Uhs Mdcat 2013 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Indolence gives vent to _ disposition in human life.

• A. Static✓
• B. Enthusiastic
• C. Energetic
• D. Filthy

Explanation: Indolence refers to laziness or a lack of motivation or effort. When a person is indolent, they tend to be inactive or lethargic, resulting in a static disposition.

Q2. The Quaid’s _ enthusiasm led the Muslims of Indo-Pak to independence.

• A. Passionate
• B. Latent
• C. Onerous✓
• D. Threatening

Explanation: Onerous means involving a great amount of effort, difficulty, or responsibility. "Onerous" suggests that Quaid's enthusiasm was characterized by a significant and challenging burden, indicating the determination and hard work required to achieve independence.

Q3. He _ the incident to the back of his mind.

• A. Revered
• B. Regulated
• C. Reagitated
• D. Relegated✓

Explanation: Relegated means to degrade or devalue something, in this case the incident, which he did by putting it at the back of his mind.

Q4. He _ the day they had bought such a large house.

• A. Hues
• B. Rows
• C. Rues✓
• D. Dues

Explanation: "Rues" means regrets or feels sorrow about something in the past.The sentence suggests that the person regrets buying such a large house, so "rues" is the correct choice.The subject "He" is singular, so the verb must be "rues" (third-person singular present tense).Correct sentence:"He rues the day they had bought such a large house."

Q5. Identify the incorrect segment:Amjad was not conscious to the aberration he had committed in the public meeting. It was disliked by all and sundry.

• A. to✓
• B. the
• C. in
• D. by

Explanation: The correct phrase should be "conscious of" instead of "conscious to". Therefore, the sentence should be: "Amjad was not conscious of the aberration he had committed in the public meeting."

Q6. Identify the incorrect segment:The late Agha Shahi was an outstanding genius in the international affairs. He was gifted of the acumen to judge the future events, judge the future events in advance.

• A. in
• B. of✓
• C. to
• D. in

Explanation: The correct phrase should be "gifted with" instead of "gifted of." Therefore, the sentence should be: "He was gifted with the acumen to judge the future events in advance."

Q7. Identify the incorrect segment:The old man was sitting quite bamboozled when the swindler deprived him from his pension money by his evil tricks.

• A. Quite
• B. From✓
• C. By
• D. His

Explanation: The correct preposition to use in this context is 'of' instead of 'from'. Therefore, the sentence should be: "The old man was sitting quite bamboozled when the swindler deprived him of his pension money by his evil tricks."

Q8. Identify the incorrect segment:The prime minister fired a broadside at the opposition leaders. A few of his remarks were not up at the mark.

• A. of
• B. were
• C. up
• D. at✓

Explanation: The correct phrase should be "upto" instead of "up at." Therefore, the sentence should be: "The prime minister fired a broadside at the opposition leaders. A few of his remarks were not up to the mark." The phrase "up to the mark" is a common idiom meaning meeting the expected standard or level of quality.

Q9. Identify the incorrect segment:Lucy is the diva which performance as an opera singer is peerless.

• A. which✓
• B. as
• C. an
• D. peerless

Explanation: The key to this question is choosing the correct relative pronoun to indicate possession. In the sentence, "Lucy is the diva whose performance as an opera singer is peerless," "whose" is the appropriate choice because it shows that the performance belongs to Lucy. The other options, "as," "an," and "peerless," are correctly used in the sentence and do not need changes. "As" is used to describe Lucy's role, "an" precedes a vowel sound properly, and "peerless" accurately describes the unmatched quality of Lucy's performance.

Q10. Identify the incorrect segment:The police report excused Anwar of all charges of corruption and job was also restored.

• A. excused✓
• B. of
• C. also
• D. restored

Explanation: The correct answer is Option A: excused. In this context, the correct verb should be "exonerated." The word "exonerated" is used in legal or official contexts to indicate that someone has been cleared of blame or charges. On the other hand, "excused" implies forgiveness or pardon, which does not fit the legal connotation needed here. Options B, C, and D are all correctly used in the sentence, thus requiring no changes.

Q11. Choose the correct sentence from the following:

• A. We should pay maximum accolade for our national heroes
• B. We should pay maximum accolade in our national heroes
• C. We should pay maximum accolade to our national heroes✓
• D. We should pay maximum accolade from our national heroes

Explanation: The sentence 'We should pay maximum accolade to our national heroes' is correct because the preposition 'to' is commonly used to indicate the direction of an action, in this case, directing the accolade towards the national heroes. The other options misuse prepositions, altering the intended direction or source of the accolade.

Q12. Choose the correct sentence from the following:

• A. The Return of the King which is a popular movie made a huge amount of money
• B. "The Return of the King", which is a popular movie made a huge amount of money.
• C. "The Return of the King", which is a popular movie, made a huge amount of money.✓
• D. "The return of the king", which is a popular, movie, made a huge amount of money.

Explanation: The Return of the King is a title, therefore it must be in between quotation marks. Therefore, Option A is incorrect. Since it is a title, it must also be capitalised. This means that option D is incorrect.Finally, 'which is a popular movie' is a dependent clause. Therefore, it must be contained within commas. This means option B is incorrect. Therefore, option C is the right answer.

Q13. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word: HEINOUS

• A. Heroic
• B. Humorous
• C. Odious✓
• D. Hone

Explanation: The word 'heinous' is used to describe acts that are shockingly evil or wicked, often deserving of hate or contempt. Odious is the correct choice because it also implies something that is extremely unpleasant or deserving of disgust. The other options do not fit this context: Heroic suggests bravery or nobility, Humorous is about fun or laughter, and Hone means to sharpen or refine.

Q14. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word: ILLICIT

• A. Intimate
• B. Licentious
• C. Illegal✓
• D. Limited

Explanation: Illicit means forbidden by the law. "Illegal" means not permitted by law or contrary to legal regulations. It is the correct and nearest meaning to "Illicit."

Q15. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word: MOTIF

• A. Tough
• B. Stuff
• C. Motion
• D. Design✓

Explanation: Motif is a decorative image or design, especially a repeated one forming a pattern. "Design" refers to a pattern, theme, or recurring element used in art, literature, or music. It is the correct and nearest meaning to "motif."

Q16. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word: INCULCATE

• A. Calculate
• B. Instill✓
• C. Instigate
• D. Stimulate

Explanation: "Inculcate" is to teach (someone) an attitude, idea, or habit by persistent instruction and ingrain it in them. "Instill" is to gradually but firmly establish (an idea or attitude) in a person's mind.

Q17. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word: INIQUITY

• A. Inequality
• B. Injustice
• C. Wickedness✓
• D. Efficiency

Explanation: Iniquity means immoral or grossly unfair behavior. "Wickedness" refers to behavior or actions that are morally wrong, evil, or sinful. It is the correct and nearest meaning to "Iniquity."

Q18. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word: INTRANSIGENT

• A. Parallel
• B. Inflexible✓
• C. Adventurous
• D. Spirited

Explanation: Intransigent is to be uncompromising, unwilling, or refusing to change one's views or to agree about something. "Inflexible" means refusing to change or compromise, stubborn, or uncompromising. It is the correct and nearest meaning to "Intransigent."

Q19. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word: LAMPOON

• A. Irk
• B. Gratification
• C. Lacerate
• D. Ridicule✓

Explanation: Lampoon means to publicly criticize, mock (someone or something) by using ridicule, irony, or sarcasm.

Q20. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word: MESMERIZE

• A. Objectifiy
• B. Modify
• C. Amalgamate
• D. Fascinate✓

Explanation: Mesmerise means to transfix someone and get their complete attention. It is synonymous with fascination.

Q21. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word: OBLITERATE

• A. Sanctify
• B. Obscure
• C. Annihilate✓
• D. Oplate

Explanation: Obliterate means to utterly destroy or wipe out. Annihilate means to destroy completely, wipe out, or eradicate something. It is the correct and nearest meaning to "obliterate."

Q22. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word: MALEVOLENCE

• A. Empthay
• B. Maligning
• C. Hostility✓
• D. Management

Explanation: Malevolence is being spiteful. Hostility refers to a state of antagonism, animosity, or unfriendliness. It is the correct and nearest meaning to "malevolence."

Q23. The simplest independent unit of life is known as:

• A. Bacterial colony
• B. Cell✓
• C. Chloroplast
• D. DNA

Explanation: The cell is the simplest entity that can exist as an independent unit of life. Every known living organism is either a single cell or an ensemble of a few to many cells.

Q24. The process by which unwanted structures within the cell are engulfed and digested within the lysosome is known as:

• A. Endocytosis
• B. Exocytosis
• C. Hydrolysis
• D. Autophagy✓

Explanation: Autophagy is a self-degradative process where the cell isolates damaged organelles or proteins in autophagosomes. These structures then fuse with lysosomes for breakdown and recycling. It helps maintain cellular balance and prevents accumulation of harmful components.

Q25. The plants having foreign DNA incorporated into their cells are called:

• A. Clonal plants
• B. Transgenic plants✓
• C. Biotech plants
• D. Tissue cultured plants

Explanation: The term transgenic indicates an organism that contains genetic material from a foreign source. Transgenic plants are plants that have had foreign DNA incorporated into their cells through genetic engineering techniques.

Q26. Pasteurization technique is widely used for preservation of:

• A. Water
• B. Heat
• C. Milk products✓
• D. Vaccines

Explanation: Pasteurization is a process where foods and liquids, primarily milk and milk products, are heated to a specific temperature to kill or inactivate harmful microorganisms, extending their shelf life and ensuring safety. Milk products are the most common application of this technique. Water is typically treated using filtration and chlorination, and vaccines require cold storage methods.

Q27. The production of genetically identical copies of organisms by asexual reproduction is called:

• A. Genetic engineering
• B. Integrated disease management
• C. Hydroponic culture technique
• D. Cloning✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Cloning. Cloning is a form of asexual reproduction that results in the creation of an organism genetically identical to the original. Unlike genetic engineering, which modifies genes, or hydroponics, which is a cultivation method, cloning naturally replicates an organism's genetic material. Integrated disease management is unrelated to reproduction.

Q28. The _ model of plasma membrane suggests that proteins are embedded in lipid bilayer.

• A. Unit membrane
• B. Fluid mosaic✓
• C. Permeable
• D. Ultracentrifuge

Explanation: The correct answer is the Fluid Mosaic Model. This model, proposed by Singer and Nicolson, describes the plasma membrane as a flexible layer composed of lipid molecules, within which protein molecules are dispersed and embedded. This gives the membrane a mosaic-like appearance and allows for lateral movement of components, hence the term 'fluid'.The unit membrane concept pertains to the general structure of membranes but does not sufficiently explain the dynamic protein arrangement. Permeable describes a characteristic of membranes rather than a structural model. Lastly, the ultracentrifuge is a laboratory tool and not related to the structural characteristics of the membrane.

Q29. The function of nucleolus is to make:

• A. rDNA
• B. RNA
• C. Ribosomes✓
• D. Chromosomes

Explanation: The nucleolus is a key subcompartment within the cell nucleus responsible for producing ribosomes. It achieves this by transcribing ribosomal RNA (rRNA) from rDNA templates and assembling it with proteins to form ribosomal subunits. These subunits are then transported to the cytoplasm to become functional ribosomes, which are critical for protein synthesis. Option A (rDNA) is incorrect because rDNA is the template for rRNA, not a product of the nucleolus. Option B (RNA) is too general as the nucleolus specifically synthesizes rRNA, not all RNA types. Option D (Chromosomes) is incorrect since chromosomes are DNA structures, not synthesized by the nucleolus.

Q30. Lipid metabolism is the function of:

• A. Ribosomes
• B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
• C. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER)
• D. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER)✓

Explanation: The Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) is responsible for lipid metabolism, including the synthesis of lipids and detoxification processes.

Q31. The enzymes of lysosomes are synthesized on:

• A. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER)✓
• B. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER)
• C. Chloroplast
• D. Golgi Apparatus

Explanation: Lysosomal enzymes are synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) because it contains ribosomes that are essential for protein synthesis. After synthesis, these enzymes are transported to the Golgi apparatus, where they undergo further processing and are packaged into lysosomes. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is not involved in protein synthesis, focusing instead on lipid production and detoxification. Chloroplasts are involved in photosynthesis and not in protein synthesis for lysosomes. The Golgi apparatus is responsible for modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins, not their initial synthesis.

