Uhs Mdcat 2014 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. It is our national duty to _ our vote in the general election.

• A. Throw
• B. Cast✓
• C. Drop
• D. Refuse

Explanation: Votes are always "cast", which means "to direct an entry"The verb "cast" is commonly used to refer to the act of voting in an election. The other options do not fit the context and would not make sense in this sentence.

Q2. She is intelligent enough to _ things to serve her own purpose.

• A. Pick
• B. Maneuver✓
• C. Give
• D. Take

Explanation: "Maneuver" is a verb, which means to perform a movement in order to secure an advantage. This is the actual context in which this vocabulary word is used here.

Q3. She _ about with the excitement of hearing the news of her sister’s wedding.

• A. Ran
• B. Jigged✓
• C. Talked
• D. Wept

Explanation: Dance performed out of excitement is called a “jig”, which is the proper context for using this word in this case.Weep means to cry which happens in cases of sadness.Talking and running also do not suit the sense of the sentence.

Q4. Everyone should be _ duties and assignments according to his/her abilities.

• A. Prevented
• B. Advised
• C. Delegated✓
• D. Suggested

Explanation: “To delegate a task” means “to assign a task” which fits most appropriately in this context that “Everyone should be assigned duties...according to his/her abilities.

Q5. Spot the error.We were ten miles up the highway when I happened to saw this classified advertisement in the newspaper.

• A. We were
• B. Up the
• C. To saw this✓
• D. In the

Explanation: There is a grammatical error in option C: “happened to saw this”.We always use the present tense of the verb so it should be “see” not “saw”.

Q6. Spot the error. “All is well what ends well”, said the father when he had finished the story.

• A. Is well what✓
• B. Said the
• C. When he had
• D. The story

Explanation: The correct phrase should be “All is well when it ends well”. 'What' doesn’t make sense here as it does not refer to a time frame.

Q7. Spot the error. Rubber tubes upon which children had swing in backyards hung suspended like stopped clock pendulums in the blazing air.

• A. Upon which
• B. Had swing in the backyards✓
• C. Suspended like
• D. In the

Explanation: “Had swing” is wrong. We always use the third form of the verb with has/have/had. Students should also note that the past tense of suspend is used i.e 'suspended' which is why we will use 'swung' instead of 'swing'.

Q8. Spot the error. The child was fully dressed and sitting in her father’s lap near the kitchen table.

• A. Fully
• B. Sitting in✓
• C. Kitchen table
• D. No error

Explanation: Dressed is past tense while “sitting” is present continuous tense making the sentence incoherent.

Q9. Spot the error. The three Abdul Rehman, like his illustrious predecessor, was a young man of twenty-three when he took office.

• A. The three✓
• B. Like his
• C. Was a
• D. When he

Explanation: "The three" is a wrong use as "the" is not used to describe a proper noun like it is done in this case. Correct use would have been "Abdul Rehman the third"

Q10. Spot the error. Enlarged and beautified by later Caliphs, Al-Zahra become the nucleus of a royal suburb whose remains partly evacuated in and after 1910, can still be seen.

• A. By later
• B. Become the✓
• C. Whose remains
• D. In and after

Explanation: The sentence is in past tense so the verb should also be in past tense hence it is wrong to use “become” instead we should use “became”.

Q11. Choose the correct sentence from the following options.

• A. I thought it over very carefully before broaching the subject to Asma.✓
• B. I thought it by very carefully before broaching the subject to Asma.
• C. I thought through very carefully before broaching the subject to Asma.
• D. I thought over very carefully before broaching the subject to Asma.

Explanation: Correct sentence structure is present in option A, having proper use of subject-verb and object. Options B and C are wrong because of the use of “by”, “through” and “over”, which goes against the basic rules of subject-verb-object.

Q12. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given wordDISDAIN

• A. Vice
• B. Dislike
• C. Contempt✓
• D. Ignorance

Explanation: “The feeling that someone or something is unworthy of one's consideration or respect.” is called disdain, the same as what is meant by contempt.

Q13. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given wordSAGACITY

• A. Suspicious
• B. Cruelty
• C. Wisdom✓
• D. Foolishness

Explanation: SAGACITY means the quality of being intelligent which is synonymous with “WISDOM”.

Q14. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given wordFLAUNT

• A. Snipe
• B. Dance
• C. Show off✓
• D. Preserve

Explanation: FLAUNT means to “display (something) ostentatiously, especially in order to provoke envy or admiration or to show defiance” which is what is meant by “show off”

Q15. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given wordURBANE

• A. Suave✓
• B. Rough
• C. Bad
• D. Dishonest

Explanation: URBANE means a person who is courteous and refined in manner which is exactly what is meant by suave.

Q16. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given wordDIASPORA

• A. Gathering
• B. Dispersion✓
• C. Alliance
• D. Animosity

Explanation: A diaspora is a scattered population whose origin lies in a separate geographic locale.

Q17. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given wordIMPETUOUS

• A. Honest
• B. Impulsive✓
• C. Lazy
• D. Liar

Explanation: Impetuous suggests eagerness, violence, and rashness. Impulsivity is the tendency to act without thinking. Being impulsive leads to being impetuous. These two words are most closely related to the given options, hence impulsive is our answer.

Q18. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given wordVOCIFEROUS

• A. Hidden
• B. Loud✓
• C. Strong
• D. Weak

Explanation: VOCIFEROUS is characterized by being “loud and forceful.”

Q19. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word.TRANSIENT

• A. Permanent
• B. Temporary✓
• C. Long
• D. Good

Explanation: Transient means something that ends after a a certain time/fades away, which is synonymous to “temporary”.

Q20. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given wordPROWESS

• A. Hindrance
• B. Skill✓
• C. Reservation
• D. Bad name

Explanation: PROWESS means “a skill or expertise in a particular activity or field”, hence the answer is B.

Q21. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given wordBEQUEATH

• A. Grant✓
• B. Imbibe
• C. Irrigate
• D. Hope

Explanation: To BEQUEATH means “to leave (property) to a person or other beneficiary by a will”. Exactly what is meant by grant.

Q22. The use of living organisms in industry for the production of useful products is known as:

• A. Parasitology
• B. Biochemistry
• C. Biotechnology✓
• D. Molecular biology

Explanation: The exploitation of biological process for industrial and other purposes, especially the genetic manipulation of microorganisms for the production of useful products.

Q23. Plants having foreign DNA incorporated in their cells are called:

• A. Clone plants
• B. Transgenic plants✓
• C. Parthenocarpic plpants
• D. Mutant plants

Explanation: Transgenic plants are plants into which one or more genes from another species have been introduced into the genome, using genetic engineering processes.

Q24. Treatment by using attenuated culture of bacteria is called _.

• A. Chemotherapy
• B. Sterilization
• C. Antisepsis
• D. Vaccination✓

Explanation: An attenuated vaccine consists of live, whole bacterial celis viral particles that are treated in such a way that they have reduced virulence with in the host but retain their ability to provoke an immune response.

Q25. The major cause of hepatitis B is _.

• A. Blood transfusion✓
• B. Blood clotting
• C. Absence of fibrinogen
• D. Contaminated soil

Explanation: Hepatitis B is a potentially life-threatening liver infection caused by the hepatitis B virus (HBV). It is a major global health problem. Hepatitis B is spread when blood, semen, or other body fluids from a person infected with the virus enter the body of someone who is not infected. Hepatitis B is primarily transmitted through contact with infected blood or other body fluids through blood transfusion.

Q26. During animal cell division, the spindle fibres are formed from:

• A. Mitochondria
• B. Centrioles✓
• C. Ribosomes
• D. Lysosomes

Explanation: At the beginning of the nuclear division, two wheel-shaped protein structures called centrioles position themselves at opposite ends of the cell forming cell poles. Long protein fibers called microtubules extend from the centrioles in all possible directions, forming what is called a spindle.

Q27. Which component of the cell is concerned with cell secretions?

• A. Plasma membrane
• B. Golgi complex✓
• C. Cytoskeleton
• D. Mitochondria

Explanation: The Golgi complex is the correct answer because it is the organelle responsible for modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins and lipids that are either secreted from the cell or sent to other locations. Proteins synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) are transported to the Golgi complex for further processing. Once processed, these proteins are packaged into vesicles for secretion. The other options are not primarily involved in cell secretions: the plasma membrane regulates transport and communication, the cytoskeleton provides structural support, and mitochondria are involved in energy production.

