Uhs Mdcat 2010 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. My advice had no _ on him.

• A. Effect✓
• B. Affect
• C. Influence
• D. Impression

Explanation: The correct answer is Effect as it is a noun that describes a result or consequence, which is what the sentence is implying about the advice. The sentence structure 'had no _ on him' requires a noun, making 'effect' the correct choice.Affect is incorrect because it is a verb. Influence is a noun but implies a stronger impact than needed here. Impression is also a noun but refers to an opinion or feeling, which doesn't fit the context of discussing the result of advice.

Q2. Do not lose heart, it is just a _ in the teacup.

• A. Wind
• B. Cyclone
• C. Blast
• D. Storm✓

Explanation: The phrase 'storm in a teacup' is an idiom used to describe a situation where there is a lot of fuss or excitement about something that is not important. 'Storm' is the correct word that completes this idiomatic expression. The other options, 'wind,' 'cyclone,' and 'blast,' do not fit because they either imply a different scale of disturbance or lack the idiomatic context.

Q3. Pakistan _ from voting against Iran in the United Nations.

• A. Prevented
• B. Detained
• C. Abstained✓
• D. Refuse

Explanation: The correct answer is Abstained. In diplomatic language, 'abstaining' from a vote means a country chooses not to cast a vote for or against a proposal, which aligns with the context of the sentence about Pakistan's action in the United Nations.Prevented and Detained imply physical actions to stop or delay something, which do not match the context of choosing not to participate in a vote. Refuse would imply a more active rejection, and it does not fit the formal context of diplomatic voting behavior in this sentence structure.

Q4. Please _ the door after you.

• A. Close✓
• B. Shut
• C. Leave
• D. Knock

Explanation: Explanation:The verb 'close' is the most suitable choice because it describes the typical action of moving a door from an open to a shut position when leaving a room. The word 'close' is commonly used in polite requests and is standard in this context. 'Shut' could also mean the same but can sound less polite. 'Leave' and 'Knock' are unrelated to the action of moving the door to a shut position and hence are incorrect.

Q5. Spot the error : In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined.Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.Suddenly, he stopped at the edge of the meadow, taking his pocket knife from his pocket, and cut a wisp of alfalfa.

• A. Suddenly, he stopped
• B. Taking his pocket knife from his pocket✓
• C. His pocket
• D. Cut a wisp of alfalfa

Explanation: The error in the sentence lies in the phrase 'Taking his pocket knife from his pocket'. This phrase is in present participle form and does not align with the past tense narrative of the rest of the sentence. To maintain verb tense consistency, it should be 'took his pocket knife from his pocket'. The other options are correctly structured in past tense and do not contain errors.

Q6. Spot the error : In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined.Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.The study of population growth indicates one of the greatest paradox of our time.

• A. The study
• B. Population growth
• C. One of the
• D. Paradox✓

Explanation: The error in the sentence lies in the segment 'paradox'. According to grammatical rules, the phrase 'one of the' should be followed by a plural noun. Thus, 'paradox' should be changed to 'paradoxes'. The other segments, 'The study', 'Population growth', and 'One of the', are correctly used and do not contain any grammatical errors.

Q7. Spot the error : In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.Among the Western nations, the decline in the death rate is followed after an interval by the reduction in the birth rate, so that the population is not now growing so fast.

• A. Among the Western nations
• B. Death rate is followed
• C. The reduction in the birth
• D. Is not now growing✓

Explanation: The options (a), (b), and c are grammatically correct.

Q8. Spot the error : In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.In view of increasing hazards with our national security it is the duty of every citizen to keep a watch on his surroundings.

• A. With✓
• B. It is
• C. To keep
• D. On his surroundings

Explanation: The error in the sentence lies in the use of the preposition 'with'. The phrase 'increasing hazards with our national security' suggests a relationship that is not accurately expressed by 'with'. Instead, 'to' or 'for' would be more appropriate to indicate the threats posed to national security. The other segments of the sentence, 'It is', 'To keep', and 'On his surroundings', are all used correctly and do not contain errors.

Q9. Spot the error : In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.Thrifty housewives preserved their homegrown vegetables and fruits in canning, pickling or drying them for use during the cold weather.

• A. In✓
• B. Or
• C. For
• D. The

Explanation: Option A is correct because the preposition "in" is incorrectly used to describe the method of preservation. The sentence should use "by" instead, which is appropriate for explaining the method or means by which something is done. Option B is incorrect because "or" correctly connects alternative methods. Option C is incorrect as "for" is correctly used to denote the purpose of the action. Option D is incorrect because "the" is used properly to specify the weather being referred to.

Q10. Spot the error : In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.When a low-wage category worker finds he has to maintain a large family, his expenses may exceeds his income.

• A. When a low-wage
• B. Worker finds
• C. Maintain a large family
• D. Exceeds his income✓

Explanation: Option D: exceedsReason: In the main clause "His expenses may exceeds his income", the subject is "his expenses" which is plural. Due to plural subject, we should use exceed (remove 's') instead of exceeds. Secondly, words like (may,might,can,could,shall,should,do,does ,did) are always followed by present form of verb without adding an 's'. For example: The girl may come( first form of verb without 's') today.The options (a)It is grammatical correctOption B: worker is singular so it gets an 's' with the verb find ( the worker finds). It's correctly written in the given sentence. Option C: to maintain is an infinitive.

Q11. In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the correct one.

• A. This is different to what had been expected.
• B. This is different what had been expected.
• C. This is different from what had been expected.✓
• D. This is different to what would be expected.

Explanation: The correct answer is Option C: 'This is different from what had been expected.' This sentence correctly uses the preposition 'from' to indicate a difference between the actual situation and the expected one. Option A is incorrect because 'to' is not the correct preposition in this context. Option B is incorrect because it omits the necessary preposition 'from.' Option D, while grammatically possible in some dialects, uses 'to' instead of 'from' and shifts the meaning to a general expectation rather than a specific past expectation.

Q12. In each of the following questions, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the correct one.

• A. When the fact failed him, he questions his senses.
• B. When the fact failed him, he questioned from his senses.
• C. When the fact fails him, he questions his senses.✓
• D. He will question his senses, when the fact will fail him.

Explanation: The correct answer is Option C. It uses the zero conditional, which is applicable for general truths and scientific facts. In zero conditional sentences, both clauses are in the present tense. Options A and B are incorrect due to tense inconsistency and awkward phrasing, respectively. Option D incorrectly uses the future tense 'will fail' after 'when', which is not appropriate in conditional sentences that denote general truths.

Q13. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriateWallow

• A. Roll about✓
• B. Mock
• C. Protest
• D. Borrow

Explanation: The correct answer is Option A: 'Roll about.' Wallow is most commonly associated with the act of lying or rolling in mud or water, or metaphorically indulging in a state of mind, such as self-pity. The other options do not relate to this physical or metaphorical action. 'Mock' involves ridiculing, 'Protest' is about expressing opposition, and 'Borrow' is about taking something temporarily. None of these match the meaning of wallow.

Q14. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate.Connoisseur

• A. Guide
• B. Artist
• C. Expert critic of art✓
• D. Teacher

Explanation: The correct answer is Option C: Expert critic of art. A connoisseur is someone with extensive knowledge and the ability to judge art, music, or food expertly. Option A: Guide refers to a person who provides direction but does not imply expertise in the arts. Option B: Artist indicates someone who creates art but is not necessarily a critic or judge. Option D: Teacher denotes a person who educates but does not imply expertise in art critique.

Q15. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate.Eccentric

• A. Lunatic
• B. Stern
• C. Upset
• D. Odd✓

Explanation: The word 'eccentric' refers to someone who is unconventional or whose behavior is slightly strange. This aligns closely with the definition of 'odd', which is why it is the correct answer. 'Lunatic' suggests a mental illness, 'stern' implies strictness, and 'upset' indicates a state of unhappiness or worry; none of these meanings capture the essence of 'eccentric'.

Q16. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate.Boulder

• A. Rounded stone / hill✓
• B. Builder
• C. Magnanimity
• D. Magnitude

Explanation: The word 'boulder' refers to a large rock, which is often rounded or smoothed by erosion processes. This aligns with the description 'rounded stone / hill,' making Option A the correct choice. The other options relate to different concepts: Option B refers to a person who constructs things, Option C describes a trait of generosity, and Option D speaks to the size or extent of something, none of which are relevant to the definition of a boulder.

Q17. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriateSlumber

• A. Heap
• B. Humble
• C. Knee
• D. Sleep✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Option D: Sleep. Slumber refers to a light state of sleep, often implying restfulness. Option A, Heap, pertains to a collection of items in a pile, which is unrelated to the concept of sleep. Option B, Humble, denotes modesty and is not associated with sleep. Option C, Knee, is a joint in the human body, which also does not relate to the idea of slumbering. Therefore, 'Sleep' is the best synonym for 'Slumber'.

Q18. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate.Excrement

• A. Increment
• B. Waste matter expelled from body✓
• C. Excitement
• D. Disagreement

Explanation: The correct option is B: 'Waste matter expelled from body'. Excrement is specifically the waste material discharged from the body, primarily feces, resulting from the digestive process. Option A, 'Increment', relates to an increase or addition, typically in numerical terms, making it unrelated to bodily functions. Option C, 'Excitement', pertains to a state of enthusiasm or happiness, which does not connect to the meaning of excrement. Option D, 'Disagreement', indicates a lack of agreement or approval, which is conceptually different from bodily waste.

Q19. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate.Visage

• A. Vision
• B. Illusion
• C. Trunkless
• D. A person’s face✓

Explanation: Option [D] is the correct answer because 'visage' specifically refers to a person's face in terms of its physical characteristics and expressions. Option [A], 'Vision,' is incorrect as it relates to sight, not facial appearance. Option [B], 'Illusion,' is about deceptive appearances, not facial features. Option [C], 'Trunkless,' is unrelated as it describes something without a trunk or main stem, typically in botany.

Q20. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate.Felicity

• A. Intense Happiness✓
• B. Respite
• C. Inspire
• D. Sensational

Explanation: Option A is correct because 'Felicity' means a state of intense happiness or bliss. It is often used to describe a profound level of contentment or joy. Option B, 'Respite', is incorrect as it refers to a temporary period of relief from something distressing. Option C, 'Inspire', is incorrect because it is more about motivation or creative influence, not happiness. Option D, 'Sensational', is incorrect as it pertains to something that is very impressive or exciting, which is not synonymous with happiness.

Q21. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate.Enmeshed

• A. Sojourn
• B. Entangled✓
• C. Gallows
• D. Cascade

Explanation: The word 'enmeshed' is best represented by Option B: Entangled. 'Enmeshed' implies being caught or involved in a situation that is complex and difficult to escape, similar to being 'entangled.' The other options do not convey the idea of complexity or difficulty in escaping. 'Sojourn' refers to a temporary stay, 'gallows' is a structure for execution, and 'cascade' suggests a sequence of events, none of which capture the essence of 'enmeshed.'

Q22. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate.Captivate

• A. Hesitate
• B. Concentrate
• C. Hate
• D. Fascinate✓

Explanation: The word captivate means to attract and hold someone's attention or interest, often through charm or beauty. Option [D] Fascinate is correct because it is a synonym of captivate, both meaning to enthrall or charm. Option [A] Hesitate is incorrect as it means to be reluctant or unsure. Option [B] Concentrate is incorrect as it refers to focusing attention, not attracting it. Option [C] Hate is incorrect, as it is the opposite of being attracted or interested.

Q23. Book lungs are present in arthropods for exchange of gases in class:

• A. Crustacea
• B. Insecta
• C. Myriapoda
• D. Arachnida✓

Explanation: Book lungs are specialized respiratory organs found in arachnids such as spiders and scorpions. They consist of stacks of thin, leaf-like structures (lamellae) enclosed in a chamber, which allows efficient exchange of gases with the surrounding air. This adaptation is unique to the class Arachnida among arthropods. In contrast, crustaceans respire using gills, insects and myriapods use a tracheal system, and thus none of these groups have book lungs. Therefore, the correct answer is Arachnida.

Q24. Larvae of which group are similar to chordates?

• A. Echinodermata✓
• B. Annelida
• C. Arthropoda
• D. Nematoda

Explanation: Option[A] The larvae of echinodermata [called dipleurula larva] are characterized by bilateral symmetry. The larvae of chordates[ tornaria larva] also have bilateral symmetry so option [A] IS RIGHT.The other options are eliminated as follows:Option [B] Annelida has a free swimming trochophore larvae which is different from that of chordates.Option [C] Arthropods have larva [called instar or nymph] that is different from larvae of chordates.Option [D] Nematoda has a larval stage during their life cycle which is quite different from chordates.

Q25. The type of respiration that involves the step-by-step breakdown of carbon chain molecules in the cell is called

• A. External respiration
• B. Pulmonary respiration
• C. Cellular respiration✓
• D. Cutaneous respiration

Explanation: The correct answer is cellular respiration. This process involves the breakdown of carbon chain molecules, such as glucose, within cells to produce ATP, the energy currency of the cell. The breakdown occurs in several stages, including glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation. External respiration and pulmonary respiration refer to the exchange of gases at the respiratory system level, not at the cellular level. Cutaneous respiration involves gas exchange through the skin and is unrelated to the cellular metabolic processes of energy conversion.

Q26. An instrument that is used to measure the relative abilities of different pigments to absorb different wavelengths of light is called

• A. Spectrometer
• B. Photometer
• C. Barometer
• D. Spectrophotometer✓

Explanation: A spectrometer separates and measures the spectral components of a physical phenomenon. A photometer is an instrument that measures the strength of electromagnetic radiation in the range from ultraviolet to infrared, including the visible spectrum. A barometer is an instrument used to measure atmospheric pressureA spectrophotometer performs quantitative measurements of reflectance or transmission properties of a material as a function of wavelength.

Q27. End products of yeast fermentation, bacterial fermentation, and anaerobic respiration are:

• A. Ethyl alcohol, lactic acid, and carbon dioxide✓
• B. Ethyl alcohol, lactic acid, carbon dioxide, and water
• C. Glucose, oxygen, and water
• D. Pyruvic acid, carbon dioxide, and oxygen

Explanation: The correct end products of yeast fermentation, bacterial fermentation, and anaerobic respiration are ethyl alcohol, lactic acid, and carbon dioxide. These products result from energy-yielding processes that occur in the absence of oxygen, allowing organisms to survive under anaerobic conditions.

Q28. In human beings, what is the function of amylase in digestion?

• A. Digestion of triglycerides
• B. Digestion of lipids
• C. Digestion of all types of food
• D. Digestion of carbohydrates✓

Explanation: Option [A] Gastric Lipase breaks down fats in the stomach.Option [B] Lipase breaks down Lipids into fatty acids and glycerol.Option[C] Enzymes are specific for each substrate. Different enzymes are required for the breakdown of different types of food.Option [D] Amylase is the enzyme that breaks down starch[type of carbohydrate]into sugar.

Q29. Where is the ileocolic sphincter located in your body?

• A. At the junction of esophagus and stomach
• B. At the junction of stomach and small intestine
• C. At the junction of ileum and large intestine✓
• D. At the junction of small intestine and large intestine

Explanation: Option[A] cardiac sphincter is present at the junction of esophagus and stomach.Option[B] pyloric sphincter is present at the junction of the stomach and small intestine.Option [C] ileocolic sphincter is located at the junction of the ileum and the first portion of the colon of the large intestine.Option[D] specific positions of intestines are not described in this option.

