Uhs Mdcat 2010 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. My advice had no _ on him.

• A. Effect✓
• B. Affect
• C. Influence
• D. Impression

Explanation: Option A: effect is a noun.As the sentence demands a noun after the verb "had", so effect is used.Option B: affect is a verb so it is inappropriate for this sentence.Its use is as follows: The rain affected(verb) the crops.Option C: influence is also a noun but it is usually used to show a strong authority or impact so it's not suitable for the given sentence. Option D: impression is a noun.It means an opinion or a view. It doesn't fit the context so is eliminated.

Q2. Do not lose heart,it is just a _ in the teacup.

• A. Wind
• B. Cyclone
• C. Blast
• D. Storm✓

Explanation: "storm in a tea cup" is an idiom. It means great rage(anger/disturbance) or excitement about a common matter.The remaining options (a),(b) and(c) are inappropriate for the completion of this idiomatic expression.

Q3. Pakistan _ from voting against Iran in the United Nations.

• A. Prevented
• B. Detained
• C. Abstained✓
• D. Refuse

Explanation: Option A Abstained means to stop oneself from doing something. In the given sentence, Pakistan is officially refusing to vote so abstain is the most appropriate choice.The options A and B are synonyms. Both means to force or stop someone or something from happening. So they are eliminated. Option D refuse means to deny. It can be used in this way: Pakistan refused to vote. However, in the given sentence structure, it's inappropriate.

Q4. Please_the door after you.

• A. Close✓
• B. Shut
• C. Leave
• D. Knock

Explanation: The options A close or B shut both can be used but the most appropriate is A close.Option C leave doesn't fit the sentence structure.Option D knock is inappropriate for the given

Q5. Spot the error : In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined.Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.Suddenly he stopped at the edge of the meadow, taking his pocket knife from his pocket, and cut a wisp of alfalfa.

• A. Suddenly he stopped
• B. Taking his pocket knife✓
• C. His pocket
• D. Cut a wisp of alfalfa

Explanation: "taking his pocket knife" is grammatically incorrect. Instead of using "taking" , "took" should be used. Since the entire sentence is in past tense ( stopped, cut) ,we cannot use "taking". Option A, C & D are incorrect.

Q6. Spot the error : In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined.Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.The study of population growth indicates one of the greatest paradox of our time.

• A. The study
• B. Population growth
• C. One of the
• D. Paradox✓

Explanation: paradox is grammatically incorrect. It should be "paradoxes".Remember this basic grammar rule!After "one of the" , we always use a plural noun and a singular verb. e.g One of the girls is missing.The options (a), (b), and c are grammatically incorrect.

Q7. Spot the error : In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.Among the Western nations, the decline in the death rate is followed after an interval by the reduction in the birth rate, so that the population is not now growing so fast.

• A. Among the Western nations
• B. Death rate is followed
• C. The reduction in the birth
• D. Is not now growing✓

Explanation: The options (a), (b), and c are grammatically correct.

Q8. Spot the error : In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.In view of increasing hazards with our national security it is the duty of every citizen to keep a watch on his surroundings.

• A. With✓
• B. It is
• C. To keep
• D. On his surroundings

Explanation: Instead of using with, we should use within (means in the boundary or limits of our national security).Use of with: with means in the company of someone or something (e.g I don't like tea with milk). With is only used as a preposition. Use of within: is used both as a preposition and an adverb.

Q9. Spot the error : In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.Thrifty housewives preserved their homegrown vegetables and fruits in canning, pickling or drying them for use during the cold weather.

• A. In✓
• B. Or
• C. For
• D. The

Explanation: Option A: It is the wrong use of preposition.The preposition "by" should be used instead. As in the sentence , the ways of preserving vegetables are being enlisted ,so "by" should be used.Use of by: used for showing how or in what way something is doneOption B: "or" is a conjunction that connects two or more possibilities or alternatives. It's used correctly in the given sentence.Option C: "for" is a preposition used to show purpose or function. It's rightly used in the sentence. Option D: "The" is a definite article used to specify the weather (the cold weather).

Q10. Spot the error : In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.When a low-wage category worker finds he has to maintain a large family, his expenses may exceeds his income.

• A. When a low-wage
• B. Worker finds
• C. Maintain a large family
• D. Exceeds his income✓

Explanation: Option D: exceedsReason: In the main clause "His expenses may exceeds his income", the subject is "his expenses" which is plural. Due to plural subject, we should use exceed (remove 's') instead of exceeds. Secondly, words like (may,might,can,could,shall,should,do,does ,did) are always followed by present form of verb without adding an 's'. For example: The girl may come( first form of verb without 's') today.The options (a)It is grammatical correctOption B: worker is singular so it gets an 's' with the verb find ( the worker finds). It's correctly written in the given sentence. Option C: to maintain is an infinitive.

Q11. In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the correct one.

• A. This is different to what had been expected.
• B. This is different what had been expected.
• C. This is different from what had been expected.✓
• D. This is different to what would be expected.

Explanation: c) This is different from what had been expected.This sentence is grammatically correct. It uses the correct preposition "from" to indicate the comparison between the actual situation and the expected situation.

Q12. In each of the following questions, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the correct one.

• A. When the fact failed him, he questions his senses.
• B. When the fact failed him, he questioned from his senses.
• C. When the fact fails him, he questions his senses.✓
• D. He will question his senses, when the fact will fail him.

Explanation: Option C: The sentence is a general truth so zero conditional is used.Zero conditional refers to general or scientific truths.The sentence structure for zero conditional is:If/ when + subject[the fact] + 1st form of verb [ fails] , subject[he] + 1st form of verb [senses].The options A, B and D are grammatically incorrect.

Q13. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriateWallow

• A. Roll about✓
• B. Mock
• C. Protest
• D. Borrow

Explanation: Option A: Wallow means to lie in mud or water /to indulge in something [e.g Buffaloes like to wallow in the watering places.] So roll about is the best option.Option B: mock means to tease or laugh at someone in an unethical wayOption C: protest means an action or statement indicating disapproval or opposition to something or someoneOption D:borrow means to take something from someone with the intention of returning it.

Q14. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate.Connoisseur

• A. Guide
• B. Artist
• C. Expert critic of art✓
• D. Teacher

Explanation: Option C: A Connoisseur is a person who has a great deal of knowledge about the fine arts and is an expert judge in matters of art, music or food. The option C is most appropriate.Option A: guide means a person who shows way to others or someone who helps others to do something.Option B: artist a person who creates paintings or drawings as a profession or hobby.Option D: teacher is a person who teaches especially in a school

Q15. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate.Eccentric

• A. Lunatic
• B. Stern
• C. Upset
• D. Odd✓

Explanation: Option D: Eccentric means a person who is unconventional [ not normal ] or whose behaviour is slightly strange [e.g The eccentric old man never ate anything other than cat food] . Hence, odd is the right option.Option [A] lunatic means a person who is mentally illOption [B] stern means firm, strict or uncompromisingOption [C] upset means unhappy or worried

Q16. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate.Boulder

• A. Rounded stone / hill✓
• B. Builder
• C. Magnanimity
• D. Magnitude

Explanation: Boulder is a large rock or a stone, typically one that has been worn smooth by erosion. [e.g It required superhuman effort to lift the huge boulder.].So option A[ rounded stone/hill] is most appropriate choice.Option [B]builder means a person who makes or constructs something.Option [C]magnanimity is a condition of being generous.Option [D]magnitute means the great size or extent of something.

Q17. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriateSlumber

• A. Heap
• B. Humble
• C. Knee
• D. Sleep✓

Explanation: Option D: Slumber means to be in a very light state of sleep.[e.g Sleeping Beauty slumbered in her forest castle.].Hence,option D is the right choice.Option [A] heap means an untidy collection of things placed in a disordered manner/ a large amount or number of thingsOption [B] humble means showing modestyOption [C] knee is the joint between the thigh and the lower leg in humans.

Q18. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate.Excrement

• A. Increment
• B. Waste matter expelled from body✓
• C. Excitement
• D. Disagreement

Explanation: Option B: Excrement is the waste material discharged from the body especially faeces. [e.g The dog’s excrement on the road filled the room with a terrible odour].Hence option [B] is right choice.Option [A] increment means an increase or additionOption [C] excitement means being happy about somethingOption [D] disagreement means disapproval

Q19. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate.Visage

• A. Vision
• B. Illusion
• C. Trunk less
• D. A person’s face✓

Explanation: Option [A] vision means the state of being able to see.Option [B] illusion means a deceptive appearance or impression.Option [C] trunkless means having no main stem. Option [D] Visage means the face with reference to shape,features and expressions.[e.g The model’s visage earned her many good photos.].Hence, option D is the right choice.

Q20. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate.Felicity

• A. Intense Happiness✓
• B. Respite
• C. Inspire
• D. Sensational

Explanation: Option [A] Felicity means the state of being happy or blessedness [e.g Carl’s felicity had no limits on her wedding day]. So option A is the right option.Option [B] respite means a short period of rest or relief frpm something difficult or unpleasant.Option [C] inspire means to inhale or breathe in airOption [D] sensational means very attractive or impressive

Q21. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate.Enmeshed

• A. Sojourn
• B. Entangled✓
• C. Gallows
• D. Cascade

Explanation: Option [A] sojourn means to stay somewhere temporarilyOption [B] Enmeshed means to involve [someone] in a difficult situation from which it is hard to escape.[e.g He is enmeshed in gambling.].Hence,option B is most appropriate.Option [C] gallows is a construction frame on which people are hanged for their crimes.Option [D] cascade means something that happens in series or in rapid succession.

Q22. In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the nearest correct meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate.Captivate

• A. Hesitate
• B. Concentrate
• C. Hate
• D. Fascinate✓

Explanation: Option [A]hesitate means reluctant to do something.Option [B] concentrate means to focus on something.Option [C] hate means to abhor or dislike someone. Option [D] Captivate means to attract or hold the attention or interest of someone.[e.g The were captivated by her charm.].Hence, option D is right.

Q23. Book lungs are present in arthropods for exchange of gases in class:

• A. Crustacea
• B. Insecta
• C. Myriapoda
• D. Arachnida✓

Explanation: Respiration in class arachnida is by gills or special structures called book lungs.So option [D] The remaining options are eliminated as follows:Option [A] crustacea are aquatic arthropods and have gills for respiration.Option [B] insecta are the largest group of animal kingdom and have trachea for respiration.Option [C] myriapoda breathe through .

Q24. Larvae of which group are similar to chordates?

• A. Echinodermata✓
• B. Annelida
• C. Arthropoda
• D. Nematoda

Explanation: The larvae of echinodermata [called dipleurula larva] is characterized by bilateral symmetry.The larvae of chordates[ tornaria larva] also has bilateral symmetry so option [A] IS RIGHT.The other options are eliminated as follows:Option [B] Annelida has a free swimming trochophore larvae which is different from that of chordates.Option [C] arthropoda has larva [called instar or nymph] is different from larvae of chordates.Option [D] nematoda has a larval stage during their life cycle which is quite different from chordates

Q25. Type of respiration which involves step by step breakdown of carbon chain molecules in the cell is called:

• A. External respiration
• B. Pulmonary respiration
• C. Cellular respiration✓
• D. Cutaneous respiration

Explanation: Cellular respiration is a set of metabolic reactions and processes that take place in the cells of organisms to convert biochemical energy from nutrients into adenosine triphosphate (ATP), which is used to power various cellular activities. ATP is often referred to as the "energy currency" of the cell. Cellular respiration occurs in three main stages: glycolysis, the citric acid cycle (also known as the Krebs cycle), and oxidative phosphorylation (including the electron transport chain and chemiosmosis).

Q26. Instrument which is used to measure relative abilities of different pigments to absorb different wavelengths of light is called:

• A. Spectrometer
• B. Photometer
• C. Barometer
• D. Spectrophotometer✓

Explanation: Option[A] A spectrometer separates and measures spectral components of a physical phenomenon.Option[B] photometer is an instrument that measures the strength of electromagnetic radiation in the range from ultraviolet to infrared and including the visible spectrum.Option[c] Barometer is an instrument used to measure atmospheric PressureOption [D] A spectrophotometer performs quantitative measurements of reflectance or transmission properties of a material as a function of wavelength.

Q27. End products of yeast fermentation, bacterial fermentation and anaerobic respiration are:

• A. Citric acid, lactic acid, carbon dioxide and water
• B. Ethyl alcohol, citric acid and carbon dioxide
• C. Ethyl alcohol, lactic acid, carbon dioxide and water✓
• D. Methanol, lactic acid and citric acid

Explanation: Option[A] Citric acid is the product of Aspergillus Niger fermentation, lactic acid is the product of bacterial fermentation,carbon dioxide and water are products of anaerobic respiration Option[B] Ethyl alcohol is a product of yeast fermentation but citric acid is the product of Aspergillus fermentation.Option [C] Ethyl alcohol is produced during yeast fermentation,also known as alcoholic fermentation. Lactic acid is produced as a result of bacterial fermentation and water,carbon dioxide as the products of anaerobic respiration Option[D] Methanol is a product of bacterial fermentation as well as lactic acid also but citric acid is the product of Aspergillus Niger fermentation.

Q28. In human beings, what is the function of amylase in digestion?

• A. Digestion of triglycerides
• B. Digestion of lipids
• C. Digestion of all types of food
• D. Digestion of carbohydrates✓

Explanation: Option [A] Gastric Lipase breaks down Option [b] Lipase breaks down Lipids into fatty acids and glycerolOption[c] Enzymes are specific for each substrate. Different enzymes required for the breakdown of different types of foodOption [D] Amylase is the enzyme which breaks down starch[type of carbohydrate]into sugar

Q29. Where is the ileocolic sphincter located in your body?