Q28. During which period of interphase (cell cycle) DNA is synthesized?

• A. G1
• B. G2
• C. S✓
• D. G0

Explanation: The S phase of a cell cycle occurs during interphase, before mitosis or meiosis, and is responsible for the synthesis or replication of DNA. In this way, the genetic material of a cell is doubled before it enters mitosis or meiosis, allowing there to be enough DNA to be split into daughter cells

Q29. Peptidoglycan or murein is a special or distinctive feature of the cell wall in:

• A. Algae
• B. Fungi
• C. Bacteria✓
• D. Plants

Explanation: The peptidoglycan (murein) sacculus is a unique and essential structural element in the cell wall of most bacteria. Peptidoglycan or murein is a unique large macromolecule, a polysaccharide, consisting of sugars and amino acids that form a mesh-like peptidoglycan layer outside the plasma membrane, the rigid cell wall characteristic of most bacteria.

Q30. In mitochondria, small knob-like structures called F1 particles are found in:

• A. Outer membrane
• B. Outer compartment
• C. Inner membrane✓
• D. Inner compartment

Explanation: The inner membrane of mitochondria has infoldings called cristae. Small knob-like structures are present on cristae. These knob-like structures are called F1 particles.

Q31. The most critical phase of mitosis which ensures equal distribution of chromatids in the daughter cells is:

• A. Prophase
• B. Metaphase
• C. Anaphase✓
• D. Telophase

Explanation: The third stage of cell division, between metaphase and telophase, during which the chromosomes move away from one another to opposite poles of the spindle.

Q32. Non-disjunction of the 21st pair of chromosomes in one of the gametes leads to 47 chromosomes in one individual. This condition is called

• A. Turner’s syndrome
• B. Klinefelter’s syndrome
• C. Down syndrome✓
• D. Jacob’s syndrome

Explanation: Down syndrome is usually caused by an error in cell division called “nondisjunction.” Nondisjunction results in an embryo with three copies of chromosome 21 instead of the usual two. Before or at conception, a pair of 21st chromosomes in either the sperm or the egg fails to separate.

Q33. The intake of liquid materials across the cell membrane is:

• A. Phagocytosis
• B. Pinocytosis✓
• C. Endocytosis
• D. Exocytosis

Explanation: The ingestion of liquid material into a cell by the budding of small vesicles from the cell membrane is called pinocytosis while the process by which certain living cells called phagocytes ingest or engulf other cells or solid particles is called phagocytosis.

Q34. Which one of the following is the site of oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria?

• A. Cristae✓
• B. Matrix
• C. Outer membrane
• D. Ribosomes

Explanation: The site of oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria is the inner mitochondrial membrane. While the inner mitochondrial membrane is the primary site of oxidative phosphorylation, it is essential to mention that the specific structures within the inner membrane called cristae play a crucial role in this process. Cristae are the infoldings or protrusions of the inner mitochondrial membrane, and they significantly increase the surface area available for the various proteins involved in oxidative phosphorylation. Within the inner mitochondrial membrane, there is a series of protein complexes collectively known as the electron transport chain (ETC). This is where the transfer of electrons takes place, and the energy released during this process is used to pump protons across the inner mitochondrial membrane, creating a proton gradient. The enzyme ATP synthase, also located in the inner mitochondrial membrane, utilizes the energy from the proton gradient to synthesize ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate. This entire process of electron transport and ATP synthesis is referred to as oxidative phosphorylation.

Q35. Organelle involved in the synthesis of ATP is

• A. Ribosome
• B. Mitochondria✓
• C. Nucleus
• D. Centriole

Explanation: The classic role of mitochondria is oxidative phosphorylation, which generates ATP by utilizing the energy released during the oxidation of the food we eat. ATP is used in turn as the primary energy source for most biochemical and physiological processes, such as growth, movement, and homeostasis.

Q36. The most common respiratory substrate as an energy source is:

• A. Glucose✓
• B. Sucrose
• C. Fructose
• D. Insulin

Explanation: The most common respiratory substrate (a substance that undergoes oxidation in cellular respiration to produce energy) is glucose. Glucose is a simple sugar and is a primary source of energy for many organisms. In cellular respiration, glucose is oxidized to produce carbon dioxide, water, and energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

Q37. The simplest monosaccharide containing keto group is:

• A. Glyceraldehyde
• B. Dihydroxyacetone✓
• C. Glucose
• D. Ribose

Explanation: Dihydroxy acetone is the simplest monosaccharide with a keto group. It is a 3-carbon sugar (a triose) and is classified as a ketotriose.

Q38. If the genetic code is made up of three nucleotides, then total possible genetic codes will be:

• A. 4
• B. 20
• C. 64✓
• D. 61

Explanation: Each group of three nucleotides encodes an amino acid. The total number of genetic codes can be found by 4^3 = 64, where 4 is the total number of nucleotide bases and 3 is the number of bases that can be in one genetic code.

Q39. Waterproof surfaces like cuticle of leaf and protective covering of an insect’s body are

• A. Phospholipids
• B. Waxes✓
• C. Terpenoids
• D. Acylglycerols

Explanation: Cutin in leaves and exoskeleton of insects is made up of wax. Cutin and suberin are complex bio polyesters composed of fatty acids and aromatic compounds. Cutin is the major component of the cuticle, the waxy, water-repelling surface layer of cell walls exposed to the environment aboveground An insect's exoskeleton (integument) serves not only as a protective covering over the body, but also as a surface for muscle attachment, a water-tight barrier against desiccation, and a sensory interface with the environment.

Q40. In translation, the terminating codon is:

• A. GUA
• B. UAA✓
• C. UUG
• D. AGU

Explanation: UAA, UAG, and UGA are stop codons. They do not code for any amino acid, instead signal termination of translation.

Q41. All coenzymes are derived from

• A. Proteins
• B. Carbohydrates
• C. Metal ions
• D. Vitamins✓

Explanation: Coenzymes are organic compounds required by many enzymes for catalytic activity. Coenzymes are mostly derived from vitamins and other organic essential nutrients in small amounts.

Q42. The competitive inhibitors have structural similarity with:

• A. Active site
• B. Binding site
• C. Substrate✓
• D. Coenzyme

Explanation: The competitive inhibitor has structural similarity with the substrate, hence it interferes with the substrate binding to the enzyme molecule.

Q43. Which one of the following is the optimum pH of pancreatic lipase enzyme?

• A. 7.60
• B. 8.00
• C. 9.00✓
• D. 9.70

Explanation: Pancreatic lipase has an optimum pH of 9.00, which aligns with its role in the alkaline environment of the small intestine, where it aids in the digestion of fats. Other enzymes like catalase and chymotrypsin have different pH optima due to their distinct functions and locations. For example, catalase works best at a neutral pH of 7.60, and chymotrypsin is optimal in the range of 7.00-8.00. Arginase, on the other hand, functions well at a pH closer to 9.70.

Q44. A cofactor tightly bound to the enzyme on the permanent basis is called:

• A. Activator
• B. Coenzyme
• C. Prosthetic group✓
• D. Apo-enzyme

Explanation: Prosthetic groups are cofactors very tightly bound to the inactive enzyme (called apoenzyme), even covalently in some cases. Examples of them are the biotin and heme groups, cytochrome C, flavin mononucleotide, and FAD.

Q45. Which of the following cells are mainly infected by HIV?

• A. T-killer lymphocytes
• B. T-helper lymphocytes✓
• C. B-plasma cells
• D. B-memory cells

Explanation: The correct answer is option B—helper T-lymphocytes (CD4+ T-cells). These cells, derived from T-cells maturing in the thymus, coordinate the immune response by activating other immune cells. T-killer (cytotoxic) T-cells destroy infected cells, while B-plasma cells produce antibodies, and B-memory cells provide long-term immunity. HIV specifically targets helper T-lymphocytes, impairing immune coordination, which makes the other options incorrect.

Q46. Which one of the following antibiotics causes permanent discoloration of teeth in young children if it is misused?

• A. Penicillin
• B. Streptomycin
• C. Sulfonamide
• D. Tetracycline✓

Explanation: Tetracycline is a short-acting antibiotic that inhibits bacterial growth by inhibiting translation. Intrinsic, permanent tooth discoloration is well known to occur with the use of tetracycline antibiotics if taken during tooth development (ie, the last half of pregnancy, infancy, and in childhood up to eight years of age). Hence, option D is correct.