Q30. The term which is employed to the loss of appetite due to fear of becoming obese is:

• A. Obesity
• B. Anorexia nervosa✓
• C. Dyspepsia
• D. Bulimia nervosa

Explanation: Option[a] Obesity is defined as the accumulation of abnormal or excessive fat that may impair health.Option [b] Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an abnormally low body weight and intense fear of gaining weight.Option [c] Dyspepsia means indigestion, which refers to discomfort or pain that occurs in the upper abdomen often after eating or drinking.Option [d] Bulimia is an eating disorder characterized by uncontrolled episodes of overeating(bingeing).

Q31. Which one of the following acts as functional unit of lungs in man?

• A. Air sac✓
• B. Trachea
• C. Larynx
• D. Bronchioles

Explanation: Option [a] Air sacs, and alveoli are present at the end of bronchioles in lungs where lungs and blood exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide during inhalation and exhalationOption[b] The Larynx(voice box) contains vocal cords not the part of the lungsOption[c] Trachea that connects the larynx to the lungs. Acts as a passage of air into the lungs.( not the part of the lungs)Option[d] Bronchioles are the smaller branches of the bronchi that enter each lung. Bronchioles give rise to alveoli (air sacs)

Q32. Which one of following factors is directly proportional to oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin:

• A. Carbon dioxide
• B. Temperature
• C. pH✓
• D. Light

Explanation: Option [A] the greater the carbon dioxide the lesser the capacity to carry oxygen, as Co2 increases more H+ ions are produced in blood,decreasing the Ph subsequently decreasing affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen(inversely proportional)Option[b] With the increase in temperature the ability of haemoglobin to carry oxygen decreases (inversely Proportional)Option [C] With the increase in Ph the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen increases as there are lesser H+ ions produced due to less amount of Co2 resulting in lesser O2 being dissociated from the Hb molecule. ( directly proportional with increase in Ph Hb molecules carries more oxygen)Option[d] Light has no effect on haemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen

Q33. Expiration in human beings is carried out by:

• A. Contraction of lungs
• B. Contraction of intercostal membrane
• C. Relaxation of intercostal and diaphragm muscles✓
• D. Contraction of diaphragm muscles

Explanation: Option [a] Lungs do not contractOption[b] Internal intercostal muscles contractOption [c] During expiration External intercostal muscles relax and internal intercostal muscles contract bringing the rib cage down to its normal position, muscles of the diaphragm Also relax with the chest cavity also reducedOption [d] Diaphragm muscles relax during expiration, contraction of the diaphragm does not occur.

Q34. Which one of the following is a precursor of steroid hormones?

• A. Glycerol
• B. Sterol
• C. Amino acids
• D. Cholesterol✓

Explanation: Option[A] Lipids are made from glycerolOption[b] Sterols are sub groups of steroidsOption[c] Amino acid is the basic unit of protein. Twenty different types of amino acid combine in different arrangements to forms various different proteinsOption [D] All steroid hormones are derived from cholesterol molecules.

Q35. Granulocytes or white blood cells are produced in:

• A. Lymph nodes
• B. Red bone marrow✓
• C. Tonsils
• D. Spleen

Explanation: Option[a] Lymph nodes don’t have a role in the production of WBC, they filter substances that travel through the lymphatic fluid.Option [b] Bone marrow makes stem cells, which then produce RBC, WBC and plateletsOption[c] The main function of tonsils is fighting infection, they contain a lot of WBC but do not produce them.Option[d] Spleen controls the levels of blood cells including WBC, RBC and platelets, it removes old or damaged RBC whereas WBC are destroyed in the lymphatic system.

Q36. Which one of the following statements best describes the function of sinoatrial node?

• A. It sends out electrical impulses to atrial muscles causing both atria to contract✓
• B. It consists of small number of diffusely oriented cardiac fibres
• C. It sends out electrical impulses to ventricular muscles causing both ventricles to contract
• D. It is present at upper end of left atrium

Explanation: Option [a] The Sinoatrial node, also known as the pacemaker, is responsible for initiating the heartbeat. It generates an electrical impulse that causes both atria to contract at the same time.Option[b] No function of the Sinoatrial node mentionedOption[c] The sino atrial node does not send electrical impulses to ventricles, ventricles only contract after the Atrioventricular node picks up the electrical impulse and it travels through the median septum causing ventricles to contract (downwards to upwards)Option[d] Sinoatrial node is present in the upper wall of the right atrium

Q37. The flow of lymph in lymphatic vessels is maintained by:

• A. Heart, activity of smooth muscles and valves
• B. Activity of skeletal muscles, heart and breathing movements
• C. Breathing movements, activity of skeletal muscles and valves✓
• D. Exercise, breathing movements and heart

Explanation: Option[a] heart has no role in lymph flowOption[b] Heart has no role in lymphOption [c] All mentioned factors affect the flow of lymph in lymphatic vessels i.e. deep breathing helps the flow of the lymph fluid through the body, movement of skeletal muscle increases the lymph flow and valves function to bias lymph flow back towards the heart.Option[d] Heart and exercise play no role in lymph flow

Q38. Metabolic waste from metabolism of nucleic acid is:

• A. Uric acid✓
• B. Creatine
• C. Urea
• D. Creatinine

Explanation: Option [a] Uric acid is the chemical created when the body breaks down substances called purines, nucleic acid contains purines, adenine, GuanineOption[b] Creatine is found naturally in muscle cells, it helps muscles produce energy during heavy lifting or high-intensity exerciseOption[c] Urea is produced due to the oxidation of excess amino acids in the liverOption[d] creatinine is the waste product made by muscles from the normal wear and tear on muscles of the body.

Q39. The central metabolic station and clearing house of a body is:

• A. Liver✓
• B. Kidney
• C. Nephron
• D. Glomerulus

Explanation: Option [a] Liver plays a central role in all metabolic processes in the body. Responsible for the metabolism of fats, proteins, and carbohydrates. It is also involved in detoxification [as it filters all of the blood and breaks down poisonous substances such as alcohol and drugsOption[b] The Kidney is the main excretory organ and is involved in the formation of urine to excrete all the waste products out of the body via urineOption[c] Nephron is the functional unit of the kidney involved in the formation of urineOption[d] Glomerulus is a network of small blood vessels in each nephron enclosed in a sac called Bowman’s Capsule

Q40. The muscles that control urine in bladder are known as:

• A. Striated muscles
• B. Smooth muscles
• C. Sphincter muscles✓
• D. Circular muscles

Explanation: Option[a] Striated muscles are either skeletal muscles or cardiac muscles not in the urinary bladder.Option[b] Smooth muscles are present throughout the body ,also exists throughout urinary system where it functions to help rid of toxins and maintain electrolyte balance but does not control the urine in bladderOption [C] Bladder has sphincter muscles,which is a smooth voluntary muscles and control the flow of urine out.Option[d] Circular muscles have a role in opening and closing of passages in the human body to regulate the flow of substances

Q41. The living cells of cartilage are called:

• A. Chrondrocytes✓
• B. Osteoblasts
• C. Ostecytes
• D. Osteoclasts

Explanation: Option [A] Chondrocytes are the cell responsible for cartilage formation cell,they are the only cells found in healthy cartilageOption[b] Osteoblasts are the bone cells primarily responsible for bone matrix proteins and mineral during early bone formationOption[c] osteocytes regulate local mineral deposition and chemistry at the bone Matrix levelOption[d] osteoclasts is a-specialised cell that absorbs and removes bone,allowing for the development of a new bone and mantainenance bone strength.(bone dissolving cells)

Q42. The disease which causes immobility and fusion of vertebral joints is:

• A. Osteomalacia (soft bones)
• B. Disc slip
• C. Arthritis
• D. Spondylosis✓

Explanation: Options [A] osteomalacia is a group of diseases in which bone resorption outpaces bone deposit[ it means there is more bone depletion than bone deposition].It is the softening of bones.Option [B] disc slip or herniated disc involves the rupture of annulus fibrosis followed by protrusion of the spongy nucleus pulposis.Option [C] arthritis is an inflammatory or degenerative disease that damage joints.Option [D] Spondylosis is the disease which causes immobility and fusion of joint. It is an age related condition in which the joint and cartilage lined disc are affected. So option [D] is right.

Q43. During muscle contraction:

• A. I-band shortens✓
• B. Myosin filaments shorten
• C. Actin filaments shorten
• D. Z-line disappears

Explanation: Option [A] During muscle contraction the following things happen:I band shortensZ lines come closerH zone disappearsHENCE option [A] is right.Option [B] is incorrect because myosin[thick] filaments do not shorten during contraction.Option [C] is incorrect because actin [thin] filaments do not shorten .Option [D] is incorrect because Z lines do not disappear but they just come closer together

Q44. Hormones are the organic compounds of varying structural complexity. Which of the following is not a function or property of these compounds?

• A. They initiate new biochemical reactions✓
• B. They are poured directly into blood
• C. They may be proteins
• D. They affect target cells

Explanation: Option [A] Hormones do not start a new biochemical reaction itself instead whenever a stimulus hormone is released in blood and reaches the target site to perform a corrective mechanism.Option[B] Hormones are directly released into blood and reach their target site via bloodOption[C] They can be proteins eg insulin,glucagonOption[D] Hormones affect only the target cells to perform a corrective mechanism eg glucagon only affects liver cells.

Q45. Reflexes and instincts type of behaviours respond to which combinations?

• A. Biological rhythms, territorial, courtship and development
• B. The responses that do produce same result in different conditions
• C. Aggression, mating and altruism✓
• D. The responses that are predetermined like differentiation

Explanation: A is incorrect because development is not a type of reflexes and instincts.B is incorrect because reflexes and instincts are extremely complex behaviours.C is correct since reflexes and instincts include biological rhythms,territorial behaviour, courtship, mating, aggression, social hierarchies and social organizations.D is incorrect because reflexes and instincts have no role in differentiation like processes.

Q46. A typical neuron at rest:

• A. Is more positive outside than inside✓
• B. Is more negative outside than inside
• C. Has no charge on either side
• D. Has an equal charge on either side

Explanation: Option [A] A typical neuron is more positive outside than inside due to the presence of Na+ K+ pump which countertransports 3Na+ outside and 2K+ inside, removing one extra positive charge outside every time movement occurs.Option[B] At rest neuron is more positive outsideOption [c] Counter-transports of ions occurs in an unequal amount resulting in chargesOption[D] 3 Na+ move outside and 2K+ inside via sodium-potassium pump therefore unequal charge on either side

Q47. The first cells produced by the repeated cell division of germinal epithelium of testis are:

• A. Interstitial cells
• B. Spermatogonia✓
• C. Secondary spermatocytes
• D. Spermatids

Explanation: Option [A] interstitial cells are present between the seminiferous tubules of testis and secrete testosterone hormone.Option [B] Each testis consists of seminiferous tubules in which repeated division by cells of the germinal epithelium produce spermatogonia.These increase in size and differentiate into primary spermatocytes.So option B IS RIGHT.Option [C] secondary spermatocytes are formed by meiotic division[ meiosis 1] of primary spermatocytes.Option [D] spermatids are formed by meiosis [meiosis 2] of secondary spermatocytes’

Q48. Which of the following sequence is correct?

• A. LH → FSH → Estrogen → Progesterone
• B. FSH → LH → Progesterone → Estrogen
• C. FSH → Estrogen → Progesterone → LH
• D. FSH → Estrogen → LH → Progesterone✓

Explanation: [A] FSH is produced in the start in menstrual cycle not LH[B] FSH stimulates the production of Estrogen[C] LH is produced first before progesterone[D] In the start of the menstrual cycle FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone)is released during the beginning stimulating the production of Oestrogen from ovaries that vascularise the endometrium and then decrease in FSH and increase in Estrogen Produces LH and after Ovulation corpus Luteum secretes Progesterone.

Q49. Which chromosomal abnormality in humans causes aggressive and antisocial behavior?

• A. XO
• B. XXY
• C. XYY✓
• D. XXX

Explanation: [A] XO chromosomal abnormality results in Turner syndrome which does not causes aggression and antisocial behaviour[B] XXY,Klinefelter syndrome does not result in aggressions and antisocial behaviour[C] XYY (supermale) may act on brain’s lambic system which regulates man’s most primitive drives,including his impulse towards violence,aggression[D] XXX is a metafemale syndrome.

Q50. Grey equatorial cytoplasm produces:

• A. Muscle cells
• B. Gut
• C. Notochord and neural tube✓
• D. Larval epidermis

Explanation: [A]Sarcoplasm is the cytoplasm of muscle cell which is yellow in colour[B] Gut is produced by grey vegetal cytoplasm[C] Notochord and neural tubules are produced by Grey editorial cytoplasm[D] Larval epidermis is produced by clear cytoplasm

Q51. Sickle cell Anaemia is an example of which type of chromosomal defect?

• A. Chromosomal rearrangement
• B. Transposition of gene
• C. Chromosomal aberration
• D. Point mutation✓

Explanation: Option [A] chromosomal rearrangement includes inversions,reciprocal translocations that can have effect on gene expression through positive effectsOption [B] Transposition of gene is the change in gene position.Option [C] chromosomal aberrations are the mega changes which involve presence of an extra chromosome or loss of chromosome from diploid number of chromosomes.Option [D] In Sickle cell anaemia,the 6th amino acid[ glutamic acid] is replaced by another amino acid [valine] in each haemoglobin BETA chain so haemoglobin is unable to carry out its normal function of carrying oxygen [haemoglobin becomes abnormal].In the nucleotide order,the nitrogenous base thymine is replaced by adenine.Since there is alterations in the sequence of DNA nucleotide so it is an example of POINT MUTATION [If alterations involve one or a few base pairs in the coding sequence they are called point mutation]. Hence option D is right.

Q52. The karyotype of an individual is _ of chromosomes.

• A. Number
• B. Types
• C. Number, types and chemical composition
• D. Number and types✓

Explanation: [A] Does not refer only on number of chromosome[B] does not refer to the type of chromosomes only[C] does not refer to chemical composition of chromosomes[D] Karyotype of an individual refers to complete set of chromosomes that includes the number and set of chromosomes in that set

Q53. The process of replication of DNA begins at:

• A. One place only without any specific sequence of DNA
• B. One or more places without any specific sequence of DNA
• C. Any place with the uncoiling of two strands of DNA
• D. One or more places where there is a specific sequence of nucleotides✓

Explanation: The process of DNA replication begins at one or more places where there is a specific sequence of nucleotides. These specific sequences where DNA replication initiates are known as the origins of replication. The DNA molecule is unwound, and the replication machinery assembles at these specific sites, allowing for the controlled and accurate duplication of the DNA. The presence of origins of replication ensures that DNA replication occurs at the right place and at the right time in the cell cycle. The exact locations of origins of replication vary between organisms, and the specific DNA sequence recognized at these origins can differ, but they are always specific and serve as starting points for DNA replication.