Q32. Centrioles are made up of _ microtubules:

• A. 9
• B. 27✓
• C. 3
• D. 12

Explanation: Centrioles are key cellular structures involved in cell division, found in animal cells. Structurally, each centriole is made up of nine sets of microtubule triplets, arranged in a cylindrical form. Each triplet contains three microtubules, so when you multiply the nine triplets by the three microtubules per triplet, you get a total of 27 microtubules forming the centriole. Therefore, Option B (27) is the correct answer. Option A (9) incorrectly considers only the number of triplet groups, Option C (3) focuses on the individual microtubules within a triplet rather than the entire structure, and Option D (12) is unrelated to the microtubule count in centrioles.

Q33. Which of the following structures is absent in higher plants and found in animal cells:

• A. Centriole✓
• B. Cytoskeleton
• C. Mitochondria
• D. Cytoplasm

Explanation: Centrioles are specialized structures involved in organizing microtubules during cell division, particularly in forming the spindle apparatus. They are typically found in animal cells and are absent in most higher plant cells, where microtubules can organize themselves into a spindle without centrioles. Meanwhile, the cytoskeleton, mitochondria, and cytoplasm are common to both plant and animal cells, performing essential roles in cellular structure, energy production, and cellular metabolism, respectively.

Q34. The soluble part of the cytoplasm or fluid that remains when all organelles are removed is known as:

• A. Solution
• B. Gelatin material
• C. Cytoskeleton
• D. Cytosol✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Cytosol. The cytosol is the aqueous component of the cytoplasm, containing dissolved ions, small molecules, and proteins, where cellular processes occur. The other options are incorrect: a 'Solution' is a general term for a mixture of solutes and solvents, 'Gelatin material' is a protein substance unrelated to cell structure, and the 'Cytoskeleton' is a network of fibers providing structural support, not a fluid component.

Q35. The outer membrane of the nuclear envelope is at places continuous with the:

• A. Golgi Apparatus
• B. Endoplasmic Reticulum✓
• C. Lysosomes
• D. Peroxisomes

Explanation: The outer nuclear membrane is continuous with the endoplasmic reticulum, so the space between the inner and outer nuclear membranes is directly connected with the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum.

Q36. Down's syndrome is a result of non-disjunction of_ pair of chromosomes that fails to segregate:

• A. 21st✓
• B. 22nd
• C. 18th
• D. 24th

Explanation: Down's syndrome, also known as trisomy 21, is a result of the non-disjunction of the 21st pair of chromosomes. In individuals with Down's syndrome, there is an extra copy of chromosome 21, leading to characteristic developmental and physical differences.

Q37. _ is most abundant carbohydrate in nature.

• A. Waxes
• B. Glycerol
• C. Starch
• D. Cellulose✓

Explanation: Cellulose is the most abundant carbohydrate in nature due to its role as a structural component in the cell walls of plants. It is a polymer made of glucose molecules linked together in a specific configuration, giving plants their rigidity and form. The vast quantity of plant biomass on Earth makes cellulose the most prevalent carbohydrate. Other options, such as waxes and glycerol, are not carbohydrates, and starch, though abundant, primarily acts as an energy storage molecule rather than a structural component.

Q38. Which of the following is a keto sugar:

• A. Glyceraldehyde
• B. Dihydroxyacetone✓
• C. Ribose
• D. Glucose

Explanation: The correct answer is Dihydroxyacetone, as it is the only sugar among the options that contains a ketone functional group, classifying it as a keto sugar. Glyceraldehyde, Ribose, and Glucose all have aldehyde groups, making them aldoses rather than ketoses.

Q39. Amino acid in which the R-group is hydrogen is:

• A. Glycine✓
• B. Alanine
• C. Leucine
• D. Valine

Explanation: The correct answer is Glycine. Its R-group is a single hydrogen atom, making it the smallest and simplest of all the amino acids. This simplicity allows glycine to fit into tight spaces within protein structures, making it versatile in protein formation. Other amino acids such as Alanine, Leucine, and Valine have more complex R-groups, which include various carbon chains and branches. These differences in R-group composition significantly affect the properties and functions of the amino acids.

Q40. Acyl-glycerols like fats and oils are esters formed by condensation reaction between:

• A. Fatty acids and water
• B. Fatty acids and alcohols✓
• C. Fatty acids and glucose
• D. Fatty acids and phosphates

Explanation: Acyl-glycerols, such as fats and oils, are esters formed by a condensation reaction between fatty acids and alcohols. This process involves a glycerol molecule, which is a type of alcohol, reacting with three fatty acid molecules to form a triglyceride. Option A is incorrect because water is a byproduct, not a reactant, in this reaction. Option C is incorrect because glucose, a carbohydrate, is not involved in esterification. Option D is incorrect as phosphates are related to phospholipids formation, not acyl-glycerols.

Q41. Which of the following is purine:

• A. Guanine✓
• B. Cytosine
• C. Thymine
• D. Uracil

Explanation: Guanine is a purine base, which has a double-ring structure, distinguishing it from pyrimidines that have a single-ring structure. Guanine is one of the main nitrogenous bases found in DNA and RNA and pairs with cytosine. The other options, cytosine, thymine, and uracil are all pyrimidines, not purines. Cytosine pairs with guanine, thymine pairs with adenine in DNA, and uracil pairs with adenine in RNA, replacing thymine.

Q42. If the cofactor is covalently or tightly and permanently bonded to enzyme then it will be called:

• A. Coenzyme
• B. Prosthetic group✓
• C. Activator
• D. Apoenzyme

Explanation: The detachable cofactor is known as an activator if it is an inorganic ion. If the non-protein part is covalently bonded, it is known as a prosthetic group, If it is loosely attached to the protein part, it is known as coenzyme. An enzyme with its cofactor removed is called apoenzyme.

Q43. Optimum pH value for the working of pancreatic lipase is:

• A. 4.50
• B. 7.60
• C. 2.00
• D. 9.00✓

Explanation: The optimum pH for pancreatic lipase is 9.00, which is suitable for its activity in the alkaline environment of the small intestine. Other enzymes have different optimum pH levels depending on where they function: pepsin works best at pH 2.00, reflecting the acidic conditions of the stomach; sucrase functions optimally at pH 4.50; and catalase, which breaks down hydrogen peroxide in cells, has an optimum pH of 7.60.

Q44. The view that active site of an enzyme is flexible and when a substrate combines with it, cause changes in enzyme structure is known as:

• A. Lock & key model
• B. Induced fit model✓
• C. Sliding filament model
• D. Specificity model

Explanation: The induced fit model is the correct answer. It proposes that the active site of an enzyme is not a rigid structure. Instead, it is flexible and undergoes conformational changes when the substrate binds to it, ensuring a snug fit that enhances the enzyme's ability to catalyze the reaction effectively. This contrasts with the lock and key model, which views the active site as a rigid, unchanging structure. The sliding filament model is unrelated as it pertains to muscle contraction mechanisms, and the specificity model emphasizes enzyme-substrate selectivity without addressing structural changes in the enzyme.

Q45. Coenzymes are derived from:

• A. Proteins
• B. Metal ions
• C. Carbohydrates
• D. Vitamins✓

Explanation: Coenzymes play a vital role in the function of enzymes, acting as carriers for chemical groups or electrons during biochemical reactions. They are predominantly derived from vitamins, making vitamins essential for proper metabolic processes. This is why Option D, Vitamins, is the correct answer.Option A, Proteins, is incorrect because while enzymes are often proteinaceous, coenzymes are non-protein organic molecules. Option B, Metal ions, is incorrect as metal ions serve as cofactors but are not organic and are not derived from vitamins. Option C, Carbohydrates, is incorrect since coenzymes are not typically derived from carbohydrates, but from vitamins.

Q46. Reverse transcriptase is used to make DNA copies of:

• A. Host RNA
• B. Viral RNA✓
• C. Host DNA
• D. Viral DNA

Explanation: The correct answer is option B. HIV carries reverse transcriptase, which converts its viral RNA genome into DNA in infected cells. The process involves three steps: initiation, where the enzyme binds viral RNA and a primer; elongation, where a DNA copy of the RNA is synthesized; and termination, when synthesis ends at a specific sequence. Host RNA or DNA is not used as a template—only the viral RNA serves for reverse transcription.

Q47. Antibiotics are produced by fungi and certain bacteria of group:

• A. Actinomycetes✓
• B. Oomycetes
• C. Ascomycetes
• D. Basidiomycetes

Explanation: Antibiotics are synthesized and secreted by certain bacteria (actinomycetes) and fungi. (PTB)

Q48. Which of the following bacteria have more lipids in their cell wall?

• A. Gram-positive bacteria have more lipids in their cell wall
• B. Gram-negative bacteria have more lipids in their cell wall✓
• C. Lipids are absent in the cell wall of both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
• D. Both have equal amounts of lipids

Explanation: Gram-negative bacteria have a unique cell wall structure that includes an outer membrane rich in lipopolysaccharides (LPS), leading to a higher lipid content compared to gram-positive bacteria. Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer but lack this lipid-rich outer membrane, resulting in a lower lipid content. Therefore, the correct answer is that gram-negative bacteria have more lipids in their cell wall. Options suggesting equal lipid content or no lipids in either type are inaccurate, as they misrepresent the structural differences in bacterial cell walls.

Q49. Fungi which cause thrush in humans:

• A. Sarcomeres
• B. Candidia✓
• C. Lovastatin
• D. Aspergillus

Explanation: Excess growth of Candida fungus in the mouth causes a condition known as “Oral thrush” or ”Oral Candidiasis”.

Q50. When beef which is not properly cooked is consumed by humans, they become infected by:

• A. Tapeworm✓
• B. Hookworm
• C. Pinworm
• D. Roundworm

Explanation: When humans consume beef that is not properly cooked, they risk infection by the beef tapeworm, Taenia saginata. This is a specific type of tapeworm that uses cattle as an intermediate host. Other options like hookworm, pinworm, and roundworm are transmitted through different routes such as skin contact with contaminated soil, ingestion of eggs from surfaces, or through food but are not commonly linked to beef consumption. Thus, tapeworm is the correct answer in the context of undercooked beef.

Q51. Sleeping sickness in humans is caused by:

• A. Trypanosoma✓
• B. Anopheles
• C. Plasmodium
• D. Andes

Explanation: Sleeping sickness, or African trypanosomiasis, is caused by the Trypanosoma genus, specifically Trypanosoma brucei. This disease is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected tsetse flies, which are found in sub-Saharan Africa. The other options are incorrect as they refer to different organisms and diseases: Anopheles mosquitoes transmit malaria-causing Plasmodium parasites, and the Andes is unrelated to any of these diseases

Q52. Schistosoma is a parasite that lives in the _ of the host.

• A. Intestine
• B. Kidney
• C. Liver
• D. Blood✓

Explanation: Schistosoma species are blood-dwelling parasites that live in the veins of their hosts, specifically around the intestines or urinary bladder. The adult worms feed on blood and reproduce by laying eggs, which are transported through the bloodstream. This can lead to inflammation and organ damage. The incorrect options—intestine, kidney, and liver—are not the primary habitats of the adult Schistosoma worms, although their presence can impact these organs due to the movement of eggs or other pathological processes.

Q53. The cavity between the body wall and the alimentary canal is:

• A. Coelom✓
• B. Endoderm
• C. Mesoderm
• D. Mesoglea

Explanation: The coelom is a body cavity found in many animals, including vertebrates. It is located between the body wall and the alimentary canal (digestive tract) and is lined with mesoderm.

Q54. The layer which forms the lining of digestive tract and glands of digestive system is:

• A. Ectoderm
• B. Mesoderm
• C. Endoderm✓
• D. Mesoglea

Explanation: The correct answer is the endoderm, which is one of the three primary germ layers in the early embryo. It forms the epithelial lining of the digestive tract and the glands such as the liver and pancreas. The ectoderm and mesoderm are involved in forming other bodily structures like the nervous system, skin, and muscles, while mesoglea is not a germ layer but a structural component in certain invertebrates.

Q55. Which one of the following vitamins is produced by microflora of large intestine?

• A. Vitamin K✓
• B. Vitamin C
• C. Vitamin A
• D. Vitamin D

Explanation: Vitamin K is primarily synthesized by the microflora of the large intestine. These beneficial bacteria convert dietary components into vitamin K, which is essential for coagulation and bone metabolism. Unlike Vitamin K, Vitamin C, A, and D are not synthesized by intestinal bacteria. Vitamin C must be consumed through diet, Vitamin A is derived from dietary sources, and Vitamin D is mainly produced in the skin with sunlight exposure.