Q47. What are the sequences of steps in which a bacteriophage attacks bacteria and injects its DNA?

• A. Landing → Tail contraction → Penetration → DNA Injection✓
• B. Penetration → Landing → Tail contraction → DNA Injection
• C. Tail contraction → Landing → DNA Injection → Penetration
• D. Landing → Penetration → Tail contraction → DNA Injection

Explanation: The phage first attaches itself by its tail to the cell wall of bacterium at a point called receptor site. The phage contains an enzyme called lysosome, which digest the cell wall of bacterium. Thus an opening is formed in the bacterial cell wall. The phage contracts and injects its DNA inside the host while the protein coat and the tail remain outside. Thus, Option A is correct

Q48. Athlete’s Foot is a disease caused by

• A. Bacteria
• B. Virus
• C. Fungus✓
• D. Arthropod

Explanation: Athlete's foot is an infection of the feet caused by fungus. The medical term is tinea pedis or ringworm of the foot.

Q49. Ascaris is which one of the following?

• A. Ectoparasite
• B. Respiratory tract parasite
• C. Intestinal parasite✓
• D. Urinogenital tract parasite

Explanation: Ascaris lumbricoides is an intestinal parasite of man.

Q50. Polymorphism is a feature exhibited by members of:

• A. Coelenterates✓
• B. Arthropoda
• C. Porifera
• D. Platyhelminthes

Explanation: Polymorphism is the phenomenon where individuals within the species exhibit various functional and structural differences. Phylum coelenterata which shows polymorphism as individuals are sighting of it possessing modified polyp-like structures. It is particularly seen in its member Hydrozoa.

Q51. _is a process by which the cell takes in fluids along with dissolved small molecules. In this process, the cell membrane folds and creates small pockets and captures the cellular fluid and dissolved substances.

• A. Pinocytosis✓
• B. Phagocytosis
• C. Transcytosis
• D. Active Transport

Explanation: Pinocytosis is the cellular process by which a cell takes in fluids along with dissolved small molecules. It involves the folding of the cell membrane to form small pockets or vesicles. Unlike phagocytosis, pinocytosis is a passive process that does not require energy expenditure by the cell. Transcytosis involves transporting molecules across a cell, while active transport requires energy to move molecules against their concentration gradient.

Q52. Which one of the following is an example of a free living carnivorous flatworm?

• A. Liver fluke
• B. Dugesia✓
• C. Tapeworm
• D. Schistosoma

Explanation: Dugesia is a member of the phylum Planaria. Planarians are free-living flatworms and have a much simpler life history. They inhabit freshwater and are carnivores (even without teeth) or scavengers.

Q53. The sources of staple food for man are plants that belong to the family:

• A. Mimosaceae
• B. Poaceae✓
• C. Rosaceae
• D. Fabaceae

Explanation: Poaceae, commonly known as the grass family, is one of the largest and most economically important families of flowering plants. The Poaceae family includes a wide variety of grasses, ranging from small, herbaceous plants to large, woody bamboos. Many grasses in the Poaceae family are of great economic importance for humans and animals. They are used as staple food crops, for forage, as ornamental plants, and for the production of materials such as paper and thatch. This family includes major cereal crops that serve as staples worldwide, such as rice (Oryza sativa), wheat (Triticum aestivum), maize (corn, Zea mays), barley (Hordeum vulgare), and oats (Avena sativa).

Q54. In humans, Escherichia coli is involved in the formation of?

• A. Calcium
• B. Vitamin D
• C. Vitamin A
• D. Vitamin K✓

Explanation: E. coli benefits its host in several ways. It produces vitamin K and vitamin B12, both of which are required by mammalian hosts. They live upon the undigested food passing through the caecum and help in the better absorption of food. The deficiencies of these vitamins cause many diseases, like beriberi or pernicious anemia. Therefore, option D is correct.

Q55. The function of Goblet cells is to secrete:

• A. Gastrin
• B. Hydrochloric acid
• C. Pepsinogen
• D. Mucus✓

Explanation: The primary function of goblet cells is to secrete mucin and create a protective mucus layer. Goblet cells are also thought to be involved with immunoregulation. Samples of goblet cells can be preserved through cryopreservation and analyzed with light microscopy.

Q56. Gastric glands are composed of _ types of cells.

• A. Two
• B. Three
• C. Four✓
• D. Five

Explanation: The gastric glands are composed of 4 types of cells: Mucus cells: These cells secrete mucus that protects the stomach lining from the corrosive nature of stomach acid. Parietal cells: These cells secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl) and intrinsic factor. Hydrochloric acid is crucial for digestion, while intrinsic factor is needed for vitamin B12 absorption. Chief cells: These cells secrete pepsinogen, an inactive enzyme that is converted to the active enzyme pepsin when exposed to hydrochloric acid. Endocrine cells: These cells secrete hormones like gastrin, which stimulate the production of stomach acid.

Q57. HCL in gastric Juice is secreted by which one of the following cells?

• A. Chief cells
• B. Mucous cells
• C. Oxyntic cells✓
• D. Kupffer cells

Explanation: Oxyntic (or parietal) cells of the stomach secrete hydrochloric acid.

Q58. Histamine is produced by which one of the following cells

• A. Basophils✓
• B. Platelets
• C. Monocyte
• D. Eosinophils

Explanation: Histamine is synthesized primarily by mast cells, basophils, histaminergic neurons in the basal ganglia of the brain, and enterochromaffin-like cells (ECL) in the stomach. These cells produce large amounts of histamine and are thought to be the major histamine-producing cells. Histamine is released from cells in response to an antibody called immunoglobulin E (IgE). This antibody may be secreted in response to an invading pathogen such as a virus, or bacteria, or an allergenic substance such as pollen. Histamine can also be released in response to injury caused by toxins.

Q59. Which one of the following is the most numerous / commonest of white blood cells

• A. Eosinophils
• B. Monocytes
• C. Neutrophils✓
• D. Lymphocytes

Explanation: Neutrophils are the most abundant WBCs. These are phagocytic. They kill and digest bacteria and fungi. They are the most numerous white blood cells and your first line of defense when infection strikes. They constitute around 60% of the entire WBC count.

Q60. The oxygenated blood from lungs to heart is transport by the:

• A. Pulmonary artery
• B. Pulmonary vein✓
• C. Coronary artery
• D. Hepatic artery

Explanation: The pulmonary veins are the only veins in the body that carry oxygenated blood. They are four in number, two from each lung, and they drain into the left atrium of the heart. The pulmonary veins transport oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart. The lungs are responsible for exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide with the blood. The blood that enters the lungs is deoxygenated, meaning that it has lost most of its oxygen. The lungs take in oxygen from the air and transfer it to the blood. The blood then leaves the lungs oxygenated and returns to the heart. The pulmonary veins are important for transporting oxygenated blood to the heart. Without the pulmonary veins, the heart would not be able to receive oxygenated blood and would not be able to pump blood to the rest of the body.

Q61. Which one of the following proteins takes part in blood clotting

• A. Prothrombin
• B. Fibrinogen
• C. Immunoglobulin
• D. Globulin
• E. Both A and B✓

Explanation: Prothrombin is a protein made by the liver. Prothrombin helps blood to clot. The "prothrombin time" (PT) is one way of measuring how long it takes blood to form a clot, and it is measured in seconds (such as 13.2 seconds). A normal PT indicates that a normal amount of blood-clotting protein is available.Fibrinogen is a protein produced by the liver. This protein helps stop bleeding by helping blood clots to form. When blood clotting is activated, fibrinogen circulating in the blood is converted to fibrin which in turn helps in forming a stable clot at the site of vascular disruption.

Q62. Which one of the following is responsible for the production of concentrated urine

• A. Juxtamedullary nephrons✓
• B. Cortical nephrons
• C. Proximal tubule
• D. Distal tubule

Explanation: Juxtamedullary nephrons have long loops of Henle that extend deep into the medulla, enabling the countercurrent multiplier system which establishes a strong osmotic gradient in the renal medulla. This gradient allows the kidneys to reabsorb water efficiently and produce concentrated urine. Cortical nephrons have shorter loops and are less involved in concentration. The proximal and distal tubules are segments of the nephron involved in reabsorption and secretion but do not directly create urine concentration.