Q54. Amino acid attaches at which site of RNA:

• A. Anticodon site
• B. Ribosomes recognition site
• C. 3’-site with terminal OH✓
• D. Activation enzyme recognition site

Explanation: [A] At anticodon site is complementary to a corresponding codon in mRNA and binds to that specific complementary codons[B] Ribosome recognition site plays an important role in translational initiation [C] Amino acids are attached to the tRNA 3'-end as a prerequisite for entering the ribosome for protein synthesis.[D] Activation enzyme site is imp for binding of speecfic enzymes required for translation

Q55. Microtubules of spindle fibres are composed of a protein called

• A. Tubulin✓
• B. Actin
• C. Myosin
• D. Troponin

Explanation: [A] The tubulin proteins α- and β polymerize into long chains or filaments that form microtubules.[B] Actin forms microfilaments in the cytoskeleton[C] Myosin protein is found in muscle cells, converts chemical energy in the form of ATP to mechanical energy,generating force and movement[D] Troponin,protein found in the muscles of heart

Q56. The kinetochore fibres contract and spindle or pole fibres elongate during:

• A. Prophase I
• B. Metaphase I
• C. Telophase I
• D. Anaphase I✓

Explanation: [A] During prophase no separation of chromosomes occurs instead they only condense and thicken during prophase[B] During Metaphase the cell’s chromosomes align in the centre(equatorial line) of dividing cell[C] During telophase spindle disappears and nucleus reforms around each of the membrane[D] Kinetochore is a protein attached with centromere,holding two chromatids together. Spindle fibres are connected to kinetochore, spindle fibres contacts causing kinetochore to contact.It is during Anaphase when each pair of chromosomes is separated into two identical chromosomes.

Q57. Cell death due to tissue damage is called:

• A. Necrosis✓
• B. Metastasis
• C. Apoptosis
• D. Epistasis

Explanation: [A] Necrosis is the death of a body tissue,occurring when too little blood flows to the tissue.[B]Metastasis means that cancer has spread to different parts of body[C] Apoptosis the process of programmed cell death[D] Epistasis is a circumstance where the expression of one gene is modified by expression of one or more gene

Q58. When a disease is transmitted directly from an affected father to his son, it is called:

• A. X-linked
• B. Autosomal
• C. Y-linked✓
• D. X and Y-linked

Explanation: [A] X-linked traits are not only transmitted from father to son but can be also transmitted to her daughter[B] Autosomal disease can be transferred from one parent to a child no specific pattern[C] Y-linked traits transmission occurs only in males so if a mail has a trait so should his father and paternal grandfather as well as his sons and their sons[D] Y-linked is transferred from males to males only but not X-linked

Q59. Epistasis is a relationship between:

• A. Alleles of a gene
• B. Two different genes at the same locus
• C. Two contrasting traits
• D. Two different genes at different loci✓

Explanation: [A] Epistasis not linked to alleles of genes[B] Two different genes are at the different loci[C] Two contrasting traits are two different types of possibilities of a trait[D] Epistasis is a circumstance where the expression of one gene is modified by expression of one or more gene.

Q60. Gene for albinism in man is present on chromosome number:

• A. 11✓
• B. 22
• C. 21
• D. 12

Explanation: [A] Gene for albinism, sickle cell anaemia and leukaemia is present at chromosomes number 11.[B] Not present at chromosomes 22.[C] Not present on chromosome 21.[D] not present on chromosome 12.

Q61. Gene can be synthesized in laboratory from messenger RNA by using:

• A. Restriction enzymes
• B. cDNA (complementary DNA)
• C. Vector
• D. Reverse transcriptase✓

Explanation: [A] Restriction enzymes recognize a specific sequence of nucleotides in double stranded DNA and cut the DNA at a specific location [B] CDNA is incorrect as it is generated using reverse transcriptase.[C] Vector is the molecule that carries the recombinant DNA and this DNA is introduced into host for gene expression[D] Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme used to generate complementary DNA[cDNA] from an RNA template.

Q62. Antibiotic resistance gene for tetracycline and ampicillin are present in the plasmid:

• A. pSC 101
• B. pCR 101
• C. pBR 322✓
• D. pBR 233

Explanation: [A] pSC101 has antibiotic resistance for tetracycline only[C] pBR322 has antibiotic resistance gene for both Tetracycline and Ampicillin[B&D] neither pCR101 and pBR233 have antibiotic resistance for tetracycline nor for ampicillin

Q63. Cloning is a form of:

• A. Parthenogenesis
• B. Sexual Reproduction
• C. Apomixis
• D. Asexual Reproduction✓

Explanation: Explanation:Cloning is a form of Asexual reproduction as it does not involve two DNA from two parents and offsprings are genetically identical to the parents.Parthenogenesis is a form of Asexual reproduction in which an egg develops into an embryo without being fertilized by a sperm. Sexual reproduction is a form of reproduction in which genetic material from two parents is combined to produce offspring with unique genetic characteristics. This is different from cloning, which involves the replication of genetic material from a single parent.Apomixis is a form of Asexual reproduction in which seeds are produced without fertilization. This is different from cloning, which typically involves the replication of genetic material from a single cell or individual.

Q64. Group of interbreeding individuals of particular species, sharing common geographical area is called:

• A. Population✓
• B. Community ecology
• C. Community
• D. Autecology

Explanation: [A] Correct definition for population[B] Community ecology;community ecology, study of the organisation and functioning of communities, which are assemblages of interacting populations of the species living within a particular area or habitat. [C] Community;all population within ecosystem are now as community[D]Autecology;study of a particular species

Q65. Which of the following proteins is common in man and aerobic bacteria?

• A. Haemoglobin
• B. Myoglobin
• C. Cytochrome c✓
• D. Pilin

Explanation: [A] Haemoglobin is not found in aerobic bacteria only in man[B] Myoglobin is found in man only[C] found in both man and aerobic bacteria s it plays a key role in ATP synthesis in Mitochondrion[D] pillin found in pious structure of aerobic bacteria only not in man

Q66. Ozone filters ultraviolet radiations from the sun in the upper:

• A. Biosphere
• B. Atmosphere✓
• C. Lithosphere
• D. Hydrosphere

Explanation: [A] Biosphere is made up of the parts of earth where life exists[B] Atmosphere is the layer of gases around earth and ozone is present in it to filter uv rays from sun[C] Lithosphere is the solid outer part of earth[D] hydrosphere; total amount of water on a planet

Q67. A parasite living inside body of the host is called:

• A. Ectoparasite
• B. Obligate parasite
• C. Facultative parasite
• D. Endoparasite✓

Explanation: [A] Ectoparasite;parasite that lives outside of its host[B] obligate parasite is the parasite that cannot complete its life cycle without exploiting a host[C] Facultative Parasite’s life cycle does not completely depend on the host[D] Endoparasite e.g tapeworm that lives insides the host

Q68. The non-protein part of enzyme which is covalently and permanently bonded is called

• A. Prosthetic Group✓
• B. Co-Factor
• C. Coenzyme
• D. Activator

Explanation: Option A: If the non protein part is covalently[permanently] bonded with the protein part of enzyme ,it is known as prosthetic group.[e.g an iron containing porphyrin ring attached to some enzymes like cytochrome.]. So the right option is AThe other options are eliminated as follows:Option B: cofactor is the nonprotein part of enzyme which is required for proper functioning of enzyme. It has 3 types:ActivatorProsthetic groupcoenzymeOption C: coenzyme is the nonprotein part which is organic and loosely attached to the protein part. E.g NADP+/ATPOption D: activator The detachable [means it is loosely attached] co factor is known as an activator if it is an inorganic ion[e.g Mg+,Fe+,Zn+2 etc]

Q69. One of the pyrimidine bases is absent in DNA:

• A. Uracil✓
• B. Thymine
• C. Cytosine
• D. Adenine

Explanation: [A] Uracil is a pyramiding present in RNA but not in DNA[B] Thymine(pyrimidine) is present in DNA[C] Cytosine(pyrimidine) is also present in DNA[D] Adenine is a purine present in DNA

Q70. Which one of the following diseases caused by enveloped RNA virus and spread in epidemic form?

• A. Influenza✓
• B. Herpes Simplex
• C. Polio
• D. Smallpox

Explanation: [A] Influenza is RNA based virus and enveloped also[B] Herpes is not caused by Enveloped RNA virus[C] Polio is caused by non-enveloped RNA virus[D] Smallpox not cause by RNA virus but by various virus

Q71. The structure that contains the gene responsible for drug resistance in bacteria is:

• A. Nucleoids
• B. Mesosomes
• C. Chromatin Bodies
• D. Plasmids✓

Explanation: Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA found in many bacteria and are known for carrying genes that can provide resistance to antibiotics. This capability makes them crucial for the survival of bacteria in environments with antibiotics. Unlike the nucleoid, which contains the main genetic material of the bacterium, plasmids are smaller DNA structures that can replicate independently and often carry genes beneficial for bacterial adaptation.Nucleoids, mesosomes, and chromatin bodies do not typically carry genes for drug resistance. The nucleoid contains the essential genetic material of the bacterial cell, mesosomes are associated with cell membrane processes, and chromatin bodies are involved in phosphate metabolism, not in storing genetic information for drug resistance.

Q72. Antibiotics that kill microbes immediately are called:

• A. Microbistatic
• B. Microbicidal✓
• C. Biostatic
• D. Chemotherapeutic

Explanation: Microbicidal antibiotics are designed to kill bacteria directly. They achieve this by interfering with critical bacterial functions such as cell wall synthesis, protein production, or DNA replication, leading to the rapid death of bacterial cells. In contrast, microbistatic and biostatic agents only inhibit microbial growth, allowing the immune system to clear the infection over time. Chemotherapeutic agents cover a broader range of drugs and are not exclusively microbicidal.

Q73. Which one of the following fungi causes vaginal thrush?

• A. Candida✓
• B. Aspergillus
• C. Tortula
• D. Penicillium

Explanation: Option [A] Most thrush is caused by Candida albicans. This fungus exists naturally in the vagina,mouth, bowel and elsewhere.So right option is A.Option [B] Aspergillus causes fungal infection of usually the lungs.Option [C] Tortula is a fungus which adds a smoky,umami flavor to foods.Option [D] Penicillium sp.[blue,green molds] are wide spread saprotrophic species common on decaying fruit,bread etc

Q74. Body cavity of roundworms is called:

• A. Pseudocoelom✓
• B. Coelom
• C. Acoelom
• D. Enteron

Explanation: [A] Roundworms have pseudocoelom and is covered with tough cuticles between the endoderm and mesoderm.[B] Coelom: principal body cavity inside the coelom.[C]Acoelom: an animal which lack a coelom or formal body cavity[D]Enteron: the digestive tract or system

Q75. Fasciola is endoparasite of:

• A. Colon
• B. Small Intestine
• C. Liver
• D. Bile Duct✓

Explanation: Fasciola (Liver luke) : It is an endoparasite in sheep and occasionally in human beings. It has suckers used for attachment to host tissue. It completes its life cycle in two hosts, a snail, sheep or man. It lives in the bile duct of its hosts.

Q76. Trypanosoma is transmitted in human beings by:

• A. Plasmodium
• B. House Fly
• C. Anopheles
• D. Tsetse Fly✓

Explanation: Trypanosoma, the cause of sleeping sickness and skin diseases. The common house ly carries disease causing organisms to contaminate food and cause cholera, hepatitis etc. Some species of Trypanosoma cause diseases in cattle, also.

Q77. The nervous system develops from which of the following layer during embryonic development of animals?

• A. Mesoderm
• B. Ectoderm✓
• C. Endoderm
• D. Mesoderm and Endoderm

Explanation: Option [A]Mesoderm gives rise to muscular,skeletal and reproductive systemsOption [B] After embryonic development the body layers[ ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm] in most triploblastic animals are represented by the structures formed from them. The systems such as integumentary and nervous system develop from Option [C] Endoderm forms the lining of the digestive tract and forms other glands of the digestive system, such as the liver.Option [D] Mesoderm and Endoderm [same as above]

Q78. Endosperm is formed as a result of:

• A. Pollination
• B. Self-Pollination
• C. Double Fertilisation✓
• D. Cross Pollination

Explanation: [A] Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from male anther of a flower to the female stigma[B] Pollen is transferred from any flower of the same plant.[C] Double fertilisation involves two sperm cells; one fertilizes the egg cell to form the zygote, while the other fuses with the two polar nuclei that form the endosperm.[D] Cross Pollination, transfer of pollen comes from a flower on a different plant

Q79. Which of the following enzyme is released in an inactive form:

• A. Amylase
• B. Lipase
• C. Enterokinase
• D. Pepsin✓

Explanation: [A] Amylase is release in mouth in active form[B] Lipase is released in pancreatic juice to break down fats[C] Enterokinase is a protease of the intestinal brush border that specifically cleaves the acidic propeptide from trypsinogen to yield active trypsin[D] Pepsin is released in the stomach as Pepsinogen and activated by the low Ph of stomach.

Q80. Which of the following hormones stimulate the secretion of pancreatic juice from pancreas in the liver?

• A. Secretin✓
• B. Pepsinogen
• C. Gastrin
• D. Both Gastrin and Secretin

Explanation: [A] Secretin is a hormone released by duodenum which stimulates secretion by the liver and pancreas[B] Pepsinogen is released in stomach to break down protease[C] Gastrin is a peptide hormone that stimulates secretion of gastric acid[D] Only secretin stimulates secretion by the liver and pancreas

Q81. In large intestine, vitamin K is formed by the activity of:

• A. Symbiotic Bacteria✓
• B. Obligate Bacteria
• C. Parasitic Bacteria
• D. Facultative Bacteria

Explanation: [A] Symbiotic bacteria are bacteria that live in a symbiotic relationship with other organisms. It benefits both the organisms like Escherichia coli live in symbiotic association in human intestine and produce large quantities of vitamin K and in human intestine. [B] An obligate aerobe is an organism that requires oxygen to grow. Through cellular respiration, these organisms use oxygen to metabolise substances, like sugars or fats, to obtain energy. [C] parasite bacteria live on or in a host organism and get their food from or at the expense of its host. [D] Bacteria that can use dissolved oxygen (DO) or oxygen obtained from food materials such as sulphate or nitrate ions, or some can respire through glycolysis

Q82. During swallowing of food which structure closes the nasal opening?

• A. Hard Palate
• B. Soft Palate✓
• C. Epiglottis
• D. Larynx

Explanation: Option [A] hard palate plays a significant role as it separates the oral cavity from the nasal cavity and aiding swallowing and speaking.Option [B] The backward movement of the tongue pushes the soft palate up and closes the nasal opening at the back.So option [B] is right.Option [c] epiglottis ;The epiglottis is a flap of cartilage which is forced by the tonge[during swallowing] into more or less horizontal position thus closing the opening of the windpipe[the glottis].Option[D] larynx is the cartilage round the top of the windpipe which moves upward under the back of the tongue during swallowing

Q83. The right atrium of the heart usually receives the

• A. Deoxygenated Blood✓
• B. Oxygenated Blood
• C. Filtered Blood
• D. Non-Filtered Blood

Explanation: [A] Right atrium receives the deoxygenated blood from vena cava after which does into right ventricle and moves through pulmonary artery into lungs and gets oxygenated[B] Oxygenated blood is received in left atrium from pulmonary vein[C] Blood is not filtered in heart but in kidneys where ultrafiltration occurs to removes the toxins from blood[C] Heart is not concerned with the filtration of blood

Q84. The largest lymph duct called thoracic lymph duct drains into:

• A. Subclavian Vein✓
• B. Renal Vein
• C. Pulmonary Vein
• D. Hepatic Portal Vein

Explanation: a) Subclavian VeinThe subclavian veins are major veins located in the upper chest region, near the collarbone. While they play a role in draining blood from the upper limbs, head, and neck, they are not directly associated with the drainage of the largest lymph duct.