Q56. _ is activated to_ by Enterokinase enzyme secreted by the lining of duodenum:

• A. Pepsinogen, Pepsin
• B. Pepsinogen, Trypsin
• C. Trypsinogen, Trypsin✓
• D. Chymotrypsinogen, Chymotrypsin

Explanation: The correct answer is Trypsinogen is activated to Trypsin by Enterokinase, which is an enzyme secreted by the lining of the duodenum. This activation is crucial for protein digestion as trypsin further activates other proteolytic enzymes, facilitating the breakdown of proteins. Pepsinogen to Pepsin conversion occurs in the stomach, activated by hydrochloric acid. Chymotrypsinogen is activated to Chymotrypsin by trypsin itself, not directly by Enterokinase.

Q57. Which of the following are absorbed in the large intestine?

• A. Water and Salts✓
• B. Water and Peptones
• C. Salts and glycerol
• D. Amino acids and Sugars

Explanation: In the large intestine, the primary substances absorbed are water and electrolytes (salts). The large intestine plays a crucial role in reabsorbing water and electrolytes from the undigested food residue, resulting in the formation of feces with a more solid consistency.

Q58. Saliva is basically composed of water, mucus, amylase and:

• A. Sodium bicarbonate✓
• B. Sodium chloride
• C. Sodium hydroxide
• D. Hydrocarbons

Explanation: The correct answer is sodium bicarbonate. Saliva contains sodium bicarbonate which acts as a buffering agent, neutralizing acids produced from food breakdown, thus protecting enamel and supporting digestive enzyme activity. Sodium chloride, present in small amounts, does not significantly influence pH or digestion. Sodium hydroxide is absent in saliva due to its corrosive nature. Hydrocarbons are not found in saliva and have no role in oral digestion or pH balance.

Q59. The total inside capacity of lungs is _ for man.

• A. 6.7 litres
• B. 2.5 litres
• C. 7 litres
• D. 5-6 litres✓

Explanation: In an adult human being when the lungs are fully inflated the total inside capacity of lungs is about 5-6 litres.

Q60. The average life span of red blood cell is about:

• A. 4 months✓
• B. 2 months
• C. 5 months
• D. 1 month

Explanation: The average lifespan of a red blood cell is about 120 days or approximately 4 months. This lifespan is determined by how long it takes for red blood cells to age and be removed from circulation by the spleen and liver.

Q61. The lymphatic vessels of the body empty the lymph into blood stream at?

• A. Abdominal vein
• B. Jugular vein
• C. Subclavian vein✓
• D. Bile duct

Explanation: The lymphatic vessels of the body empty the lymph into the subclavian vein. The subclavian veins are located near the collarbone and receive lymphatic fluid from the lymphatic vessels, returning it to the bloodstream.

Q62. Right atrium is seperated from right ventricle by:

• A. Bicuspid valve
• B. Tricuspid Valve✓
• C. Semilunar valve
• D. Interatrial Septum

Explanation: The right atrium is separated from the right ventricle by the tricuspid valve. The tricuspid valve is a three-leaflet valve that allows blood to flow from the right atrium to the right ventricle. The tricuspid valve is located at the opening of the right ventricle. The tricuspid valve is made up of three leaflets, which are called the septal leaflet, the anterior leaflet, and the posterior leaflet. The leaflets are attached to the papillary muscles by chordae tendineae. The papillary muscles are attached to the walls of the right ventricle.

Q63. Sites of filtration in nephron are:

• A. Glomerulus and Bowman's Capsule✓
• B. Proximal and distal convoluted tubules
• C. Ascending and descending limbs of the loop of Henle
• D. Collecting duct

Explanation: Option A is correct.The correct answer is the Glomerulus and Bowman's Capsule. These structures are part of the renal corpuscle, which is the initial site of filtration in the nephron. The glomerulus acts as a sieve, filtering blood to produce a filtrate, which is collected by the Bowman's capsule. The proximal and distal convoluted tubules, as well as the loop of Henle, are involved in the reabsorption and secretion processes, not the initial filtration. Similarly, the collecting duct is involved in the final concentration of urine, not its filtration.

Q64. Antidiuretic hormone increases the reabsorption of:

• A. Amino acids
• B. Salt
• C. Ammonia
• D. Water✓

Explanation: Option D is correct.Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is produced by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. It regulates the reabsorption of water in the kidneys, reducing urine output and helping maintain the body’s fluid balance, blood volume, and osmotic pressure.

Q65. Active uptake of_ in the ascending limb or thick loop of Henle is promoted by the action of aldosterone:

• A. K+
• B. Cl-
• C. Ca++
• D. Na+✓

Explanation: Option D is correct.The active uptake of sodium (Na+) in the ascending limb or thick loop of Henle is promoted by the action of aldosterone. Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that acts on the distal tubules and collecting ducts of the nephron to enhance sodium reabsorption. By increasing sodium reabsorption, aldosterone helps regulate sodium and water balance in the body and plays a role in blood pressure regulation.

Q66. The process through which the body maintains the internal environment from the fluctuations of external environment is called as:

• A. Behavior of organisms
• B. Adaptation
• C. Thermoregulation
• D. Homeostasis✓

Explanation: Option D is correct.Homeostasis refers to the process by which the body maintains a stable internal environment despite fluctuations in the external environment. It involves various physiological mechanisms that regulate factors such as temperature, pH, blood glucose levels, and more, ensuring optimal conditions for cells and tissues to function properly.

Q67. Active pumping out of Na+ occurs at which part of nephron:

• A. Proximal tubule
• B. Descending loop of Henle
• C. Ascending loop of Henle✓
• D. Collecting ducts

Explanation: Option C is correct.Primary site of reabsorption of sodium ions in the nephron is the ascending loop of Henle. The ascending loop of Henle is responsible for the active reabsorption of sodium and other solutes. Sodium is actively pumped out of the tubule cells into the interstitial fluid, creating a concentration gradient that allows for the reabsorption of other solutes in the distal parts of the nephron.

Q68. The structures which respond when they are stimulated by impulse coming through motor neuron are:

• A. Receptors
• B. Responders
• C. Transducers
• D. Effectors✓

Explanation: Motor neurons carry impulses from the central nervous system to effector organs such as muscles or glands.

Q69. Thalamus and cerebrum are the part of:

• A. Forebrain✓
• B. Mid brain
• C. Hind brain
• D. Spinal cord

Explanation: The forebrain is the largest region of the brain, containing the entire cerebrum and thalamus, along with other nested structures.

Q70. There is also EVIDENCE that high levels of _ may contribute to the onset of Alzheimer's disease.

• A. Mg
• B. Mo
• C. Al✓
• D. Ca

Explanation: There is some evidence suggesting that high levels of aluminum (Al) may contribute to the onset of Alzheimer's disease. The factors such as genetic predisposition, age, and lifestyle factors are also believed to play significant roles in the development of Alzheimer's disease.

Q71. L-DOPA or Levodopa is used to get some relief from?

• A. Epilepsy
• B. Alzheimer’s disease
• C. Parkinson's disease✓
• D. Dementia

Explanation: L-DOPA or Levodopa is primarily used in the treatment of parkinson's disease. It is a precursor to dopamine and helps replenish dopamine levels in the brain, providing relief from motor symptoms such as tremors, stiffness, and bradykinesia.

Q72. Spermatogonia differentiate directly into

• A. Primary spermatocytes✓
• B. Secondary spermatocytes
• C. Spermatozoa
• D. Spermatids

Explanation: Spermatogonia differentiate into spermatocytes, which then undergo meiosis to later form mature sperm cells.

Q73. Treponema pallidum causes:

• A. AIDS
• B. Genital herpes
• C. Syphilis✓
• D. Gonorrhea

Explanation: Treponema pallidum is the bacterium responsible for causing syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection.

Q74. What is the location of interstitial cells in testes?

• A. Inside the seminiferous tubules
• B. Between the seminiferous tubules✓
• C. Among the germinal epithelial cells
• D. Around the testes

Explanation: The interstitial cells, also known as Leydig cells, are located in the connective tissue spaces between the seminiferous tubules in the testes. These cells produce and secrete testosterone, which is an important male sex hormone involved in the development and maintenance of male reproductive tissues and secondary sexual characteristics. The seminiferous tubules, on the other hand, are the site of sperm production within the testes.

Q75. A type of cells in human testes which produce testosterone are called

• A. Germ cells
• B. Sertoli cells
• C. Interstitial cells✓
• D. Spermatocytes

Explanation: Interstitial cells, also known as Leydig cells, are located in the connective tissue spaces between the seminiferous tubules in the testes. They are responsible for the production and secretion of testosterone, which is an essential male sex hormone.

Q76. The hormone produced from corpus luteum is:

• A. Prolactin
• B. FSH
• C. Progesterone✓
• D. LH

Explanation: The corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine structure that forms in the ovary after ovulation. Its main function is to produce progesterone, which is crucial for the maintenance of the uterine lining (endometrium) during the second half of the menstrual cycle and early pregnancy. So C is the correct option.

Q77. The length of myofibril from one Z-band to the next is described as:

• A. Sarcolemma
• B. Sarcoplasm
• C. Sarcomere✓
• D. Muscle fibre

Explanation: The region lying between two Z-bands is called a Sarcomere. Sarcomeres are the functional units of muscle contraction and are composed of actin and myosin filaments.

Q78. The Ca++ ions released during a muscle fiber contraction attach with:

• A. Myosin
• B. Actin
• C. Troponin✓
• D. Tropomyosin

Explanation: During muscle contraction, Ca++ ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and bind specifically to troponin, a regulatory protein attached to the actin filaments. This binding causes a conformational change in troponin that moves tropomyosin, another protein, away from the myosin-binding sites on actin. This exposure allows the myosin heads to attach to actin, initiating muscle contraction. Myosin and actin are crucial for the contraction process, but they do not directly bind with calcium ions. Tropomyosin is involved in the regulation process, but does not interact directly with calcium ions either.

Q79. The joint that allows the movement in several directions is called:

• A. Hinge joint
• B. Ball and Socket joint✓
• C. Cartiligious joint
• D. Fibrous joint

Explanation: Ball and socket joint allows movement in all directions as it enables movement around an indefinite number of axes.

Q80. Where can we find H zone in the figure of fine structure of skeletal muscle's myofibril?

• A. In the mid of A band✓
• B. In I band
• C. Besides the Z line
• D. Along the I band

Explanation: The H zone is a specific region located within the A-band of the sarcomere. It is characterized by the presence of only thick myosin filaments without any overlapping thin actin filaments, making it appear lighter. It is centrally positioned within the A-band and is flanked by the M-line, which marks the center of the sarcomere. As muscle contraction occurs, the filaments slide past each other, causing the H-zone to decrease in size. The incorrect options either misplace the H-zone in the I band or near the Z line, neither of which aligns with the sarcomere's fine structure.

Q81. The first vertebrae of the cervical region of the vertebral column is known as:

• A. Atlas✓
• B. Sacral
• C. Thoracic
• D. Axis

Explanation: The first vertebra of the cervical region is known as the atlas. It supports the skull and allows for nodding movements of the head.

Q82. Chemically, insulin and glucagon are:

• A. Carbohydrates
• B. Proteins✓
• C. Lipids
• D. Nucleic Acids

Explanation: Insulin and glucagon are both peptide (protein) hormones secreted by the beta and alpha cells of pancreas respectively.

Q83. Hormones secreted by anterior pituitary and which controls the secretion of hormones of other endocrine glands are known as:

• A. Release factor
• B. Inhibitor
• C. Accelerator
• D. Tropic or trophic hormones✓

Explanation: Hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary that control the secretion of hormones from other endocrine glands are known as tropic or trophic hormones. These hormones include thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), follicle-timulating hormone (FSH), and leutinizing hormone (LH). They stimulate the target glands to produce and release their own hormones, thereby controlling their activity and function.

Q84. Alpha cells of Islets of Langerhans secrete hormone called:

• A. Glucocorticoid
• B. Insulin
• C. Glucagon✓
• D. Aldosterone

Explanation: The correct answer is Glucagon. It is a peptide hormone secreted by the alpha cells of the Islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. Glucagon's primary function is to increase blood sugar levels by promoting the breakdown of glycogen to glucose in the liver. This process helps maintain blood glucose homeostasis, especially during fasting states. On the other hand, Glucocorticoids and Aldosterone are hormones produced by the adrenal cortex, unrelated to the Islets of Langerhans. Insulin is secreted by the beta cells of the Islets of Langerhans and works oppositely to glucagon by lowering blood sugar levels.

Q85. Which of the following is the function of glucagon hormone?

• A. Glycogen to Glucose✓
• B. Glucose to Glycogen
• C. Glucose to Lipids
• D. Glucose to Proteins

Explanation: Glucagon is a hormone released by the pancreas, which helps maintain blood sugar levels. It does this by converting glycogen into glucose, thus increasing blood sugar.