• A. At the junction of esophagus and stomach
• B. At the junction of stomach and small intestine
• C. At the junction of ileum and large intestine✓
• D. At the junction of small intestine and large intestine

Explanation: Option[A] cardiac sphincter is present at the junction of oesophagus and stomachOption[b] pyloric sphincter is present at the junction of stomach and small intestineOption [C] ileocolic sphincter is located at the junction of the ileum and first portion of the colon of the large intestine.Option[d] specific positions of intestines are not described in this option.

Q30. The term which is employed to the loss of appetite due to fear of becoming obese is:

• A. Obesity
• B. Anorexia nervosa✓
• C. Dyspepsia
• D. Bulimia nervosa

Explanation: Option[a] Obesity is defined as accumulation of abnormal or excessive fat that may impair healthOption [B] Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterised by an abnormally low body weight and intense fear of gaining weight.Option [c] Dyspepsia means indigestion,refers to discomfort or pain that occurs in upper abdomen often after eating or drinkingOption [d] Bulimia is an eating disorder characterised by uncontrolled episodes of overeating(bingeing)

Q31. Which one of the following acts as functional unit of lungs in man?

• A. Air sac✓
• B. Trachea
• C. Larynx
• D. Bronchioles

Explanation: Option [A] Air sacs,alveoli are present at the end of bronchioles in lung where lungs and blood exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide during inhalation and exhalationOption[b] Larynx(voice box) it contains vocal cords not the part of lungsOption[c] Trachea that connects the larynx to lungs. Acts as a passage of air into lungs.( not the part of lungs)Option[d] Bronchioles are the smaller branches of the bronchi that enter each lung. Bronchioles give rise to alveoli (air sacs)

Q32. Which one of following factors is directly proportional to oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin:

• A. Carbon dioxide
• B. Temperature
• C. pH✓
• D. Light

Explanation: Option [A] the greater the carbon dioxide the lesser the capacity to carry oxygen, as Co2 increases more H+ ions are produced in blood,decreasing the Ph subsequently decreasing affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen(inversely proportional)Option[b] With the increase in temperature the ability of haemoglobin to carry oxygen decreases (inversely Proportional)Option [C] With the increase in Ph the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen increases as there are lesser H+ ions produced due to less amount of Co2 resulting in lesser O2 being dissociated from the Hb molecule. ( directly proportional with increase in Ph Hb molecules carries more oxygen) Option[d] Light has no effect on haemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen

Q33. Expiration in human beings is carried out by:

• A. Contraction of lungs
• B. Contraction of intercostal membrane
• C. Relaxation of intercostal and diaphragm muscles✓
• D. Contraction of diaphragm muscles

Explanation: Option [a] Lungs do not contractOption[b] Internal intercostal muscles contractOption [C] During expiration External intercostal muscles relax and internal intercostal muscles contract bringing rib cage down to its normal position, muscles of diaphragm Also relax with chest cavity also being reduced Option [d] Diaphragm muscles relaxes during expiration,contraction of diaphragm does not occur

Q34. Which one of the following is a precursor of steroid hormones?

• A. Glycerol
• B. Sterol
• C. Amino acids
• D. Cholesterol✓

Explanation: Option[A] Lipids are made from glycerolOption[b] Sterols are sub groups of steroidsOption[c] Amino acid is the basic unit of protein. Twenty different types of amino acid combine in different arrangements to forms various different proteinsOption [D] All steroid hormones are derived from cholesterol molecules.

Q35. Granulocytes or white blood cells are produced in:

• A. Lymph nodes
• B. Red bone marrow✓
• C. Tonsils
• D. Spleen

Explanation: Option[a] Lymph nodes don’t have a role in production of WBC,they filter substances that travel through lymphatic fluid.Option [B] Bone marrow makes stem cells, which then produces RBC,WBC and plateletsOption[c] The main function of tonsils is fighting infection, they contain a lot of WBC but do not produce them.Option[d] Spleen controls the levels of blood cells including WBC,RBC and platelets, it removes old or damaged RBC whereas WBC are destroyed in the lymphatic system.

Q36. Which one of the following statements best describes the function of sinoatrial node?

• A. It sends out electrical impulses to atrial muscles causing both atria to contract✓
• B. It consists of small number of diffusely oriented cardiac fibres
• C. It sends out electrical impulses to ventricular muscles causing both ventricles to contract
• D. It is present at upper end of left atrium

Explanation: Option [A] Sinoatrial node also known as the pacemaker is responsible for initiating the heartbeat,it generates an electrical impulse that causes both the atria to contract at the same time.Option[b] No function of Sino atrial node mentionedOption[c] Sino atrial node does not send electrical impulse to ventricles,ventricles only contract after Atrioventricular node picks up the electrical impulse and it travels through median septum causing ventricles to contract (downwards to upwards)Option[d] Sino atrial node is present in the upper wall of right atrium

Q37. The flow of lymph in lymphatic vessels is maintained by:

• A. Heart, activity of smooth muscles and valves
• B. Activity of skeletal muscles, heart and breathing movements
• C. Breathing movements, activity of skeletal muscles and valves✓
• D. Exercise, breathing movements and heart

Explanation: Option[a] heart has no role in lymph flowOption[b] Heart has no role in lymphOption [C] All mentioned factors affect the flow of lymph in lymphatic vessels i.e deep breathing helps the flow of the lymph fluid through the body,movement of skeletal muscle increases the lymph flow and valves function to bias lymph flow back towards the heart.Option[d] Heart and exercise play no role in lymph flow

Q38. Metabolic waste from metabolism of nucleic acid is:

• A. Uric acid✓
• B. Creatine
• C. Urea
• D. Creatinine

Explanation: Option [A] Uric acid is the chemical created when the body breaks down substances called purines,nucleic acid contains purines adenine,GuanineOption[b] Creatine is found naturally in muscle cells,it helps muscles produce energy during heavy lifting or high intensity exerciseOption[c] Urea is produced due to oxidation of excess amino acids in liverOption[d] creatinine is the waste product made by muscles from the normal wear and tear on muscles of the body.

Q39. The central metabolic station and clearing house of a body is:

• A. Liver✓
• B. Kidney
• C. Nephron
• D. Glomerulus

Explanation: Option [A] Liver plays a central role in all metabolic processes in the body. Responsible for metabolism of fats,proteins and carbohydrates. It is also involved in detoxification [as it filters all of the blood and breaks down poisonous substances such as alcohol and drugsOption[b] Kidney is the main excretory organ and is involved in formation of urine to excrete out all the waste products out of the body via urineOption[c] Nephron is the functional unit of kidney involved in formation of urineOption[d] Glomerulus is a network of small blood vessels in each nephron enclosed in a sac called Bowman’s

Q40. The muscles that control urine in bladder are known as:

• A. Striated muscles
• B. Smooth muscles
• C. Sphincter muscles✓
• D. Circular muscles

Explanation: Option[a] Striated muscles are either skeletal muscles or cardiac muscles not in the urinary bladder.Option[b] Smooth muscles are present throughout the body ,also exists throughout urinary system where it functions to help rid of toxins and maintain electrolyte balance but does not control the urine in bladderOption [C] Bladder has sphincter muscles,which is a smooth voluntary muscles and control the flow of urine out.Option[d] Circular muscles have a role in opening and closing of passages in the human body to regulate the flow of substances

Q41. The living cells of cartilage are called:

• A. Chrondrocytes✓
• B. Osteoblasts
• C. Ostecytes
• D. Osteoclasts

Explanation: Option [A] Chondrocytes are the cell responsible for cartilage formation cell,they are the only cells found in healthy cartilageOption[b] Osteoblasts are the bone cells primarily responsible for bone matrix proteins and mineral during early bone formationOption[c] osteocytes regulate local mineral deposition and chemistry at the bone Matrix levelOption[d] osteoclasts is a-specialised cell that absorbs and removes bone,allowing for the development of a new bone and mantainenance bone strength.(bone dissolving cells)

Q42. The disease which causes immobility and fusion of vertebral joints is:

• A. Osteomalacia (soft bones)
• B. Disc slip
• C. Arthritis
• D. Spondylosis✓

Explanation: Options [A] osteomalacia is a group of diseases in which bone resorption outpaces bone deposit[ it means there is more bone depletion than bone deposition].It is the softening of bones.Option [B] disc slip or herniated disc involves the rupture of annulus fibrosis followed by protrusion of the spongy nucleus pulposis.Option [C] arthritis is an inflammatory or degenerative disease that damage joints.Option [D] Spondylosis is the disease which causes immobility and fusion of joint. It is an age related condition in which the joint and cartilage lined disc are affected. So option [D] is right.

Q43. During muscle contraction:

• A. I-band shortens✓
• B. Myosin filaments shorten
• C. Actin filaments shorten
• D. Z-line disappears

Explanation: Option [A] During muscle contraction the following things happen:I band shortensZ lines come closerH zone disappearsHENCE option [A] is right.Option [B] is incorrect because myosin[thick] filaments do not shorten during contraction.Option [C] is incorrect because actin [thin] filaments do not shorten .Option [D] is incorrect because Z lines do not disappear but they just come closer together

Q44. Hormones are the organic compounds of varying structural complexity. Which of the following is not a function or property of these compounds?

• A. They initiate new biochemical reactions✓
• B. They are poured directly into blood
• C. They may be proteins
• D. They affect target cells

Explanation: Option [A] Hormones do not start a new biochemical reaction itself instead whenever a stimulus hormone is released in blood and reaches the target site to perform a corrective mechanism.Option[B] Hormones are directly released into blood and reach their target site via bloodOption[C] They can be proteins eg insulin,glucagonOption[D] Hormones affect only the target cells to perform a corrective mechanism eg glucagon only affects liver cells.

Q45. Reflexes and instincts type of behaviours respond to which combinations?

• A. Biological rhythms, territorial, courtship and development
• B. The responses that do produce same result in different conditions
• C. Aggression, mating and altruism✓
• D. The responses that are predetermined like differentiation

Explanation: A is incorrect because development is not a type of reflexes and instincts.B is incorrect because reflexes and instincts are extremely complex behaviours.C is correct since reflexes and instincts include biological rhythms,territorial behaviour, courtship, mating, aggression, social hierarchies and social organizations.D is incorrect because reflexes and instincts have no role in differentiation like processes.

Q46. A typical neuron at rest:

• A. Is more positive outside than inside✓
• B. Is more negative outside than inside
• C. Has no charge on either side
• D. Has an equal charge on either side

Explanation: Option [A] A typical neuron is more positive outside than inside due to the presence of Na+ K+ pump which countertransports 3Na+ outside and 2K+ inside, removing one extra positive charge outside every time movement occurs.Option[B] At rest neuron is more positive outsideOption [c] Counter-transports of ions occurs in an unequal amount resulting in chargesOption[D] 3 Na+ move outside and 2K+ inside via sodium-potassium pump therefore unequal charge on either side

Q47. The first cells produced by the repeated cell division of germinal epithelium of testis are:

• A. Interstitial cells
• B. Spermatogonia✓
• C. Secondary spermatocytes
• D. Spermatids

Explanation: Option [A] interstitial cells are present between the seminiferous tubules of testis and secrete testosterone hormone.Option [B] Each testis consists of seminiferous tubules in which repeated division by cells of the germinal epithelium produce spermatogonia.These increase in size and differentiate into primary spermatocytes.So option B IS RIGHT.Option [C] secondary spermatocytes are formed by meiotic division[ meiosis 1] of primary spermatocytes.Option [D] spermatids are formed by meiosis [meiosis 2] of secondary spermatocytes’

Q48. Which of the following sequence is correct?

• A. LH → FSH → Estrogen → Progesterone
• B. FSH → LH → Progesterone → Estrogen
• C. FSH → Estrogen → Progesterone → LH
• D. FSH → Estrogen → LH → Progesterone✓

Explanation: [A] FSH is produced in the start in menstrual cycle not LH[B] FSH stimulates the production of Estrogen[C] LH is produced first before progesterone[D] In the start of the menstrual cycle FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone)is released during the beginning stimulating the production of Oestrogen from ovaries that vascularise the endometrium and then decrease in FSH and increase in Estrogen Produces LH and after Ovulation corpus Luteum secretes Progesterone.

Q49. Which chromosomal abnormality in humans causes aggressive and antisocial behavior?

• A. XO
• B. XXY
• C. XYY✓
• D. XXX

Explanation: [A] XO chromosomal abnormality results in Turner syndrome which does not causes aggression and antisocial behaviour[B] XXY,Klinefelter syndrome does not result in aggressions and antisocial behaviour[C] XYY (supermale) may act on brain’s lambic system which regulates man’s most primitive drives,including his impulse towards violence,aggression[D] XXX is a metafemale syndrome.

Q50. Grey equatorial cytoplasm produces:

• A. Muscle cells
• B. Gut
• C. Notochord and neural tube✓
• D. Larval epidermis

Explanation: [A]Sarcoplasm is the cytoplasm of muscle cell which is yellow in colour[B] Gut is produced by grey vegetal cytoplasm[C] Notochord and neural tubules are produced by Grey editorial cytoplasm[D] Larval epidermis is produced by clear cytoplasm

Q51. Sickle cell Anaemia is an example of which type of chromosomal defect?