Q63. Reabsorption of useful constituents normally takes place in which one of the following

• A. Proximal tubule✓
• B. Distal tubule
• C. Bowman’s capsule
• D. Glomerulus

Explanation: Option A is correct.Reabsorption mostly takes place in the proximal tube of nephron. Nearly all of the glucose, water, potassium, and amino acids lost during glomerular filtration re enter the blood through tubules.

Q64. Which one of the following parts of the excretory system in humans acts as a countercurrent multiplier?

• A. Kidney
• B. Cortex
• C. Medulla
• D. Loop of Henle✓

Explanation: The loop of Henle functions as a countercurrent multiplier in the kidney’s nephron. It creates a concentration gradient in the medulla by actively transporting ions out of the tubular fluid, enabling the kidney to concentrate urine efficiently.

Q65. Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) is released from:

• A. Anterior pituitary lobe
• B. Posterior pituitary lobe✓
• C. Hypothalamus
• D. Thalamus

Explanation: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is produced in the area of the brain called the hypothalamus. This hormone is stored in and released by the posterior pituitary gland. ADH controls how our body releases and conserves water.

Q66. Which one of the following is the main nitrogenous waste product in humans?

• A. Ammonia
• B. Uric acid
• C. Urea✓
• D. Creatinine

Explanation: Urea is the main nitrogenous waste in human, excreted in urine after protein metabolism.

Q67. The right and left cerebral hemispheres are connected by a thick band of nerve fibres called

• A. Medulla
• B. Corpus callosum✓
• C. Pons
• D. Hippocampus

Explanation: The two hemispheres in the brain are connected by a thick bundle of nerve fibres called the corpus callosum, which ensures both sides of the brain can communicate and send signals to each other.

Q68. The part of the brain that guides smooth and accurate motions and maintains body position is called

• A. Cerebrum
• B. Cerebellum✓
• C. Pons
• D. Medulla

Explanation: The cerebellum is located at the back of the head. Its function is to coordinate voluntary muscle movements, maintain postures, balance, and equilibrium.

Q69. Which one of the following is the effect of a sympathetic nervous system?

• A. Constriction of bronchi
• B. Decrease in heart rate
• C. Promotes digestion or peristalsis
• D. Dilates the pupil✓

Explanation: The sympathetic nervous system activates during flight or fight conditions. It can accelerate heart rate, widen bronchial passage, decrease the motility of the large intestine, constrict blood vessels, increase peristalsis in the esophagus cause pupillary dilation. The sympathetic nervous system is also responsible for goosebumps, sweating, and a rise in blood pressure.

Q70. High levels of aluminium may contribute to the onset of which one of the following?

• A. Parkinson’s disease
• B. Epilepsy
• C. Alzheimer’s disease✓
• D. Gonorrhea

Explanation: Aluminium is increased in the brains of people with Alzheimer's disease. A convincing relationship between the amount of exposure or aluminum in the body and the development of Alzheimer's in the body has been established.

Q71. Testosterone is produced by which one of the following:

• A. Sertoli cells
• B. Germinal epithelium
• C. Interstitial cells✓
• D. Spermatogonia

Explanation: Leydig cells are also called Interstitial cells as they are present in between the tubules. They have pale cytoplasm because of the large number of cholesterol droplets in them. The Leydig cells make and secrete testosterone in response to LH from the pituitary gland.

Q72. The oocyte released during ovulation is in:

• A. Anaphase I
• B. Prophase I
• C. Metaphase I
• D. Metaphase II✓

Explanation: When a female ovulates the secondary oocyte is in metaphase II. It then completes the second phase of meiosis to make a mature ovum only if fertilization takes place.

Q73. Yellowish glandular structure formed after the release of egg from follicle is called:

• A. Corpus callosum
• B. Graffian follicle
• C. Corpus luteum✓
• D. Follicle atresia

Explanation: The Corpus luteum is a yellowish glandular structure formed after the release of an egg in the female reproductive system. It is formed in the ovary at the site of a follicle or sac that has matured and released its egg in the process known as ovulation.

Q74. On puberty, the development of primary follicles is stimulated by:

• A. ICSH
• B. FSH✓
• C. LH
• D. Estrogen

Explanation: FSH lays an important role in sexual development and functionality. In women, FSH controls the menstrual cycle and stimulates the development of primary Follicles in the ovary. The levels of FSH continuously change in a female body throughout the menstrual cycle, with the highest levels happening just before an egg is released from the ovary.

Q75. Causative agent of a sexually transmitted disease that affects mucous membrane of the urogenital tract is:

• A. Staphylococcus aureus
• B. Treponema pallidum
• C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae✓
• D. Escherichia coli

Explanation: Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), or sexually transmitted infections (STIs), are infections that are passed from one person to another through sexual contact. They are usually spread during vaginal, oral, or anal sex. Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted disease caused by bacterial infection. The agent for Gonorrhea is Neisseria Gonorrhoeae. It invades the mucus membranes of reproductive tracts including the cervix, vagina, uterus, fallopian tubes in women, and urethra in both men and women.

Q76. In a human vertebral column, the number of _ vertebrae is 7.

• A. Cervical✓
• B. Thoracic
• C. Lumber
• D. Sacrum

Explanation: There are 7 cervical vertebrae in the human neck.

Q77. Which one of the following structures holds the bones together:

• A. Joints
• B. Cartilages
• C. Fibrous capsules
• D. Ligaments✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Ligaments. Ligaments are fibrous connective tissues that connect bones to other bones, providing joint stability and holding the skeletal structure together. Joints are places where bones meet to allow movement, but they do not connect bones. Cartilage acts as a cushion at the ends of bones to reduce friction and absorb shock but does not join bones together. Fibrous capsules are part of the joint structure, providing an enclosing sheath around the joint, but they do not hold the bones together like ligaments do.

Q78. Which one of the following cartilages is the most abundant in the human body:

• A. Elastic cartilage
• B. Chondral cartilage
• C. Fibrous Cartilage
• D. Hyaline Cartilage✓

Explanation: A translucent bluish-white type of cartilage present in the joints, the respiratory tract, and the immature skeleton is known as hyaline cartilage. It is the most abundant cartilage in the human body.

Q79. The repeated protein pattern of myofibrils is called:

• A. Sarcomere✓
• B. Sarcolemma
• C. Zyomere
• D. Cross bridges

Explanation: The correct answer is the sarcomere, which is the repeating unit within myofibrils responsible for muscle contraction. Sarcomeres contain actin and myosin filaments that slide past each other to facilitate contraction. The sarcolemma is the muscle cell membrane and not part of the repeating protein pattern. Zygomere is not a valid term in muscle anatomy. Cross bridges are temporary structures formed during contraction, not the repeating pattern within myofibrils.

Q80. When more energy is required in muscle contraction then that energy can also be produced by _ as a secondary source.

• A. Glucose
• B. Phosphocreatine✓
• C. Fructose
• D. Lactic acid

Explanation: After glucose, Phosphocreatine serves as a secondary source of energy.

Q81. Which one of the following is a steroid hormone?

• A. Glucagon
• B. Epinephrine
• C. Thyroxin
• D. Estrogen✓

Explanation: Estrogen is a steroid hormone that plays a crucial role in the development and regulation of the female reproductive system. It is produced mainly by the ovaries and helps control the menstrual cycle, promote secondary sexual characteristics in females, and maintain pregnancy.

Q82. The gonadotropic hormones of the anterior lobe of the pituitary include:

• A. Prolactin, Thyroid Stimulating Hormone, Somatotropin Hormone
• B. Follicle Stimulating Hormone, Luteinizing Hormone, Prolactin✓
• C. Adrenocorticotropic Hormone, Luteinizing Hormone, Follicle Stimulating Hormone
• D. Luteinizing Hormone, Follicle Stimulating Hormone, Thyroid Stimulating Hormone

Explanation: Gonadotropins are glycoprotein hormones secreted by gonadotropic cells of the anterior pituitary gland. Luteinizing Hormone (LH), Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH), and prolactin are the three hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary.

Q83. Overactivity of the cortical hormone of the adrenal gland causes:

• A. Addison’s disease
• B. Parkinson’s disease
• C. Cushing’s disease✓
• D. Down’s syndrome

Explanation: Cushing syndrome occurs when the level of cortisol is too high in the body. This can occur because the pituitary gland is making too much Adrenocorticotropic hormone, which in turn causes the adrenal gland to make corticosteroids in excessive amounts. It can also be caused by taking steroid medicines for a long period.

Q84. How many iodine atoms are present in thyroxine T4?