Q86. In passive immunity, which of the following components are injected into the body?

• A. Antigens
• B. Immunogens
• C. Serum
• D. Immunoglobulins✓

Explanation: Immunoglobulins (antibodies) are directly introduced to provide immediate immunity.

Q87. Which part of the antibody recognizes the antigen ?

• A. Heavy chain
• B. Light chain
• C. Variable region✓
• D. Constant region

Explanation: The variable region binds specifically to antigens, giving antibodies their specificity.

Q88. Two identical light chains and two identical heavy chains in the antibody molecule are linked by:

• A. Disulphide bridges✓
• B. Peptide bond
• C. Glycerol bond
• D. Ionic bond

Explanation: Disulphide bonds can be used to hold different sub-units of protein complexes together, as is found in antibodies between the light chains and between the heavy chains.

Q89. Antibodies are produced against invading cells by:

• A. Lymphocytes✓
• B. Basophils
• C. Phagocytes
• D. Neutrophills

Explanation: Antibodies are primarily produced by lymphocytes, specifically B-cells, in response to invading cells or antigens.

Q90. In the structural diagram of an antibody molecule which portion is occupied by variable chains?

• A. Lower region
• B. Upper region✓
• C. Middle region
• D. In between chains

Explanation: The variable chains of an antibody molecule, both the variable heavy chain and the variable light chains, occupy the upper region of the structural diagram. The region is also known as the antigen-binding region. It is responsible for the specificity of the antibody and its ability to bind to different antigens. The lower region of the antibody, known as the constant region, does not contain the variable chains.

Q91. Every molecule of NADH, fed into ETC produces:

• A. 2 ATP
• B. 3 ATP✓
• C. 4 ATP
• D. 6 ATP

Explanation: Every molecule of NADH (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) that enters the Electron Transport Chain (ETC) during cellular respiration produces approximately 3 molecules of ATP. This occurs through a process known as oxidative phosphorylation. The high-energy electrons carried by NADH are transferred along the electron transport chain, consisting of a series of protein complexes in the inner mitochondrial membrane. As electrons move through this chain, protons (H+) are pumped across the membrane, creating a proton gradient. This proton gradient is then used by the enzyme ATP synthase to generate ATP from adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and inorganic phosphate (Pi). The exact number of ATP molecules generated per NADH can vary slightly, but, on average, it is considered to be around 3 molecules of ATP. The process is more complex for FADH2 (another electron carrier), which typically yields about 2 molecules of ATP. These ATP molecules contribute to the overall energy production in cellular respiration.

Q92. Final electron acceptor in respiratory chain is:

• A. Cytochrome A
• B. Oxygen✓
• C. Cytochrome a3
• D. Cytochrome C

Explanation: The final acceptor of electrons in the respiratory chain is oxygen (O2). During oxidative phosphorylation, which is the last stage of cellular respiration, electrons are transferred through a series of protein complexes in the inner mitochondrial membrane (or the plasma membrane in prokaryotes). This process is part of the electron transport chain.

Q93. The end product of anaerobic respiration in humans and other mammals is:

• A. Pyruvic acid
• B. Ethanol
• C. Lactic acid✓
• D. Glucose

Explanation: The end product of anaerobic respiration in humans and other mammals is lactic acid. In the absence of sufficient oxygen, cells resort to anaerobic respiration to generate energy. Anaerobic respiration involves the incomplete breakdown of glucose and results in the production of lactic acid as a byproduct. The specific process is known as lactic acid fermentation. During this process, pyruvate, which is an intermediate product of glycolysis, is converted into lactic acid. This reaction helps to regenerate NAD+ from NADH, allowing glycolysis to continue in the absence of oxygen.

Q94. A biochemical process which occurs within a cell to breakdown complex compounds to produce energy is called:

• A. Respiration✓
• B. Photosynthesis
• C. Oxidation Reduction
• D. Photophosphorylation

Explanation: The biochemical process that occurs within a cell to break down complex compounds to produce energy is called cellular respiration. Cellular respiration is a set of metabolic reactions that take place in cells to extract energy from organic molecules, such as glucose. The energy released during cellular respiration is used to produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP), which serves as the primary energy currency for cellular activities.

Q95. Which part of the chlorophyll molecule absorbs light?

• A. Phytol
• B. Porphyrin ring✓
• C. Pyrrole
• D. Thylakoid membrane

Explanation: The part of the chlorophyll molecule that absorbs light is the porphyrin ring, which is a complex cyclic structure containing a centrally coordinated magnesium ion (Mg²⁺). The porphyrin ring is responsible for the pigment's ability to absorb light energy during the process of photosynthesis. The porphyrin ring consists of alternating single and double bonds, creating a conjugated system. This conjugated system allows chlorophyll to absorb light in the visible spectrum. The absorption of light by chlorophyll is most efficient in the blue and red regions of the electromagnetic spectrum.

Q96. The DNA molecule formed from messenger-RNA by reverse transcriptase is called?

• A. Complementary DNA✓
• B. Recombinant DNA
• C. Chimeric DNA
• D. Plasmid DNA

Explanation: The DNA molecule formed from messenger-RNA (mRNA) by reverse transcriptase is called complementary DNA (cDNA). Reverse transcriptase enzyme synthesizes cDNA using mRNA as a template.

Q97. The agent which separates the two strands of DNA in PCR is?

• A. DNA ligase
• B. Primer
• C. Heat✓
• D. Helicase

Explanation: In PCR (polymerase chain reaction), the two strands of DNA are separated by raising the temperature. The process of heating the DNA to separate the strands is called denaturation. It allows the DNA to become single-stranded and available for further steps in PCR.Each strand then acts as a template for new strand.

Q98. Cystic fibrosis patients lack a gene that codes for trans-membrane carriers of?

• A. Na+ ions
• B. Cl- ions✓
• C. Ca++ ions
• D. K+ ions

Explanation: Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder caused by a mutation in the cystic fibrosis trans-membrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene. This gene codes for a protein involved in the transport of chloride ions (Cl-) across cell membranes. In individuals with cystic fibrosis, the CFTR protein is either absent or dysfunctional, leading to impaired chloride ion transport. The imbalance of chloride ions affects the movement of water in and out of cells, particularly in the respiratory and digestive systems. This results in the production of thick, sticky mucus that clogs the airways and obstructs the pancreas, leading to various symptoms and complications associated with cystic fibrosis

Q99. The phage commonly used as a vector in genetic engineering is?

• A. Lambda phage✓
• B. Gamma phage
• C. T2 phage
• D. T4 phage

Explanation: Modified Lambda phages are used as a vector to introduce foreign DNA into a cell due to their efficiency at packaging and injecting DNA into the cell.Natural lambda phage is modified to create cloning vectors, which are used to carry and clone foreign DNA.

Q100. Restriction endonucleases are naturally occurring enzymes of:

• A. Viruses
• B. Bacteria✓
• C. Fungi
• D. Plants

Explanation: Restriction endonucleases cleave into fragments near or at recognition sites. They are found in bacteria as a defence mechanism against viruses.About 400 such enzymes have been discovered out of which 20 are more frequently used in recombinant DNA technology.

Q101. In an ecosystem mycorrhizae are an example of:

• A. Predation
• B. Symbiosis
• C. Mutualism✓
• D. Parasitism

Explanation: Mycorrhizae are a symbiotic association between fungi and plant roots where the plant roots provide the fungus with favourable conditions for growth and nutrients, while the fungus increases the plant's water and nutrient absorption capabilities.

Q102. As a result of destruction of ozone layer there is significant increase in:

• A. Ultra-violet radiations✓
• B. Greenhouse gases
• C. Nitrogen oxide
• D. Sulphur oxide

Explanation: The ozone layer absorbs Ultra-violet radiation. Depletion of ozone layer results in increased amount of Ultra-violet radiation reaching the Earth’s surface.

Q103. Higher rate of a biological activity in a nutrient rich pond water is called:

• A. Water pollution
• B. Air pollution
• C. Eutrophication✓
• D. Industrial effects

Explanation: Eutrophication is characterized as the excess growth of algae or aquatic plants due to an increase in one or more growth limiting factors such as nutrients, sunlight, and carbon dioxide.

Q104. Living part of ecosystem is:

• A. Lithosphere
• B. Hydrosphere
• C. Community
• D. Biosphere✓

Explanation: The biosphere is the part of an ecosystem which integrates all living organisms and their relationship with one another.

Q105. A living association between two living organisms of different species that is beneficial to both partners is called:

• A. Commensalism
• B. Parasitism
• C. Mutualism✓
• D. Predation

Explanation: A symbiotic relationship, or symbiosis, is a close and long-term biological interaction between two different species. The relationship can be categorized into three main types: mutualism, where both species benefit; commensalism, where one benefits and the other is unharmed; and parasitism, where one benefits at the expense of the other.

Q106. The structures which are reduced during the course of evolution and have no apparent function are called:

• A. Regenerated organs
• B. Vestigial organs✓
• C. Saltatory organs
• D. Useless organs

Explanation: Vestigial organs are organs which are thought to be remnants of organs that once served some purpose but are now no longer functional or are of altered/reduced function. Examples of vestigial organs in humans include the appendix, tailbone (coccyx), and wisdom teeth.

Q107. When a gene suppresses the effect of another gene at another locus the phenomenon is termed as:

• A. Over dominance
• B. Pleiotropy
• C. Epistasis✓
• D. Codominance

Explanation: Epistasis is the phenomenon when one gene locus modifies or influences a phenotype of another gene locus.

Q108. Phenylketonuria is an example of:

• A. Polyploidy
• B. Transmutation
• C. Inversion
• D. Point mutation✓

Explanation: Phenylketonuria is characterized by a mutation causing the loss of function of the hepatic enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase through a mutation in the genome. Point mutation occurs when one base pair has been altered, added, or deleted from DNA or RNA. Hence, Phenylketonuria is an example of point mutation.

Q109. A situation in which one gene affects two or more unrelated characters is called:

• A. Epistasis
• B. Pleiotropy✓
• C. Dominance relation
• D. Polygenes

Explanation: Pleiotropy occurs when one gene influences two or more seemingly unrelated phenotypic traits. Such a gene that exhibits multiple phenotypic expression is called a pleiotropic gene.

Q110. The mutation which causes change in the sequence of DNA at a given position is called:

• A. Point mutation✓
• B. Chromosomal mutation
• C. Translocation
• D. Inversion

Explanation: Point mutation is the phenomenon that occurs when a single nucleotide is added, altered, or deleted from an organisms genome. It alters the sequence of DNA.

Q111. Hydrogen burns in chlorine to produce hydrogen chloride. The ratio of masses of reactants in the chemical reaction is:H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl

• A. 1:35.5✓
• B. 2:35.5
• C. 1:71
• D. 2:70

Explanation: Mass of 1 mole of H2 = 2x1= 2gMass of 1 mole of Cl2 = 2x35.5 = 71g2 : 711 : 35.5

Q112. A sample of Neon is found to exist as 20Ne, 21Ne, 22Ne. Mass spectrum of ‘Ne’ is as follows: What is the relative atomic mass (Ar value) of Neon?

• A. 20.18✓
• B. 20.28
• C. 20.10
• D. 20.22

Explanation: Relative atomic mass = Sum of product of isotopic masses and relative abundances/100Relative atomic mass = [(20 × 90.92) + (21 × 0.26) + (22 × 8.82)] / 100Relative atomic mass = 20.179 ≈ 20.18

Q113. The coordination number of Na+ in NaCl crystal is:

• A. 6✓
• B. 2
• C. 4
• D. 8

Explanation: The coordination number is the number of ions that immediately surround an ion of the opposite charge within a crystal lattice. If you examine the figure below, you will see that there are six chloride ions immediately surrounding a single sodium ion. The coordination number of sodium is 6.

Q114. There are four gases H2, He, N2 and CO2 at 0 °C. Which gas shows greater non-ideal behavior?

• A. He
• B. CO2✓
• C. H2
• D. N2

Explanation: Carbon dioxide is a linear molecule consisting of one carbon atom bonded to two oxygen atoms. CO2 exhibits greater non-ideal behavior compared to helium due to the presence of strong intermolecular forces such as dipole-dipole interactions.