• A. Chromosomal rearrangement
• B. Transposition of gene
• C. Chromosomal aberration
• D. Point mutation✓

Explanation: Option [A] chromosomal rearrangement includes inversions,reciprocal translocations that can have effect on gene expression through positive effects Option [B] Transposition of gene is the change in gene position.Option [C] chromosomal aberrations are the mega changes which involve presence of an extra chromosome or loss of chromosome from diploid number of chromosomes.Option [D] In Sickle cell anaemia,the 6th amino acid[ glutamic acid] is replaced by another amino acid [valine] in each haemoglobin BETA chain so haemoglobin is unable to carry out its normal function of carrying oxygen [haemoglobin becomes abnormal].In the nucleotide order,the nitrogenous base thymine is replaced by adenine.Since there is alterations in the sequence of DNA nucleotide so it is an example of POINT MUTATION [If alterations involve one or a few base pairs in the coding sequence they are called point mutation]. Hence option D is right.

Q52. The karyotype of an individual is _ of chromosomes.

• A. Number
• B. Types
• C. Number, types and chemical composition
• D. Number and types✓

Explanation: [A] Does not refer only on number of chromosome[B] does not refer to the type of chromosomes only[C] does not refer to chemical composition of chromosomes[D] Karyotype of an individual refers to complete set of chromosomes that includes the number and set of chromosomes in that set

Q53. The process of replication of DNA begins at:

• A. One place only without any specific sequence of DNA
• B. One or more places without any specific sequence of DNA
• C. Any place with the uncoiling of two strands of DNA
• D. One or more places where there is a specific sequence of nucleotides✓

Explanation: The process of DNA replication begins at one or more places where there is a specific sequence of nucleotides. These specific sequences where DNA replication initiates are known as the origins of replication. The DNA molecule is unwound, and the replication machinery assembles at these specific sites, allowing for the controlled and accurate duplication of the DNA. The presence of origins of replication ensures that DNA replication occurs at the right place and at the right time in the cell cycle. The exact locations of origins of replication vary between organisms and the specific DNA sequence recognized at these origins can differ, but they are always specific and serve as starting points for DNA replication.

Q54. Amino acid attaches at which site of RNA:

• A. Anticodon site
• B. Ribosomes recognition site
• C. 3’-site with terminal OH✓
• D. Activation enzyme recognition site

Explanation: [A] At anticodon site is complementary to a corresponding codon in mRNA and binds to that specific complementary codons[B] Ribosome recognition site plays an important role in translational initiation [C] Amino acids are attached to the tRNA 3'-end as a prerequisite for entering the ribosome for protein synthesis.[D] Activation enzyme site is imp for binding of speecfic enzymes required for translation

Q55. Microtubules of spindle fibres are composed of a protein called

• A. Tubulin✓
• B. Actin
• C. Myosin
• D. Troponin

Explanation: [A] The tubulin proteins α- and β polymerize into long chains or filaments that form microtubules.[B] Actin forms microfilaments in the cytoskeleton[C] Myosin protein is found in muscle cells, converts chemical energy in the form of ATP to mechanical energy,generating force and movement[D] Troponin,protein found in the muscles of heart

Q56. The kinetochore fibres contract and spindle or pole fibres elongate during:

• A. Prophase I
• B. Metaphase I
• C. Telophase I
• D. Anaphase I✓

Explanation: [A] During prophase no separation of chromosomes occurs instead they only condense and thicken during prophase[B] During Metaphase the cell’s chromosomes align in the centre(equatorial line) of dividing cell[C] During telophase spindle disappears and nucleus reforms around each of the membrane[D] Kinetochore is a protein attached with centromere,holding two chromatids together. Spindle fibres are connected to kinetochore, spindle fibres contacts causing kinetochore to contact.It is during Anaphase when each pair of chromosomes is separated into two identical chromosomes.

Q57. Cell death due to tissue damage is called:

• A. Necrosis✓
• B. Metastasis
• C. Apoptosis
• D. Epistasis

Explanation: [A] Necrosis is the death of a body tissue,occurring when too little blood flows to the tissue.[B]Metastasis means that cancer has spread to different parts of body[C] Apoptosis the process of programmed cell death[D] Epistasis is a circumstance where the expression of one gene is modified by expression of one or more gene

Q58. When a disease is transmitted directly from an affected father to his son, it is called:

• A. X-linked
• B. Autosomal
• C. Y-linked✓
• D. X and Y-linked

Explanation: [A] X-linked traits are not only transmitted from father to son but can be also transmitted to her daughter[B] Autosomal disease can be transferred from one parent to a child no specific pattern[C] Y-linked traits transmission occurs only in males so if a mail has a trait so should his father and paternal grandfather as well as his sons and their sons[D] Y-linked is transferred from males to males only but not X-linked

Q59. Epistasis is a relationship between:

• A. Alleles of a gene
• B. Two different genes at the same locus
• C. Two contrasting traits
• D. Two different genes at different loci✓

Explanation: [A] Epistasis not linked to alleles of genes[B] Two different genes are at the different loci[C] Two contrasting traits are two different types of possibilities of a trait[D] Epistasis is a circumstance where the expression of one gene is modified by expression of one or more gene.

Q60. Gene for albinism in man is present on chromosome number:

• A. 11✓
• B. 22
• C. 21
• D. 12

Explanation: [A] Gene for albinism, sickle cell anaemia and leukaemia is present at chromosomes number 11.[B] Not present at chromosomes 22.[C] Not present on chromosome 21.[D] not present on chromosome 12.

Q61. Gene can be synthesized in laboratory from messenger RNA by using:

• A. Restriction enzymes
• B. cDNA (complementary DNA)
• C. Vector
• D. Reverse transcriptase✓

Explanation: [A] Restriction enzymes recognize a specific sequence of nucleotides in double stranded DNA and cut the DNA at a specific location [B] CDNA is incorrect as it is generated using reverse transcriptase.[C] Vector is the molecule that carries the recombinant DNA and this DNA is introduced into host for gene expression[D] Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme used to generate complementary DNA[cDNA] from an RNA template.

Q62. Antibiotic resistance gene for tetracycline and ampicillin are present in the plasmid:

• A. pSC 101
• B. pCR 101
• C. pBR 322✓
• D. pBR 233

Explanation: [A] pSC101 has antibiotic resistance for tetracycline only[C] pBR322 has antibiotic resistance gene for both Tetracycline and Ampicillin[B&D] neither pCR101 and pBR233 have antibiotic resistance for tetracycline nor for ampicillin

Q63. Cloning is a form of:

• A. Parthenogenesis
• B. Sexual Reproduction
• C. Apomixis
• D. Asexual Reproduction✓

Explanation: Explanation: Cloning is a form of Asexual reproduction as it does not involve two DNA from two parents and offsprings are genetically identical to the parents. Parthenogenesis is a form of Asexual reproduction in which an egg develops into an embryo without being fertilized by a sperm. Sexual reproduction is a form of reproduction in which genetic material from two parents is combined to produce offspring with unique genetic characteristics. This is different from cloning, which involves the replication of genetic material from a single parent. Apomixis is a form of Asexual reproduction in which seeds are produced without fertilization. This is different from cloning, which typically involves the replication of genetic material from a single cell or individual. .

Q64. Group of interbreeding individuals of particular species, sharing common geographical area is called:

• A. Population✓
• B. Community ecology
• C. Community
• D. Autecology

Explanation: [A] Correct definition for population[B] Community ecology;community ecology, study of the organisation and functioning of communities, which are assemblages of interacting populations of the species living within a particular area or habitat. [C] Community;all population within ecosystem are now as community[D]Autecology;study of a particular species

Q65. Which of the following proteins is common in man and aerobic bacteria?

• A. Haemoglobin
• B. Myoglobin
• C. Cytochrome c✓
• D. Pilin

Explanation: [A] Haemoglobin is not found in aerobic bacteria only in man[B] Myoglobin is found in man only[C] found in both man and aerobic bacteria s it plays a key role in ATP synthesis in Mitochondrion[D] pillin found in pious structure of aerobic bacteria only not in man

Q66. Ozone filters ultraviolet radiations from the sun in the upper:

• A. Biosphere
• B. Atmosphere✓
• C. Lithosphere
• D. Hydrosphere

Explanation: [A] Biosphere is made up of the parts of earth where life exists[B] Atmosphere is the layer of gases around earth and ozone is present in it to filter uv rays from sun[C] Lithosphere is the solid outer part of earth[D] hydrosphere; total amount of water on a planet

Q67. A parasite living inside body of the host is called:

• A. Ectoparasite
• B. Obligate parasite
• C. Facultative parasite
• D. Endoparasite✓

Explanation: [A] Ectoparasite;parasite that lives outside of its host[B] obligate parasite is the parasite that cannot complete its life cycle without exploiting a host[C] Facultative Parasite’s life cycle does not completely depend on the host[D] Endoparasite e.g tapeworm that lives insides the host

Q68. The non-protein part of enzyme which is covalently and permanently bonded is called

• A. Prosthetic Group✓
• B. Co-Factor
• C. Coenzyme
• D. Activator

Explanation: Option A: If the non protein part is covalently[permanently] bonded with the protein part of enzyme ,it is known as prosthetic group.[e.g an iron containing porphyrin ring attached to some enzymes like cytochrome.]. So the right option is AThe other options are eliminated as follows:Option B: cofactor is the nonprotein part of enzyme which is required for proper functioning of enzyme. It has 3 types:ActivatorProsthetic groupcoenzymeOption C: coenzyme is the nonprotein part which is organic and loosely attached to the protein part. E.g NADP+/ATPOption D: activator The detachable [means it is loosely attached] co factor is known as an activator if it is an inorganic ion[e.g Mg+,Fe+,Zn+2 etc]

Q69. One of the pyrimidine bases is absent in DNA:

• A. Uracil✓
• B. Thymine
• C. Cytosine
• D. Adenine

Explanation: [A] Uracil is a pyramiding present in RNA but not in DNA[B] Thymine(pyrimidine) is present in DNA[C] Cytosine(pyrimidine) is also present in DNA[D] Adenine is a purine present in DNA

Q70. Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by:

• A. Increasing Temperature
• B. Decreasing Activation Energy✓
• C. Decreasing pH
• D. Increasing Activation Energy

Explanation: B is correct. They increase the rate of reaction by decreasing the activation energy.

Q71. Which one of the following diseases caused by enveloped RNA virus and spread in epidemic form?

• A. Influenza✓
• B. Herpes Simplex
• C. Polio
• D. Smallpox

Explanation: [A] Influenza is RNA based virus and enveloped also[B] Herpes is not caused by Enveloped RNA virus[C] Polio is caused by non-enveloped RNA virus[D] Smallpox not cause by RNA virus but by various virus

Q72. The structure which contains the gene for drug resistance bacteria are:

• A. Nucleoids
• B. Mesosomes
• C. Chromatin Bodies
• D. Plasmids✓

Explanation: [A] Nucleoids contains genetic material no role is drug resistance [B] mesosomes is the convoluted membranous structure in prokaryotic cell with no role in drug resistance[C] Chromatin bodies have no role in Drug Resitance[D] Drug resistance is also caused by transfer of plasmid from one bacteria to another i.e bacteria can become resistant to multiple antibiotics by picking up a single plasmid.

Q73. Antibiotics that kill microbes immediately are called:

• A. Microbistatic
• B. Microbicidal✓
• C. Biostatic
• D. Chemotherapeutic

Explanation: A microbicidal approach refers to strategies, treatments, or agents that are designed to kill or destroy microorganisms, including bacteria, fungi, viruses, and other microorganisms. Microbicidal methods are employed to disinfect, sterilize, or eliminate harmful pathogens in various contexts, such as healthcare, sanitation, and laboratory settings. Unlike microbiostatic methods, which inhibit the growth of microorganisms without necessarily killing them, microbicidal approaches are intended to be lethal to the microorganisms.

Q74. Which one of the following fungi causes vaginal thrush?

• A. Candida✓
• B. Aspergillus
• C. Tortula
• D. Penicillium

Explanation: Option [A] Most thrush is caused by Candida albicans. This fungus exists naturally in the vagina,mouth, bowel and elsewhere.So right option is A.Option [B] Aspergillus causes fungal infection of usually the lungs.Option [C] Tortula is a fungus which adds a smoky,umami flavor to foods.Option [D] Penicillium sp.[blue,green molds] are wide spread saprotrophic species common on decaying fruit,bread etc

Q75. Body cavity of roundworms is called:

• A. Pseudocoelom✓
• B. Coelom
• C. Acoelom
• D. Enteron

Explanation: [A] Roundworms have pseudocoelom and is covered with tough cuticles between the endoderm and mesoderm.[B] Coelom: principal body cavity inside the coelom.[C]Acoelom: an animal which lack a coelom or formal body cavity[D]Enteron: the digestive tract or system

Q76. Fasciola is endoparasite of:

• A. Colon
• B. Small Intestine
• C. Liver
• D. Bile Duct✓

Explanation: Fasciola (Liver luke) : It is an endoparasite in sheep and occasionally in human beings. It has suckers used for attachment to host tissue. It completes its life cycle in two hosts, a snail, sheep or man. It lives in the bile duct of its hosts.

Q77. Trypanosoma is transmitted in human beings by:

• A. Plasmodium
• B. House Fly
• C. Anopheles
• D. Tsetse Fly✓

Explanation: Trypanosoma, the cause of sleeping sickness and skin diseases. The common house ly carries disease causing organisms to contaminate food and cause cholera, hepatitis etc. Some species of Trypanosoma cause diseases in cattle, also.

Q78. The nervous system develops from which of the following layer during embryonic development of animals?