• A. 3
• B. 4✓
• C. 2
• D. 5

Explanation: The thyroid is a small, butterfly-shaped gland located at the front of the neck. It's part of the endocrine system and controls many of the body's important functions by producing and releasing (secreting) certain hormones such as thyroxine and triiodothyronine. Thyroxine is produced by attaching iodine atoms to the ring structure of proteins' tyrosine residues. Thyroxine T4 contains 4 iodine atoms, while tri-iodothyronine contains 3 iodine atoms.

Q85. T-lymphocytes recognize antigens and attack microorganisms or transplanted organs and tissues. This effect is called

• A. Cell-mediated response✓
• B. Humoral immune response
• C. Active immunity
• D. Passive immunity

Explanation: T lymphocytes recognize an antigen and then attack microorganisms and the connection to it. Since this occurs cell to cell, it is called a cell-mediated response and opt a is right.

Q86. Which part of the antibody recognizes the antigen during immune response?

• A. Heavy part
• B. Light part
• C. Constant part
• D. Variable part✓

Explanation: Antibodies are immune system-related proteins called immunoglobulins. Each antibody consists of four polypeptide chains 2 heavy chains and 2 light chains joined together to form Y Y-shaped molecule. Each antibody has a variable region and a constant region. The variable region is composed of 110-130 amino acids which gives the antibody its specificity to bind to antigen. The variable region consists of the end of both light and heavy chains.

Q87. What type of immunity is achieved by injecting antibodies, antiserum, anti-venom serum

• A. Active immunity
• B. Passive immunity✓
• C. Artificially induced immunity
• D. Naturally induced immunity

Explanation: The short-term immunity which results from the introduction of antibodies from another person or animal is called as passive immunity.

Q88. Which one of the following glands is involved in the production of lymphocytes:

• A. Pineal
• B. Thymus✓
• C. Pituitary
• D. Andrenal

Explanation: The thymus is a specialized primary lymphoid organ of the immune system. Within the thymus, lymphocytes or T cells mature. T cells are critical to the adaptive immune system, where the body adapts specifically to foreign invaders.

Q89. Antibodies are proteins and made up of how many polypeptide chains

• A. One
• B. Two
• C. Three
• D. Four✓

Explanation: Antibodies are immune system-related proteins called immunoglobulins. Each antibody consists of four polypeptide chains 2 heavy chains and 2 light chains joined together to form Y Y-shaped molecule. Hence opt D is the right choice here. Each antibody has a variable region and a constant region. The variable region is composed of 110-130 amino acids which gives the antibody its specificity to bind to antigen. The variable region consists of the end of both light and heavy chains.

Q90. Oxidative phase of glycolysis starts with dehydrogenation of:

• A. Glycolysis
• B. Ribulose Bisphosphate
• C. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate✓
• D. NADH

Explanation: In the oxidative phase, each molecule of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (produced earlier in the preparatory phase) undergoes dehydrogenation. This involves the removal of a hydrogen atom from glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate, which is transferred to a molecule of NAD+ (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) to form NADH. The resulting molecule is 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate.

Q91. In one turn, the Krebs’s cycle produces one molecule of ATP, one molecule of FADH2 and _ molecules of NADH.

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3✓
• D. 4

Explanation: In one turn of the Krebs cycle, one molecule of ATP, one molecule of FADH2, and three molecules of NADH are produced. The ATP is generated through substrate-level phosphorylation, while FADH2 and NADH carry high-energy electrons that will be used in the electron transport chain to produce additional ATP during oxidative

Q92. Which one of the following is the stage of cellular respiration for which oxygen is not essential:

• A. Glycolysis✓
• B. Pyruvate oxidation
• C. Krebs’s cycle
• D. Electron Transport Chain

Explanation: The stage of cellular respiration for which oxygen is not essential is glycolysis. Glycolysis is the first step in cellular respiration and takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell. It does not require oxygen and can occur under both aerobic (with oxygen) and anaerobic (without oxygen) conditions. In the absence of oxygen, glycolysis is followed by either fermentation (in anaerobic conditions) or the continuation of the aerobic respiration process (if oxygen is available).

Q93. Pyruvate, the end product of glycolysis moves from cytosol to mitochondrial matrix where it is oxidized into _ producing CO2 as a by-product.

• A. Acetic acid (active)✓
• B. Citrate
• C. NAD
• D. FAD

Explanation: Pyruvate, the end product of glycolysis, moves from the cytosol to the mitochondrial matrix, where it undergoes oxidative decarboxylation. During this process, pyruvate is converted into Active Acetic acid or acetyl-CoA (acetyl coenzyme A). The reaction involves the removal of a carbon dioxide (CO2) molecule as a by-product. This step is known as the pyruvate decarboxylation reaction. The acetyl-CoA then enters the citric acid cycle (also known as the Krebs cycle) within the mitochondrial matrix.

Q94. pBR 322 have antibiotic resistance gene for:

• A. Ampicillin and aspirin
• B. Streptomycin and metronidazole
• C. Ampicillin and Tetracycline✓
• D. Penicillin and metronidazole

Explanation: Ampicillin is a medication used to manage and treat certain bacterial infections. Tetracyclines are a class of medication used to manage and treat various bacterial infections.

Q95. Cystic Fibrosis affects which one of the following cells of the body?

• A. Epithelial cells✓
• B. Endothelial cells
• C. Plasma cells
• D. Blood cells

Explanation: Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disease caused by the loss of function of cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) protein which primarily acts as a protein channel. Since CFTR is mainly studied in the Epithelial cells so opt A is the right choice here.

Q96. The enzymes which act as molecular scissors in recombinant DNA technology is

• A. Exonucleases
• B. Endonucleases✓
• C. Polymerases
• D. Reverse transcriptases

Explanation: Endonucleases also known as restriction enzymes are molecular scissors as they cleave DNA at or near specific sequences known as restriction sites. These enzymes make one incision on each of the two strands of DNA and are also called restriction Endonucleases.

Q97. Which of the following is the correct sequence of PCR?

• A. Heating→ Cooling → Add Primer→ Copying of strand✓
• B. Heating→ Add Primer→ Cooling→ Copying of strand
• C. Add Primer →Heating→ Cooling →Copying of strand
• D. Cooling→ Add Primer→ Heating →Copying of strand

Explanation: Polymerase chain Reaction The polymerase chain reaction is a method widely used to rapidly make millions to billions of copies of a specific DNA sample in a short period. Process PCR involves using short synthetic DNA fragments called primers to select a segment of the genome to be amplified, and then multiple rounds of DNA synthesis to amplify that segment. The process has 4 steps in total. Sequence The correct sequence of PCR is Heating it breaks the double-stranded structure Cooling Adding the primer which then annealed to make a copy of the strand. Opt A is the right choice here.

Q98. When two different pieces of DNA are joined together, the result is which one of the following?

• A. Complementary DNA
• B. Mutated DNA
• C. Recombinant DNA✓
• D. Cloned DNA

Explanation: A recombinant Dna is a dna molecule from two different species that are inserted into host organism to produce new genetic combinations that are of great value to science, medicine and agriculture.

Q99. Individual successions are known as

• A. Primary successions
• B. Secondary successions
• C. Seres✓
• D. Xeroses

Explanation: The term specifically used for each individual succession in animal or plant is called seres. Therefore this is the right option here.

Q100. Which one of the following is the ultimate distributional unit within which a species is restrained by the limitations of its physical structure and physiology?

• A. Niche✓
• B. Biome
• C. Ecosystem
• D. Habitat

Explanation: The given statement is the definition of Niche given by Grinnell. Therefore opt A is the right choice here.

Q101. All herbivores belong to which trophic level in the food chain?

• A. T1
• B. T2✓
• C. T3
• D. T4

Explanation: Herbivores which are the primary consumers belong to trophic level 2.

Q102. How many food chains are present in the following food web?

• A. 5
• B. 3
• C. 6
• D. 4✓

Explanation: A series of organisms each dependent on the next as a source of food is called a food chain. Food web A system of interlocking and interdependent food chains. There are four food chains in the given food web.

Q103. The relationship in which one organism gets benefit and the other is not affected is called

• A. Mutualism
• B. Commensalism✓
• C. Predation
• D. Parasitism

Explanation: The relationship in which one organism gets benefit and the other is not affected is called commensalism.

Q104. In male the sex determining gene is

• A. XY
• B. SRY✓
• C. SYX
• D. SXX

Explanation: Y chromosome has an SRY gene. It is the sex determining region Y gene. It is Y linked gene because it is found only on the Y chromosome.