Q85. Which protein plays a major role in maintaining osmotic balance?

• A. Albumin✓
• B. Globulin
• C. Fibrinogen
• D. Prothrombin

Explanation: Option [A] The plasma proteins maintain colloidal osmotic pressure of blood. [75% by albumin , 25% by globulins and almost none by fibrinogen].By keeping in mind these percentages, we know that albumin is the major plasma protein of blood. Hence option A is right. Option [B] Globulins participate in the immune system (i.e. immunoglobulins) and also act as transport proteins. Option [C] Fibrinogen and Option [D] Prothrombin are involved in the clotting process.

Q86. The type of agranulocytes which stays in blood for a few hours and then enters tissues and become macrophages are:

• A. Lymphocytes
• B. Monocyte✓
• C. Eosinophils
• D. Basophils

Explanation: Option [A] Lymphocytes are the agranulocytes .They create antibodies to fight against bacteria, viruses, and other potentially harmful invaders.Lymphocytes have life spans of months or even years but this depends on the body’s need for these cells. Option [B] Agranulocytes include monocytes and lymphocytes [B and T].Monocytes stay in blood from 10 to 20 hours ,then enter tissues and become tissue macrophages performing phagocytotic function.Hence option B is right.Option [C]EosinophilS are granulocytes which inactivates inflammation producing substances and attacks parasites.Option [D]Basophils are granulocytes that releases heparin to prevent blood clots and histamine which causes inflammation.

Q87. Reabsorption of water by countercurrent multiplier mechanism takes place at:

• A. Proximal Tubule
• B. Distal Tubule
• C. Collecting Duct
• D. Loop of Henle✓

Explanation: The interstitial fluid of kidney is gradually concentrated from cortical to medullary part ,thus inner medulla is highly concentrated with the presence of urea and through a mechanism called counter current multiplier. This mechanism causes gradual osmotic outflow of water from filtrate back to kidney as it passes downward in the descending loop of henle. Hence option D is right.

Q88. Antiduretic hormone helps in reabsorption of water by changing permeability of:

• A. Proximal Tubule
• B. Distal Tubule
• C. Collecting Duct✓
• D. Loop of Henle

Explanation: Antidieuretic hormone causes vesicles, which act as aquaporins, to fuse into the membranes of the collecting duct, allowing more water to be reabsorbed.

Q89. During peritoneal dialysis, dialysis fluid is introduced into which part of the human body?

• A. Liver
• B. Abdomen✓
• C. Kidney
• D. Pancreas

Explanation: Peritoneal indicates that it involves the abdominal cavity, thus dialysis fluid is introduced into the abdomen during peritoneal cavity.

Q90. Aldosterone helps in conservation or active absorption of:

• A. Sodium✓
• B. Calcium
• C. Potassium
• D. Bicarbonate Ions

Explanation: [A] Aldosterone is a steroid hormone secreted by adrenal glands and its main role is to regulate salt and water levels in blood.[B] Aldosterone does not control the levels of calcium[C]Aldosterone does not control the levels of potassium[D]Aldosterone does not control the levels of Bicarbonate ions

Q91. Maximum reabsorption takes place in which part of the nephron?

• A. Distal Tubule
• B. Villi
• C. Cortical Tissue
• D. Proximal Tubule✓

Explanation: [A] Most of the reabsorption does not occur in DCT cells[B] Villi increases the surface area for absorption in Intestine not in nephron[C] Cortical tissue does not exists in nephron[D] most of the selective reabsorption occurs in the PCT cells, reabsorption of glucose occurs completely and 60 to 70% of selective reabsorption occurs in PCT cells but some also occurs n DCT cells e.g of water

Q92. In an electrochemical series, standard electrode potentials are arranged on the basis of:

• A. pH scale
• B. pOH scale
• C. Hydrogen Scale✓
• D. pKa scale

Explanation: A is incorrect as pH scale is a tool to measure pH(acidity) of a B is incorrect as pOH scale is a tool to measure pOH(alkalinity) of a solution.C is correct as in an electrochemical cell set-up, standard electrode potentials are set up on the basis of hydrogen potential.D is incorrect as pKa is -log of Ka of a solution

Q93. The reaction which is responsible for the production of electricity in the voltaic cell is:

• A. Hydrolysis reaction
• B. Oxidation reaction
• C. Redox reaction✓
• D. Reduction reaction

Explanation: The correct answer is C: Redox reaction. In a voltaic cell, the production of electricity is due to redox reactions, where oxidation and reduction occur simultaneously, allowing for the flow of electrons and thus electricity. Option A, Hydrolysis, is incorrect because it involves the reaction with water and not electron transfer. Option B, Oxidation, is only a part of the redox process and involves electron loss at the anode. Option D, Reduction, involves electron gain at the cathode, but alone does not result in electricity production in a voltaic cell.

Q94. Glucose is converted into ethanol by the enzyme present in the yeast:

• A. Urease
• B. Zymase✓
• C. Invertase
• D. Sucrase

Explanation: Enzyme which hydrolyse urea into NH3, and CO₂ is urease, glucose into ethanol is zymase, sucrose into glucose and fructose is invertase.

Q95. The rate of reaction involving ions can be studied by _ method.

• A. Dilatometric
• B. Refractometric
• C. Optical rotation
• D. Electrical conductivity✓

Explanation: A is incorrect as a dilatometer is a scientific instrument that measures volume changes caused by a physical or chemical process.B is incorrect as refractometry is an optical analytical technique used to establish the refractive index of transparent and translucent substances. The method provides information about the substance's chemical composition, purity, and physical properties and is commonly used as a quality control method.C is incorrect as optical rotation, also known as polarization rotation or circular birefringence, is the rotation of the orientation of the plane of polarization about the optical axis of linearly polarized light as it travels through certain materials.D is correct as electrical conductivity tells us how well a material will allow electricity to travel through it.

Q96. When one mole of gaseous hydrogen ions are dissolved in water to form an infinitely dilute solution, the amount of heat liberated is:

• A. -1891 kJmol-1
• B. -1075 kJmol-1✓
• C. -499 kJmol-1
• D. -1562 kJmol-1

Explanation: A is incorrect as value is not factually correct.B is correct as H+ + H2O(l) → H3O+(aq) -1075 (fact)C is incorrect as value is not factually correct.D is incorrect as value is not factually correct

Q97. Energy required to remove an electron from the outermost shell of its isolated gaseous atom in the ground state is:

• A. Electron affinity
• B. Lattice energy
• C. Ionization energy✓
• D. Crystal energy

Explanation: A is incorrect as electron affinity is the amount of energy released when an electron attaches to a neutral atom or molecule in the gaseous state to form an anion.B is incorrect as lattice energy is a measure of the energy contained in the crystal lattice of a compound, equal to the energy that would be released if the component ions were brought together from infinity.C is correct as minimum energy required to remove the most loosely bound electron of an isolated gaseous atom, positive ion, or molecule.D is incorrect as crystal energy is the energy required to hold a crystal together

Q98. Which of the following carbonates of alkali metals is not stable towards heat and is decomposed on heating to its oxide along with liberation of CO2?

• A. Li2CO3✓
• B. Mg2CO3
• C. K2CO3
• D. Na2CO3

Explanation: A is correct as Lithium carbonate is not stable to heat. Hence, it decomposes at a lower temperature.B is incorrect as Mg2CO3 is stable upon heating.C is incorrect as K2CO3 is stable upon heating.D is incorrect as Na2CO3 is stable upon heating

Q99. The presence of calcium is essential for the normal development of plants. An adequate supply of calcium appears to stimulate the development of which part of the plants?

• A. Leaves
• B. Fruits
• C. Root hairs✓
• D. Branches

Explanation: A is incorrect as the growth of the leaves is dependent on nitrogen.B is incorrect as the development of fruit depends on phosphorous.C is correct as root hair development is stimulated by calcium. The entire root system is dependent on calcium.D is incorrect as stem growth is also dependent on nitrogen

Q100. Which of the following sulphates is not soluble in water?

• A. Sodium Sulphate
• B. Barium Sulphate✓
• C. Potassium Sulphate
• D. Zinc Sulphate

Explanation: A is incorrect as sodium sulphate isnt soluble in water.B is correct as barium sulphate isnt soluble in water because it has a high lattice energy.C is incorrect because potassium sulphate is soluble in water.D is incorrect as zinc sulphate is soluble in water.

Q101. The trend in the densities of elements of Group III-A of the Periodic Table is

• A. A gradual increase✓
• B. A gradual decrease
• C. First decrease then increase
• D. First increase then decrease

Explanation: A is correct because as we move further along a group, mass of the atoms increases due to increased no. of protons and neutrons, hence the nucleus experiences stronger attractive forces and atomic radius becomes smaller.B is incorrect as density doesnt decrease, it increases.C is incorrect as it only increases.D is incorrect as it only decreases

Q102. White lead has one of the following properties:

• A. Acidic
• B. Crystalline
• C. Amorphous✓
• D. Neutral

Explanation: A is incorrect as Lead is basic and not acidic.B is incorrect as it is not crystalline.C is correct as it is amorphous.Definition:Noncrystalline solid in which the atoms and molecules are not organized in a definite lattice patternD is incorrect as Lead is not neutral, it is basic.

Q103. The strongest acid among the following is:

• A. HF
• B. HI✓
• C. HCl
• D. HBr

Explanation: A is incorrect as HF is not a strong acid.B is correct as Iodine and hydrogen have the lowest bond energy,hence less energy would be required for it to lose a proton.C is incorrect as HCl isn't as strong as HI.D is incorrect as HBr isn't as strong as HI.

Q104. The noble gas which is used in radiotherapy of cancer is

• A. Radon✓
• B. Xenon
• C. Krypton
• D. Argon

Explanation: A is correct as radan has radioactive tendencies and is used as radiation therapy for cancer patients.The alpha particles emitted by the radon have the capacity to kill the cells (localized) of cancer, hence it is used in the treatment of various types of cancer (liver cancer, intestine cancer)B is incorrect as xenon is used in bactericidal lamps.C is incorrect as krypton is used for other purposes (filling fluorescent lights etc)D is incorrect as Argon is used in Geiger counter and light bulbs

Q105. Paramagnetic behavior of an atom, ion or molecule is due to presence

• A. Unpaired electrons✓
• B. Paired electrons
• C. Protons
• D. Neutrons

Explanation: A is correct as the presence of unpaired electrons results in a weak attraction to magnets.An unpaired electron has a magnetic dipole moment, while an electron pair has no dipole moment because the two electrons have opposite spins so their magnetic dipole fields are in opposite directions and cancel. Thus an atom with unpaired electrons acts as a magnetic dipole and interacts with a magnetic field.B is incorrect as the presence of paired electrons results in diamagnetism.C is incorrect as magnetism isnt affected by protons.D is incorrect as magnetism isnt affected by neutrons

Q106. The geometry of the complexes depends upon the type of _ taking place in the valence shell of the central metal atom.

• A. Hybridization✓
• B. Protonation
• C. Deprotonation
• D. Dissociation

Explanation: A is correct as geometry of complexes in dependent upon hybridizationHybridization is the idea that atomic orbitals fuse to form newly hybridized orbitals, which in turn, influences molecular geometry and bonding propertiesB is incorrect as geometry isn't dependent on protonation.C is incorrect as geometry isn't dependent on deprotonation.D is incorrect as geometry isn't dependent on disassociation

Q107. KMnO4 acts as a/an:

• A. Reducing agent
• B. Excellent precipitating reagent
• C. Germicide
• D. Oxidizing agent✓

Explanation: A is incorrect as KMnO4 isnt a reducing agent.B is incorrect as KMnO4 isnt a precipitating agent.C is incorrect as KMnO4 isnt used in germicide.D is correct as KMnO4 is a strong oxidising agent,it gets reduced in the process. (fact)

Q108. A gasoline of higher octane number can be obtained by:

• A. Oxidative cleavage
• B. Thermal cracking
• C. Catalytic cracking✓
• D. Steam cracking

Explanation: A is incorrect as oxidative cleavage does not produce gasoline with a high octane number.A reaction in which a carbon-carbon bond is cleaved, with simultaneous oxidation of the carbons that had formed the carbon-carbon bond.B is incorrect as thermal cracking produces unsaturated hydrocarbons.C is correct as catalytic cracking is done to produce gasoline,diesel etc.D is incorrect as steam cracking produces lower unsaturated hydrocarbons

Q109. Ethyne molecule is formed when two carbon atoms joined together to form a sigma bond by:

• A. sp-s overlap
• B. sp3-sp3 overlap
• C. 2py-2py overlap
• D. sp-sp overlap✓

Explanation: A is incorrect as sp-s overlap isnt present in ethyne molecule.B is incorrect as sp3-sp3 overlap isnt present in ethyne molecule.C is incorrect as 2py-2py forms a pi bond which isnt present in ethyne molecule.D is correct as ethyne has sp-sp bonds (fact)

Q110. Symmetrical alkanes can be produced by:

• A. Sabatier Sender’s Reaction
• B. Hydrogenolysis Reaction
• C. Reduction Reaction
• D. Kolbe’s Electrolytic Reaction✓

Explanation: A is incorrect as Sabatier-Sender's reaction is the reaction in which preparation of ethane is done by the catalytic hydrogenation of ethene, it does not produce symmetrical alkanes.B is incorrect as Hydrogenolysis is a chemical reaction whereby a carbon–carbon or carbon–heteroatom single bond is cleaved or undergoes lysis (breakdown) by hydrogen, it does not produce symmetrical alkanes.C is incorrect as the reduction reaction is when a species gain electrons.D is correct as Kolbe's electrolysis method is a general method of preparation of substituted hydrocarbons from the substituted carboxylic acids by the use of the electric discharge method where carbon dioxide gas is released, it produces symmetrical alkanes

Q111. The catalyst used for the preparation of acrylonitrile is:

• A. Cu2Cl2 and NH4Cl✓
• B. Al2O3 and NH4Cl
• C. Cu2Cl2 and NH4OH
• D. Cu2Cl2 and Al2O3

Explanation: A is correct since Cu2Cl2 and NH4Cl is used as catalyst for preparation of acrylonitrileB is incorrect because Al2O3 and NH4Cl is not act as catalystC is incorrect because Cu2Cl2 and NH4OH is not act as catalystD is incorrect because Cu2Cl2 and Al2O3 is not act as catalyst

Q112. When a hydrogen atom is removed from benzene, the group left behind is called:

• A. Alkyl group
• B. Phenyl group✓
• C. Benzyl group
• D. Methyl group

Explanation: A is incorrect as alkyl group is formed when one hydrogen is removed from an alkane chain;not a benzene ring.B is correct as when one hydrogen is removed from a benzene ring, the formula becomes C6H5 (phenyl)C is incorrect as benzyl group has formula C6H5 CH2D is incorrect as when one hydrogen is removed from methane (CH3), methyl is formed.

Q113. The introduction of NO2 group in benzene ring is called ‘Nitration’. The nitration of benzene takes place when it is heated with a 1:1 mixture of _ at 50 oC-55 oC.