• A. Mesoderm
• B. Ectoderm✓
• C. Endoderm
• D. Mesoderm and Endoderm

Explanation: Option [A]Mesoderm gives rise to muscular,skeletal and reproductive systemsOption [B] After embryonic development the body layers[ ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm] in most triploblastic animals are represented by the structures formed from them. The systems such as integumentary and nervous system develop from Option [C] Endoderm forms the lining of the digestive tract and forms other glands of the digestive system, such as the liver.Option [D] Mesoderm and Endoderm [same as above]

Q79. Endosperm is formed as a result of:

• A. Pollination
• B. Self-Pollination
• C. Double Fertilisation✓
• D. Cross Pollination

Explanation: [A] Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from male anther of a flower to the female stigma[B] Pollen is transferred from any flower of the same plant.[C] Double fertilisation involves two sperm cells; one fertilizes the egg cell to form the zygote, while the other fuses with the two polar nuclei that form the endosperm.[D] Cross Pollination, transfer of pollen comes from a flower on a different plant

Q80. Which of the following enzyme is released in an inactive form:

• A. Amylase
• B. Lipase
• C. Enterokinase
• D. Pepsin✓

Explanation: [A] Amylase is release in mouth in active form[B] Lipase is released in pancreatic juice to break down fats[C] Enterokinase is a protease of the intestinal brush border that specifically cleaves the acidic propeptide from trypsinogen to yield active trypsin[D] Pepsin is released in the stomach as Pepsinogen and activated by the low Ph of stomach.

Q81. Which of the following hormones stimulate the secretion of pancreatic juice from pancreas in the liver?

• A. Secretin✓
• B. Pepsinogen
• C. Gastrin
• D. Both Gastrin and Secretin

Explanation: [A] Secretin is a hormone released by duodenum which stimulates secretion by the liver and pancreas[B] Pepsinogen is released in stomach to break down protease[C] Gastrin is a peptide hormone that stimulates secretion of gastric acid[D] Only secretin stimulates secretion by the liver and pancreas

Q82. In large intestine, vitamin K is formed by the activity of:

• A. Symbiotic Bacteria✓
• B. Obligate Bacteria
• C. Parasitic Bacteria
• D. Facultative Bacteria

Explanation: [A] Symbiotic bacteria are bacteria that live in a symbiotic relationship with other organisms, it benefits both the organisms like Escherichia coli live in symbiotic association in human intestine and produce large quantities of vitamin K and bin human intestine [B]An obligate aerobe is an organism that requires oxygen to grow. Through cellular respiration, these organisms use oxygen to metabolise substances, like sugars or fats, to obtain energy.[C] parasite bacteria lives on or in a host organism and gets its food from or at the expense of its host[D] Bacteria that can use dissolved oxygen (DO) or oxygen obtained from food materials such as sulphate or nitrate ions, or some can respire through glycolysis

Q83. During swallowing of food which structure closes the nasal opening?

• A. Hard Palate
• B. Soft Palate✓
• C. Epiglottis
• D. Larynx

Explanation: Option [A] hard palate plays a significant role as it separates the oral cavity from the nasal cavity and aiding swallowing and speaking.Option [B] The backward movement of the tongue pushes the soft palate up and closes the nasal opening at the back.So option [B] is right.Option [c] epiglottis ;The epiglottis is a flap of cartilage which is forced by the tonge[during swallowing] into more or less horizontal position thus closing the opening of the windpipe[the glottis].Option[D] larynx is the cartilage round the top of the windpipe which moves upward under the back of the tongue during swallowing

Q84. The right atrium of the heart usually receives the

• A. Deoxygenated Blood✓
• B. Oxygenated Blood
• C. Filtered Blood
• D. Non-Filtered Blood

Explanation: [A] Right atrium receives the deoxygenated blood from vena cava after which does into right ventricle and moves through pulmonary artery into lungs and gets oxygenated[B] Oxygenated blood is received in left atrium from pulmonary vein[C] Blood is not filtered in heart but in kidneys where ultrafiltration occurs to removes the toxins from blood[C] Heart is not concerned with the filtration of blood

Q85. The largest lymph duct called thoracic lymph duct drains into:

• A. Subclavian Vein✓
• B. Renal Vein
• C. Pulmonary Vein
• D. Hepatic Portal Vein

Explanation: a) Subclavian VeinThe subclavian veins are major veins located in the upper chest region, near the collarbone. While they play a role in draining blood from the upper limbs, head, and neck, they are not directly associated with the drainage of the largest lymph duct.

Q86. Which protein plays a major role in maintaining osmotic balance?

• A. Albumin✓
• B. Globulin
• C. Fibrinogen
• D. Prothrombin

Explanation: Option [A] The plasma proteins maintain colloidal osmotic pressure of blood. [75% by albumin , 25% by globulins and almost none by fibrinogen].By keeping in mind these percentages, we know that albumin is the major plasma protein of blood. Hence option A is right. Option [B] Globulins participate in the immune system (i.e. immunoglobulins) and also act as transport proteins. Option [C] Fibrinogen and Option [D] Prothrombin are involved in the clotting process.

Q87. The type of agranulocytes which stays in blood for a few hours and then enters tissues and become macrophages are:

• A. Lymphocytes
• B. Monocyte✓
• C. Eosinophils
• D. Basophils

Explanation: Option [A] Lymphocytes are the agranulocytes .They create antibodies to fight against bacteria, viruses, and other potentially harmful invaders.Lymphocytes have life spans of months or even years but this depends on the body’s need for these cells. Option [B] Agranulocytes include monocytes and lymphocytes [B and T].Monocytes stay in blood from 10 to 20 hours ,then enter tissues and become tissue macrophages performing phagocytotic function.Hence option B is right.Option [C]EosinophilS are granulocytes which inactivates inflammation producing substances and attacks parasites.Option [D]Basophils are granulocytes that releases heparin to prevent blood clots and histamine which causes inflammation.

Q88. Reabsorption of water by countercurrent multiplier mechanism takes place at:

• A. Proximal Tubule
• B. Distal Tubule
• C. Collecting Duct
• D. Loop of Henle✓

Explanation: The interstitial fluid of kidney is gradually concentrated from cortical to medullary part ,thus inner medulla is highly concentrated with the presence of urea and through a mechanism called counter current multiplier. This mechanism causes gradual osmotic outflow of water from filtrate back to kidney as it passes downward in the descending loop of henle. Hence option D is right.

Q89. Antiduretic hormone helps in reabsorption of water by changing permeability of:

• A. Proximal Tubule
• B. Distal Tubule
• C. Collecting Duct✓
• D. Loop of Henle

Explanation: Antidieuretic hormone causes vesicles, which act as aquaporins, to fuse into the membranes of the collecting duct, allowing more water to be reabsorbed.

Q90. During peritoneal dialysis, dialysis fluid is introduced into which part of the human body?

• A. Liver
• B. Abdomen✓
• C. Kidney
• D. Pancreas

Explanation: Peritoneal indicates that it involves the abdominal cavity, thus dialysis fluid is introduced into the abdomen during peritoneal cavity.

Q91. Aldosterone helps in conservation or active absorption of:

• A. Sodium✓
• B. Calcium
• C. Potassium
• D. Bicarbonate Ions

Explanation: [A] Aldosterone is a steroid hormone secreted by adrenal glands and its main role is to regulate salt and water levels in blood.[B] Aldosterone does not control the levels of calcium[C]Aldosterone does not control the levels of potassium[D]Aldosterone does not control the levels of Bicarbonate ions

Q92. Maximum reabsorption takes place in which part of the nephron?

• A. Distal Tubule
• B. Villi
• C. Cortical Tissue
• D. Proximal Tubule✓

Explanation: [A] Most of the reabsorption does not occur in DCT cells[B] Villi increases the surface area for absorption in Intestine not in nephron[C] Cortical tissue does not exists in nephron[D] most of the selective reabsorption occurs in the PCT cells, reabsorption of glucose occurs completely and 60 to 70% of selective reabsorption occurs in PCT cells but some also occurs n DCT cells e.g of water

Q93. In an electrochemical series, standard electrode potentials are arranged on the basis of:

• A. pH scale
• B. pOH scale
• C. Hydrogen Scale✓
• D. pKa scale

Explanation: A is incorrect as pH scale is a tool to measure pH(acidity) of a B is incorrect as pOH scale is a tool to measure pOH(alkalinity) of a solution.C is correct as in an electrochemical cell set-up, standard electrode potentials are set up on the basis of hydrogen potential.D is incorrect as pKa is -log of Ka of a solution

Q94. The reaction which is responsible for the production of electricity in the voltaic cell is:

• A. Hydrolysis reaction
• B. Oxidation reaction
• C. Redox reaction✓
• D. Reduction reaction

Explanation: A is incorrect as definition of hydrolysis is:Hydrolysis is a chemical reaction of the interaction of chemicals with water, leading to the decomposition of both the substance and water.B is incorrect as oxidation is the loss of electrons or an increase in the oxidation state, it only takes place at the anode.C is correct, as redox is when both oxidation and reduction occur simultaneously.Redox reactions occur so energy is provided for the voltaic cell.D is incorrect as while reduction is the gain of electrons or a decrease in the oxidation state, it only happens at the cathode

Q95. Glucose is converted into ethanol by the enzyme _ present in yeast.

• A. Urease
• B. Invertase
• C. Sucrase
• D. Zymase✓

Explanation: A is incorrect as,urease, is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of urea, forming ammonia and carbon dioxide.B is incorrect as invertase enzyme breaks down molasses into glucose and fructose.C is incorrect as sucrase, is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of sucrose, formingGlucose and fructose.Invertase is another name for sucrase enzyme, hence they are the same.D is correct as Zymase is an enzyme complex that catalyzes the fermentation of sugar into ethanol and carbon dioxide. It occurs naturally in yeasts.

Q96. The rate of reaction involving ions can be studied by _ method.

• A. Dilatometric
• B. Refractometric
• C. Optical rotation
• D. Electrical conductivity✓

Explanation: A is incorrect as a dilatometer is a scientific instrument that measures volume changes caused by a physical or chemical process.B is incorrect as refractometry is an optical analytical technique used to establish the refractive index of transparent and translucent substances. The method provides information about the substance's chemical composition, purity, and physical properties and is commonly used as a quality control method.C is incorrect as optical rotation, also known as polarization rotation or circular birefringence, is the rotation of the orientation of the plane of polarization about the optical axis of linearly polarized light as it travels through certain materials.D is correct as electrical conductivity tells us how well a material will allow electricity to travel through it.

Q97. When one mole of gaseous hydrogen ions are dissolved in water to form an infinitely dilute solution, the amount of heat liberated is:

• A. -1891 kJmol-1
• B. -1075 kJmol-1✓
• C. -499 kJmol-1
• D. -1562 kJmol-1

Explanation: A is incorrect as value is not factually correct.B is correct as H+ + H2O(l) → H3O+(aq) -1075 (fact)C is incorrect as value is not factually correct.D is incorrect as value is not factually correct

Q98. Energy required to remove an electron from the outermost shell of its isolated gaseous atom in the ground state is:

• A. Electron affinity
• B. Lattice energy
• C. Ionization energy✓
• D. Crystal energy

Explanation: A is incorrect as electron affinity is the amount of energy released when an electron attaches to a neutral atom or molecule in the gaseous state to form an anion.B is incorrect as lattice energy is a measure of the energy contained in the crystal lattice of a compound, equal to the energy that would be released if the component ions were brought together from infinity.C is correct as minimum energy required to remove the most loosely bound electron of an isolated gaseous atom, positive ion, or molecule.D is incorrect as crystal energy is the energy required to hold a crystal together

Q99. Which of the following carbonates of alkali metals is not stable towards heat and is decomposed on heating to its oxide along with liberation of CO2?

• A. Li2CO3✓
• B. Mg2CO3
• C. K2CO3
• D. Na2CO3

Explanation: A is correct as Lithium carbonate is not stable to heat. Hence, it decomposes at a lower temperature.B is incorrect as Mg2CO3 is stable upon heating.C is incorrect as K2CO3 is stable upon heating.D is incorrect as Na2CO3 is stable upon heating

Q100. The presence of calcium is essential for the normal development of plants. An adequate supply of calcium appears to stimulate the development of which part of the plants?

• A. Leaves
• B. Fruits
• C. Root hairs✓
• D. Branches

Explanation: A is incorrect as the growth of the leaves is dependent on nitrogen.B is incorrect as the development of fruit depends on phosphorous.C is correct as root hair development is stimulated by calcium. The entire root system is dependent on calcium.D is incorrect as stem growth is also dependent on nitrogen

Q101. Which of the following sulphates is not soluble in water?

• A. Sodium Sulphate
• B. Barium Sulphate✓
• C. Potassium Sulphate
• D. Zinc Sulphate

Explanation: A is incorrect as sodium sulphate isnt soluble in water.B is correct as barium sulphate isnt soluble in water because it has a high lattice energy.C is incorrect because potassium sulphate is soluble in water.D is incorrect as zinc sulphate is soluble in water.

Q102. The trend in the densities of elements of Group III-A of the Periodic Table is

• A. A gradual increase✓
• B. A gradual decrease
• C. First decrease then increase
• D. First increase then decrease

Explanation: A is correct because as we move further along a group, mass of the atoms increases due to increased no. of protons and neutrons, hence the nucleus experiences stronger attractive forces and atomic radius becomes smaller.B is incorrect as density doesnt decrease, it increases.C is incorrect as it only increases.D is incorrect as it only decreases

Q103. White lead has one of the following properties:

• A. Acidic
• B. Crystalline
• C. Amorphous✓
• D. Neutral

Explanation: A is incorrect as Lead is basic and not acidic.B is incorrect as it is not crystalline.C is correct as it is amorphous.Definition:Noncrystalline solid in which the atoms and molecules are not organized in a definite lattice patternD is incorrect as Lead is not neutral, it is basic.