Q115. Correct order of energy in the given subshells is:

• A. 5s > 3d > 3p > 4s
• B. 5s > 3d > 4s > 3p✓
• C. 3p > 3d > 5s > 4s
• D. 3p > 3d > 4s > 5s

Explanation: The order of energy in subshells is based on the principal quantum number (n) and the angular momentum quantum number (l). The principal quantum number determines the size of the orbital, while the angular momentum quantum number determines the shape of the orbital.The order of energy in subshells is as follows:s subshell (l = 0)p subshell (l = 1) d subshell (l = 2)f subshell (l = 3)The orbitals are organized in such a way that the lower principal quantum numbers (n) have lower energy, and within a given n, the subshells follow the order s < p < d < f.The s subshell has the lowest energy, followed by the p subshell, the d subshell, and so on. This is because the s subshell has the lowest angular momentum, and the angular momentum determines the energy of the orbital. The correct order is: 1s < 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p < 4s < 3d < 4p < 5s < 4d < 5p < 6s...

Q116. Number of electrons in the outermost shell of chloride ion (Cl-) is:

• A. 17
• B. 3
• C. 1
• D. 8✓

Explanation: Chlorine atom has 7 electrons in it's valence shell, however the question is asking about chloride ion which has 1 extra electron. So the correct answer would be 8.

Q117. According to valence shell electron pair repulsion theory, the repulsive forces between the electron pair of central atom of molecule are in the order:

• A. Lone Pair - Lone Pair > Lone Pair - Bond Pair > Bond Pair - Bond Pair✓
• B. Lone Pair - Bond Pair > Lone Pair - Lone Pair > Bond Pair - Bond Pair
• C. Bond Pair - Bond Pair > Lone Pair - Lone Pair > Lone Pair - Bond Pair
• D. Lone Pair - Bond Pair > Bond Pair - Bond Pair > Lone Pair - Lone Pair

Explanation: According to the VSEPR theory, lone pairs of electrons occupy more space than bonding pairs. As a consequence, this is an order of the magnitude of repulsion.Lone Pair - Lone Pair > Lone Pair - Bond Pair > Bond Pair - Bond Pair The greatest repulsion is between 2 lone pairs.Followed by repulsion between one lone pair and one bonding pair.The weakest repulsion is between 2 bonding pairs, the magnitude of repulsion between bonding pairs of electrons depends on the electronegativity difference between a central atom and the other atoms.

Q118. In crystal lattice of ice, each O-atom of water molecule is attached to

• A. Four H-atoms✓
• B. Three H-atoms
• C. One H-atom
• D. Two H-atoms

Explanation: In the solid state (ice), intermolecular interactions lead to a highly ordered but loose structure in which each oxygen atom is surrounded by four hydrogen atoms; two of these hydrogen atoms are covalently bonded to the oxygen atom, and the two others (at longer distances) are hydrogen bonded to the oxygen atom’s unshared electron pairs.

Q119. Heat of formation (∆Hf°) for CO2 is:

• A. -394 kJ/mol✓
• B. +394 kJ/mol
• C. -294 kJ/mol
• D. -390 kJ/mol

Explanation: The heat of formation (∆Hf°) for carbon dioxide (CO2) is: ∆Hf° = -394 kj/molThe negative sign indicates that the formation of one moleucle of CO2 from its constituent elements (carbon and oxygen) releases 394 kj of energy. In other words, it is an exothermic process, where energy is released during the formation of CO2 .

Q120. Reactants have high energy than products in:

• A. Exothermic reactions✓
• B. Endothermic reactions
• C. Photochemical reactions
• D. Non-spontaneous reactions

Explanation: In exothermic reactions, the energy of the reactants is higher than that of the products. This results in the release of energy, usually as heat, making the products more stable and lower in energy. This is why exothermic reactions are often exergonic, releasing energy to the surroundings. Endothermic reactions, on the other hand, absorb energy, leading to products with higher energy than the reactants. Photochemical reactions involve light energy to drive the reaction and can vary in their energetic nature. Non-spontaneous reactions require external energy to proceed and do not inherently relate to the energy levels of reactants and products as described.

Q121. If 18.0 g of glucose is dissolved in 1 kg of water, boiling point of this solution should be:

• A. 100.52 °C
• B. 100.00 °C
• C. 100.052 °C✓
• D. Less than 100 °C

Explanation: Mass of glucose = 18 gMass of solvent = 1 kgBoiling point of pure water = 100°Cn (glucose) = 18 / [6(12) + 12(1) + 6(18)] = 18 /180 = 0.1 molesMolality (glucose) = n / mass of solvent = 0.1 / 1 = 0.1 molal ∆Tb = kb × molality = 0.52 × 0.1 = 0.052 Kelvin New boiling point = Boiling point of pure water + ∆TbNew boiling point = 100 + 0.052 = 100.052°C

Q122. Molal freezing point constant of water is:

• A. 1.86✓
• B. 2.86
• C. 11.86
• D. 0.52

Explanation: The molal freezing point depression constant for H2O, Kf , is given as 1.86 °C kg/mole.Thus a 1.00 m aqueous solution freezes at -1.86 °C instead of 0.00 °C which is the normal freezing point for water.

Q123. In the figure given below, the electron flow in external circuit is from:

• A. Copper to zinc electrode
• B. Right to left
• C. Porous partition to zinc electrode
• D. Zinc to copper electrode✓

Explanation: The electrons flow from the oxidation reaction (Zn (s) --> Zn2+ (aq) + 2 e-) to the reduction half-cell (Cu2+ (aq) + 2 e- --> Cu (s)).So the electrons flow from the left to the right (zinc to copper electrode).

Q124. By considering Arrhenius equation, the graph between ‘1/T’ and ‘log K’, which of the following graph represents the relationship between log K and 1/T?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B✓
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: The original Arrhenius equation is: k = Ae(-Ea/RT)Which can be rewritten as: log k = -Ea/RT log Ae, where Ea log Ae/R is a constant and T is a variable.The slope of the Arrhenius equation is used to calculate activation energy.Arrhenius equation is rearranged it is a linear equation with the form y = mx + by is log(k), x is 1/T, and m is -Ea/R .

Q125. Which one of the following is a redox reaction?

• A. NaCl + AgNO3 → NaNO3 + AgCl
• B. 2Cl- → Cl2 + 2e-
• C. 2Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl✓
• D. Na + 1e- → Na

Explanation: The oxidation number of sodium increases from 0 (on the reactants side) to +1 (on the products side), hence sodium is being oxidised. The oxidation number of chlorine decreases from 0 (on the reactants side) to -1 (on the products side), hence chlorine is being reduced. Therefore, we can say that 2Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl is a redox reaction .

Q126. The chemical substance, when dissolved in water, gives “H+” is called:

• A. Acid✓
• B. Base
• C. Amphoteric
• D. Neutral

Explanation: Acids are substances that release hydrogen ions (H+) when dissolved in water. They have a pH value less than 7 and can react with bases to form salts.

Q127. The 'pH' of human blood is:

• A. 6.7 – 8
• B. 7.9
• C. 7.5
• D. 7.35 – 7.4✓

Explanation: The pH of human blood is typically around 7.35 to 7.45, which is slightly alkaline or basic. It is important for the pH of blood to remain within this narrow range as deviations can have adverse effects on bodily functions.

Q128. In zero order reactions, the rate is independent of:

• A. Concentration of the product
• B. Concentration of the reactant✓
• C. Temperature of the reaction
• D. Surface area of the product

Explanation: In zero-order reactions, the rate is independent of the concentration of the reactants. This means that changing the concentration of the reactant does not affect the reaction rate. The rate of reaction is determined by other factors such as the temperature, presence of catalysts, or the surface area of the reactant.

Q129. What is the trend of melting and boiling point of the elements of short periods as we move from left to right in a periodic table?

• A. Melting and boiling points first decrease then increase
• B. Melting and boiling points increase gradually
• C. Melting and boiling points first increase then decrease✓
• D. Melting and boiling points decrease gradually

Explanation: In general, the melting point increases across a period up to group 14 and then decreases from group 14 to group 18.From sodium to aluminum there is metallic bonding, the strength of metallic bonding increases across the period due to an increase in ionic charge (so greater electrostatic attraction) and larger nuclear charge (positively charged nucleus is closer to delocalized electrons so less shielding). Hence, melting/boiling points generally increase.From phosphorus to argon the atoms form simple covalent structures in which the strength of intermolecular forces determines the melting/boiling points. Vanderwaal's forces increase with more electrons and larger molecules. (Silicon however has a giant covalent structure, much stronger bonds, and therefore a high melting/boiling point).

Q130. Along a period, atomic radius decreases. This gradual decrease in radius is due to:

• A. Increase in number of electrons in valence shells
• B. Increase in number of protons in the nucleus✓
• C. Decrease in number of shells
• D. Increase in number of shells

Explanation: Along a period, the number of shells increases (electrons are added to the same principal energy level), and the atomic number increases. More protons attract the valence electrons. Electrons are gradually pulled closer to the nucleus because of the increased positive charge.

Q131. Alkaline earth metal oxides react with water to give hydroxides. The solubility of alkaline earth metal oxides in water increases as we move from top to bottom in a group. Which of the following alkaline earth metal oxides is least soluble in water?

• A. MgO✓
• B. CaO
• C. BaO
• D. SrO

Explanation: Solubility of alkaline earth metal oxides in water increases as we move from top to bottom because lattice energy decreases faster than hydration energy. For the compound to be soluble, its hydration energy must be greater than its lattice energy. Mg is at the top of the group (followed by Ca, Sr, and then Ba), Magnesium oxide (MgO) has low solubility in water. It reacts with water to form magnesium hydroxide Mg(OH)2, but the solubility is relatively limited.

Q132. The electronic structure of carbon monoxide is represented as:

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C✓
• D. Option D

Explanation: In CO, carbon has a lone pair and oxygen has lone pairs. Due to formal charge distribution (C negative, O positive), carbon donates a lone pair to oxygen, forming a coordinate (dative) bond. The arrow indicating the dative bond points from C → O

Q133. Which one pair has the same oxidation state of ‘Fe’?

• A. FeSO4 and FeCl3
• B. FeCl2 and FeCl3
• C. FeSO4 and FeCl2✓
• D. Fe2(SO4)3 and FeSO4

Explanation: In both FeSO4 and FeCl2, the oxidation state of Fe is +2.

Q134. Oxidation state of ‘Fe’ in K3[Fe(CN)6] is:

• A. +2
• B. +3✓
• C. -6
• D. -3

Explanation: K has a +1 charge, so K3 is +3. CN has a -1 charge, so (CN)6 is -6. So, +3 + -6 + x = 0 -3 + x = 0 x = +3 So, the oxidation state of 'Fe' in K3[Fe(CN)6] is +3.

Q135. The nature of an aqueous solution of ammonia (NH3) is:

• A. Amphoteric
• B. Neutral
• C. Acidic
• D. Basic✓

Explanation: The nature of an aqueous solution of ammonia (NH3) is basic. This is because ammonia can accept a proton from water, forming ammonium (NH4+) and hydroxide ions (OH-). The presence of hydroxide ions increases the pH, making the solution basic. Option A, Amphoteric, is incorrect because ammonia does not act as both an acid and a base in this context. Option B, Neutral, is incorrect because the solution's pH is not neutral. Option C, Acidic, is incorrect because ammonia does not donate protons to decrease the pH.

Q136. Unpolluted rain water has a pH of:

• A. 4.9
• B. 5.6✓
• C. 5.3
• D. 7.0

Explanation: The correct answer is 5.6. Unpolluted rainwater is slightly acidic due to the formation of carbonic acid, which occurs when carbon dioxide in the atmosphere dissolves in rainwater. This process results in a pH of approximately 5.6. Option A (4.9) represents a more acidic condition that would not be typical for natural rainwater unless affected by additional pollutants. Option C (5.3) is closer but still more acidic than the average for unpolluted conditions. Finally, Option D (7.0) indicates a neutral pH, which does not account for the natural acidity introduced by carbonic acid.

Q137. In comparison with oxygen gas, a strong triple bond is present between two nitrogen atoms in a molecule and therefore nitrogen gas is:

• A. Highly reactive gas
• B. Completely inert like noble gases
• C. Very less reactive gas✓
• D. Moderately reactive gas

Explanation: Nitrogen (N₂) has a strong triple bond (N≡N) with very high bond energy (~946 kJ/mol), making it chemically stable and less reactive under normal conditions. However, it is not completely inert like noble gases — it can react under specific conditions (e.g., lightning, high temperature, or with catalysts in the Haber process).

Q138. The catalyst used in the Haber’s process is:

• A. Magnesium oxide
• B. Aluminium oxide
• C. Silicon oxide
• D. Iron crystals with metal oxide promoters✓

Explanation: Iron crystals with metal oxide promoters are used in the Haber process.Magnesium oxide is used in the dehydrohalogenation of halogenated hydrocarbons and alcohols.Aluminum oxide is used in the dehydration of alcohols to an alkene.Silicon oxide is used in the oxidation of benzene.