Q105. A gene which affects two or more unrelated characteristics is called

• A. Pleiotropic✓
• B. Epistatic
• C. Dominant
• D. Mutant

Explanation: Pleiotropy is defined as the expression of multiple traits by a single gene. A simple example of Pleiotropy is phenylketonuria which is a disease. It is a genetic disorder caused by the low metabolism of the amino acid phenylalanine in the body cells.

Q106. Position of a gene within a DNA molecule is

• A. Locus✓
• B. Origin
• C. Amplicon
• D. Filial

Explanation: The position of genes on a chromosome is known as locus.

Q107. Sickle cell anemia is a type of

• A. Insertion
• B. Transposition
• C. Deletion
• D. Base Substitution✓

Explanation: In Sickle cell anemia, the gene for beta-globin is mutated. As a result, the amino acid valine is replaced by glutamic acid and the RBC adopts a sickle shape. Since it is a type of base substitution therefore opt D is the right choice here.

Q108. A polymer of empirical formula CH2 has molar mass of 28000 gmol-1. Its molecular formula will be

• A. 100 times that of its empirical formula
• B. 200 times that of its empirical formula
• C. 500 times that of its empirical formula
• D. 2000 times that of its empirical formula✓

Explanation: The empirical mass of CH4 is 12+2=14g. Dividing molar mass by observed mass will give us the answer: 28000/14=2000 times. As it is numerical, it can have only one possible answer.

Q109. The number of molecules in 9 g of ice (H2O) is

• A. 6.02 x 1024
• B. 6.02 x 1023
• C. 3.01 x 1024
• D. 3.01 x 1023✓

Explanation: Water has a mass of 18g (16+2). So, 9g of ice(H2O) means 0.5 mol. 1 mol has a 6.02x1023 number of molecules, so 0.5 mol will have a 3.01x1023 number of molecules. As it is numerical, it can have only one possible answer.

Q110. Ice is less dense than water at:

• A. 0C✓
• B. 4C
• C. 2C
• D. -4C

Explanation: At 0oC, Ice is less dense than water. It is a fact.

Q111. At a given temperature and pressure, the one which shows marked deviation from ideal behavior is

• A. N2
• B. N3
• C. CO2✓
• D. He

Explanation: The gas with higher intermolecular forces has the most marked deviation, as one of the assumptions of an ideal gas is that ideal gases have negligible forces of attraction.CO2 is above all intermolecular forces in all of the above hence is our answer.

Q112. According to the number of protons, neutrons and electrons given in the table, which one of the following options is correct?

• A. As-3, Ga+3, Ca
• B. As+1, Ga+2, Ca
• C. As+3, Ga+3, Ca✓
• D. As+1, Ga, Ca+2

Explanation: Charge on any species is equal to protons-electrons:In this case:For As, 33-30=+3For Ga: 31-28=+3For Ca: 20-20-0Hence our answer is CAs it is numerical, it can have only one possible answer.

Q113. If the e/m value of electron is 1.7588 x 1011 C/kg, then what would be the mass of electron in grams (charge on electron is 1.6022 x 10-19 coulombs)?

• A. 9.1095 x 10-31 g
• B. 91.095 x 10-31 g
• C. 9.1095 x 10-28 g✓
• D. 0.919095 x 10-33 g

Explanation: If e/m is equal to 1.7588x10^11 and the charge on an electron is 1.6 x10^-19 then the mass can be calculated as: 1.7588x10^11=1.6x10^-19/m m-9.109 x 10^-31kg. In g, 9.1x10^-28 g As it is numerical, it can have only one possible answer.

Q114. The suitable representation of dot structure of chlorine molecule is :

• A. A
• B. B✓
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: The suitable structure of the dot structure of the chlorine molecule is shown in option B as it shows 7 electrons in each of the chlorine atom's outermost shells, making a total of 14. In other options, chlorine combinations do not sum up to the real number 14.

Q115. When the two partially filled atomic orbitals overlap in such a way that the probability of finding electron is maximum around the line joining the two nuclei, the result is the formation of

• A. Sigma Bond✓
• B. Pi-Bond
• C. Hydrogen Bond
• D. Metallic Bond

Explanation: When two partially filled (half-filled) atomic orbitals overlap in such a way that the probability of finding the electrons is maximum around the line joining the two nuclei, then it is called a sigma bond.

Q116. What will be the enthalpy change in the reaction given below?2H2 + O2→ 2H2O ∆H = +205.5 kJ mol-1

• A. 205.5 kJ/mol
• B. Zero kJ/mol
• C. -205.5 kJ/mol✓
• D. 1 kJ/mol

Explanation: This is a trick question. Most students choose A however that is wrong. It should be remembered that ∆H for combustion is an exothermic process and energy is released thus option C is correct. It is a fact.

Q117. Combustion of graphite to form CO2 can be done by two ways. Reactions are given as follows: 1.C + O2 -> CO2 ∆H = -393.7 kJ mol-12.C + ½O2 -> CO ∆H = ?3.CO + ½O2 -> CO2 ∆H = -283 kJ mol-1What will be the enthalpy of the formation of CO?

• A. -676 kJ mol-1
• B. -110 kJ mol-1✓
• C. 110 kJ mol-1
• D. 676 kJ mol-1

Explanation: Writing equation 1 as it is and flipping equation 3: 1.C+02--> CO2 H=-393.7 kJ 3.CO2 --> CO +1/2O2 H=+283 kJ Adding these two equations gives equation 2, hence the enthalpy of these two equations is also equal to the enthalpy of equation 2. -393.7+283-110kJ As it is numerical, it can have only one possible answer.

Q118. The value of equilibrium constant (Kc) for the reaction 2HF(g) ⇌ H2(g) + F2(g) is 10-13 at 2000°C. Calculate the value of Kp for this reaction:

• A. 2 x 10-13
• B. 10-13✓
• C. 186 x 10-13
• D. 3.48 x 10-9

Explanation: When the number of gaseous molecules at the reactant and product side is equal the Kc=Kp; making it 10-13 As it is numerical, it can have only one possible answer.

Q119. The vapor pressure lines for pure as well as solutionsof different concentrations are shown. Which line represents pure water?

• A. 1✓
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4

Explanation: Pure water (with the highest vapor pressure) will boil at the lowest temperature.Boiling occurs when vapor pressure = external pressure.Since pure water already has a higher vapor pressure, it reaches that point sooner — i.e., at a lower temperature

Q120. In SO4-2 the oxidation number of Sulphur is

• A. -8
• B. +8
• C. -6
• D. +6✓

Explanation: The oxidation of sulphur is 6+:it is because the oxide ion has a charge of -2 making it -8 overall, for four oxide ions. x-8=-2 x=+6 As it is numerical, it can have only one possible answer.

Q121. Coinage metals Cu, Ag, and Au are the least reactive because they have:

• A. Negative reduction potential
• B. Positive reduction potential✓
• C. Negative oxidation potential
• D. Positive oxidation potential

Explanation: Positive reduction potential means that the element is less reactive, which is the case in the three metals above. Coinage metals Cu (copper), Ag (silver), and Au (gold) are the least reactive metals among all transition metals. This is due to their positive reduction potential, meaning they have a high tendency to undergo reduction (gain electrons) during a redox reaction. This also makes them very unreactive towards oxidation reactions, making them highly resistant to corrosion.

Q122. What will be the pH of a solution of NaOH with a concentration of 10-3 M?

• A. 3
• B. 14
• C. 11✓
• D. 7

Explanation: pOH of NaOH will be => pOH=- log[OH-]=-log[10-3]= 3 pH + pOH = 14 pH+3=14 pH= 11 As it is numerical, it can have only one possible answer.

Q123. If the reactant or product of a chemical reaction can absorb ultraviolet, visible or infrared radiation, then the rate of a chemical reaction can best be measured by which one of the following methods?

• A. Chemical method
• B. Spectrometry✓
• C. Graphical method
• D. Differential method

Explanation: A general method employed to measure the rate of a reaction involves substances that can absorb radiations like UV, visible light, or infra-red radiation using spectrophotometers.

Q124. For the reaction 2NO + O2 ⇌ 2NO2, the rate equation for the forward reaction is:

• A. Rate = k [NO] [O2]
• B. Rate = k [NO]2[O2]✓
• C. Rate = k [NO2]2
• D. Rate = k [NO2]

Explanation: The rate equation involves reactants, not products. Assuming the coefficients in the reaction equation represent the orders of reaction with respect to that reactant the correct rate equation will be B.