Q104. The strongest acid among the following is:

• A. HF
• B. HI✓
• C. HCl
• D. HBr

Explanation: A is incorrect as HF is not a strong acid.B is correct as Iodine and hydrogen have the lowest bond energy,hence less energy would be required for it to lose a proton.C is incorrect as HCl isn't as strong as HI.D is incorrect as HBr isn't as strong as HI.

Q105. The noble gas which is used in radiotherapy of cancer is

• A. Radon✓
• B. Xenon
• C. Krypton
• D. Argon

Explanation: A is correct as radan has radioactive tendencies and is used as radiation therapy for cancer patients.The alpha particles emitted by the radon have the capacity to kill the cells (localized) of cancer, hence it is used in the treatment of various types of cancer (liver cancer, intestine cancer)B is incorrect as xenon is used in bactericidal lamps.C is incorrect as krypton is used for other purposes (filling fluorescent lights etc)D is incorrect as Argon is used in Geiger counter and light bulbs

Q106. Paramagnetic behavior of an atom, ion or molecule is due to presence

• A. Unpaired electrons✓
• B. Paired electrons
• C. Protons
• D. Neutrons

Explanation: A is correct as the presence of unpaired electrons results in a weak attraction to magnets.An unpaired electron has a magnetic dipole moment, while an electron pair has no dipole moment because the two electrons have opposite spins so their magnetic dipole fields are in opposite directions and cancel. Thus an atom with unpaired electrons acts as a magnetic dipole and interacts with a magnetic field.B is incorrect as the presence of paired electrons results in diamagnetism.C is incorrect as magnetism isnt affected by protons.D is incorrect as magnetism isnt affected by neutrons

Q107. The geometry of the complexes depends upon the type of _ taking place in the valence shell of the central metal atom.

• A. Hybridization✓
• B. Protonation
• C. Deprotonation
• D. Dissociation

Explanation: A is correct as geometry of complexes in dependent upon hybridizationHybridization is the idea that atomic orbitals fuse to form newly hybridized orbitals, which in turn, influences molecular geometry and bonding propertiesB is incorrect as geometry isn't dependent on protonation.C is incorrect as geometry isn't dependent on deprotonation.D is incorrect as geometry isn't dependent on disassociation

Q108. KMnO4 acts as a/an:

• A. Reducing agent
• B. Excellent precipitating reagent
• C. Germicide
• D. Oxidizing agent✓

Explanation: A is incorrect as KMnO4 isnt a reducing agent.B is incorrect as KMnO4 isnt a precipitating agent.C is incorrect as KMnO4 isnt used in germicide.D is correct as KMnO4 is a strong oxidising agent,it gets reduced in the process. (fact)

Q109. A gasoline of higher octane number can be obtained by:

• A. Oxidative cleavage
• B. Thermal cracking
• C. Catalytic cracking✓
• D. Steam cracking

Explanation: A is incorrect as oxidative cleavage does not produce gasoline with a high octane number.A reaction in which a carbon-carbon bond is cleaved, with simultaneous oxidation of the carbons that had formed the carbon-carbon bond.B is incorrect as thermal cracking produces unsaturated hydrocarbons.C is correct as catalytic cracking is done to produce gasoline,diesel etc.D is incorrect as steam cracking produces lower unsaturated hydrocarbons

Q110. Ethyne molecule is formed when two carbon atoms joined together to form a sigma bond by:

• A. sp-s overlap
• B. sp3-sp3 overlap
• C. 2py-2py overlap
• D. sp-sp overlap✓

Explanation: A is incorrect as sp-s overlap isnt present in ethyne molecule.B is incorrect as sp3-sp3 overlap isnt present in ethyne molecule.C is incorrect as 2py-2py forms a pi bond which isnt present in ethyne molecule.D is correct as ethyne has sp-sp bonds (fact)

Q111. Symmetrical alkanes can be produced by:

• A. Sabatier Sender’s Reaction
• B. Hydrogenolysis Reaction
• C. Reduction Reaction
• D. Kolbe’s Electrolytic Reaction✓

Explanation: A is incorrect as Sabatier-Sender's reaction is the reaction in which preparation of ethane is done by the catalytic hydrogenation of ethene, it does not produce symmetrical alkanes.B is incorrect as Hydrogenolysis is a chemical reaction whereby a carbon–carbon or carbon–heteroatom single bond is cleaved or undergoes lysis (breakdown) by hydrogen, it does not produce symmetrical alkanes.C is incorrect as the reduction reaction is when a species gain electrons.D is correct as Kolbe's electrolysis method is a general method of preparation of substituted hydrocarbons from the substituted carboxylic acids by the use of the electric discharge method where carbon dioxide gas is released, it produces symmetrical alkanes

Q112. The catalyst used for the preparation of acrylonitrile is:

• A. Cu2Cl2 and NH4Cl✓
• B. Al2O3 and NH4Cl
• C. Cu2Cl2 and NH4OH
• D. Cu2Cl2 and Al2O3

Explanation: A is correct since Cu2Cl2 and NH4Cl is used as catalyst for preparation of acrylonitrileB is incorrect because Al2O3 and NH4Cl is not act as catalystC is incorrect because Cu2Cl2 and NH4OH is not act as catalystD is incorrect because Cu2Cl2 and Al2O3 is not act as catalyst

Q113. When a hydrogen atom is removed from benzene, the group left behind is called:

• A. Alkyl group
• B. Phenyl group✓
• C. Benzyl group
• D. Methyl group

Explanation: A is incorrect as alkyl group is formed when one hydrogen is removed from an alkane chain;not a benzene ring.B is correct as when one hydrogen is removed from a benzene ring, the formula becomes C6H5 (phenyl)C is incorrect as benzyl group has formula C6H5 CH2D is incorrect as when one hydrogen is removed from methane (CH3), methyl is formed.

Q114. The introduction of NO2 group in benzene ring is called ‘Nitration’. The nitration of benzene takes place when it is heated with a 1:1 mixture of _ at 50 oC-55 oC.

• A. Conc. HNO3 and conc. HCl
• B. Conc. HNO3 and conc. Acetic acid
• C. Conc. HNO3 and H3PO4
• D. Conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4✓

Explanation: A is incorrect as these reactants are not used in nitration.B is incorrect as these reactants are not used in nitration.C is incorrect as these reactants are not used in nitration.D is correct as HNO3(aq) and H2SO4(aq) are used in 1:1 ratio for nitration of benzene.(fact)

Q115. During SN2 reactions, configuration of the alkyl halide molecule:

• A. Gets inverted✓
• B. Remains same
• C. Depends upon the carbon atom
• D. Depends upon the electronegativity of halide

Explanation: A is correct as during SN2 reaction, alkyl halide molecule gets inverted.B is incorrect as during SN2 reaction, alkyl halide doesnt stay the same.C is incorrect as during SN2 reaction, configuration of alkyl halide isnt dependent upon carbon atom.D is incorrect as during SN2 reaction, configuration of alkyl halide isnt dependent upon electronegativity.

Q116. Grignard reagents are prepared by the reaction of magnesium metal with alkyl halides in the presence of:

• A. Dry Ether✓
• B. Alcohol
• C. CS2
• D. CCl4

Explanation: Explanation: Grignard reagents are prepared by the reaction of magnesium metal with alkyl halides in the presence of dry ether. Alcohols are not typically used in the preparation of grignard reagents because they can react with the grignard reagent and produce unwanted byproducts. Carbon disulfide (CS2) is sometimes used as a solvent for the preparation of grignard reagents, but it is not as common as dry ether. Carbon tetrachloride is not used in the preparation of grignard reagents because it does not solvate the magnesium metal and alkyl halide well enough.

Q117. Methanol is prepared from carbon monoxide and hydrogen. The catalyst used for this reaction is:

• A. ZnO + CoO2
• B. ZnO + CuO
• C. ZnO + Ag2O
• D. Cr2O3 + ZnO✓

Explanation: A is incorrect as CoO2 is not used as a catalyst in the preparation of methanol.B is incorrect as CuO2 is not used as a catalyst in the preparation of methanol.C is incorrect as Ag2O is not used as a catalyst in the preparation of methanol.D is correct as Cr2O3 is used as a catalyst in the preparation of methanol. CO + H2 → CH3 + OH (reaction)

Q118. Ethanol reacts with Ammonia to produce ethyl amine, the catalyst is

• A. ZnCl2
• B. ThO2✓
• C. C6H5N
• D. Cr2O3

Explanation: A is incorrect as ZnCl2 is used as a catalyst in Lucas Test.Lucas test: a test that is Designed to Differentiate and Categorize Primary, Secondary and Tertiary Alcohols Using A Solution of Anhydrous Zinc Chloride .B is correct as ThO2 is used as a catalyst when C2H5OH reacts with ammonia.C is incorrect as C6H5N is not used a catalyst in reactions with alcohol.D is incorrect as Cr2O3 is not used as a catalyst in reactions with alcohol.

Q119. Dissociation constant of phenol is:

• A. 1.2 x 10-10
• B. 1.2 x 1010
• C. 1.3 x 1010
• D. 1.3 x 10-10✓

Explanation: A is incorrect.B is incorrect.C is incorrect.D is correct as disassociation constant of phenol is 1.3 x10-10 (fact)

Q120. Dry distillation of a mixture of calcium salts of formic acid and acetic acid results into the formation of:

• A. Formaldehyde
• B. Acetaldehyde✓
• C. Calcium acetate
• D. Sodium acetate

Explanation: A is incorrect as formaldehyde is a product of calcium salt of formic acid.B is correct as Dry distillation of a mixture of the above calcium salts of acetic and formic acid respectively leads to the formation of an aldehyde. Dry distillation is the process in which the solid materials are heated to produce gaseous products.C is incorrect as calcium acetate is not a product of calcium salts of formic acid and acetic acid.D is incorrect as sodium acetate is not a product of calcium salts of formic acid and acetic acid.

Q121. Hydrolysis of cyano group by an aqueous acid results into:

• A. Carboxylic Acid✓
• B. Acid Amide
• C. Cyanohydride
• D. Formaldehyde

Explanation: A is correct as hydrolysis of a cyano group results in the formation of a carboxylic acid (fact)B is incorrect as acid amide is not a product of hydrolysis of a cyan groupC is incorrect as cyanohydride is a product of addition of hydrogen cyanide to carbonyl compounds.D is incorrect as oxidation of alcohol results in formaldehyde.

Q122. Brick red precipitates are formed when aldehydes react with:

• A. Sodium borohydride
• B. Sodium bisulphite
• C. Sodium nitroprusside
• D. Fehling’s solution✓

Explanation: A is incorrect as sodium borohydrides converts carbonyl compounds to B is incorrect as sodium bisulphate reacts with carbonyl compounds to give white precipitate,rather than red precipitate.C is incorrect as sodium nitropresside test is done to test the presence of ketones.D is correct as Fehling Solutions produce brick red precipitate when reacted with carbonyl compounds.The red colour is an indication of cuprous oxide.

Q123. The nature of the amino acid ‘lysine’ is:

• A. Neutral
• B. Acidic
• C. Amphoteric
• D. Basic✓

Explanation: A is incorrect as lysine is not neutral.B is incorrect as lysine is not acidic.C is incorrect as lysine is not amphoteric.D is correct as st a pH inferior to their pK, the lysine, arginine and histidine side chains accept an H+ ion (proton) and are positive charged. They are therefore basic.

Q124. Which of the following compounds, in the form of aqueous solution, on reaction with sodium carbonate will produce carbon dioxide gas?

• A. H3C-COO-C2H5
• B. H3C2-COO-CH3
• C. H3C2-CO-OH✓
• D. H3C2-COO-C2H5

Explanation: A is incorrect as the compound given is an ester which does not produce carbon dioxide upon reaction with sodium carbonate.B is incorrect as it is also an ester,hence it also doesnt produce carbon dioxide upon reaction with sodium carbonate.C is correct as the compound given is a carboxylic acid,it produces carbon dioxide upon reaction with sodium carbonate.D is incorrect as the given compound is unreactive with sodium carbonate.

Q125. Collagen and albumin are:

• A. Simple proteins✓
• B. Derived proteins
• C. Polyamides
• D. Polysaccharides

Explanation: A is correct as collagen and albumin are simple proteins,upon hydrolysis they produce amino acids only.B is incorrect as derived proteins are derived from simple proteins.C is incorrect as polyamide consists of repeating polymer units linked together through amide bonds.Collagen and Albumin have hydrogen bonds.D is incorrect as polysaccharide is a carbohydrate,whilst albumin and collagen are proteins.