Q139. The cis-isomerism is shown by:

• A. Option A: 1-butene
• B. Option B: 2-butene (trans)
• C. Option C: 2-butene (cis)✓
• D. Option D: Cyclohexane

Explanation: In the context of alkenes, cis-isomerism occurs when two identical or similar groups are on the same side of a double bond. In 2-butene, the cis isomer has both methyl (CH3) groups on the same side of the double bond, which satisfies the condition for cis-isomerism. Option A, 1-butene, does not have the necessary arrangement of groups for cis-trans isomerism. Option B, 2-butene (trans), has the groups on opposite sides, which does not qualify as cis-isomerism. Option D, cyclohexane, is a saturated hydrocarbon without a double bond and therefore cannot show cis or trans isomerism.

Q140. Select the nucleophile from the following examples:

• A. NO2
• B. NH3✓
• C. NO2+
• D. NH4+

Explanation: A nucleophile is electron-rich species and donates electron pairs to electron-deficient species. Therefore, ammonia (NH3) is a nucleophile.

Q141. The introduction of an alkyl group in benzene takes place in the presence of AlCl3 and the reagent is:

• A. Option A: AlCl3
• B. Option B: Alkyl halide✓
• C. Option C: AlCl3 and alkyl halide
• D. Option D: AlCl3 and FeCl3

Explanation: The introduction of an alkyl group in benzene occurs through Friedel-Crafts alkylation, where the alkyl halide acts as the reagent in the presence of a catalyst such as AlCl3. This reaction results in the formation of alkylbenzene and hydrogen halide. Therefore, option B, alkyl halide, is the correct answer. Option A is incorrect as AlCl3 is the catalyst, not the reagent. Option C is incorrect as it confuses the roles of AlCl3 and the alkyl halide. Option D is incorrect as FeCl3 can also be a catalyst, but it is not typically used in this specific reaction.

Q142. What is the product formed when propene reacts with HBr?

• A. 1-bromopropane
• B. 2-bromopropane✓
• C. propyl bromide
• D. 3-bromopropene

Explanation: Propene reacts with HBr by Markovnikov's rule, so hydrogen adds to the carbon with more hydrogens, forming 2-bromopropane as the major product.

Q143. The order of reactivity of alkyl halides towards nucleophile is:

• A. RI > RBr > RF > RCl
• B. RI > RBr > RCl > RF✓
• C. RF > RCl > RBr > RI
• D. RF > RBr > RCl > RI

Explanation: The order of reactivity of alkyl halides towards nucleophiles is determined by the strength of the carbon-halogen bond. Alkyl iodides (RI) are the most reactive due to the weak C-I bond, which makes it an excellent leaving group. On the other hand, alkyl fluorides (RF) are the least reactive because the C-F bond is extremely strong and not easily broken.Option A is incorrect because it suggests that alkyl fluorides are more reactive than alkyl chlorides, which is not true. Option C is incorrect because it reverses the order, suggesting alkyl fluorides are the most reactive. Option D is incorrect as it also places alkyl fluorides as more reactive than they actually are.

Q144. Consider the reaction given below: Which statement is true?

• A. Reagent for I is KOH in alcohol
• B. Reagent for II is KOH in aqueous medium
• C. Reaction I is Debromination
• D. Reaction II is elimination✓

Explanation: Elimination of primary alkyl halides gives alkenes, reaction II is KOH in alcohol and reaction I is KOH in aqueous medium.

Q145. In the following reaction, what product(s) may be formed?C2H5OH + PCl5 → ?

• A. C2H5Cl only
• B. C2H5Cl and HCl
• C. C2H5Cl, POCl3 and HCl✓
• D. C2H5Cl and POCl3

Explanation: When ethanol (C2H5OH) reacts with phosphorus pentachloride (PCl5), it undergoes a substitution reaction where the hydroxyl group (-OH) is replaced by a chlorine atom, resulting in the formation of chloroethane (C2H5Cl). Additionally, phosphoryl chloride (POCl3) and hydrogen chloride (HCl) are also produced. Thus, the correct products are C2H5Cl, POCl3, and HCl. Options A and B are incorrect because they do not account for all the products, and Option D is incorrect as it omits HCl.

Q146. The name of the following compound is:

• A. Picric acid✓
• B. Nitro phenol
• C. Benzoic acid
• D. Malonic acid

Explanation: Picric acid is 2,4,6-trinitrophenol. Picric acid has a structure consisting of a phenolic ring with three nitro groups (-NO2) attached, making it a yellow crystalline solid with explosive properties.

Q147. Which group gives a yellow precipitate of triiodomethane when warmed with alkaline aqueous iodine?

• A. An amide group, CH3CONH2
• B. Ethyl ketone group, C2H5COR
• C. A primary alcohol group as in propanol, CH3CH2CH2OH
• D. Methyl ketone group, CH3COR✓

Explanation: In the case of ethanal, methyl ketone or a secondary alcohol with a methyl group in the alpha position, a pale yellow precipitate of iodoform or triiodomethane is formed.

Q148. Aqueous phenol decolorizes bromine water to form a white precipitate. What is the structure of the white precipitate formed?

• A. 2,4,6-tribromophenol✓
• B. 2-bromophenol
• C. 4-bromophenol
• D. Phenol

Explanation: Since the OH group has an electron donating effect, it is an ortho-para director. The following reaction occurs:

Q149. The relative strength of carboxylic acid, water, ethanol, and phenol has the following order of increasing acid strength:

• A. Carboxylic Acid > Phenol > Ethanol > Water
• B. Carboxylic Acid > Phenol > Water > Ethanol✓
• C. Phenol > Carboxylic Acid > Ethanol > Water
• D. Water > Ethanol > Phenol > Carboxylic Acid

Explanation: The phenoxide ion obtained after the removal of a proton is stabilized by resonance whereas the ethoxide loan obtained after the removal of a proton is destabilized by the effect of the -C2H5 group. Therefore, phenol is a stronger acid than ethanol. Ethanol is a weaker acid than water because the electron releasing -C2H5 group in ethanol increases the electron density on oxygen hence the polarity of the O-H bond in ethanol decreases which results in decreasing acidic strength. Hence, the order of increasing acid strength is:Carboxylic acid > Phenol > Water > Ethanol

Q150. What is the structure of alcohol which on oxidation with acidified Na2Cr2O7 gives:

• A. A✓
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: Structure A represents 1-phenylethanol, which is a secondary alcohol. The alcohol group (-OH) is on a carbon atom that is bonded to a benzene ring and a methyl group (CH_3). Oxidation of this specific secondary alcohol removes the hydrogen atom from the carbon and the hydrogen from the hydroxyl group, forming a double bond between the carbon and oxygen, which results in the ketone, acetophenone.

Q151. Which of the following is the structure of ketone?

• A. A: CH3CHO
• B. B: CH3COCH3✓
• C. C: CH3OH
• D. D: HCHO

Explanation: Ketone is a functional group with the structure R2C=O, where R can be a variety of carbon-containing substituent

Q152. The formation of ester from acetic acid in presence of acid and ethanol is a:

• A. Nucleophilic substitution reaction✓
• B. Nucleophilic addition reaction
• C. Electrophilic substitution reaction
• D. Electrophilic addition reaction

Explanation: Carboxylic acids react with alcohols in presence of acid as catalyst and form esters (esterification). The mechanism of esterification is (step 1) protonation of carboxylic acid, and (step 2) attack by nucleophile. Another way to understand this would be that the -OH nucleophile of a carboxylic acid is replaced by the -OR nucleophile from the deprotonated alcohol. This exchange of nucleophiles constitutes a nucleophilic substitution reaction.

Q153. Methyl cyanides, on boiling with mineral acids or alkalis yield:

• A. Acetic acid✓
• B. Formic acid
• C. Propanoic acid
• D. Butanoic acid

Explanation: In the presence of an acid, hydrolysis of nitriles like methyl cyanide gives carboxylic acids.

Q154. The amino acids which largely exist in dipolar ionic form are:

• A. Acidic amino acids
• B. Basic amino acids
• C. Beta amino acids
• D. Alpha amino acids✓

Explanation: α-amino acids exist as dipolar ions or zwitter ions.

Q155. Refer to the question below.

• A. A: The reaction results in the formation of a simple mixture.
• B. B: Ammonium acetate is formed and converts to acetamide upon heating.✓
• C. C: The reaction produces only acetic acid in gaseous form.
• D. D: The reaction forms a stable, non-reactive compound.

Explanation: When ammonia gas is passed through acetic acid, ammonium actate salt is formed (acid base reaction). On heating, it will be converted to acetamide eliminating water (elimination).

Q156. The reaction below gives a product called dipeptide molecule which is represented by:

• A. A: Two separate amino acids
• B. B: A tripeptide molecule
• C. C: A single amino acid
• D. D: A dipeptide molecule✓

Explanation: The following is the structure of a dipeptide.

Q157. Two or more amino acids condensed to form protein by a peptide linkage which is present between two atoms:

• A. C and C
• B. O and C
• C. C and N✓
• D. C and H

Explanation: In peptide bond formation, the carbon atom from the carboxyl group of one amino acid bonds with the nitrogen atom from the amino group of another amino acid. This bond, called a peptide bond, is a covalent bond that links amino acids together to form proteins. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the specific atomic linkage characteristic of peptide bonds, which specifically involves the carbon and nitrogen atoms.

Q158. α-amino acids are compounds having carboxylic acid as well as amino functional groups attached to:

• A. Any H-atom in the molecule
• B. Same carbon atom✓
• C. Alternate carbon atoms
• D. Neighboring carbon atoms

Explanation: α-Amino acids are simple molecules that are made of a central C-atom, that is bound to a primary amine group NH2 and to a carboxylic group COOH.

Q159. The formula of 'Zwitter ion' is represented by:

• A. A
• B. B
• C. C✓
• D. D

Explanation: A zwitterion is a molecule that carries both a positive and a negative charge but has an overall neutral charge. In the context of amino acids, zwitterions are formed at the isoelectric point, where the amino acid has a positively charged amine group (NH3+) and a negatively charged carboxyl group (COO-). This dual charge characteristic is essential for the behavior of amino acids in biochemical processes.

Q160. What is the name of amino acid where ‘R’ is a CH3 group?

• A. Glycine
• B. Lysine
• C. Aspartic acid
• D. Alanine✓

Explanation: In alanine, the alkyl chain (-R) consists of a -CH3 group.

Q161. Polyvinyl acetate (PVA) is colourless and non-toxic resin used as an adhesive and as a binder for making:

• A. Toys
• B. Gramophone recorders
• C. Compact discs
• D. Emulsion paints✓

Explanation: PVA is used in sizing agents that give greater strength to textile yarns and make paper more resistant to oils and greases. It is also employed as a component of adhesives and emulsifiers, as a water-soluble protective film, and as a starting material for the preparation of other resins.

Q162. Both ribose and deoxyribose are monosaccharides containing _ carbon atoms.

• A. 4
• B. 6
• C. 5✓
• D. 7

Explanation: Ribose and deoxyribose are both pentoses, meaning they contain 5 carbon atoms. This makes them integral to the structure of nucleic acids, specifically RNA and DNA. The difference between the two lies in the presence of an oxygen atom: ribose has one more oxygen atom than deoxyribose, which is reflected in their roles in RNA and DNA respectively.Option A is incorrect because 4-carbon sugars are called tetroses, which are not ribose or deoxyribose. Option B is incorrect as 6-carbon sugars are hexoses, such as glucose. Option D is incorrect because 7-carbon sugars, known as heptoses, are uncommon and not related to ribose or deoxyribose.

Q163. Polyvinyl chloride is an example of:

• A. Condensation polymer
• B. Addition polymer✓
• C. Biopolymer
• D. Thermosetting polymer

Explanation: Polyvinyl chloride is an example of an addition polymer. It is formed by the addition polymerization of vinyl chloride monomers. In this process, the monomers simply add together without the elimination of any small moleucles.

Q164. The increased quantities of cholesterol in blood make plaque like deposits in the arteries causing:

• A. Cholera
• B. Down’s syndrome
• C. Heart attack✓
• D. Phenylketonuria

Explanation: When there are increased quantities of chloesterol in the blood, it can lead to the formation of plaque like deposits in the arteries. Over time, these deposits can narrow the arteries, restricting blood flow. If a blood clot forms and completely blocks the narrowed artery, it can result in a heart attack.

Q165. Collagen is a fibrous protein present most abundantly in:

• A. Hair
• B. Nail
• C. Tendons✓
• D. Arteries

Explanation: Collagen is most abundantly found in tendons. Tendons are fibrous connective tissues that connects muscles to bones, providing strength and facilitating movement. Collagen fibers in tendons provide structural support and contribute to their tensile strength.