• A. Conc. HNO3 and conc. HCl
• B. Conc. HNO3 and conc. Acetic acid
• C. Conc. HNO3 and H3PO4
• D. Conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4✓

Explanation: A is incorrect as these reactants are not used in nitration.B is incorrect as these reactants are not used in nitration.C is incorrect as these reactants are not used in nitration.D is correct as HNO3(aq) and H2SO4(aq) are used in 1:1 ratio for nitration of benzene.(fact)

Q114. During SN2 reactions, configuration of the alkyl halide molecule:

• A. Gets inverted✓
• B. Remains same
• C. Depends upon the carbon atom
• D. Depends upon the electronegativity of halide

Explanation: A is correct as during SN2 reaction, alkyl halide molecule gets inverted.B is incorrect as during SN2 reaction, alkyl halide doesnt stay the same.C is incorrect as during SN2 reaction, configuration of alkyl halide isnt dependent upon carbon atom.D is incorrect as during SN2 reaction, configuration of alkyl halide isnt dependent upon electronegativity.

Q115. Grignard reagents are prepared by the reaction of magnesium metal with alkyl halides in the presence of:

• A. Dry Ether✓
• B. Alcohol
• C. CS2
• D. CCl4

Explanation: Explanation:Grignard reagents are prepared by the reaction of magnesium metal with alkyl halides in the presence of dry ether. Alcohols are not typically used in the preparation of grignard reagents because they can react with the grignard reagent and produce unwanted byproducts.Carbon disulfide (CS2) is sometimes used as a solvent for the preparation of grignard reagents, but it is not as common as dry ether. Carbon tetrachloride is not used in the preparation of grignard reagents because it does not solvate the magnesium metal and alkyl halide well enough.

Q116. Methanol is prepared from carbon monoxide and hydrogen. The catalyst used for this reaction is:

• A. ZnO + CoO2
• B. ZnO + CuO
• C. ZnO + Ag2O
• D. Cr2O3 + ZnO✓

Explanation: A is incorrect as CoO2 is not used as a catalyst in the preparation of methanol.B is incorrect as CuO2 is not used as a catalyst in the preparation of methanol.C is incorrect as Ag2O is not used as a catalyst in the preparation of methanol.D is correct as Cr2O3 is used as a catalyst in the preparation of methanol. CO + H2 → CH3 + OH (reaction)

Q117. Ethanol reacts with Ammonia to produce ethyl amine, the catalyst is

• A. ZnCl2
• B. ThO2✓
• C. C6H5N
• D. Cr2O3

Explanation: A is incorrect as ZnCl2 is used as a catalyst in Lucas Test.Lucas test: a test that is Designed to Differentiate and Categorize Primary, Secondary and Tertiary Alcohols Using A Solution of Anhydrous Zinc Chloride .B is correct as ThO2 is used as a catalyst when C2H5OH reacts with ammonia.C is incorrect as C6H5N is not used a catalyst in reactions with alcohol.D is incorrect as Cr2O3 is not used as a catalyst in reactions with alcohol.

Q118. Dissociation constant of phenol is:

• A. 1.2 x 10-10
• B. 1.2 x 1010
• C. 1.3 x 1010
• D. 1.3 x 10-10✓

Explanation: A is incorrect.B is incorrect.C is incorrect.D is correct as disassociation constant of phenol is 1.3 x10-10 (fact)

Q119. Dry distillation of a mixture of calcium salts of formic acid and acetic acid results into the formation of:

• A. Formaldehyde
• B. Acetaldehyde✓
• C. Calcium acetate
• D. Sodium acetate

Explanation: A is incorrect as formaldehyde is a product of calcium salt of formic acid.B is correct as Dry distillation of a mixture of the above calcium salts of acetic and formic acid respectively leads to the formation of an aldehyde. Dry distillation is the process in which the solid materials are heated to produce gaseous products.C is incorrect as calcium acetate is not a product of calcium salts of formic acid and acetic acid.D is incorrect as sodium acetate is not a product of calcium salts of formic acid and acetic acid.

Q120. Hydrolysis of cyano group by an aqueous acid results into:

• A. Carboxylic Acid✓
• B. Acid Amide
• C. Cyanohydride
• D. Formaldehyde

Explanation: A is correct as hydrolysis of a cyano group results in the formation of a carboxylic acid (fact)B is incorrect as acid amide is not a product of hydrolysis of a cyan groupC is incorrect as cyanohydride is a product of addition of hydrogen cyanide to carbonyl compounds.D is incorrect as oxidation of alcohol results in formaldehyde.

Q121. Brick red precipitates are formed when aldehydes react with:

• A. Sodium borohydride
• B. Sodium bisulphite
• C. Sodium nitroprusside
• D. Fehling’s solution✓

Explanation: A is incorrect as sodium borohydrides converts carbonyl compounds to B is incorrect as sodium bisulphate reacts with carbonyl compounds to give white precipitate,rather than red precipitate.C is incorrect as sodium nitropresside test is done to test the presence of ketones.D is correct as Fehling Solutions produce brick red precipitate when reacted with carbonyl compounds.The red colour is an indication of cuprous oxide.

Q122. The nature of the amino acid ‘lysine’ is:

• A. Neutral
• B. Acidic
• C. Amphoteric
• D. Basic✓

Explanation: A is incorrect as lysine is not neutral.B is incorrect as lysine is not acidic.C is incorrect as lysine is not amphoteric.D is correct as st a pH inferior to their pK, the lysine, arginine and histidine side chains accept an H+ ion (proton) and are positive charged. They are therefore basic.

Q123. Which of the following compounds, in the form of aqueous solution, on reaction with sodium carbonate will produce carbon dioxide gas?

• A. H3C-COO-C2H5
• B. H3C2-COO-CH3
• C. H3C2-CO-OH✓
• D. H3C2-COO-C2H5

Explanation: A is incorrect as the compound given is an ester which does not produce carbon dioxide upon reaction with sodium carbonate.B is incorrect as it is also an ester,hence it also doesnt produce carbon dioxide upon reaction with sodium carbonate.C is correct as the compound given is a carboxylic acid,it produces carbon dioxide upon reaction with sodium carbonate.D is incorrect as the given compound is unreactive with sodium carbonate.

Q124. Collagen and albumin are:

• A. Simple proteins✓
• B. Derived proteins
• C. Polyamides
• D. Polysaccharides

Explanation: A is correct as collagen and albumin are simple proteins,upon hydrolysis they produce amino acids only.B is incorrect as derived proteins are derived from simple proteins.C is incorrect as polyamide consists of repeating polymer units linked together through amide bonds.Collagen and Albumin have hydrogen bonds.D is incorrect as polysaccharide is a carbohydrate,whilst albumin and collagen are proteins.

Q125. Urea is produced by the reaction of liquid ammonia with:

• A. CO2✓
• B. CO
• C. CaO
• D. C

Explanation: A is correct as urea is produced by the reaction of CO2 B is incorrect (fact)C is incorrect (fact)D is incorrect (fact)

Q126. The calcium sulpho-aluminate is:

• A. Co.Al2O3.3CaSO4.6H2O
• B. 3Ca.Al2O3.CaSO4.2H2O
• C. 3Ca.Al2O3.3CaSO4.2H2O✓
• D. 3Ca.Al2O3.3CaSO4.6H2O

Explanation: A is incorrect as the given formula isn't calcium sulpho-aluminate.B is incorrect as the given formula isn't calcium sulpho-aluminate.C is correct as the given formula is of calcium sulpho-aluminate.D is incorrect as the given formula isn't calcium sulpho-aluminate

Q127. The coagulant used in raw water to precipitate suspended impurities is:

• A. Caustic soda
• B. Lime water
• C. Alum✓
• D. Soda ash

Explanation: A is incorrect as caustic soda is not used as a coagulant.B is incorrect as lime water is not used as a coagulant,but is used to detect the presence of CO2 gas.C is correct as alum is used as a coagulant in raw water to remove suspended impurities.D is incorrect as soda ash is not used as a coagulant

Q128. The whiteness of the recycled newspaper is improved by treating it with:

• A. Sodium hydroxide
• B. Per oxides✓
• C. Super oxides
• D. Normal oxides

Explanation: A is incorrect as sodium hydroxide is not used for whitening of newspapers.B is correct as per oxides are used to whiten old newspapers.The hydrogen peroxide bleaching process results in not only increased brightness, but also in the improvement of paper physical properties. It is now well established that carboxylic acid groups are beneficial for the bonding of pulp fibers in paper and can increase the strength of paperC is incorrect as super oxides are not used to whiten newspapers.D is incorrect as normal oxides are not used to whiten newspapers.

Q129. One mole of any gas at standard temperature and pressure (STP) occupies a volume of:

• A. 20.414 dm3
• B. 22.414 dm3✓
• C. 22.414 cm3
• D. 23.414 dm3

Explanation: A is incorrect as the given volume is not correct under standard conditions.B is correct as the given volume (22.4 dm3) is correct under standard conditions. (fact)C is incorrect as the given volume is not correct under standard conditions.D is incorrect as the given volume is not correct under standard conditions.

Q130. The relative abundance of the isotopes of the elements can be determined by:

• A. Mass Spectrometry✓
• B. X-rays
• C. Chromatography
• D. Solvent Extraction

Explanation: A is correct as mass spectrometry is a method to differentiate between different isotopes of an element.B is incorrect as X-ray cant be used to differentiate between different isotopes of an element.C is incorrect as chromatography is used to differentiate between different solvents.D is incorrect as solvent extraction is a method to extract a soluble solute from a solution.

Q131. If we are given the mass of one substance, we can calculate volume of other substances and vice a versa with the help of balanced chemical equation. This is called:

• A. Mass-mass relationship
• B. Mass-mole relationship
• C. Mole-volume relationship
• D. Mass-volume relationship✓

Explanation: A is incorrect as mass-mass relationship involves converting the mass of a reactant to moles of reactant, then using mole ratios to determine moles of product which can then be converted to mass of productB is incorrect as mass-mole relationship refers to finding moles of a substance using its mass.C is incorrect as a mole-volume relationship refers to finding volume of a substance using its moles.D is correct as mass-volume relationship refers to finding volume of a substance using its mass.mass of given → moles of given → moles of unknown → volume of unknown

Q132. Sublimation is used to purify:

• A. Ammonium sulphate
• B. Sodium chloride
• C. Benzoic acid✓
• D. Lead carbonate

Explanation: A is incorrect as ammonium sulphate is purified through centrifuging.B is incorrect as sodium chloride is purified by crystallization.C is correct as benzoic acid is purified through sublimation.D is incorrect as lead carbonate is purified through sulfation, desulfurization leaching, distillation and carbonization.

Q133. The purity of a substance can be identified by:

• A. Sublimation
• B. Filtration
• C. Chromatography✓
• D. Solvent extraction

Explanation: A is incorrect as sublimation purifies solids rather than identify themB is incorrect as filtration separates insoluble solutes from solvents.C is correct as chromatography is a tool to separate different solvents in a solute and their purification.D is incorrect as solvent extraction only extracts solutes,but doesnt identify them.

Q134. Which one of the following mathematical expressions represents the Avogadro’s law?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D✓

Explanation: D is correct as Avogadros law states - Equal volume of all ideal gases at equal temperature contain equal number of moles

Q135. The root mean square velocity of gases is inversely proportional to the square root of their:

• A. Molar mass✓
• B. Temperature
• C. Pressure
• D. Volume

Explanation: A is correct as r.m.s velocity of gases is inversely proportional to the square root of their molar masses.B is incorrect as r.m.s velocity is directly proportional to square of temperatureC is incorrect as r.m.s velocity isnt dependent upon pressureD is incorrect as r.m.s velocity isnt dependent upon volume

Q136. Plasma is the ionized gas mixture which consists of:

• A. Ions and electrons
• B. Electrons and neutral atoms
• C. Electrons, ions and neutral atoms✓
• D. Ions and neutral atoms

Explanation: A is incorrect as plasma is composed of ions,electrons and neutrals atoms.B is incorrect as plasma is composed of ions,electrons and neutrals atomsC is correct as plasma is composed of ions,electrons and neutrals atomsD is incorrect as plasma is composed of ions,electrons and neutrals atoms

Q137. Which type of force is present in gasoline?

• A. Dipole-dipole forces
• B. Dipole-induced dipole forces
• C. London dispersion forces✓
• D. Hydrogen bonding

Explanation: A is incorrect because dipole-dipole forces only occur in polar molecules.B is incorrect as dipole-induced dipole forces are present between polar and non-polar molecules.C is correct as london dispersion forces occur between non polar molecules and gasoline is non polar.D is incorrect as hydrogen bonding only occurs between atoms with high electro-negativity.

Q138. In the structure of NaCl, each Na+ is surrounded by _ Cl- ions.

• A. Four
• B. Eight
• C. Five
• D. Six✓

Explanation: A is incorrect as 6 electrons are present around each Na+ in a NaCl structure.B is incorrect as 6 electrons are present around each Na+ in a NaCl structureC is incorrect as 6 electrons are present around each Na+ in a NaCl structureD is correct as 6 electrons are present around each Na+ in a NaCl structure.NaCl has a cubic crystal system and a face-centered cubic crystalline structure. NaCl has four cations and four anions in a face-centered cubic unit cell.

Q139. The charge of one gram of electron is:

• A. 1.7588 x 10-11
• B. 1.7588 x 1011
• C. 1.602 x 10-19
• D. 1.7588 x 108✓

Explanation: A is incorrect as given value is not charge of one gram of electrons.B is incorrect as given value is charge of one kilogram of electrons.C is incorrect as given value is not charge of one gram of electrons.D is correct as given value is charge of one gram of electrons.It can be obtained by dividing the charge of one kilogram of electrons by 1000

Q140. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is :

• A. Zero
• B. 13.13 kJmol-1
• C. 1313.31 kJmol-1✓
• D. 1313.31 k2Jmol

Explanation: A is incorrect since the ionization of energy of hydrogen is not zero.B is incorrect as the given value is not the ionization energy of hydrogen.C is correct as 1313.3 kJ mol-1 is minimum energy required to remove one electron from the outershell of a hydrogen atom.D is incorrect as given value is not ionization energy of hydrogen

Q141. Which quantum number helps to study the orientation of an orbital in space?

• A. Principal Quantum Number
• B. Spin Quantum Number
• C. Magnetic Quantum Number✓
• D. Azimuthal Quantum Number

Explanation: A is incorrect as The principal quantum number, n, describes the energy of an electron and the most probable distance of the electron from the nucleusB is incorrect as The Spin Quantum Number (ms) describes the angular momentum of an electronC is correct as Magnetic Quantum Number specifies the orientation in space of an orbital of a given energy (n) and shape (l). This number divides the subshell into individual orbitals which hold the electrons; there are 2l+1 orbitals in each subshell.D is incorrect as The azimuthal (or orbital angular momentum) quantum number describes the shape of a given orbital

Q142. The inter-ionic distance in a crystal lattice of KCl is:

• A. 314 pm✓
• B. 181 pm
• C. 95 pm
• D. 300 pm

Explanation: A is correct since the interionic distance of crystal lattice of KCl is 314pmB is incorrect because the interionic distance of crystal lattice of KCl is not 181pmC is incorrect because the interionic distance of crystal lattice of KCl is not 95pmD is incorrect because the interionic distance of crystal lattice of KCl is not 300pm

Q143. The number of bonds in nitrogen molecule is:

• A. One σ and three π
• B. Three σ bonds only
• C. One σ and two π✓
• D. Two σ and one π

Explanation: In a nitrogen molecule (N2), there are one sigma (σ) bond and two pi (π) bonds.The sigma bond is formed by the head-on overlap of the two nitrogen 2p orbitals, resulting in the sharing of two electrons.The two pi bonds are formed by the side-to-side overlap of the remaining 2p orbitals, one from each nitrogen atom. Each pi bond involves the sharing of two electrons, one in a π bonding molecular orbital and one in a π antibonding molecular orbital, for a total of four electrons shared between the two pi bonds.