Q126. Urea is produced by the reaction of liquid ammonia with:

• A. CO2✓
• B. CO
• C. CaO
• D. C

Explanation: A is correct as urea is produced by the reaction of CO2 B is incorrect (fact)C is incorrect (fact)D is incorrect (fact)

Q127. The calcium sulpho-aluminate is:

• A. Co.Al2O3.3CaSO4.6H2O
• B. 3Ca.Al2O3.CaSO4.2H2O
• C. 3Ca.Al2O3.3CaSO4.2H2O✓
• D. 3Ca.Al2O3.3CaSO4.6H2O

Explanation: A is incorrect as the given formula isn't calcium sulpho-aluminate.B is incorrect as the given formula isn't calcium sulpho-aluminate.C is correct as the given formula is of calcium sulpho-aluminate.D is incorrect as the given formula isn't calcium sulpho-aluminate

Q128. The coagulant used in raw water to precipitate suspended impurities is:

• A. Caustic soda
• B. Lime water
• C. Alum✓
• D. Soda ash

Explanation: A is incorrect as caustic soda is not used as a coagulant.B is incorrect as lime water is not used as a coagulant,but is used to detect the presence of CO2 gas.C is correct as alum is used as a coagulant in raw water to remove suspended impurities.D is incorrect as soda ash is not used as a coagulant

Q129. The whiteness of the recycled newspaper is improved by treating it with:

• A. Sodium hydroxide
• B. Per oxides✓
• C. Super oxides
• D. Normal oxides

Explanation: A is incorrect as sodium hydroxide is not used for whitening of newspapers.B is correct as per oxides are used to whiten old newspapers.The hydrogen peroxide bleaching process results in not only increased brightness, but also in the improvement of paper physical properties. It is now well established that carboxylic acid groups are beneficial for the bonding of pulp fibers in paper and can increase the strength of paperC is incorrect as super oxides are not used to whiten newspapers.D is incorrect as normal oxides are not used to whiten newspapers.

Q130. One mole of any gas at standard temperature and pressure (STP) occupies a volume of:

• A. 20.414 dm3
• B. 22.414 dm3✓
• C. 22.414 cm3
• D. 23.414 dm3

Explanation: A is incorrect as the given volume is not correct under standard conditions.B is correct as the given volume (22.4 dm3) is correct under standard conditions. (fact)C is incorrect as the given volume is not correct under standard conditions.D is incorrect as the given volume is not correct under standard conditions.

Q131. The relative abundance of the isotopes of the elements can be determined by:

• A. Mass Spectrometry✓
• B. X-rays
• C. Chromatography
• D. Solvent Extraction

Explanation: A is correct as mass spectrometry is a method to differentiate between different isotopes of an element.B is incorrect as X-ray cant be used to differentiate between different isotopes of an element.C is incorrect as chromatography is used to differentiate between different solvents.D is incorrect as solvent extraction is a method to extract a soluble solute from a solution.

Q132. If we are given the mass of one substance, we can calculate volume of other substances and vice a versa with the help of balanced chemical equation. This is called:

• A. Mass-mass relationship
• B. Mass-mole relationship
• C. Mole-volume relationship
• D. Mass-volume relationship✓

Explanation: A is incorrect as mass-mass relationship involves converting the mass of a reactant to moles of reactant, then using mole ratios to determine moles of product which can then be converted to mass of productB is incorrect as mass-mole relationship refers to finding moles of a substance using its mass.C is incorrect as a mole-volume relationship refers to finding volume of a substance using its moles.D is correct as mass-volume relationship refers to finding volume of a substance using its mass.mass of given → moles of given → moles of unknown → volume of unknown

Q133. Sublimation is used to purify:

• A. Ammonium sulphate
• B. Sodium chloride
• C. Benzoic acid✓
• D. Lead carbonate

Explanation: A is incorrect as ammonium sulphate is purified through centrifuging.B is incorrect as sodium chloride is purified by crystallization.C is correct as benzoic acid is purified through sublimation.D is incorrect as lead carbonate is purified through sulfation, desulfurization leaching, distillation and carbonization.

Q134. The purity of a substance can be identified by:

• A. Sublimation
• B. Filtration
• C. Chromatography✓
• D. Solvent extraction

Explanation: A is incorrect as sublimation purifies solids rather than identify themB is incorrect as filtration separates insoluble solutes from solvents.C is correct as chromatography is a tool to separate different solvents in a solute and their purification.D is incorrect as solvent extraction only extracts solutes,but doesnt identify them.

Q135. Which one of the following mathematical expressions represents the Avogadro’s law?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D✓

Explanation: D is correct as Avogadros law states - Equal volume of all ideal gases at equal temperature contain equal number of moles

Q136. The root mean square velocity of gases is inversely proportional to the square root of their:

• A. Molar mass✓
• B. Temperature
• C. Pressure
• D. Volume

Explanation: A is correct as r.m.s velocity of gases is inversely proportional to the square root of their molar masses.B is incorrect as r.m.s velocity is directly proportional to square of temperatureC is incorrect as r.m.s velocity isnt dependent upon pressureD is incorrect as r.m.s velocity isnt dependent upon volume

Q137. Plasma is the ionized gas mixture which consists of:

• A. Ions and electrons
• B. Electrons and neutral atoms
• C. Electrons, ions and neutral atoms✓
• D. Ions and neutral atoms

Explanation: A is incorrect as plasma is composed of ions,electrons and neutrals atoms.B is incorrect as plasma is composed of ions,electrons and neutrals atomsC is correct as plasma is composed of ions,electrons and neutrals atomsD is incorrect as plasma is composed of ions,electrons and neutrals atoms

Q138. Which type of force is present in gasoline?

• A. Dipole-dipole forces
• B. Dipole-induced dipole forces
• C. London dispersion forces✓
• D. Hydrogen bonding

Explanation: A is incorrect because dipole-dipole forces only occur in polar molecules.B is incorrect as dipole-induced dipole forces are present between polar and non-polar molecules.C is correct as london dispersion forces occur between non polar molecules and gasoline is non polar.D is incorrect as hydrogen bonding only occurs between atoms with high electro-negativity.

Q139. In the structure of NaCl, each Na+ is surrounded by _ Cl- ions.

• A. Four
• B. Eight
• C. Five
• D. Six✓

Explanation: A is incorrect as 6 electrons are present around each Na+ in a NaCl structure.B is incorrect as 6 electrons are present around each Na+ in a NaCl structureC is incorrect as 6 electrons are present around each Na+ in a NaCl structureD is correct as 6 electrons are present around each Na+ in a NaCl structure.NaCl has a cubic crystal system and a face-centered cubic crystalline structure. NaCl has four cations and four anions in a face-centered cubic unit cell.

Q140. The charge of one gram of electron is:

• A. 1.7588 x 10-11
• B. 1.7588 x 1011
• C. 1.602 x 10-19
• D. 1.7588 x 108✓

Explanation: A is incorrect as given value is not charge of one gram of electrons.B is incorrect as given value is charge of one kilogram of electrons.C is incorrect as given value is not charge of one gram of electrons.D is correct as given value is charge of one gram of electrons.It can be obtained by dividing the charge of one kilogram of electrons by 1000

Q141. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is :

• A. Zero
• B. 13.13 kJmol-1
• C. 1313.31 kJmol-1✓
• D. 1313.31 k2Jmol

Explanation: A is incorrect since the ionization of energy of hydrogen is not zero.B is incorrect as the given value is not the ionization energy of hydrogen.C is correct as 1313.3 kJ mol-1 is minimum energy required to remove one electron from the outershell of a hydrogen atom.D is incorrect as given value is not ionization energy of hydrogen

Q142. Which quantum number helps to study the orientation of an orbital in space?

• A. Principal Quantum Number
• B. Spin Quantum Number
• C. Magnetic Quantum Number✓
• D. Azimuthal Quantum Number

Explanation: A is incorrect as The principal quantum number, n, describes the energy of an electron and the most probable distance of the electron from the nucleusB is incorrect as The Spin Quantum Number (ms) describes the angular momentum of an electronC is correct as Magnetic Quantum Number specifies the orientation in space of an orbital of a given energy (n) and shape (l). This number divides the subshell into individual orbitals which hold the electrons; there are 2l+1 orbitals in each subshell.D is incorrect as The azimuthal (or orbital angular momentum) quantum number describes the shape of a given orbital

Q143. The inter-ionic distance in a crystal lattice of KCl is:

• A. 314 pm✓
• B. 181 pm
• C. 95 pm
• D. 300 pm

Explanation: A is correct since the interionic distance of crystal lattice of KCl is 314pmB is incorrect because the interionic distance of crystal lattice of KCl is not 181pmC is incorrect because the interionic distance of crystal lattice of KCl is not 95pmD is incorrect because the interionic distance of crystal lattice of KCl is not 300pm

Q144. The number of bonds in nitrogen molecule is:

• A. One σ and three π
• B. Three σ bonds only
• C. One σ and two π✓
• D. Two σ and one π

Explanation: In a nitrogen molecule (N2), there are one sigma (σ) bond and two pi (π) bonds. The sigma bond is formed by the head-on overlap of the two nitrogen 2p orbitals, resulting in the sharing of two electrons. The two pi bonds are formed by the side-to-side overlap of the remaining 2p orbitals, one from each nitrogen atom. Each pi bond involves the sharing of two electrons, one in a π bonding molecular orbital and one in a π antibonding molecular orbital, for a total of four electrons shared between the two pi bonds.

Q145. Which one of the following molecules has zero dipole moment?

• A. NH3
• B. CHCl3
• C. BF3✓
• D. H2O

Explanation: A is incorrect because NH3 molecule has dipole moment 1.49B is incorrect because CHCl3 molecule has dipole moment 1.01C is correct since BF3 molecule has dipole moment 0 because of its geometryD is incorrect because H2O molecule has dipole moment 1.85

Q146. A spontaneous process is:

• A. Unidirectional and irreversible
• B. Irreversible and a real process
• C. Unidirectional and a real process
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: A is incorrect because spontaneous process is also real processB is incorrect because spontaneous process is also unidirectionalC is incorrect because spontaneous process is also irreversible processD is correct because spontaneous process is a process which takes place on its own without any outside assistance. It is unidirectional, irreversible and a real process.

Q147. The standard enthalpy of solution of NH4Cl is _ kJmol-1.

• A. +16.2✓
• B. -25.0
• C. +4.98
• D. +26.0

Explanation: A is correct since enthalpy of solution is +16.2kJmol-1B, C and D are incorrect because the given values of enthalpy are not correct.

Q148. The Kc has following units for the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) ⇋ 2HI (g)

• A. mol3dm-6
• B. moldm-3
• C. mol-3dm6
• D. No unit✓

Explanation: A, B and C are incorrect since the given units aren't correct according to the equationD is correct since In equation both sides moles are equal so Kc has no unit.

Q149. 0.1 mole of acetic acid has been dissolved per dm3 of the solution, the percentage ionization of acetic acid will be

• A. 13
• B. 15
• C. 1.3✓
• D. 0.1

Explanation: A, B and D are incorrect because these are not correct percentage ionization valuesC is correct since The solution is given as CH3COOH dissociates to a small extent:CH3COOH ↔ CH3COO- + H+Calculate [H+] from the Ka equation.Ka = [H+] [[CH3COO-] / [CH3COOH]Because [H+] =[CH3COO-] and dissociation is very small, we can write the equation asKa = [H+]² / 0.1Ka = 1.8*10-51.8*10-5 = [H+]² / 0.1[H+]² = (1.8*10-5)* 0.1[H+]² = 1.8*10-6[H+] = 0.0013M% dissociation = 0.0013/0.1*100 = 1.34%

Q150. Solubility of Ce2(SO4)3.

• A. Increases with temperature
• B. Decreases with temperature
• C. Shows exceptional behavior✓
• D. Remains constant

Explanation: A is incorrect because the solubility of Ce2(SO4)3 does not increase with increase in temperature.B is incorrect because the solubility of Ce2(SO4)3 does increase but this behaviour is not constant.C is correct because the solubility of Ce2(SO4)3 shows exceptional behaviour whose solubility decrease with increase in temperature and become constant from 40C onwards.D is incorrect because the solubility of Ce2(SO4)3 does not remains constant.

Q151. Seawater has 5.65 x 10-3 g of dissolved oxygen in one kilogram of water. Concentration of O2 in parts per million is

• A. 5.65✓
• B. 7.69
• C. 5.20
• D. 4.11

Explanation: A is correct since the solution is given asGiven: Water = 103 g(1 kg), Oxygen = 5.65 x 10-3 gRequired : Oxygen in ppm = ?Formula : Ppm = value in gram / amount of water ( solvent ) x 106Ppm = 5.65 x 10-3 / 103 x 106 = 5.65ppmB, C and D are incorrect because these are not correct values in ppm

Q152. Metallic conduction involves the relatively free movement of their _ throughout the metallic lattice.

• A. Atoms
• B. Molecules
• C. Electrons✓
• D. Ions

Explanation: A is incorrect In metals atoms are not in combined form they are in electron pool type arrangementB is incorrect In metals molecules do not existC is correct since In metals electrons are in pool type arrangement and the can move within metal so the play their role in conductionD is incorrect because In metals ions are not present

Q153. Which one is the highest power multiple?

• A. Giga
• B. Tera✓
• C. Mega
• D. Deca

Explanation: Giga=10^9Tera=10^12Mega=10^6Deca=10^10The largest power multiple here is tera.So option B is correct.

Q154. SI unit of charge is _.

• A. Ampere
• B. Volt
• C. Coulomb✓
• D. Calorie

Explanation: A)Ampere is the SI unit of currentB)Volt is the SI unit of electrical p.dC)Coulomb is the SI unit of chargeD)Calories is the unit of energy

Q155. The electrical analog of mass in electricity is _.

• A. Capacitance
• B. Inductance
• C. Charge✓
• D. Resistance

Explanation: c) ChargeCharge is the fundamental property of matter that gives rise to electric interactions. It is measured in coulombs (C). While charge is a crucial aspect of electricity, it is not an analog of mass.

Q156. Which one of the following relations is correct?

• A. 1 wb m-2 = N m-1 A-1
• B. 1 Tesla = 104 Gausses
• C. 1 wb m-2 = 1 Tesla
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: Option D is best because all of the given relations are correct

Q157. Life time of electron in metastable state is about _.