Q166. Animals store glucose in the form of glycogen in:

• A. Stomach
• B. Mouth
• C. Liver and Muscles✓
• D. Small intestine

Explanation: Animals store glucose in the form of glycogen. Glycogen is a polysaccharide stored mainly in the liver and skeletal muscles. The liver plays a crucial role in regulating blood glucose levels. It stores glycogen and releases glucose into the bloodstream as needed. Muscles store glycogen to serve as an energy source during physical activity.

Q167. Anaerobic decomposition of organic matter i.e. glucose by bacteria in water sediments produces?

• A. Propene
• B. Ethane
• C. Methane✓
• D. Butane

Explanation: One natural source of methane is the anaerobic decomposition of organic matter by bacteria in water sediments and in soils.

Q168. The yellowish-brown color in photochemical smog is due to the presence of:

• A. Sulphur dioxide
• B. Carbon monoxide
• C. Carbon dioxide
• D. Nitrogen dioxide✓

Explanation: The yellow colour in photochemical smog is due to the presence of nitrogen dioxide.

Q169. The wavelength ' λ' of a wave depends on the speed 'v' of the wave and its frequency 'f'. Decide which of the following is correct?

• A. f = v λ
• B. f = λ/v
• C. f = v/λ✓
• D. f = vλ2

Explanation: The relationship between wave speed (v), frequency (f), and wavelength (λ) is given by the equation v = fλ. This means that the speed of a wave is the product of its frequency and wavelength. To solve for frequency, we rearrange the equation to f = v/λ, which aligns with the units of frequency (hertz) being equal to units of speed (meters per second) divided by units of wavelength (meters). The other options are incorrect because they do not correctly rearrange the wave equation or follow dimensional analysis.

Q170. Name the quantity which can be measured by using the base unit kgm2s-3:

• A. Weight
• B. Pressure
• C. Power✓
• D. Work

Explanation: The following is the solution:As we know that:Power = Work / timeAnd,Work = force × distance F = maSo putting all that together:P = m × a × d / tSubstituting with their units that would make:P = kgm²s-3

Q171. The ratio of moment of inertia of two objects 'A' and 'B' is 2:3. Which one of the following is the ratio of torques of 'A' and 'B' respectively if both are being rotated with constant angular acceleration?

• A. 3:4
• B. 2:3✓
• C. 3:2
• D. 4:3

Explanation: When objects are rotated with constant angular acceleration, the ratio of torques is directly proportional to the ratio of moments of inertia. In this case, since the ratio of moments of inertia of objects 'A' and 'B' is 2:3, the ratio of torques will also be 2:3. Therefore, the correct answer is 2:3. The other options provided are incorrect because they do not consider the direct relationship between moments of inertia and torques in circular motion.

Q172. Due to some mechanical fault, a lift falls freely from the top of a multistory building. Which of the following is the apparent weight of a man inside the lift, if the mass of the man is 80 kg while the value of 'g' is 10 ms-2?

• A. 900 N
• B. Zero✓
• C. 800 N
• D. 700 N

Explanation: If the elevator falls freely, the downward acceleration of the man in the elevator is: a = gNow, the force exerted by the floor on the man is equal to the actual weight of the man minus the net upward force on him. F = ma - mg F = mg - mg F = 0 NHence, the force exerted by the floor on the man is zero.

Q173. Stokes' Law is given as:

• A. F = 6πηr2v
• B. F = 6πηrv✓
• C. F = 6πηrv-1
• D. F = 6π2ηr3v

Explanation: Stokes' law is a law in physics that states that the force that resists a sphere's fall in a viscous fluid is directly proportional to the velocity of the sphere, the radius of the sphere, and the viscosity of the fluid i.e. 6πηrv

Q174. The product of cross-sectional area of the pipe and the fluid speed at any point along the pipe:

• A. Remains constant✓
• B. Is zero
• C. Exponentially increases
• D. Exponentially decreases

Explanation: The product of cross-sectional area of the pipe and the velocity of the fluid at any given point along the pipe is constant and is called the continuity equation A1v1 = A2v2According to the continuity equation, the mass flow rate of an incompressible fluid remains constant along a streamline, which implies that the product of the cross-sectional area and the fluid speed remains constant.

Q175. A small leak is developed in a large water storage tank. If the height of water above the leakage is 10 m, then find the speed of efflux through the leak:

• A. 14 m/sec✓
• B. 10 m/sec
• C. 9.8 m/sec
• D. 20 m/sec

Explanation: Height = h = 10 m Acceleration due to gravity = g = 9.8 m/s² Speed = v = ? Formula: The speed of efflux through the leak can be determined using Torricelli's law, which states that the speed of efflux of a fluid through an opening is given by the equation: v = √2gh = √2 × 9.8 × 10 v = 14 m/s

Q176. The minimum distance from the eye at which an object can be seen clearly without strain is called:

• A. Focal point
• B. Near point✓
• C. Yield point
• D. Far point

Explanation: The near point is the minimum distance from the eye at which an object can be seen clearly without strain. It is also known as the closest point of clear vision. As we age, the flexibility of the lens in the eye decreases, causing a decrease in the near point.

Q177. In the diffraction of light around an obstacle, the angle of diffraction is increased then:

• A. The wavelength of incident light waves is increased✓
• B. The wavelength of incident light waves is decreased
• C. The amplitude of the incident light wave is increased
• D. The amplitude of the incident light wave is decreased

Explanation: In the diffraction of light around an obstacle, the angle of diffraction is directly related to the wavelength of the incident light wave. When the angle of diffraction increases, it means that the light waves are bending more as they pass around the obstacle. This bending is a characteristic of diffraction and is more pronounced when the wavelength of the incident light wave is larger. Therefore, the wavelength of the incident light wave is increased, as a larger wavelength leads to a greater angle of diffraction.

Q178. An object 15 cm from a lens produces a real image 30 cm from the lens. What is the focal length of the lens?

• A. +15 cm
• B. +20 cm
• C. +10 cm✓
• D. +25 cm

Explanation: A real image can only be produced by a convex lensSo,v= +30 and u= -15The formula of the lens is 1/f=1/v-1/unow putting values1/f= 1/30-1/-151/f= 1/30+1/151/f = 3/30f= +10 cm.

Q179. What is the formula for critical angle in case of light through two media having refractive indices n1 and n2 such that n1 > n2?

• A. A
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D✓

Explanation: The critical angle (θc) in the case of light passing from a medium with a higher refractive index (n1) to a medium with a lower refractive index (n2) can be calculated using the formula: θ = sin-1(n2/n1)

Q180. For a vibrating mass-spring system, the expression of kinetic energy if x=0 is given by:

• A. A
• B. B✓
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: In a mass-spring system, the kinetic energy is given by the formula: KE = ½ mv²In the case of a vibrating mass-spring system, the maximum displacement from equilibrium position (amplitude) is denoted by xo. At the equilibrium position (x = 0), the velocity is maximum, and it can be calculated as: v = ωxoWhere ω is the angular frequency. Now, substituting the values into the formula for kinetic energy, we have:KE = (½)m(ωxo)²= ½ mω²xo²Since k is the spring constant and: k = mω²We can rewrite the equation as: KE = ½ kxo²

Q181. The speed of sound through a gas is measured as 340 m/s at pressure P1 and temperature T1. What will be the speed of sound if the pressure of a gas is doubled but the temperature is kept constant?

• A. 342 m/s
• B. 340 m/s✓
• C. 170 m/s
• D. 680 m/s

Explanation: According to laplace equation v=√(γP/p), the pressure and velocity are directly related however if the pressure is doubled then density would also double naturally, so the speed of sound would remain the same.

Q182. The stress-strain graph deduced the following limits successively:

• A. Proportional limit, yield limit, elastic limit
• B. Yield limit, elastic limit, proportional limit
• C. Proportional limit, elastic limit, yield limit✓
• D. Elastic limit, proportional limit, yield limit

Explanation: The following limits are deduced in the order; Proportional limit, elastic limit, yield limit.

Q183. Variation of amplitude with respect to time for an oscillation object is shown in figure.Identify the oscillation:

• A. Damped
• B. Critical
• C. Undamped✓
• D. Heavily damped

Explanation: In undamped oscillations, the amplitude remains constant over time. The absence of dissipative forces, such as friction or air resistance, allows the oscillating system to conserve its energy, leading to sustained oscillations with a constant amplitude. Unlike damped oscillations, where energy is gradually lost to external forces, undamped oscillations exhibit a persistent and unchanging amplitude throughout the oscillatory motion.

Q184. A 4.0 m long wire is subjected to stretching force and its length increases by 40 cm. The percent elongation which the wire undergoes is:

• A. 0.10 %
• B. 40 %
• C. 10 %✓
• D. 20 %

Explanation: Given:Original length = 4mChange in length = 40 cm = 0.4 mPercentage elongation = ?Formula:To calculate the percentage elongation, we need to divide the change in length of the wire by its original length and then multiply by 100 to express it as a percentage. So,Percentage elongation = (Change in length / original length) × 100Percentage elongation = (0.4 / 4) × 100 = 0.1 × 100 = 10%

Q185. A gas sample contains three molecules each having speeds 1 ms-1, 2 ms-1, and 3 ms-1. What is the mean square speed?

• A. 14/3 m2/s2✓
• B. 6 m2/s2
• C. 2 m2/s2
• D. √(14/3) m/s

Explanation: To find the mean square speed of the gas sample, we need to calculate the average of the squares of the individual speeds. So,Mean square speed = (1)² + (2)² + (3)² / 3 = 1 + 4 + 9 / 3 = 14 /3Therefore, the mean square speed is 14/3ms-1.

Q186. What is the factor upon which change in internal energy of an ideal gas depends?

• A. Change in volume
• B. Change in temperature and volume
• C. Change in temperature✓
• D. Path followed to change internal energy

Explanation: The internal energy of an ideal gas depends solely on its temperature. According to the ideal gas law and the kinetic theory of gases, the internal energy of an ideal gas is directly proportional to its temperature. When the temperature of an ideal gas changes, its internal energy also changes.

Q187. What will be the mathematical form of the first law of thermodynamics for a system whose variation of volume by pressure is shown?

• A. Q = U
• B. U = W
• C. Q = U/W
• D. Q = W✓

Explanation: Since it is an isothermal process, there is no change in temperature hence the internal energy is constant. U = 0Hence, the equation will be: Q = WFor all isothermal compression or expansion of ideal gases.

Q188. For a heat engine ‘A’ the ratio of Q2 to Q1 is 2/3 while for that of heat engine ‘B’, the ratio of Q2 to Q1 is 1/3. What is the value ηA: ηB?

• A. 1:3
• B. 1:2✓
• C. 2:3
• D. 2:1

Explanation: To find the value of the efficiency ratio (ηA:ηB) between two heat engines A and B, we need to compare the ratios of their heat outputs (Q2) to their heat inputs (Q1).Given:Given that the ratio of Q2 to Q1 for engine A is ⅔ and for engine B is ⅓.Formula:We can calculate their efficiencies individually using the formula:Efficiency (η) = 1 - (Q2 / Q1)For Engine A: ηA = 1 - (⅔) = ⅓For Engine B: ηB = 1 - (⅓) = ⅔ Therefore, the efficiency ratio: ηA : ηB ⅓ : ⅔ 1 : 2The efficiency ratio of engine A to engine B is 1:2.

Q189. What is the charge stored on a 5 μF capacitor charged to a potential difference of 12 V?

• A. 60 μC✓
• B. 2.4 C
• C. 2.4 μC
• D. 60 C

Explanation: Use formula Q=CV, where C is .005 F and V is 12 V, and then convert the answer to μC by dividing it with 1000.0.005 x 12 / 1000 = 60 μC.

Q190. 12-volt battery is applied across 6-ohm resistance to have a steady flow of current. What must be the required potential difference across the same resistance to have a steady current of one ampere?

• A. 12 V
• B. 6 V✓
• C. 1 V
• D. 3 V

Explanation: To determine the potential difference required across a 6-ohm resistance to achieve a steady current of one ampere, we can use Ohm's law, which states that the current flowing through a resistor is directly proportional to the applied voltage and inversely proportional to the resistance:Use formula V=IR, where I is 1 and R is 6.V = 1 x 6 = 6 V

Q191. A solenoid is cut into two halves. Magnetic induction due to the same current in each half will be:

• A. Half of the original
• B. Double of the original
• C. Same as original✓
• D. Four times of the original

Explanation: Magnetic field due to a solenoid, B=μo n I, where n= l/N. So, if the length and number of turns become half for a solenoid, n remains the same, and thus magnetic field remains the same.