Q144. Which one of the following molecules has zero dipole moment?

• A. NH3
• B. CHCl3
• C. BF3✓
• D. H2O

Explanation: A is incorrect because NH3 molecule has dipole moment 1.49B is incorrect because CHCl3 molecule has dipole moment 1.01C is correct since BF3 molecule has dipole moment 0 because of its geometryD is incorrect because H2O molecule has dipole moment 1.85

Q145. A spontaneous process is:

• A. Unidirectional and irreversible
• B. Irreversible and a real process
• C. Unidirectional and a real process
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: A is incorrect because spontaneous process is also real processB is incorrect because spontaneous process is also unidirectionalC is incorrect because spontaneous process is also irreversible processD is correct because spontaneous process is a process which takes place on its own without any outside assistance. It is unidirectional, irreversible and a real process.

Q146. The standard enthalpy of solution of NH4Cl is _ kJmol-1.

• A. +16.2✓
• B. -25.0
• C. +4.98
• D. +26.0

Explanation: A is correct since enthalpy of solution is +16.2kJmol-1B, C and D are incorrect because the given values of enthalpy are not correct.

Q147. The Kc has following units for the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) ⇋ 2HI (g)

• A. mol3dm-6
• B. moldm-3
• C. mol-3dm6
• D. No unit✓

Explanation: A, B and C are incorrect since the given units aren't correct according to the equationD is correct since In equation both sides moles are equal so Kc has no unit.

Q148. 0.1 mole of acetic acid has been dissolved per dm3 of the solution, the percentage ionization of acetic acid will be

• A. 13
• B. 15
• C. 1.3✓
• D. 0.1

Explanation: A, B and D are incorrect because these are not correct percentage ionization valuesC is correct since The solution is given as CH3COOH dissociates to a small extent:CH3COOH ↔ CH3COO- + H+Calculate [H+] from the Ka equation.Ka = [H+] [[CH3COO-] / [CH3COOH]Because [H+] =[CH3COO-] and dissociation is very small, we can write the equation asKa = [H+]² / 0.1Ka = 1.8*10-51.8*10-5 = [H+]² / 0.1[H+]² = (1.8*10-5)* 0.1[H+]² = 1.8*10-6[H+] = 0.0013M% dissociation = 0.0013/0.1*100 = 1.34%

Q149. Solubility of Ce2(SO4)3.

• A. Increases with temperature
• B. Decreases with temperature✓
• C. Shows exceptional behavior
• D. Remains constant

Explanation: The solubility of most salts increases with temperature due to increased kinetic energy and greater interaction between solute and solvent molecules. However, Ce2(SO4)3 is an exception to this rule; its solubility decreases as temperature rises. This is due to complex interactions between the ions and water molecules that dominate at higher temperatures, leading to reduced solubility. Option B is correct because it accurately describes this unique behavior. Option A is incorrect because it follows the general trend, not the exception. Option C is incorrect because although the solubility behavior is exceptional, the option does not specify the temperature dependence. Option D is incorrect because the solubility of Ce2(SO4)3 does not remain constant with temperature changes.

Q150. Seawater has 5.65 x 10-3 g of dissolved oxygen in one kilogram of water. Concentration of O2 in parts per million is

• A. 5.65✓
• B. 7.69
• C. 5.20
• D. 4.11

Explanation: A is correct since the solution is given asGiven: Water = 103 g(1 kg), Oxygen = 5.65 x 10-3 gRequired : Oxygen in ppm = ?Formula : Ppm = value in gram / amount of water ( solvent ) x 106Ppm = 5.65 x 10-3 / 103 x 106 = 5.65ppmB, C and D are incorrect because these are not correct values in ppm

Q151. Metallic conduction involves the relatively free movement of their _ throughout the metallic lattice.

• A. Atoms
• B. Molecules
• C. Electrons✓
• D. Ions

Explanation: A is incorrect In metals atoms are not in combined form they are in electron pool type arrangementB is incorrect In metals molecules do not existC is correct since In metals electrons are in pool type arrangement and the can move within metal so the play their role in conductionD is incorrect because In metals ions are not present

Q152. Which one is the highest power multiple?

• A. Giga
• B. Tera✓
• C. Mega
• D. Deca

Explanation: The correct answer is Tera, as it represents 1012, the largest power of ten among the options. Giga represents 109, Mega represents 106, and Deca represents 101. Therefore, Tera is the highest power multiple here.

Q153. SI unit of charge is _.

• A. Ampere
• B. Volt
• C. Coulomb✓
• D. Calorie

Explanation: The correct answer is Coulomb, which is the SI unit used to measure electric charge. The other options are units for different physical quantities: Ampere for electric current, Volt for electrical potential difference, and Calorie for energy.

Q154. The electrical analog of mass in electricity is _.

• A. Capacitance
• B. Inductance✓
• C. Charge
• D. Resistance

Explanation: The correct answer is Inductance. In the context of electrical systems, inductance is analogous to mass because both properties determine how a system reacts to change. In mechanical systems, mass resists changes in velocity, while in electrical systems, inductance resists changes in current. The other options, while related to electrical properties, are not directly comparable to the concept of mass. Capacitance relates to the ability to store charge, charge is a fundamental property causing electrical interactions, and resistance is akin to friction, not mass.

Q155. Which one of the following relations is correct?

• A. 1 Wb m-2 = N m-1 A-1
• B. 1 Tesla = 104 Gauss
• C. 1 Wb m-2 = 1 Tesla
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: Option D is the correct choice because all the given relations are accurate. Option A correctly equates 1 Weber per square meter to N m-1 A-1, which is another expression for Tesla. Option B is correct as 1 Tesla equals 10,000 Gauss, bridging the SI and CGS units. Option C is correct because 1 Weber per square meter is by definition 1 Tesla. These consistent relationships validate that 'All of these' is the correct answer.

Q156. Life time of electron in metastable state is about _.

• A. 10-5 sec
• B. 10-3 sec✓
• C. 10-8 sec
• D. 10-2 sec

Explanation: Metastable states are characterized by their relatively longer lifetimes compared to typical excited states due to the stability they offer. The lifetime of an electron in a metastable state is approximately 10-8 seconds, making Option C the correct choice. Option A overestimates the lifetime, while Options B and D significantly overestimate it, as metastable states decay much faster than these options suggest.

Q157. The torque acting on a current carrying coil is given by _.

• A. τ = NIAB cos α✓
• B. τ = BIL sin α
• C. τ = NIAB sin α
• D. τ = BIL cos α

Explanation: The correct formula for the torque acting on a current-carrying coil is τ = NIAB cos α. This equation accounts for the number of loops (N), the current (I), the area vector (A), the magnetic field (B), and the cosine of the angle (α) between the magnetic field and the area vector. Option A correctly incorporates all these elements. Option B is incorrect because it misses the number of loops and uses 'sin α', which is relevant for a straight wire in a magnetic field. Option C is wrong because it uses 'sin α' instead of 'cos α', which does not correctly describe the orientation of the coil in the magnetic field. Option D also omits the number of loops, which is essential for calculating torque in a coil.

Q158. The grid in the cathode ray oscilloscope _.

• A. Controls the number of waves
• B. Controls the brightness of the spot formed✓
• C. Accelerates electrons
• D. Has positive potential with respect to the cathode

Explanation: The correct answer is B: The grid in a cathode ray oscilloscope controls the brightness of the spot formed on the screen. This is because the grid modulates the intensity of the electron beam, thereby affecting the brightness. Option A is incorrect because the grid does not control the number of waves. Option C is incorrect because electron acceleration is the role of the anodes. Option D is incorrect because the grid is at a negative potential compared to the cathode, which helps in controlling the flow of electrons.

Q159. The horizontal range of a projectile, at a certain place, is completely determined by:

• A. The angle of projection✓
• B. The initial velocity of projection
• C. The mass of the projectile
• D. Speed and mass of the projectile

Explanation: The horizontal range of a projectile is primarily determined by the angle of projection for a given initial velocity. The formula for the range incorporates both the angle of projection and the initial velocity, and it is maximized when the angle is 45 degrees. Option A is correct as it highlights the angle of projection as a key factor. Option B is incorrect because, although initial velocity influences the range, it alone is not sufficient to completely determine it without the angle. Option C is incorrect because the mass of a projectile does not affect the range in a vacuum or when air resistance is negligible. Finally, Option D is incorrect because while speed is a factor, mass is not relevant to determining the range.

Q160. If velocity is double, then:

• A. Momentum increases 4 times and K.E increases 2 times
• B. Momentum and K.E remain the same
• C. Momentum increases 2 times and K.E increases constantly
• D. Momentum increases 2 times and K.E increases 4 times✓

Explanation: Option D is correct. When velocity is doubled, the momentum, which is calculated using p = m.v, increases by a factor of 2. The kinetic energy, calculated using K.E = 1/2 m.v2, increases by a factor of 4 because the velocity is squared in the formula. Option A is incorrect because it reverses the effects on momentum and kinetic energy. Option B is incorrect because both physical quantities do change with velocity. Option C misunderstands the relationship between velocity and kinetic energy, which increases fourfold rather than remaining constant.

Q161. The consumption of energy by 60-watt bulb in 2 seconds is:

• A. 20 J
• B. 120 J✓
• C. 30 J
• D. 0.02 J

Explanation: The energy consumed by a 60-watt bulb in 2 seconds can be calculated using the power formula: P = E/t. Here, P is the power in watts (60 W), E is the energy in joules, and t is the time in seconds (2 s). Rearranging the formula gives E = P × t, which results in E = 60 × 2 = 120 J. Option B is correct. The other options provide incorrect values due to miscalculation or misunderstanding of the formula.

Q162. In transistors, the base region is very thin of the order of:

• A. 10-5 cm
• B. 10-6 m✓
• C. 10-6 mm
• D. 10-6 µm

Explanation: The base region in a transistor is the central area that is lightly doped compared to the emitter and collector regions. It is designed to be very thin, typically around 10-6 meters or 1 micrometer, to allow efficient electron flow from the emitter to the collector. Option A (10-5 cm) is incorrect because it is too thick. Option C (10-6 mm) is incorrect because it does not match the correct scale. Option D (10-6 µm) is incorrect because it is too thin, as it suggests a thickness of one-millionth of a micrometer, which is not feasible for the base region.

Q163. The closed loop gain of OP-AMP depends on:

• A. Internal structure of OP-AMP
• B. Externally connected resistance✓
• C. Voltage of power supplies
• D. Input resistance

Explanation: The correct answer is B: Externally connected resistance. The closed loop gain of an OP-AMP is determined by the feedback network, which typically consists of resistors connected externally. These resistors set the gain by forming a voltage divider in the feedback loop.Option A is incorrect because the internal structure does not directly influence the closed loop gain, which is designed to be dependent on external components for flexibility and precision.Option C is incorrect because the power supply voltage affects the maximum output swing and linearity but not the gain, provided it is within the operational range.Option D is incorrect because input resistance affects how the OP-AMP interfaces with the input signal source, not the gain itself.

Q164. The net charge on an N-type substance is:

• A. Neutral (0)✓
• B. Positive
• C. Negative
• D. Variable

Explanation: An N-type semiconductor is doped with pentavalent elements, which introduce additional free electrons. However, the semiconductor remains electrically neutral because the negative charge of these free electrons is balanced by the positive charge of the ionized donor atoms. Therefore, the net charge of an N-type semiconductor is zero, or neutral. The other options incorrectly suggest that the semiconductor itself carries a net positive or negative charge, which is not the case under normal conditions.

Q165. The value of Wien’s constant is:

• A. 2.90 x 10-3 mK✓
• B. 3.34 x 10-4 mK
• C. 4.22 x 10-7 mK
• D. 3.42 x 10-8 mK

Explanation: Wien's Law states that the product of the wavelength corresponding to the maximum intensity of radiation and the temperature of the body in Kelvin is a constant, known as Wien's constant. The correct value of this constant is approximately 2.897 x 10-3 mK. This relationship helps determine the peak wavelength of radiation emitted by a blackbody at any given temperature. Option A correctly reflects this value. The other options are incorrect as they suggest values that are either too small or not relevant to Wien's constant.

Q166. The minimum frequency below which no electron is emitted from the metal surface is called:

• A. High frequency
• B. Low frequency
• C. Threshold frequency✓
• D. Resonance frequency

Explanation: The correct answer is Threshold frequency. This is the minimum frequency of light necessary to eject electrons from a metal surface as described by the photoelectric effect. It varies based on the material of the metal, as different metals have different work functions. Option A, High frequency, is incorrect because it suggests a frequency above the minimum required. Option B, Low frequency, is incorrect because such a frequency would not provide sufficient energy for electron emission. Option D, Resonance frequency, is unrelated to this context as it refers to a system's natural vibration frequency.

Q167. In pair production, the type of photon used:

• A. α-particle
• B. β-particle
• C. X-rays
• D. γ-radiations✓

Explanation: In pair production, a high-energy photon interacts with a nucleus to transform into a particle and its antiparticle, such as an electron and a positron. Gamma rays, being high-energy photons, possess the necessary energy for this process. Option A is incorrect because alpha particles are Helium nuclei, not photons. Option B is incorrect because beta particles are fast-moving electrons or positrons, not photons. Option C is incorrect because while X-rays are photons, they generally do not have sufficient energy for pair production unless they are exceedingly high energy. Option D is correct as gamma rays have sufficient energy to facilitate pair production.

Q168. The life time of an electron in an excited state is about 10-8 s. What is its uncertainty in energy during this time?

• A. 1.05 x 10-41 J
• B. 1.05 x 10-26 J✓
• C. 1.15 x 1010 J
• D. 2.19 x 10-40 J

Explanation: The uncertainty in energy can be determined using the energy-time uncertainty principle: ΔE = h/Δt, where h is Planck's constant (approximately 6.626 x 10-34 Js) and Δt is the time the electron spends in the excited state (10-8 s). Plugging these values into the formula, we get ΔE ≈ 1.05 x 10-26 J, which corresponds to Option B. Option A and D provide values that are too small to be realistic, while Option C presents an unrealistically large value for this context.

Q169. Velocity of electron moving in first orbit of hydrogen is:

• A. 2.19 x 107 m/sec
• B. 2.18 x 107 m/sec
• C. 2.2 x 108 m/sec
• D. 2.19 x 106 m/sec✓

Explanation: The velocity of an electron in the first orbit of hydrogen can be calculated using the Bohr model formula: v = n × h / (2π × m × r), where: n is the principal quantum number (1 for the first orbit), h is Planck's constant (6.63 × 10-34 Js), m is the mass of the electron (9.1 × 10-31 kg), r is the radius of the orbit (0.529 × 10-10 m). Substituting these values gives a velocity of approximately 2.19 × 106 m/s. The other options are incorrect as they either exceed feasible values or are too high for the first orbit.

Q170. Laser is a potential energy source for inducing which type of reaction?