• A. 10-5 sec
• B. 10-3 sec
• C. 10-8 sec✓
• D. 10-2 sec

Explanation: Metastable state is an excited state in which an excited electron is usually in a stable state and electron remains in this state for a longer time before coming back to it's normal state. It lasts for about 10^-8sec.

Q158. The torque acting on a current carrying coil is given by _.

• A. τ = NIAB cos α✓
• B. τ = BIL sin α
• C. τ = NIAB sin α
• D. τ = BIL cos α

Explanation: Option A is correct Option B is incorrect as it doesn't contain no. of loops and sin is used instead of cos because of the angle between magnetic field B and vector area A.Option C is incorrect because here sin is used instead of cos.Option D is incorrect as N is not used here.

Q159. The grid in the cathode ray oscilloscope _.

• A. Controls number of waves
• B. Controls the brightness of spot formed✓
• C. Accelerates electrons
• D. Has positive potential with respect to cathode

Explanation: A)Grid doesn't control waves, it controls electrons.C)Electrons are accelerated by anodesD)Grid is at negative potential w.r.t cathode.So option B is correct

Q160. The horizontal range of a projectile, at a certain place, is completely determined by:

• A. The angle of projection✓
• B. The initial velocity of projection
• C. The mass of the projectile
• D. Speed and mass of the projectile

Explanation: A)The horizontal distance covered by an object is called range and it is mainly determined by angle of projection and range is max. at 45 degree.So option A is correct.B)The formula for range also contains veloctiy alongwith angle and to COMPLETELY determine range both of them are required.So optiom B is incorrect.C)Mass has no role in the determination of range,so C is incorrect.D)D is incorrect bcz mass and speed can't determine range.

Q161. If velocity is double, then:

• A. Momentum increase 4 times and K.E increases 2 times
• B. Momentum and K.E remain same
• C. Momentum increases 2 times and K.E increase constant
• D. Momentum increases 2 times and K.E increases 4 times✓

Explanation: A)is incorrect Reason:Formula for momentum is p=m.vFormula for K.E is 1/2m.v^2By incr. v by two times,momentum will increase two times and K.E by 4 acc. to formula.B)is incorrect as it can be seen from above formula.C)is incorrect bcz K.E will increase 4 times.D)is correct option

Q162. The consumption of energy by 60-watt bulb in 2 seconds is:

• A. 20 J
• B. 120 J✓
• C. 30 J
• D. 0.02 J

Explanation: Formula for power is[P=E/t]60=E/260×2=EE=120JOptions B is correct.

Q163. In transistors, the base region is very thin of the order of:

• A. 10-5 cm
• B. 10-6 m✓
• C. 10-6 mm
• D. 10-6 µm

Explanation: Base region is the central region of a transistor and it is lightly doped.It is very thin of the order of 10-6m.

Q164. The closed loop gain of OP-AMP depends on:

• A. Internal structure of OP-AMP
• B. Externally connected resistance✓
• C. Voltage of power supplies
• D. Input resistance

Explanation: A)is incorrect because closed loop gain doesn't depend on internal resistance.B)is correct because closed loop gain depends on externally connected resistance.C)is incorrect because closed loop gain doesnot depend on voltage.D)is incorrect because open loop gain depends upon the internal resistances.

Q165. The net charge on an N-type substance is:

• A. 0.7 volts✓
• B. 0.3 volts
• C. 0.25 volts
• D. 0.07 volts

Explanation: N type region is doped with pentavalent impurity amd the net charge on N type region is 0.7 because of free electrons which are donated by pentavalent impurity atoms such as arsenic,phosphorus amd antimony.So option A is correct

Q166. The value of Wien’s constant is:

• A. 2.90 x 10-3 mK✓
• B. 3.34 x 10-4 mK
• C. 4.22 x 10-7 mK
• D. 3.42 x 10-8 mK

Explanation: According to Wein's law the product of wavelength corresponding to maximum intensity of radiation and temperature of body in Kelvin is constant.This constant has value of 2.9×10^3mK

Q167. The minimum frequency below which no electron is emitted from the metal surface is called:

• A. High frequency
• B. Low frequency
• C. Threshold frequency✓
• D. Resonance frequency

Explanation: A)is incorrect bcz threshlod frequency is the minimum frequency not the high one.B)is incorrect bcz this min frequency is not low frequency.C)is correct, Threshlod frequency is the minimum frequency below which no photoemission is possible and it depends on the nature of material used so it varies from metal to metal. D)is incorrect as resonance frequency is due to oscillations of a system where the medium vibrates at it's highest amplitude.

Q168. In pair production, the type of photon used:

• A. α-particle
• B. β-particle
• C. X-rays
• D. γ-radiations✓

Explanation: A)is incorrect because alpha particles are nothing but Helium nuclei.B)is incorrect because beta particles are fast moving electrons.C)is incorrect because pair production will happen when x-ray photon has energy more than 1.02MeV and the energy of x-ray photon is very large so that they can't produce electron-positron pair and they are used in Compton effect.D)is correct since gamma rays are high energy photons used for this process as thery have sufficient energy.

Q169. The life time of an electron in an excited state is about 10-8 s. What is its uncertainty in energy during this time?

• A. 1.05 x 10-41 J
• B. 1.05 x 10-26 J✓
• C. 1.15 x 1010 J
• D. 2.19 x 10-40 J

Explanation: Excited state time of the electron=10^-8sRequired:Uncertainty in energyDeltaE=h/DeltatBy putting values in formulaAns will be B.

Q170. Velocity of electron moving in first orbit of hydrogen is:

• A. 2.19 x 107 m/sec
• B. 2.18 x 107 m/sec
• C. 2.2 x 108 m/sec
• D. 2.19 x 106 m/sec✓

Explanation: mvr=nh/2×pi v=nh/2×pi×mr (pi=3.14)v=(1×6.63×10^-34)/(2×3.14×9.1×10^-31×0.529×10^-10)v=2.19×10^6m/s

Q171. Laser is a potential energy source for inducing which type of reaction?

• A. Radioactive
• B. Fission
• C. Ionization
• D. Fusion✓

Explanation: A)is incorrect because the phenomena of radioactivity occurs when unstable radioactive nucleus splits into daughter nuclei in order to gain stability.There is no role of Laser in this.B)is incorrect because Laser has no role in fission reaction.Neutrons are used for these reactions.C)is incorrect because Laser doesn't provide source of energy for ionization.D)is correct because Laser is potential source for inducing fusion reactions.

Q172. In the half-life of an element, the equation for the number of decaying atoms is given by:

• A. ΔN ∝ -NΔt✓
• B. ΔN = KNΔt
• C. ΔN ∝ -nΔt
• D. ΔN = -ΔNΔt

Explanation: A)is correct, The number of decaying atoms is directly proportional to the number of radioactive atoms at the time interval deltat.B,C and D are incorrect since the given equations doesnot represent the number of decaying atoms.

Q173. Decay constant ‘λ’ is given as:

• A. Option A✓
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: Decay constant is equal to the fraction of decaying atoms per unit time.So,option A is correct.Option B,C and D are incorrect since these formulas can't give the correct value of decay constant.

Q174. The SI unit of absorbed dose ‘D’ i.e. radiation effect is Gray and one Gray is equal to:

• A. kJ / mol
• B. J / mol
• C. kg / J
• D. J / kg✓

Explanation: Absorbed dose is equal to energy absorbed from ionizing radiation per unit mass of absorbing body.A)is incorrect because kJ/mol is the unit of enthalpy.B)is incorrect since J/mol is also used to measure heat/energy.C )is incorrect because it is not used to measure any quantityD)is correct according to the definition of absorbed dose.

Q175. The principle of homogeneity of dimensions determines:

• A. Only variable in the equation
• B. Only constant in the equation
• C. Correctness of an equation✓
• D. Constant and variable in the equation

Explanation: Principle of homogenity states that the dimensions of each of the terms of a dimensional equation on both sides should be the same.A) is incorrect because it doesn't determine only variables of the equation.B)is incorrect because it doesn't determine only constants of the equation.C)is correct because this principle of homogenity of dimension means the same dimensions on both sides of equations and it also tells us about the correctness of the equation.D)is incorrect since it doesn't tell us about constants and variables of the equation.

Q176. For a body to be in complete equilibrium:

• A. Linear acceleration is zero
• B. Angular acceleration is zero
• C. Linear acceleration is zero but angular acceleration is not zero
• D. Linear acceleration and angular acceleration both should be zero✓

Explanation: d) Linear acceleration and angular acceleration both should be zero: This option states that for a body to be in complete equilibrium, both its linear acceleration and angular acceleration must be zero. This means that the body is not experiencing any net force or n

Q177. If length of a spanner is ‘I’ and a force ‘F’ is applied on it to tighten a nut such that it passes through the pivot point, then torque is:

• A. Zero✓
• B. Fl
• C. Fl sin θ
• D. Fl sin θλ

Explanation: Whenever the line of action of force passes through the pivot point,torque is zero.So option A is correct.B,C and D are incorrect because torque is zero due to length.

Q178. If a force of magnitude 8 N acts on a body in direction making an angle 30, its x and y components will be:

• A. Fx = 4√3 and Fy = 8
• B. Fx = 8 and Fy = 4√3
• C. Fx = 4√3 and Fy = 4✓
• D. Fx = 8√3 and Fy = 4

Explanation: x-component is given by Fx=F cosθFx=8×30 Fx=4√3The y-component is given byFy=F sinθFy=8×1/2Fy=4

Q179. The difference of a vector B and its negative vector –B is:

• A. A null vector
• B. Equal to magnitude of vector B
• C. Twice the magnitude of vector B✓
• D. Smaller than magnitude of vector B

Explanation: A is incorrect since the null vector is due to the sum of two opposite vectors.B is incorrect because the difference to two vectors can't be the same vectors.C is correct because the difference of vector B and its negative vector will be added and then it will be twice of magnitude.Magnitude=VectorB-(-B) =B+B =2BD is incorrect because the difference of two opposite vectors will add up and its magnitude will be more.

Q180. Time of projectile’s flight is:

• A. Option A
• B. Option B✓
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: A)is incorrect because this formula is for the range of the projectile.B)is correct formula of time of flightC and D are incorrect option sinces the formulas are wrong.

Q181. If the velocity of the body changes by equal amount in equal intervals of time, the body is said to have:

• A. Variable acceleration
• B. Uniform acceleration✓
• C. Uniform velocity
• D. Negative acceleration

Explanation: When the velocity of the body changes by equal amounts in equal intervals of time,the body is said to have uniform acceleration.A)is incorrect because variable acceleration occurs when velocity of body changes by unequal amounts in unequal intervals of time.Unequal change in only velocity or time can cause variable acceleration.B)is correct according to definition.C)is incorrect because the change in velocity will cause acceleration.D)is incorrect because negative acceleration is due to slowing down of an object.

Q182. In order to determine the maximum height of the projectile, the equation of motion used is:

• A. aS = vf2 - vi̇2
• B. 2aS = vf2 - vi̇2✓
• C. 2S = a(vf2 - vi̇2)
• D. aS = 2(vf2 - vi2)

Explanation: A is incorrect because this is the wrong equation of motion.B is correct because the given equation is the 3rd equation of motion and it is used to derive the formula of height of projectile.C and D are incorrect because these are not equations of motion.

Q183. If a force of 12 N acts on a car and changes its momentum from 36 kgm/sec to 60 kgm/sec, the time during which this change occurs will be

• A. 24 sec
• B. 2 sec✓
• C. 12 sec
• D. 8 sec

Explanation: GivenInitial momentum=36kgm/sFinal momentum=60kgm/s Applied force=12NRequired Time=?FormulaF×t=mvf-mvit=mvf-mvi/Ft=60-36/12t=2secResultThe time in which the change occurs will be 2sec.

Q184. Which one of the following is a non-conservative force?

• A. Electric force
• B. Elastic spring force
• C. Gravitational force
• D. Frictional force✓

Explanation: Conservative forces are those forces which don't depend upon path followed but depend on the initial and final position.A,B and C are incorrect as they are conservative forces.D is correct because it depends upon the path followed.

Q185. Value of escape velocity for the surface of the earth is 11 km/sec. Its value for surface of the moon is:

• A. 11 km/sec
• B. 10.4 km/sec
• C. 2.4 km/sec✓
• D. 4.3 km/sec

Explanation: A)is incorrect because the given value is the escape velocity of Earth.B)is incorrect because the given value is escape velocity of C)is correct because the escape velocity of the moon is 2374m/s.

Q186. On a clear day at noon, the intensity of solar energy reaching the earth’s surface is about:

• A. 1.0 kWm-2✓
• B. 1.4 kWm-2
• C. 1.0 Wm-2
• D. 1.4 Wm-2

Explanation: A is correct because the intensity of solar energy reaching the Earth's surface on a clear day at noon is 1.0KWm^-2.B,C and D are incorrect values.

Q187. When a lift is accelerated upward, the apparent weight of an object in it will be:

• A. Equal to its real weight
• B. Less than its real weight
• C. Zero
• D. Greater than its real weight✓

Explanation: The apparent weight is the force of gravity on the object as well as the force of gravity on the observer.A)is incorrect because the apparent weight of an object will be equal to its real weight at rest.B)is incorrect because the apparent weight of an object in it will be less than it's actual weight when the lift is accelerated downwards.C)is incorrect because the apparent weight of an object will be zero for freely falling bodies.D)is correct simce the apparent weight of an object in will be greater than it's rral weight when lift is accelerated upwards.In this case,tension will be equal to the sun of weight and acceleration.T=w+ma

Q188. The moment of inertial of a thin rod is:

• A. 1/2 mL2
• B. 1/4m3L
• C. 1/12 mL
• D. 1/12 mL2✓

Explanation: Moment of inertia is the measure of the rotational inertia of the body.A,B and C are incorrect values for moment of inertia.D is the correct option.

