) This option is not correct. This is the expression for the force on a current carrying wire in a magnetic field, where B is the magnetic field, A is the area of the loop, and θ is the angle between B and A. This option is also incorrect because this is the expression for the force on a wire carrying a current in a magnetic field, where μo is the permeability of free space, N is the number of turns in the wire, and I is the current. This option is also incorrect because this is the expression for the force on a current carrying wire in a magnetic field, where I is the current in the wire, L is the length of the wire, and B is the magnetic field.

Q207. The value of permeability of free space μo is:

• A. 4π x 10-7 WbA-1m-1✓
• B. 4π x 102 WbA-2m-2
• C. 4π x 10-7 WbA-2m-1
• D. 4π x 102 WbA-1m-2

Explanation: Explanation: The value of permeability of free space μo is 4π × 10-7 WbA-1m-1. It is a physical constant that relates the strength of a magnetic field to the current producing it, and it is also used to define the unit of magnetic flux density, the Tesla.

Q208. What shunt resistance must be connected across a Galvanometer of 20 Ω resistance which gives full scale deflection with 2.0 A current, so as to convert it into an Ammeter of range 10 A?

• A. 5 Ω✓
• B. 2 Ω
• C. 3 Ω
• D. 4 Ω

Explanation: Explanation: Galvanometer resistance = G = 20Ω Current = I1 = 10A Current = I2 = 2 A Shunt resistance = Rs = ?So, n = I1 / I2 n = 10 / 2 = 5Applying the formula: Rs = G / n - 1 = 20 / 5 - 1 = 20 / 4 Rs = 5 ohms

Q209. The current measuring part of the Avometer consists of number of low resistances connected:

• A. At an angle of 180° with the galvanometer
• B. Parallel with the galvanometer✓
• C. At an angle of 45° with the galvanometer
• D. Perpendicular to the galvanometer

Explanation: Explanation:The current measuring part of an ammeter consists of a low resistance connected in parallel with the galvanometer. This is done so that most of the current passes through the low resistance, while a small part of the current passes through the galvanometer. This option is not correct because the low resistances are connected in parallel with the galvanometer and not an angle of 180°. This option is also incorrect because the low resistances are not connected at an angle of 45° with the galvanometer. This option is also incorrect because the low resistances are not connected perpendicular to the galvanometer.

Q210. A charge of two microcoulombs (2 μC) moves with velocity of two meter per second (2 m/sec) in the direction of two Tesla magnetic field. The force that will act on it will be:

• A. 2 N
• B. Zero✓
• C. 8 N
• D. 4 N

Explanation: Explanation:The force experienced by a charge moving in a magnetic field is given by the formula: F = qvBsinθWhere q is the charge, v is the velocity of the charge, B is the magnetic field strength, and θ is the angle between the velocity and the magnetic field direction. In this case, the charge is moving parallel to the magnetic field direction (i.e., θ = 0), so the force experienced by the charge will be zero.

Q211. We have two coils placed close to each other. When we switch on the battery connected to primary coil while keeping the sliding contact of rheostat at fixed position, the reading of Galvanometer:

• A. First increases and then becomes zero✓
• B. First increases and then becomes constant at some value
• C. Increases with the passage of time
• D. Remains zero

Explanation: Explanation:At that instant when the switch is closed momentarily current flows through the secondary coil due to change in magnetic flux. Galvanometer shows deflection after that the further flux will change so current in secondary will be zero. This option is not correct because the current induced in the secondary coil is not sustained, and therefore, the galvanometer reading cannot remain constant. This option is also incorrect because the current induced in the secondary coil decays with time due to the resistance of the circuit, and therefore, the galvanometer reading cannot increase with time. This option is also incorrect because a momentary current is induced in the secondary coil due to mutual induction, and this current causes a momentary deflection in the galvanometer. Therefore, the galvanometer reading cannot remain zero.

Q212. Power losses in a transformer can be minimized:

• A. By increasing the turn ratio
• B. By decreasing the turn ratio
• C. By minimizing Eddy currents✓
• D. By selecting core materials with a large hysteresis area

Explanation: Explanation:This option is correct because the flow of Eddy currents in the core of the transformer results in power loses due to heat. The use of laminated cores or core materials with high resistivity can help to reduce Eddy currents and minimize power loses. This option is not correct because increasing the turn ratio can lead to an increase in the voltage, which can result in higher power loses due to insulation breakdown. This option is also incorrect because decreasing the turn ratio can lead to a decrease in voltage, which can result in reduced efficiency. This option is also incorrect because using a material with a large hysteresis area can result in higher power loses due to the energy lost in magnetization and demagnetization cycles.

Q213. In R-L Series circuit, the phase difference between applied voltage and current is given by the angle ϴ which is:

• A. ϴ = tan-1 LR / ω
• B. ϴ = tan-1 ωLR
• C. ϴ = tan-1 ωL / R✓
• D. ϴ = tan-1 ωR / L

Explanation: INCORRECT OPTIONS

Q214. Frequency of L-C circuit will resonate under the driving action of the antenna by angular value of:

• A. Capacitance and inductance✓
• B. Impedance
• C. Inductance
• D. Resistance

Explanation: FACT

Q215. To convert the Si crystal into p-type semi-conductor, which group element will be doped:

• A. Trivalent Element✓
• B. Second Group Element
• C. Fourth Group Element
• D. Pentavalent Element

Explanation: Explanation:To convert a silicon (Si) crystals into a p-type semi-conductor, it needs to be doped with a trivalent element, which means an element that has three velence electrons in its outermost shell. This is because the Trivalent impurity atom will create a hole in the valence band, which behaves likes a positively charged particle. Second group elements have two valence electrons, so they cannot be used to create holes in the valence band. They are used to create n-type semiconductors by introducing an extra electron to the conduction band. Fourth group elements have four valence electrons, so they cannot be used to create holes in the valence band. This option is also incorrect. Pentavalent elements have five valence electrons, which means they can be used to create n-type semiconductors by providing an extra electron to the conduction band.

Q216. Change the voice of the statement;"Do it."

• A. Let it be done✓
• B. Let be done it
• C. It be done by you
• D. Let it be did

Explanation: A is the correct option because This is the correct passive voice construction, indicating a command or suggestion for something to be completed or accomplished.

Q217. Change the voice of the statement;"His position rejoiced me."

• A. I was rejoiced at his position✓
• B. I was rejoiced by his position
• C. I was rejoice at his position
• D. I was rejoiced from his position

Explanation: A is the correct option because This is the correct passive voice construction, indicating that the speaker (I) experienced rejoicing or joy because of his position.

Q218. Change the voice of the statement;;"Don't tell a lie."

• A. Let a lie not be told✓
• B. Don't let a lie not be told
• C. Let a lie not be told by
• D. Don't a lie not be told

Explanation: "Let a lie not be told." - This transforms the sentence into passive voice while maintaining the meaning and grammatical correctness.

Q219. Change the voice of the statement;"Don't break my heart."

• A. Don't let my heart broken
• B. Let my heart don't be broken
• C. Don't let my heart be broken by you
• D. Don't let my heart be broken✓

Explanation: D is the correct option because This is the correct passive voice construction, indicating a request or plea to prevent the action of the heart being broken.

Q220. Change the voice of the statement;;"Will he give her a bracelet?"

• A. Will a bracelet be given to her by he?
• B. Will she be given a bracelet by him?✓
• C. Will her be given a bracelet by him?
• D. Will a bracelet be being given to her by him?

Explanation: B is the correct option because This is the correct passive voice construction, indicating that the action of giving (the bracelet) is being done to "her" by "him."