Q125. Radon is _ emitter and being radioactive is used in _ treatment in radiotherapy.

• A. β, cancer
• B. α, cancer✓
• C. α, kidney stone
• D. β, kidney stone

Explanation: Radon emits alpha particles that are used for therapeutic purposes to treat cancer. Radon is a gas and as a radioactive element, it is used in the treatment of cancer. It emits alpha, beta, and gamma rays that can damage or destroy cancer cells. Radon is not used in the treatment of kidney stones. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Q126. One mole of glucose was dissolved in 1 kg of water, ethanol, ether, and benzene separately and the molal boiling point constant of each solution was found to be 0.52, 1.75,2.16, and 2.70 in the units of / °C kg mol-1 respectively. Which of the following figures shows benzene as a solvent in solution?

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4✓

Explanation: Since the solution of benzene and glucose has the highest molal boiling point constant of 2.70, this means that the equilibrium between benzene vapor and the solution will be shifted toward the solution side. Hence vapor pressure of Benzene will be the lowest and the level of mercury will be the highest. As it is numerical, it can have only one possible answer.

Q127. The trends, in melting points of the elements of the 3rd period, are depicted in the figure below.The sharp decrease observed from ‘Si’ to ‘P’ is due to

• A. Decrease in atomic radius from ‘Si’ to ‘P’
• B. Change in bonding and structure of two elements✓
• C. Different universities of two elements
• D. Increase in electron density from ‘Si’ to ‘P’

Explanation: From Si onwards, the bonding and structure of the element change from covalent to weak van der Waal forces that cause the decrease in melting point, as shown in the diagram. Options A, C, D: As explained above, they are incorrect options

Q128. Arrange the following elements according to the trend of ionization energies. (C, N, Ne, B)

• A. Ne < N < C < B
• B. B < N < C < Ne
• C. B < C < N < Ne✓
• D. Ne < B < C < N

Explanation: As they move along the period towards the right the ionization energy increases. It is a fact and should be memorised.

Q129. Which one of the following noble gases are used for providing an inert atmosphere for welding?

• A. Helium
• B. Neon
• C. Argon✓
• D. Krypton

Explanation: Argon is used for welding and cutting. It is a factual recall from the book.

Q130. The electronic configuration of Manganese (Mn) is

• A. A✓
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: The electronic configuration Mn is [Ar] 3d5 4s2. Option A is the only option that depicts this electronic configuration. It is a fact and should be memorized.

Q131. The percentage of carbon in different types of iron products is in the order of

• A. Cast Iron > Wrought Iron > Steel
• B. Wrought Iron > Steel > Cast Iron
• C. Cast Iron > Steel > Wrought Iron✓
• D. Cast Iron < Steel > Wrought Iron

Explanation: Wrought iron is an iron alloy with a very low carbon content (less than 0.08%). Typically there is less than 0.40% carbon in most steels. In contrast to that of cast iron (2.1% to 4%)

Q132. Which one of the following is the correct equation of 1st ionization of sulphuric acid?

• A. H2SO4(aq) + H2O(l) --> H+ + SO42-
• B. H2SO4(aq) + H2O(l) --> H+(aq) + HSO4-✓
• C. H2SO4(aq) + H2O(l) --> 2H+ + SO42-
• D. H2SO4(aq) + H2O(l) --> H3O+ + SO42-

Explanation: The 1st ionisation equation involves dissociation of 1 H+ ion from H2SO4, followed by second H+ dissociation in the second ionisation.

Q133. Which one of the following is the correct chemical reaction for Ammonia formationby Haber process?

• A. N2(g) + H2(g) ⇌ 2NH(g)
• B. 2N(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ NH3(g)
• C. 2N(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
• D. N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)✓

Explanation: Below is the true reaction of haber's process:N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)It is a fact and should be memorized.

Q134. The pH of acid rain is:

• A. 7
• B. Between 5 and 7
• C. Below 5✓
• D. Between 7 and 14

Explanation: Acid rain has a pH of below 5.It is a fact and should be memorized.

Q135. Which one of the following products is obtained when sulphur trioxide is absorbed inconcentrated sulphuric acid?

• A. Oleum✓
• B. Aqua Regia
• C. Hydrogen sulphide
• D. Sulphate ion

Explanation: The sulphur trioxide is first dissolved in concentrated sulphuric acid: The product is known as fuming sulphuric acid or oleum.

Q136. Which one of the following pair of compounds is cis and trans isomers of eachother?

• A. A✓
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: Isomers are those compounds that have diff structures but the same molecular formula, which is the case in A only, they form cis- trans isomers. (having equal no. of carbon and hydrogen atoms)

Q137. Which one of the following compounds is a ketone?

• A. CH3 ― O ― CH2 ― CH3
• B. CH3 ― CO ― CH2 ― CH3✓
• C. CH3COCOOH
• D. CH3 ― CH2CHO

Explanation: Ketone has a general formula of R- CO-R, meaning that there are two radical groups surrounding a carbonyl group(C=0).This is shown in option B only. The radical group surrounds O in option A so it is either, not a ketone. Option C has a COOH group so it is a carboxylic acid. Option D has a CHO group, making it aldehyde. Ketone has a general formula of R- CO-R, meaning that there are two radical groupssurrounding a carbonyl group(C=0).This is shown in option B only. The radical group surrounds O in option A so it is either, not a ketone. Option C has a COOH group so it is a carboxylic acid. Option D has a CHO group, making it aldehyde.p surrounds O in option A so it is either, not a ketone. Option C has a COOH group so it is a carboxylic acid. Option D has a CHO group, making it aldehyde.

Q138. Addition of unsymmetrical reagent to an unsymmetrical alkene is governed by:

• A. Cannizzaro’s Reaction
• B. Kirchhoff Rule
• C. Aldol Condensation
• D. Markownikov’s Rule✓

Explanation: The addition of unsymmetrical reagents to unsymmetrical alkenes follows Markovnikov's rule. This rule dictates that the negative part of the reagent will attach to the unsaturated carbon atom with fewer hydrogen atoms. For example, the addition of hydrogen bromide to propene results in isopropyl bromide as the major product due to Markovnikov's rule.The other options are incorrect as they describe different reactions or rules that are not relevant to the addition of unsymmetrical reagents to unsymmetrical alkenes.

Q139. Ethylene glycols are used as

• A. Anesthetic
• B. Knocking agent
• C. Freezing agent
• D. Anti-freezing agent✓

Explanation: Ethylene glycol is used as an antifreeze agent and polyester.

Q140. The halothane used in hospitals as an anesthetic is chemically

• A. 1-Bromo-1-chloro-2, 2, 2-trifluoroethane
• B. 2-Bromo-2-chloro-1, 1, 1-trifluoroethane✓
• C. 1, 1, 1-Trifluoro-2-bromo-2-chloroethane
• D. 2-Chloro-2-bromo-1, 1, 1-trifluoroethane

Explanation: 2-Bromo-2-chloro-1,1,1- trifluoroethane is the IUPAC name for halothanes that are used in hospitals as an anaesthetic. it is a fact and should be memorized.

Q141. If halogenoalkanes are mixed with an excess of ammonia and heated under pressure, amine are formed. Which amine is formed in the following reaction?CH2CH3Br + NH3 ----> Amine

• A. CH3―CH2―NH―CH2―CH3
• B. CH3―CH2―NH2✓
• C. CH3―CH2―CH2―NH2
• D. H2N―CH2―CH2―NH2

Explanation: With bromoethane and ammonia, ethyl ammonium bromide is formed as shown below:

Q142. A primary alcohol, C₃H₈O (A), and a secondary alcohol, C₃H₈O(B), can be distinguished by:

• A. Lucas reagent
• B. Victor-Meyer test
• C. I₂/NaOH
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: All three tests can distinguish between propan-1-ol (A) and propan-2-ol (B). The Lucas test gives a rapid reaction with B but not A. The Victor-Meyer test gives different colors. The iodoform test (I₂/NaOH) gives a positive result (yellow precipitate) with B but not with A.

Q143. Which one of the following alcohol is indicated by formation of yellow crystals in theIodoform test?