Q189. A wheel of radius 1m covers an angular displacement of 180.Its linear displacement is:

• A. 3.14 m✓
• B. π rad
• C. 6.28 m
• D. 0.157 m

Explanation: A) is correctReasonGiven θ=180degree=π=3.14r=1mFormula:S=rθBy putting valuesS=1×3.14S=3.14mB)is incorrect because rad is not the unit of linear displacement.Metre is the correct unit.C) and D) are incorrect because the given values are not correct values. The answer should be 3.14m.

Q190. Conservation of mass of fluid flow leads to:

• A. Bernoulli’s equation
• B. Venturi meter
• C. Equation of motion
• D. Equation of continuity✓

Explanation: A)is incorrect because Bernoulli's principle can be considered to be a statement of conservation of energy principle appropriate for flowing fluids.B)is incorrect because venturimeter is a type of flowmeter that works on the principle of Bernoulli's equation.C)is incorrect because equations of motion are used for physcial objects.They are not applicable for fluids.D)is the correct option because conservation of mass of fluid leads to equation of continuity.Formula:A1V1=A2V2

Q191. The blood vessels collapse when:

• A. External pressure applied becomes greater than the systolic pressure✓
• B. External pressure applied is equal to systolic pressure
• C. External pressure applied is less than the systolic pressure
• D. External pressure applied is zero

Explanation: A)is correct.When the external pressure becomes greater than systolic pressure,the blood vessel will collapse due to the high pressure which will be exerted on it.B)is incorrect because when both pressures are equal,then systolic pressure will not be sufficient enough to C)is incorrect because when external pressure applied is less than the systolic pressure,there is no effect on blood vessels.D)is incorrect because when external pressure applied is zero,there is normal blood flow.

Q192. An oscillating body is at mean position at t = 0. At t = T/4 it will be at:

• A. Extreme position✓
• B. Mean position
• C. Between extreme and mean position
• D. Beyond extreme position

Explanation: A)is correct because at T/4 and 3T/4,the body is at the extreme position.B)is incorrect because at time t=0,T/2 and T,the body is at the mean position.C)is incorrect because a body can't go beyond extreme position in Simple Harmonic Motion.

Q193. In a simple pendulum, the tension of the string is:

• A. g cos θ
• B. mg sin θ
• C. mg cos θ✓
• D. mg

Explanation: A)is incorrect because gcosθ is not used for tension in the string.B)is incorrect because mgsinθ is acting towards the mean position while tension is acting downward from the fixed point.C)is correct because the tension in the string in mgcosθ that acts downwards.D)is incorrect since mg is the weight of the bob.

Q194. Two sound waves having the same amplitudes are moving in the same direction are out of phase. The amplitude of the resultant wave is:

• A. Zero amplitude✓
• B. The sum of amplitude of the two waves
• C. Difference of the amplitudes of the two waves
• D. Double the amplitude of either wave

Explanation: A)is correct because the two waves will cancel each other and the net amplitude will be zero.B)is incorrect because the sum of amplitude of two waves will occur when two waves are travelling in same direction.C)is incorrect because the difference of two waves occurs when both of them ar travelling in same directionD)is incorrect because double amplitude is due to sum of two waves of same amplitude travelling in same direction.

Q195. A source ‘Y’ of unknown frequency produces 4 beats with a source of 240 Hz and 8 beats with a sound of 252 Hz. Frequency of the source ‘Y’ is:

• A. 244 Hz✓
• B. 236 Hz
• C. 248 Hz
• D. 246 Hz

Explanation: Sum:240+4 beats=244HzDifference:252+8 beats=244HzSo option A is correct.B,C and D are incorrect because their values of frequencies aren't according to the question.

Q196. An organ pipe closed at one end has a length of 25 cm. Wavelength of the fundamental note is:

• A. 25 cm
• B. 50 cm
• C. 100 cm✓
• D. 75 cm

Explanation: A)is incorrect because 25cm is the length of organ pipe.B)is incorrect answer for closed pipe.Itwill be correct for pipe which is opened at both ends.C)is correctGivenl=25cmFormula of the wavelength of organ pipe closed at one endλ=4l/nλ=4×25/1 (n=1 because of fundamental note)λ=100cmD)is incorrect answer according to formula

Q197. In Newton ring apparatus, at the point of contact of the lens and glass plate, the additional path difference introduced is:

• A. λ/4
• B. λ/2✓
• C. λ
• D. λ/3

Explanation: A,C and D are incorrect values of path difference.B is correct since the path difference introduced at the point of contact of lens and glass plate is λ/2.

Q198. The path difference ‘BD’ for destructive interference is:

• A. (m + ½) λ✓
• B. mλ
• C. d sin θ
• D. 3λ

Explanation: The points where the displacement of two waves cancel each other's effect,the path difference is an odd integral multiple of half the wavelength.This effect is called destructive interference.A)is correct since the path difference for destructive interference is given by formula (m+½)λ.B)is incorrect because the path difference for constructive interference is given by formula mλ.C)is incorrect because dsinθ=mλ is Bragg's equation ans is used for spacing of adjacent lines on the grating.D)is incorrect because it is wrong value for destructive interference.

Q199. In the case of a grafting spectrometer, the resolving power ‘R’ of the grating is defined as:

• A. λ / Δλ✓
• B. λ / D
• C. λ / λ1
• D. N x m

Explanation: A)Resolving power of a grating is a measure of its ability to spatially separate two wavelengths that is given byR=λ/ΔλSo,A is correct optionB)is incorrect because the given relation shows the minimum angle.C)is incorrect because the given relation is wrong.D)is incorrect because this relation is of resolving power that is given byR=N×m

Q200. Which one of the following lights travels fastest in optical fibers?

• A. Visible light
• B. Ultraviolet light
• C. Ordinary light
• D. Invisible infrared light✓

Explanation: A,B and C are incorrect.These all can travel through optical fibres but they aren't fastest.D is correct because infrared light moves fastest in optical fibres because they have longest wavelength and can travel through gases and dust with less scattering and absorption.

Q201. The value of universal gas constant is:

• A. 8.314 Jmol-1K-1✓
• B. 8.324 Jmol-1K-1
• C. 7.23 Jmol-1K-1
• D. 1.00 Jmol-1K-1

Explanation: A is correct because gas constant has value of 8.314 when the units used are J/mol×K and this value can be found by using equationPV=nRTR=PV/nTR=101325Nm^-2×0.02241m^3/1mol×273.16KR=8.314J/mol×KB,C and D are incorrect values for it.

Q202. The turbine in a steam power plant takes steam from a boiler at 427 °C and exhausts into a low temperature reservoir at 77 °C. What is the maximum possible efficiency?

• A. 50%✓
• B. 40%
• C. 60%
• D. 70%

Explanation: GivenT1=427+273=700KT2=77+273=350KRequired:Efficiency of the engine=η=?Formula:η=T1-T2/T1Calculations700K-350K/700K=0.5×100η=50%

Q203. Which one of the following is a postulate of kinetic theory of gases?

• A. Molecules do not exert force on each other✓
• B. The size of molecules is much larger than separation between the molecules
• C. A finite volume of gas consists of a very small number of molecules
• D. The gas molecules are not in random motion

Explanation: A is correct because it is the postulate of KMT.B is incorrect because the size of a molecule is much smaller than separation between molecules is the correct postulate.C is incorrect because a finite volume of gas contains very large number of molecules is the correct postulate.D is incorrect because the gas molecules move randomly.

Q204. Which one is not an irreversible process?

• A. Slow compression of a gas into a cylinder✓
• B. Changes due to friction
• C. Explosion
• D. Dissipation of energy

Explanation: A reversible process is a process in which the system and surroundings can be returned to the original conditions from the final state without any change in property.A is correct because it is a reversible process.B is incorrect because changes due to friction are irreversible.C is incorrect because explosion is an example of irreversible reaction.D is incorrect since dissipation of energy is a type of irreversible reaction.

Q205. Electric intensity is a vector quantity and its direction is:

• A. Perpendicular to the direction of field
• B. Opposite to the direction of force
• C. At a certain angle
• D. Along the direction of force✓

Explanation: Electric intensity is the force experienced by a unit positive charge placed at that point.A,B and C are incorrect options.D is correct because electric intensity is force per unit charge and its direction is the same as force. E=F/q

Q206. The magnitude of an electric field between two separated plates can be calculated by the relation:

• A. ΔV = Ed✓
• B. ΔV = E/d
• C. ΔV = E/qo
• D. E = d/ΔV

Explanation: A is the correct option because this formula is used to find the magnitude of the electric field between two separated plates.B,C and D are incorrect relations for this

Q207. SI unit of electric flux is:

• A. NmC-1
• B. Nm-2C-2
• C. Nm2C-1✓
• D. Nm2C-2

Explanation: Electric flux is the number of electric lines of force passing per unit area in a given time.It is a scalar quantity.A,B and C are incorrect options.D is the correct unit of electric flux.

Q208. The equivalent current which passes from a point at higher potential to a point at a lower potential as if it represented a movement of positive charges is:

• A. Electronic current
• B. Electric current
• C. Magnetic lines
• D. Conventional current✓

Explanation: A is incorrect because in electronic current,electrons flow from low potential(negative terminal) to high potential (positive terminal).B is incorrect because electric current is due to electrons.C is incorrect because magnetic lines are used to represent magnetic field in a given space.D is the correct option because conventional current flows from high potential to low potential.

Q209. If ‘V’ is applied potential difference across a resistance ‘R’, then loss in potential energy per unit time is:

• A. VI
• B. I2R
• C. V2/R
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: D is correct because potential energy per unit time is power and above all are formulas of power

Q210. The substances like germanium and silicon have:

• A. Negative temperature coefficients✓
• B. Positive temperature coefficients
• C. Both A and B
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Those substances in which resistance decreases with increase in temperature have negative temperature coefficient of resistance.A is correct because carbon,silicon and germanium are examples of -ve temperature coefficient of resistance.B is incorrect because + temperature coefficient means that the resistance of substance increases with increase in temperature.Example:Silver,Copper and Aluminium.C is incorrect since Si and Ge have -ve temperature coefficient.D is incorrect because option A is not wrong.

Q211. The sensitivity of a galvanometer can be decreased by:

• A. Increasing magnetic field
• B. Increasing number of turns of the coil
• C. Increasing c/BAN Ration✓
• D. Decreasing length of couple ‘c’

Explanation: A,B and D are incorrect because all these methods are used to increase the sensitivity of the galvanometer.C is correct because by increasing c/BAN,the sensitivity of galvanometer will decrease.

Q212. Force on a current carrying conductor in a uniform magnetic field is:

• A. F = NIA cos α
• B. F = μnI
• C. F = ILB sin α✓
• D. F = ILA cos α

Explanation: C is the correct relation to find force on a current carrying conductor in a uniform magnetic field and by increasing current,length and sinα,the force will increase.A,B and D are incorrect relations for this.

Q213. There is nothing interesting in mathematics. I — read grammar.

• A. Could
• B. Can
• C. Might as well✓
• D. Must

Explanation: This is the correct answer because it suggests that since mathematics is not interesting, the speaker sees no reason not to read grammar instead. It implies a decision made due to lack of interest in mathematics.

Q214. You — reduce the speed. There is a speed limit.

• A. Need to
• B. Ought to
• C. Must✓
• D. will

Explanation: This is the correct answer because it expresses a strong necessity or obligation. It indicates that reducing the speed is mandatory because there is a speed limit in place.

Q215. You — drive fast. We have plenty of time.

• A. Will not
• B. Shall not
• C. Must not
• D. Need not✓

Explanation: This is the correct answer because it means it is not necessary to drive fast. The sentence implies that driving fast is optional because there is plenty of time available.

Q216. Choose the correct option

• A. The teacher made all the students rewrite their papers, because the first drafts were not acceptable.✓
• B. The teacher made all the students to rewrite their papers, because the first drafts were not acceptable.
• C. The teacher made all the students rewrite their papers, because the first drafts was not acceptable.
• D. The teacher made all the students rewrite their papers, because first drafts were not acceptable.

Explanation: This sentence is correct. "Made" is correctly followed by the base form of the verb "rewrite." "Were" is the correct verb to agree with the plural subject "drafts."

Q217. When I was young, I — run very fast.

• A. Can
• B. Could✓
• C. Could have
• D. Must

Explanation: This is the correct choice because it indicates past ability or capability. It fits well with the past tense "was" in the sentence, indicating that in the past (when the speaker was young), they had the ability to run very fast.

Q218. She has a driving license. She — drive the car on the motorway.

• A. Might
• B. May
• C. Can✓
• D. Could have

Explanation: This is the correct answer because it indicates present ability or capability. Since she has a driving license, she is able to drive the car on the motorway.

Q219. — you turn down the music a bit, please?

• A. Might
• B. Can✓
• C. Could
• D. Would

Explanation: This is the correct answer because it is used to ask for permission or to make a polite request. In this context, it is asking if it's possible for someone to lower the music volume.

Q220. The old garage suddenly collapsed one day. Luckily, the owner wasn’t there or he — received serious injuries.

• A. Might as well
• B. Could have✓
• C. Have to
• D. Would

Explanation: This is the correct answer because it expresses a past possibility or hypothetical situation. It suggests that if the owner had been there, it was possible (but did not actually happen) that he could have received serious injuries due to the collapsing garage.