Q192. A long straight current-carrying conductor has current directed from bottom to top when held vertically. What will be the direction of magnetic field lines when observed from below the conductor?

• A. Clockwise✓
• B. Anti-clockwise
• C. Vertically upward
• D. Vertically downward

Explanation: The magnetic field generated by a long straight current-carrying conductor can be determined using the right-hand rule. When the current flows from bottom to top, if you point your right thumb in the direction of the current, your fingers will curl around the wire. When viewed from below, the fingers will curl in a clockwise direction, indicating that the magnetic field lines are oriented clockwise. The other options are incorrect because they do not represent the actual behavior of magnetic field lines around a straight current-carrying wire.

Q193. What is the output Boolean expression of logic diagram shown in figure below:

• A. A
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D✓

Explanation: The outputs of each NAND gate is given by AB and AB, making them the 2 inputs for the OR gate, so the final output X would be AB+AB.

Q194. Three resistors each having value 'R' are connected as shown in the figure. What is the equivalent resistance between 'X' and 'Y'?

• A. R
• B. R/3
• C. 3R✓
• D. R3

Explanation: The resistors are connected in series so their equivalent resistance would be the sum of resistances of all resistors.R+R+R=3R.

Q195. The diagram shows a wire, carrying a current ‘I’, placed between the poles of a magnet. In which direction does the force on the wire act?

• A. Towards the 'N' pole of the magnet
• B. Downwards✓
• C. Upwards
• D. Towards the 'S' pole of the magnet

Explanation: The force on the wire act upward. By Using Fleming's left hand rule we can find direction of force.

Q196. X-rays from a given X-ray tube operating under specified conditions have a minimum wavelength. The value of this minimum wavelength could be reduced by:

• A. Cooling the target
• B. Reducing the temperature of the filament
• C. Increasing the potential difference between the cathode and the target✓
• D. Reducing the pressure in the tube

Explanation: Increasing the potential difference between the cathode and the target can accelerate the electrons, resulting in higher energies when they interact with the target material. This increased energy can lead to X-rays with shorter wavelengths, effectively reducing the minimum wavelength.

Q197. Helium-neon lasers are used for the:

• A. Precise measurement of range finding
• B. Optical fiber communication systems
• C. Surveying for construction of tunnels✓
• D. Welding detached bone of body

Explanation: Helium-neon lasers serve in industrial alignment to determine straight lines with the laser beam in the construction of buildings, tunnels, and sewer pipes because they are inexpensive and provide continuous, visible output.

Q198. What is the type of characteristic X-ray photon whose energy is given by relation ‘hf =EM – EK’?

• A. K – alpha
• B. M – alpha
• C. K – beta✓
• D. M – beta

Explanation: When electrons from the M shell jump to occupy the hole in the K shell, the photons emitted are K-beta, and the energy emitted is hf = EM – EK

Q199. The kinetic energy of electrons by applying potential difference V1 across the x-ray tube is (KE)1, while the V2 potential difference produces kinetic energy equal to (KE)2. What, will be the value of (KE)1:(KE)2 if the ratio of potential difference V1:V2 = 2:3?

• A. 3:2
• B. 4:9
• C. 9:4
• D. 2:3✓

Explanation: Emax(KE) = hfmax = eV, V and KE are in direct relation so V:V and KE:KE ratios would be the same.

Q200. What will be the relation for the speed of electron accelerated towards the target in the X-ray tube by applying potential difference ‘V’, taking the mass of electron ‘m’ and charge on electron ‘e’?

• A. v = √(2eV/m)✓
• B. v = √(eV/m)
• C. v = √(2mV/e)
• D. v = √(m/eV)

Explanation: Energy gained by the electron when accelerated through a potential of V volts is E=eV This energy is completely converted to kinetic energy: E= ½ mv2Hence ½ mv2=eV --> v2=2eV/m And hence the velocity of the electron is: √(2Ve/m).

Q201. What does CAT stand for in X-ray technology?

• A. Capacitor Amplifier Transistor
• B. Computerized Axial Tomography✓
• C. Cathode Anode Technique
• D. Current Amplification Technology

Explanation: CAT stands for "Computerized Axial Tomography." It is commonly known as CT scan (Computerized Tomography scan). CT scans use a combination of X-rays and computer technology to create detailed cross-sectional images of the body. The images produced by CT scans provide valuable diagnostic information and are used in various medical applications, such as identifying abnormalities, guiding surgical procedures, and monitoring treatment progress.

Q202. During the production of LASER, when the excited state E2 contains more atoms than the ground state E1, the state is known as:

• A. Population inversion✓
• B. Ground State
• C. Excited state
• D. Metastable state

Explanation: Population inversion refers to a condition in which the number of atoms or molecules in an excited state (such as E2) is greater than the number in the ground state (such as E1). This is a necessary condition for the amplification of light in a laser.

Q203. In a cloud chamber, the path of β-particles is:

• A. Straight, thick, short
• B. Thin, wavy, shorter
• C. Thin, wavy, longer✓
• D. Thin, straight, short

Explanation: Beta particles form thin and discontinuous tracks extending (long) in an erratic manner showing frequent deflections (wavy).

Q204. Among the three types of radioactive radiation, which has the strongest penetration power?

• A. Alpha
• B. Gamma✓
• C. Beta
• D. All have same penetration power

Explanation: Gamma rays have the strongest penetrating power, beta radiation has the 2nd strongest and alpha is the least penetrating.

Q205. The emission of alpha particles from a radioactive substance causes:

• A. Decreases in 'Z' by 4 and decreases in 'A' by 2
• B. Decreases in 'A' by 1 and 'Z' remains same
• C. Decreases in 'Z' by 1 and 'A' remains same
• D. Decreases in 'A' by 4 and decreases in 'Z' by 2✓

Explanation: The ‘A’ (atomic mass) of an alpha particle is 4 and the ‘Z’ (atomic number) is 2. Hence A and Z would decrease by 4 and 2 respectively by emission of an alpha-particle.

Q206. 10 Joules of energy is absorbed by a 10-gram mass from a radioactive source. What is the absorbed dose?

• A. 1 gray
• B. 1000 gray✓
• C. 0 gray
• D. 100 gray

Explanation: Given:Energy = E = 10 JMass = m = 10 g = 0.01 kgAbsorbed dose = ?Formula:As we know that:Absorbed dose = Energy / mass = 10 / 0.01 = 1000 gray

Q207. Isotopes are those nuclei of an element that have:

• A. Same mass number but different atomic number
• B. Same mass number as well as atomic number
• C. Different mass number as well as atomic number
• D. Same atomic number but different mass number✓

Explanation: The isotopes of an element have the same number of protons and electrons, but different numbers of neutrons. So the atomic number would be the same and the mass number or atomic mass would be different.

Q208. Which one of the following emissions takes place in the nuclear reaction? 90Th234 → 91Pa232 + _ + 20n1

• A. Alpha
• B. Gamma
• C. Beta✓
• D. Photons

Explanation: Since the atomic mass is reduced by 2 and the atomic number is reduced by 1, beta emission has taken place along with emission of two neutrons since beta particles have atomic mass and atomic number of 0 and 1 respectively.

Q209. The emission of radiation from radioactive substances is:

• A. Dependent on both temperature and pressure
• B. Independent of temperature but dependent on pressure
• C. Independent of both temperature and pressure✓
• D. Independent of pressure but dependent on temperature

Explanation: Emission of radiation from radioactive substance is a spontaneous process and it is independent of both temperature and pressure.

Q210. In a simple harmonic motion with a radius xo, the velocity of the particle at any point is:

• A. A✓
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: In a simple harmonic motion, the velocity of the particle at any point can be expressed as: v = ω√(xo² - x²)Where,v is the velocity of the particle,ω is the angular frequency of the motion,xo is the amplitude or maximum displacement of the motion, andx is the displacement of the particle from the equilibrium position

Q211. What is the value of universal gas constant?

• A. 8314 J mol-1K-1
• B. 83.14 J mol-1K-2
• C. 831.4 J mol-1K-1
• D. 8.314 J mol-1K-1✓

Explanation: Universal gas constant is 8.314 J mol-1K-1.

Q212. Which of the following is the proper way to study the sinusoidal waveform of voltage?

• A. Voltage is connected to ‘Y’ input and time base is switched on✓
• B. Voltage is connected to ‘X’ input and time base is switched off
• C. Voltage is connected to ‘Y’ input and time base is switched off
• D. Voltage is connected to ‘X’ input and time base is switched on

Explanation: To study a sinusoidal voltage waveform on an oscilloscope, the voltage should be connected to the Y input, which controls the vertical movement of the trace. The time base should be switched on to provide a horizontal time progression. This combination allows the oscilloscope to plot the waveform accurately as a sine wave on the screen. Option A is correct for this reason. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because they either do not provide the necessary time progression or use the wrong input for voltage, preventing a proper waveform display.

Q213. In the following sentence, some segments of the sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.

• A. Along with
• B. Is the factor✓
• C. Take
• D. Towards
• E. No error

Explanation: The correct answer is option B: 'Is the factor'. In this case, the subject is plural ('three factors'), which requires the verb to be plural as well. Therefore, the correct phrase should be 'are the factors'. Options A, C, D, and E do not contain errors related to subject-verb agreement. 'Along with' does not influence the subject, 'Take' and 'Towards' are both used correctly, and 'No error' is incorrect because there is a clear mistake in the sentence structure.

Q214. In the following sentences, some segments of the sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.

• A. Let's
• B. The
• C. Is
• D. To✓

Explanation: The error lies in the use of the preposition 'to'. The correct preposition should be 'for', as it indicates the direction or destination of the bus: 'The bus is leaving for the last stop.'The other segments are correct: 'Let's' is a valid contraction, 'The' is the appropriate article, and 'is' is the correct form of the verb 'to be'.

Q215. Find errors in the following sentence:

• A. The captain, along with his team
• B. Are practising very hard✓
• C. For the
• D. Forthcoming matches

Explanation: The main subject of the sentence is 'the captain,' which is singular. The phrase 'along with his team' is a parenthetical expression and does not change the subject-verb agreement. Therefore, the verb should agree with the singular subject 'the captain,' requiring the use of 'is' instead of 'are.' This makes Option B incorrect because it uses 'are' instead of 'is.'Options A, C, and D do not contain any grammatical errors and are therefore correct as they appear in the sentence.

Q216. Identify the errors and choose the correct option:

• A. Guliver travels was written to Swift.
• B. Guliver travels was written at Swift.
• C. Guliver’s Travels was written by Swift.✓
• D. Gulivers’ Travel was written by Swift.

Explanation: Option A and Option B are incorrect since the apostrophe + ‘s’ (‘s) is absent which is needed after the noun “Gulliver” to indicate the possessive nature of the travels (i.e. to indicates that the travels were of Gulliver). Since Gulliver had more than one travel in the story, the word should be “Travels” and not “Travel”. Hence, Option D is incorrect, and Option C is correct.

Q217. Spot the error.We were ten miles up the highway when I happened to saw this classified advertisement in the newspaper.

• A. We were
• B. Up the
• C. To saw this✓
• D. In the

Explanation: There is a grammatical error in option C: “happened to saw this”.We always use the present tense of the verb so it should be “see” not “saw”.

Q218. Choose the correct spelling of the word:

• A. Arround
• B. Arond
• C. Arund
• D. Around✓

Explanation: We need to select the most accurate option. Option D is correct because the proper spelling of the given word is "around." Therefore, options A, B, and C are eliminated.

Q219. Identify the word or phrase that needs to be changed for the sentence to be correct.When I go into a bank, I get frighten.

• A. When
• B. I
• C. Get
• D. Frighten✓

Explanation: The sentence contains a grammar error where the verb 'frighten' is incorrectly used in place of the adjective 'frightened'. The sentence should describe the state of being scared, so 'frightened' is the correct choice. The word 'When' correctly introduces the clause, and 'I' is the correct subject pronoun. 'Get' is appropriate in its position, but it should be coupled with 'frightened' rather than 'frighten'.

Q220. Identify the mistake that needs to be corrected.We wished today was sunny so that we could spend the day in the country communicating with nature.

• A. Was✓
• B. So that
• C. Could spend
• D. In the country

Explanation: Instead of 'was', 'were' should have been used. We wish today were sunny..These phrases are never correct: I wish I was, I wish it was, he wishes he was, she wishes she was. Always remember this rule about the usage of was and were: use were with expressions that are hypothetical, wishful, imagined, desired, doubtful, and otherwise contrary to fact—that is to say, not real.