• A. Radioactive
• B. Fission
• C. Ionization
• D. Fusion✓

Explanation: The correct answer is D) Fusion. Laser technology can be used in fusion reactions, such as in inertial confinement fusion, where lasers provide the energy needed to heat and compress the fuel to initiate fusion. Option A) Radioactive is incorrect because radioactivity is a spontaneous process that does not require external energy. Option B) Fission is incorrect because fission reactions are typically initiated by neutrons. Option C) Ionization is incorrect because, although lasers can ionize substances, they are not primarily used as a source of energy to initiate chemical reactions.

Q171. In the half-life of an element, the equation for the number of decaying atoms is given by:

• A. ΔN ∝ -NΔt✓
• B. ΔN = KNΔt
• C. ΔN ∝ -nΔt
• D. ΔN = -ΔNΔt

Explanation: The correct answer is Option A: ΔN ∝ -NΔt. This equation expresses that the number of decaying atoms (ΔN) is directly proportional to the negative of the number of radioactive atoms (N) times the time interval (Δt). This reflects the principle that decay rate depends on the current quantity of radioactive atoms, leading to an exponential decay pattern.Option B is incorrect because it suggests a constant decay rate (K), which does not align with the nature of radioactive decay.Option C uses a lowercase 'n', which is not the standard notation for the number of atoms, leading to confusion.Option D incorrectly repeats ΔN, making the equation invalid.

Q172. Decay constant ‘λ’ is given as:

• A. λ = ln(2)/T1/2✓
• B. λ = N/t
• C. λ = dN/dt
• D. λ = A/N

Explanation: The decay constant (λ) is a measure of the probability of decay of a single atom over a unit of time, often expressed as λ = ln(2)/T1/2, where T1/2 is the half-life of the material. This indicates how quickly a substance will decay. Option A provides this correct relationship. Options B, C, and D incorrectly relate the decay constant with other aspects of decay, such as the number of atoms, change in number, or activity, which do not directly define the decay constant itself.

Q173. The SI unit of absorbed dose ‘D’ i.e. radiation effect is Gray and one Gray is equal to:

• A. kJ / mol
• B. J / mol
• C. kg / J
• D. J / kg✓

Explanation: The absorbed dose is the amount of energy from ionizing radiation absorbed per unit mass of a material. The SI unit for absorbed dose is the Gray (Gy), which is defined as 1 joule of radiation energy absorbed per kilogram of matter. This is why the correct unit is J/kg. Option A (kJ/mol) and Option B (J/mol) relate to chemical energy, not absorbed radiation dose. Option C (kg/J) is not a standard unit for any energy-related measurement.

Q174. The principle of homogeneity of dimensions determines:

• A. Only the variables in the equation
• B. Only the constants in the equation
• C. The correctness of an equation✓
• D. Both constants and variables in the equation

Explanation: The principle of homogeneity of dimensions states that for an equation to be dimensionally correct, every term must have the same dimensions on both sides. This principle helps verify the correctness of an equation rather than focusing on individual variables or constants. Option C is correct because it aligns with this principle by ensuring equations are valid through dimensional consistency. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they focus on specific elements rather than the equation's overall dimensional integrity.

Q175. For a body to be in complete equilibrium:

• A. Linear acceleration is zero
• B. Angular acceleration is zero
• C. Linear acceleration is zero but angular acceleration is not zero
• D. Linear acceleration and angular acceleration both should be zero✓

Explanation: For a body to be in complete equilibrium, it must not experience any net force or torque. This means that both its linear acceleration and angular acceleration should be zero (Option D). This ensures that the body is neither translating nor rotating. Option A and B only address one aspect of motion each, and Option C allows for rotational motion, which contradicts the state of complete equilibrium.

Q176. If length of a spanner is ‘I’ and a force ‘F’ is applied on it to tighten a nut such that it passes through the pivot point, then torque is:

• A. Zero✓
• B. Fl
• C. Fl sin θ
• D. Fl sin θλ

Explanation: The torque exerted by a force is calculated as the product of the force and the perpendicular distance from the pivot point to the line of action of the force. If the line of action of the force passes through the pivot point, this perpendicular distance is zero, resulting in zero torque. Therefore, Option A is correct. Options B, C, and D suggest non-zero torque values that do not apply in this scenario because the perpendicular distance is zero.

Q177. If a force of magnitude 8 N acts on a body in direction making an angle 30, its x and y components will be:

• A. Fx = 4√3 and Fy = 8
• B. Fx = 8 and Fy = 4√3
• C. Fx = 4√3 and Fy = 4✓
• D. Fx = 8√3 and Fy = 4

Explanation: The x and y components of a force vector can be found using trigonometric functions: the x-component is given by Fx = F cosθ, and the y-component is given by Fy = F sinθ. For a force of 8 N at an angle of 30°, you calculate:Fx = 8 cos(30°) = 8 × (√3/2) = 4√3Fy = 8 sin(30°) = 8 × (1/2) = 4Thus, the correct components are Fx = 4√3 and Fy = 4. The other options either misuse the angle in calculations or incorrectly apply the trigonometric functions.

Q178. The difference of a vector B and its negative vector –B is:

• A. A null vector
• B. Equal to magnitude of vector B
• C. Twice the magnitude of vector B✓
• D. Smaller than magnitude of vector B

Explanation: Option C is correct. The difference between vector B and its negative vector -B is equivalent to B - (-B), which simplifies to B + B = 2B. Thus, the magnitude of the resulting vector is twice that of vector B.Option A is incorrect because a null vector occurs when two opposite vectors are added, not subtracted.Option B is incorrect because the magnitude of the difference between a vector and its negative cannot equal the magnitude of the original vector.Option D is incorrect because the magnitude of the resulting vector from B - (-B) will be larger, not smaller, than the magnitude of vector B.

Q179. Time of projectile’s flight is:

• A. v0 sin(θ) / g
• B. 2v0 sin(θ) / g✓
• C. v0 cos(θ) / g
• D. 2v0 cos(θ) / g

Explanation: The correct formula for the time of flight of a projectile is 2v0 sin(θ) / g, where v0 is the initial velocity, θ is the launch angle, and g is the acceleration due to gravity. This formula considers the total time for the projectile to ascend and descend back to the same vertical level. Option A calculates maximum height, Option C calculates the horizontal component of velocity, and Option D inaccurately applies the horizontal component in a time-related formula.

Q180. If the velocity of the body changes by equal amount in equal intervals of time, the body is said to have:

• A. Variable acceleration
• B. Uniform acceleration✓
• C. Uniform velocity
• D. Negative acceleration

Explanation: The correct answer is uniform acceleration. This is because the definition of uniform acceleration is when the velocity of a body changes by equal amounts in equal intervals of time, indicating a consistent rate of change in velocity.Option A is incorrect because variable acceleration involves changes in velocity that are not consistent over time.Option C is incorrect because uniform velocity implies no change in speed, which contradicts the condition of changing velocity.Option D is incorrect because negative acceleration refers to a reduction in speed, not necessarily at a uniform rate.

Q181. In order to determine the maximum height of the projectile, the equation of motion used is:

• A. aS = vf2 - vi2
• B. 2aS = vf2 - vi2✓
• C. 2S = a(vf2 - vi2)
• D. aS = 2(vf2 - vi2)

Explanation: The correct answer is Option B: 2aS = vf2 - vi2. This is the third equation of motion, which is crucial for determining the maximum height of a projectile as it connects initial and final velocities with acceleration and displacement. Option A is incorrect as it does not represent any standard motion equation. Options C and D are incorrect because they misplace the terms of acceleration and displacement, making them non-standard and unusable for calculating projectile motion.

Q182. If a force of 12 N acts on a car and changes its momentum from 36 kgm/sec to 60 kgm/sec, the time during which this change occurs will be

• A. 24 sec
• B. 2 sec✓
• C. 12 sec
• D. 8 sec

Explanation: To solve this problem, use the impulse-momentum theorem, which states that the impulse (force multiplied by time) is equal to the change in momentum. The formula is:F×t = mvf - mviSubstitute the given values: F = 12 N, mvf = 60 kgm/s, and mvi = 36 kgm/s.Therefore, t = (60 kgm/s - 36 kgm/s) / 12 N = 24 kgm/s / 12 N = 2 sec.This means the correct time interval is 2 seconds.Options 24 sec, 12 sec, and 8 sec are incorrect because they result from errors in dividing the change in momentum by the force.

Q183. Which one of the following is a non-conservative force?

• A. Electric force
• B. Elastic spring force
• C. Gravitational force
• D. Frictional force✓

Explanation: Conservative forces, such as gravitational, electric, and elastic spring forces, depend only on the initial and final positions of an object, meaning the work done is independent of the path taken. On the other hand, frictional force is a non-conservative force because the work done by friction depends on the path taken. This is because frictional forces convert kinetic energy into thermal energy, which is dissipated and cannot be recovered, making the process path-dependent.

Q184. Value of escape velocity for the surface of the earth is 11 km/sec. Its value for surface of the moon is:

• A. 11 km/sec
• B. 10.4 km/sec
• C. 2.4 km/sec✓
• D. 4.3 km/sec

Explanation: The correct answer is Option C: 2.4 km/sec. The escape velocity for the Moon is approximately 2.374 km/sec. This is significantly lower than Earth's escape velocity due to the Moon's smaller mass and gravitational pull. Options A and B are incorrect because they refer to the escape velocities of Earth and Venus, respectively. Option D is also incorrect as it does not correspond to any known celestial body's escape velocity.

Q185. On a clear day at noon, the intensity of solar energy reaching the earth’s surface is about:

• A. 1.0 kWm-2✓
• B. 1.4 kWm-2
• C. 1.0 Wm-2
• D. 1.4 Wm-2

Explanation: The correct answer is 1.0 kWm-2 because this is the standard value of solar irradiance reaching the Earth's surface on a clear day at noon. Option B, 1.4 kWm-2, is incorrect as it is closer to the solar constant, which is the amount of solar energy received per unit area outside the Earth's atmosphere. Options C and D, 1.0 Wm-2 and 1.4 Wm-2, respectively, are incorrect as they are orders of magnitude lower, misrepresenting the actual solar energy reaching the surface.

Q186. When a lift is accelerated upward, the apparent weight of an object in it will be:

• A. Equal to its real weight
• B. Less than its real weight
• C. Zero
• D. Greater than its real weight✓

Explanation: The apparent weight of an object is the force exerted by the object on the surface it is resting on. When a lift is accelerated upward, the acceleration adds to the gravitational pull, making the apparent weight greater than the real weight. This is due to the net force being the sum of gravitational force and upward acceleration. In contrast, if the lift were accelerating downward, the apparent weight would be less. If the lift were in free fall, the apparent weight would be zero because both the object and the lift would be accelerating at the same rate, eliminating any normal force.

Q187. The moment of inertial of a thin rod is:

• A. 1/2 mL2
• B. 1/4 m3L
• C. 1/12 mL
• D. 1/12 mL2✓

Explanation: The moment of inertia of an object is a measure of its resistance to changes in its rotation. For a thin rod of length L and mass m, rotating about an axis through its center and perpendicular to its length, the moment of inertia is given by the formula I = (1/12) mL2. This correctly accounts for both the mass and the distribution of that mass along the length of the rod. Option A represents the moment of inertia of a different geometric shape, option B has incorrect units and a non-standard form, and option C lacks the correct dimensions for a moment of inertia. Thus, Option D is the correct and only valid choice.

Q188. A wheel of radius 1m covers an angular displacement of 180.Its linear displacement is:

• A. 3.14 m✓
• B. π rad
• C. 6.28 m
• D. 0.157 m

Explanation: The correct answer is 3.14 m. The linear displacement of the wheel can be calculated using the formula S = rθ, where r is the radius and θ is the angular displacement in radians. Given that the radius r = 1 m and the angular displacement θ = 180 degrees, which is equal to π radians, the calculation is straightforward: S = 1 m × π = 3.14 m. Option B is incorrect because it uses radians, which is a unit for angular displacement, not linear displacement. Option C is incorrect as it doubles the correct value, likely confusing the full circle (2π radians) with half a circle (π radians). Option D is incorrect due to a miscalculation.

Q189. Conservation of mass of fluid flow leads to:

• A. Bernoulli’s equation
• B. Venturi meter
• C. Equation of motion
• D. Equation of continuity✓

Explanation: The correct answer is D) Equation of continuity, as it directly expresses the conservation of mass in fluid flow. This principle ensures that the mass of fluid entering a section of a pipe equals the mass leaving it, represented by the formula A1V1 = A2V2. Option A) Bernoulli’s equation, while significant, deals with energy conservation, not mass. Option B) Venturi meter is a device that applies Bernoulli’s principle to measure flow rate, not directly related to mass conservation. Option C) Equation of motion is irrelevant to fluid dynamics in this context, as it pertains to solid objects and forces.

Q190. The blood vessels collapse when:

• A. External pressure applied becomes greater than the systolic pressure✓
• B. External pressure applied is equal to systolic pressure
• C. External pressure applied is less than the systolic pressure
• D. External pressure applied is zero

Explanation: The correct answer is A. External pressure applied becomes greater than the systolic pressure. This causes the blood vessel to collapse because the external pressure overcomes the internal pressure within the vessel, leading to its closure. Option B is incorrect because when the pressures are equal, the vessel does not collapse but blood flow may be impeded. Option C is incorrect as external pressure less than systolic pressure allows normal blood flow without vessel collapse. Option D is incorrect because zero external pressure does not interfere with the vessel's function, allowing normal circulation.

Q191. An oscillating body is at mean position at t = 0. At t = T/4 it will be at:

• A. Extreme position✓
• B. Mean position
• C. Between extreme and mean position
• D. Beyond extreme position

Explanation: The correct answer is that the body is at the extreme position at t = T/4. In simple harmonic motion, the oscillating body reaches the extreme positions at t = T/4 and t = 3T/4. The mean position is reached at t = 0, T/2, and T. The body cannot go beyond the extreme positions, and at T/4, it is not between the mean and extreme positions but precisely at the extreme position.

Q192. In a simple pendulum, the tension of the string is:

• A. T = g cos θ
• B. T = mg sin θ
• C. T = mg cos θ✓
• D. T = mg

Explanation: The correct answer is C: T = mg cos θ. In a simple pendulum, the tension in the string must balance the component of the gravitational force that acts perpendicular to the arc of the pendulum's swing, which is mg cos θ. Option A is incorrect because g cos θ alone does not represent the tension; it lacks the mass component. Option B is incorrect because mg sin θ is the component of the force parallel to the swing's direction, not the tension. Option D is incorrect because mg represents the full weight of the pendulum bob, which does not account for the angle of the swing.

Q193. Two sound waves having the same amplitudes are moving in the same direction are out of phase. The amplitude of the resultant wave is:

• A. Zero amplitude✓
• B. The sum of the amplitudes of the two waves
• C. Difference of the amplitudes of the two waves
• D. Double the amplitude of either wave

Explanation: The correct answer is A) Zero amplitude. When two sound waves with identical amplitudes are completely out of phase, they interfere destructively, effectively cancelling each other and resulting in a net amplitude of zero. Option B is incorrect because the sum of amplitudes occurs during constructive interference when waves are in phase. Option C is incorrect because the difference in amplitudes applies when the waves have different amplitudes or are not fully out of phase. Option D is incorrect because doubling of amplitude happens during constructive interference of in-phase waves.

Q194. A source ‘Y’ of unknown frequency produces 4 beats with a source of 240 Hz and 8 beats with a sound of 252 Hz. Frequency of the source ‘Y’ is:

• A. 244 Hz✓
• B. 236 Hz
• C. 248 Hz
• D. 246 Hz

Explanation: The beat frequency is the absolute difference between two frequencies. For the source ‘Y’ to produce 4 beats with 240 Hz, it can be either 240 + 4 = 244 Hz or 240 - 4 = 236 Hz. Similarly, for 8 beats with 252 Hz, it must be 252 - 8 = 244 Hz or 252 + 8 = 260 Hz. The only common frequency is 244 Hz, which satisfies both conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is 244 Hz. Options B (236 Hz), C (248 Hz), and D (246 Hz) do not satisfy both sets of beat frequencies.

Q195. An organ pipe closed at one end has a length of 25 cm. Wavelength of the fundamental note is:

• A. 25 cm
• B. 50 cm
• C. 100 cm✓
• D. 75 cm

Explanation: The fundamental wavelength for an organ pipe closed at one end is given by the formula λ = 4L/n, where L is the length of the pipe and n is the harmonic number. For the fundamental note, n = 1. Given that the pipe's length is 25 cm, the wavelength is calculated as λ = 4 × 25/1 = 100 cm. Therefore, the correct answer is C) 100 cm. Option A is incorrect as it merely states the length of the pipe. Option B is incorrect because it applies to a pipe open at both ends. Option D does not align with the formula for this scenario.

Q196. In Newton ring apparatus, at the point of contact of the lens and glass plate, the additional path difference introduced is:

• A. λ/4
• B. λ/2✓
• C. λ
• D. λ/3

Explanation: The correct answer is λ/2. In the Newton ring apparatus, when light reflects off the lens and glass plate at the point of contact, a phase shift of λ/2 occurs due to the reflection. This results in an additional path difference of λ/2. Option A (λ/4) and Option D (λ/3) are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the phase shift at the contact point. Option C (λ) is incorrect as it suggests a full wavelength path difference, which does not apply at the point of contact.

Q197. The path difference ‘BD’ for destructive interference is:

• A. (m + ½) λ✓
• B. mλ
• C. d sin θ
• D. 3λ

Explanation: Destructive interference occurs when the path difference between two waves is an odd multiple of half wavelengths, expressed as (m + ½)λ, where m is an integer. This causes the waves to cancel out. Option A is correct as it matches this condition. Option B is incorrect since it represents the condition for constructive interference, where waves reinforce each other. Option C is a formula derived from Bragg's Law, used in crystallography, not directly related to interference path differences. Option D is an arbitrary multiple of the wavelength that does not fit the criteria for either type of interference.

Q198. In the case of a grafting spectrometer, the resolving power ‘R’ of the grating is defined as:

• A. λ / Δλ✓
• B. λ / D
• C. λ / λ1
• D. N x m

Explanation: The resolving power 'R' of a grating is defined by the formula R = λ / Δλ, where 'λ' is the wavelength and 'Δλ' is the smallest difference in wavelength that can be resolved. This expression shows how well the grating can distinguish between two closely spaced wavelengths, making Option A correct. Option B refers to the minimum angle of resolution, not resolving power. Option C is incorrect as it does not relate to resolving power. Option D, though an expression related to resolving power, describes the product of the number of lines and spectral order, which is not what the question is looking for.

Q199. Which one of the following lights travels fastest in optical fibers?

• A. Visible light
• B. Ultraviolet light
• C. Ordinary light
• D. Invisible infrared light✓

Explanation: Infrared light travels fastest in optical fibers due to its longer wavelength, which minimizes scattering and absorption. This allows it to pass through gases and dust with less interference compared to other types of light. Visible, ultraviolet, and ordinary light all encounter more scattering and absorption, which slows them down in optical fibers.

Q200. The value of universal gas constant is:

• A. 8.314 Jmol-1K-1✓
• B. 8.324 Jmol-1K-1
• C. 7.23 Jmol-1K-1
• D. 1.00 Jmol-1K-1

Explanation: The correct value of the universal gas constant is 8.314 J/mol·K, which is used in the ideal gas law equation PV=nRT. This constant allows the relationship between pressure, volume, temperature, and moles of a gas to be calculated. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because they either do not match the precise value needed for accurate calculations or are significantly off. Precision is crucial when working with scientific constants.

Q201. The turbine in a steam power plant takes steam from a boiler at 427 °C and exhausts into a low temperature reservoir at 77 °C. What is the maximum possible efficiency?

• A. 50%✓
• B. 40%
• C. 60%
• D. 70%

Explanation: To find the maximum possible efficiency of the steam turbine, we use the Carnot efficiency formula: η = (T1 - T2) / T1, where T1 and T2 are the absolute temperatures of the heat source and sink, respectively. Convert the given temperatures from Celsius to Kelvin: T1 = 427°C + 273 = 700K, T2 = 77°C + 273 = 350K. Substituting these values into the formula gives η = (700K - 350K) / 700K = 0.5, or 50%. This is why option A is correct. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not match the calculated efficiency using the Carnot formula.

Q202. Which one of the following is a postulate of kinetic theory of gases?

• A. Molecules do not exert any force on each other✓
• B. The size of molecules is much larger than the separation between the molecules
• C. A finite volume of gas consists of a very small number of molecules
• D. The gas molecules are not in random motion

Explanation: The correct answer is that molecules do not exert any force on each other, except during elastic collisions. This is a key postulate of the kinetic theory of gases, which helps explain why gases expand to fill their containers and are compressible. Option B is incorrect because the postulate is that molecular size is much smaller than the distance between them. Option C is incorrect because a gas contains a large number of molecules, allowing for measurable macroscopic properties like pressure. Option D is incorrect because gas molecules are in constant random motion, contributing to the pressure exerted by gases.

Q203. Which one is not an irreversible process?

• A. Slow compression of a gas into a cylinder✓
• B. Changes due to friction
• C. Explosion
• D. Dissipation of energy

Explanation: The correct answer is Option A: Slow compression of a gas into a cylinder. This is a reversible process because it can be performed in such a way that the system can be returned to its initial state without any net change to the system or surroundings. In contrast, Option B: Changes due to friction are irreversible as energy is lost to heat, which cannot be completely recovered. Option C: Explosion is an irreversible process because it involves a rapid release of energy that cannot be reversed. Lastly, Option D: Dissipation of energy involves energy being spread out in a way that cannot be fully recovered, making it irreversible.

Q204. Electric intensity is a vector quantity and its direction is:

• A. Perpendicular to the direction of field
• B. Opposite to the direction of force
• C. At a certain angle
• D. Along the direction of force✓

Explanation: Electric intensity, also known as electric field intensity, is the force experienced by a unit positive charge placed at a point in an electric field. The direction of the electric intensity vector is the same as the direction of the force exerted on a positive charge. Therefore, the correct answer is that electric intensity is 'Along the direction of force'.Option A is incorrect because electric intensity is not perpendicular to the electric field; it defines the field's direction. Option B is incorrect because electric intensity is not opposite to the force direction; it coincides with it. Option C is incorrect because the electric intensity direction is not at a random angle but precisely along the force direction.

Q205. The magnitude of an electric field between two separated plates can be calculated by the relation:

• A. ΔV = Ed✓
• B. ΔV = E/d
• C. ΔV = E/qo
• D. E = d/ΔV

Explanation: The correct answer is Option A: ΔV = Ed. This formula is used to calculate the magnitude of the electric field (E) between two parallel plates, where ΔV is the voltage difference across the plates and d is the distance separating them. Option B is incorrect as it inversely relates E to d, Option C introduces an irrelevant term, qo, and Option D incorrectly inverts the relationship, suggesting an incorrect dependency of the electric field on distance and voltage.

Q206. SI unit of electric flux is:

• A. NmC-1
• B. Nm-2C-2
• C. Nm2C-1✓
• D. Nm2C-2

Explanation: Electric flux is defined as the product of the electric field and the area through which the field lines pass. Therefore, its SI unit is Nm2C-1. Option C is correct because it reflects the formula for electric flux (Electric field × Area). Options A, B, and D do not correctly represent the units for electric flux. Option A represents electric field strength, Option B does not correspond to a known quantity, and Option D is incorrect as it suggests an incorrect relationship between the units.

Q207. The equivalent current which passes from a point at higher potential to a point at a lower potential as if it represented a movement of positive charges is:

• A. Electronic current
• B. Electric current
• C. Magnetic lines
• D. Conventional current✓

Explanation: The correct answer is D: Conventional current. Conventional current is defined by the direction in which positive charges would flow, from higher to lower potential, which is opposite to the actual direction of electron flow. Option A is incorrect because electronic current describes electron flow, which goes from low to high potential. Option B is incorrect because, while electric current involves the movement of electrons, it does not specify the direction of conventional current. Option C is incorrect because magnetic lines are unrelated to electric current flow.

Q208. If ‘V’ is applied potential difference across a resistance ‘R’, then loss in potential energy per unit time is:

• A. VI
• B. I2R
• C. V2/R
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: The correct answer is D, 'All of the above', because each option provides a valid formula for calculating power in an electrical circuit. Power is defined as the rate of energy transfer. Option A (VI), Option B (I2R), and Option C (V2/R) are all equivalent expressions that describe power dissipation based on different parameters of the circuit. Therefore, all options correctly represent the loss in potential energy per unit time.

Q209. The substances like germanium and silicon have:

• A. Negative temperature coefficients✓
• B. Positive temperature coefficients
• C. Both A and B
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Substances with a negative temperature coefficient of resistance, such as germanium and silicon, experience a decrease in resistance as temperature increases. This property is typical of semiconductors. Option A is correct. Option B describes metals, which have a positive temperature coefficient. Option C is incorrect because a material cannot simultaneously have both types of temperature coefficients. Option D is incorrect because germanium and silicon are correctly described by option A.

Q210. The sensitivity of a galvanometer can be decreased by:

• A. Increasing magnetic field
• B. Increasing the number of turns of the coil
• C. Increasing the c/BAN ratio✓
• D. Decreasing the length of couple 'c'

Explanation: Sensitivity of a galvanometer is defined as the deflection per unit current. Increasing the magnetic field or the number of turns in the coil increases the sensitivity, as both enhance the torque that causes deflection. Decreasing the length of the couple 'c' also increases sensitivity by reducing the counteracting torque. However, increasing the c/BAN ratio, where 'c' is a constant related to the coil’s resistance, 'B' is the magnetic field, 'A' is the area of the coil, and 'N' is the number of turns, results in a decreased sensitivity by reducing the deflection per unit current.

Q211. Force on a current carrying conductor in a uniform magnetic field is:

• A. F = NIA cos α
• B. F = μnI
• C. F = ILB sin α✓
• D. F = ILA cos α

Explanation: The correct formula for the force exerted on a current-carrying conductor in a uniform magnetic field is F = ILB sin α. This formula indicates that the force (F) is proportional to the current (I), the length of the conductor (L), and the magnetic field strength (B), and it depends on the sine of the angle (α) between the conductor and the magnetic field direction. Increased values of these variables result in a stronger force.Option A is incorrect as it represents a torque-related formula, Option B is unrelated to this context as it involves magnetic permeability, and Option D incorrectly uses cos α, which is irrelevant for calculating magnetic force in this context.

Q212. Fill in the blank with appropriate option.There is nothing interesting in mathematics. I _ read grammar.

• A. Could
• B. Can
• C. Might as well✓
• D. Must

Explanation: The correct answer is 'might as well' because it suggests that, given the lack of interest in mathematics, the speaker sees reading grammar as a reasonable alternative. The phrase implies a decision made due to the circumstances, rather than a necessity or ability. The other options — 'could', 'can', and 'must' — do not fit the context of this choice. 'Could' and 'can' imply ability rather than preference, and 'must' implies obligation rather than a casual decision.

Q213. Fill in the blank with appropriate option.You _ reduce the speed. There is a speed limit.

• A. Need to
• B. Ought to
• C. Must✓
• D. Will

Explanation: The correct answer is "Must" because it denotes a strong necessity or obligation to reduce speed immediately due to the speed limit, making it mandatory. "Need to" and "Ought to" suggest less urgent obligations or recommendations, lacking the imperative nature of "must." "Will" indicates a future action, which does not fit the context of needing to reduce speed right now.

Q214. Fill in the blank with appropriate option.You _ drive fast. We have plenty of time.

• A. Will not
• B. Shall not
• C. Must not
• D. Need not✓

Explanation: The correct answer is 'Need not' because it indicates that there is no necessity to drive fast due to the availability of ample time. 'Will not' and 'Shall not' suggest future actions, which are not relevant to the present context. 'Must not' indicates prohibition, which does not align with the relaxed implication of the sentence.

Q215. Spot the error.The teacher made all the students to rewrite their papers because the first drafts were not acceptable.

• A. All the
• B. To rewrite✓
• C. The first
• D. Were

Explanation: The sentence should read: "The teacher made all the students rewrite their papers because the first drafts were not acceptable."The error is in the verb "to rewrite", which should be "rewrite" (base form). The correct structure is: made (verb) + students (object) + rewrite (base form)The verb "made" requires a base form (rewrite) to describe the action forced upon the students.

Q216. Fill in the blank with appropriate option.When I was young, I _ run very fast.

• A. Can
• B. Could✓
• C. Could have
• D. Must

Explanation: 'Could' is the correct verb to use as it denotes an ability that existed in the past, fitting well with the past tense 'was' in the sentence. The speaker is referring to a capability they had when they were younger. The other options are incorrect because 'can' refers to present ability, 'could have' suggests a missed opportunity or hypothetical past action, and 'must' implies necessity, none of which appropriately describe a past ability.

Q217. Fill in the blank with appropriate option.She has a driving license. She _ drive the car on the motorway.

• A. Must
• B. May
• C. Can✓
• D. Could

Explanation: The correct answer is 'can' because it indicates present ability or capability. Since she possesses a driving license, it logically follows that she has the ability to drive on the motorway. 'Must' implies necessity rather than ability, 'may' suggests permission rather than ability, and 'could' typically refers to past ability or hypothetical scenarios, none of which appropriately fit the context of this sentence.

Q218. Fill in the blank with appropriate option._ you turn down the music a bit, please?

• A. Might
• B. Can
• C. Could✓
• D. Would

Explanation: The correct answer is 'Could' because it is a polite way to request someone to turn down the music. It fits the context of asking for a favor in a respectful manner. On the other hand, 'Might' suggests uncertainty and is not suitable for requests. 'Can' is more direct and less formal, which might not convey the appropriate level of politeness. Lastly, 'Would' requires a different sentence structure to be grammatically correct, making it less appropriate for this fill-in-the-blank question.

Q219. Fill in the blank with appropriate option.The old garage suddenly collapsed one day. Luckily, the owner wasn’t there or he _ received serious injuries.

• A. Might as well
• B. Could have✓
• C. Have to
• D. Would

Explanation: The correct answer is 'could have' as it accurately expresses a hypothetical possibility in the past. The garage collapse suggested a scenario where the owner might have been injured, which didn't happen. 'Might as well' suggests a present or future decision without serious consequence, 'have to' indicates obligation, and 'would' suggests a conditional future or habitual past action, none of which appropriately convey the intended past hypothetical situation.