• A. MethanoL
• B. Ethanol✓
• C. Butanol
• D. Propanol

Explanation: Ethanol is the only primary alcohol to give the triiodomethane (iodoform) reaction.If "R" is a hydrocarbon group, then you have secondary alcohol. Lots of secondaryalcohols give this reaction, but those that do all have a methyl group attached to thecarbon with the -OH group.All other alcohols do not have -OH group attached to carbon attached to a methylgroup

Q144. Ethyl butyrate and butyl butanoate are esters with the flavor of:

• A. Pear
• B. Banana
• C. Pineapple✓
• D. Apple

Explanation: Ethyl butyrate and butyl butanoate are esters with the flavour of pineapple.It is a fact and should be memorized.

Q145. The formula of 2, 4, 6-tribromo phenol is

• A. A
• B. B✓
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: Carbons are numbered according to the placement of the -OH group. The carbon to which the OH group is attached is C1. The bromines must be attached to C2, C4 and C6 on the benzene going in a clockwise direction from C1.

Q146. Which one of the following groups is indicated when HCl is formed by reaction ofethanol with phosphorus pentachloride:

• A. Amino group
• B. Hydroxyl group✓
• C. Halide group
• D. Hydride group

Explanation: When a -OH group(hydroxyl group) containing organic compound is reacted with with phosphorus pentachloride, it forms HCI an halogen by the reaction equation shown below:The reaction is represented as:CH3CH2OH + PCl5 → CH3CH2Cl + POCl3 + HClTherefore, the correct answer is (B) Hydroxyl group, which is the functional group present in ethanol that is replaced by a chlorine atom during the reaction.

Q147. A student mixed ethyl alcohol with a small amount of sodium dichromate and added it to the hot solution of dilute sulphuric acid. A vigorous reaction took place. He distilled the product formed immediately. What was the product?

• A. Acetone
• B. Acetic acid
• C. Dimethyl ether
• D. Acetaldehyde✓

Explanation: Acetaldehyde is the product of the described reaction. The oxidation of ethanol with sodium dichromate and dilute sulfuric acid results in the formation of acetaldehyde as an intermediate product. Acetaldehyde is an aldehyde and is often further oxidized to acetic acid under more vigorous conditions or in the presence of excess oxidizing agents.

Q148. The structural formula of the product of reaction of acetone with 2,4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine is:

• A. A
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D✓

Explanation: The reaction of 2,4- dinitrophenylhydrazine (2,4-DNPH) and acetone in the presence of acid leads to the formation of acetone 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazone as shown in the equation below. 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine + acetone + acid → acetone 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazone + water

Q149. For the following reaction, what does the question mark represent?

• A. C2H5COCH3✓
• B. C2H5CH(CH3)OH
• C. CH3COCH3
• D. C2H5CH2CHO

Explanation: When HCN reacts with a ketone, two new bonds form. The H from HCN adds to 0 in C=O to form C-OH bond and -CN adds to C to form C- CN bond. The ketone is given in option A and C, but the one having the same number of carbon atoms as the product is in option A. The product formed is called 'cyanohydrin' and it has the CN and OH group on the same carbon.

Q150. Acetamide is formed by dehydration of

• A. Oxalic acid
• B. Ethanoic acid✓
• C. Butanoic acid
• D. Propanoic acid

Explanation: Acetamide is a two carbon amide so when it is reduced it will turn into a two-carbon carboxylic acid,ethanoic acid. Hence the answer to this is B. The answer is not c or d because it has more carbon than what acetamide has. Oxalic acid is not the answer because it has two carboxyl groups while the -NH2 group that has to be replaced in acetamide is only one.

Q151. Organic compounds ‘X’ and ‘Y’ both can react with Na-Metal to evolve hydrogen gas. If ‘X’ and ‘Y’ react with each other form an organic compound ‘Z’ which gives a fruity smell. What type of compound ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ are?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C✓
• D. Option D

Explanation: Z gives a fruity smell that means it is an ester. Esters are formed by reaction between carboxylic acid and alcohol. All three of are mentioned in correct order in option C.

Q152. The amino acids which are not prepared in the human body are called.

• A. Essential amino acids✓
• B. Non-essential amino acids
• C. Alpha amino acids
• D. Beta amino acids

Explanation: The amino acids which are not synthesized by the human body and must be obtained from the diet are called "Essential amino acids."Essential amino acids are those amino acids that the body cannot produce on its own in sufficient quantities to meet its physiological needs. Therefore, they must be obtained through dietary sources. There are nine essential amino acids for humans: histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine.

Q153. Indicate the cyclic amino acid from the following

• A. Cysteine
• B. Serine
• C. Haloamine
• D. Proline✓

Explanation: Haloamine is not an amino acid but is rather a class of organic compounds containing an amine and halogen group. The structures of Cysteine, serine, and proline are shown below. Only Proline contains a ring in its structure and hence is cyclic.

Q154. Which one of the following is Glutamic Acid?

• A. A✓
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: The chemical formula for glutamic acid is C5H9NO4. Glutamic acid is an amino acid with a carboxylic acid functional group (-COOH) and an amino functional group (-NH2) attached to the same carbon atom (known as the alpha carbon), along with a side chain consisting of a carboxylic acid group.

Q155. At low pH or in acidic condition amino acid exists as

• A. Anion
• B. Cation✓
• C. Zwitterion
• D. Neutral Specie

Explanation: In acidic conditions, excess H⁺ ions from the solution protonate the amino acid. The amino group (–NH₂) gets protonated to –NH₃⁺, while the carboxyl group (–COOH) remains in its acidic form. This gives the molecule an overall positive charge, making it a cation.

Q156. The structure shown below represents:

• A. Proline
• B. Histidine✓
• C. Glycine
• D. Lysine

Explanation: The above structure represents histidine, as it has five carbon ring structures along -CH2 attached as a radical group.

Q157. Which one of the following reagents is used for identification of amino acids?

• A. Fehling’s solution
• B. Benedict’s solution
• C. Ninhydrin✓
• D. Copper (II) Sulphate

Explanation: The reagent used for the identification of amino acids is Ninhydrin.Ninhydrin is a chemical compound that reacts with amino acids to produce a colored compound. This reaction is known as the Ninhydrin test. When amino acids are treated with Ninhydrin, they form colored complexes, with different amino acids producing different colors. This property makes Ninhydrin a useful reagent for the detection and identification of amino acids in various chemical and biological samples.

Q158. Which one of the following is an example of a condensation polymer?

• A. Polyvinyl Chloride
• B. Polystyrene
• C. Polyethene
• D. Polyamide✓

Explanation: Condensation polymerization is a form of step-growth polymerization.Linear polymers are produced from bifunctional monomers, i.e. compounds with two reactive end groups.Common condensation polymers include polyamides, polyacetals, and proteins.It is a fact.

Q159. Among the most common disaccharides, one of the following is present in the milk?

• A. Sucrose
• B. Maltose
• C. Fructose
• D. Lactose✓

Explanation: Lactose is the primary disaccharide in virtually all mammalian milks. It is unique among the major dietary sugars because of the B-1-4 linkagebetween its component monosaccharides,galactose and glucose.It is a fact.

Q160. Fats are a type of lipid called glycerides. They are esters of long chain carboxylic acids:

• A. Propene-1, 2, 3-triol
• B. Propane-1, 2, 3-triol✓
• C. Propene-1, 2, 3-diol
• D. Propane-1, 2, 3-diol

Explanation: The correct term for the compound is "Propane-1, 2, 3-triol."Fats, also known as triglycerides, are esters formed from glycerol (propane-1,2,3-triol) and three fatty acid molecules. Glycerol is a triol, meaning it has three hydroxyl (OH) groups. When esterified with fatty acids, these hydroxyl groups react with the carboxyl groups (-COOH) of the fatty acids, forming ester bonds. Therefore, the compound "Propane-1, 2, 3-triol" is the correct chemical name for glycerol, which is a component of fats.

Q161. Which one of the following bases is NOT present in RNA?

• A. Cytosine
• B. Adenine
• C. Thyamine✓
• D. Guanine

Explanation: The base "Thymine" (T) is not present in RNA. Instead, RNA contains the base "Uracil" (U). Thyamine is a nucleotide base found in DNA but not in RNA. In DNA, thymine pairs with adenine through two hydrogen bonds, forming a T-A base pair.

Q162. Collagen proteins are present in _ throughout the body.

• A. Muscle
• B. Red blood cells
• C. Tendons✓
• D. Blood Plasma

Explanation: Collagen proteins are present in tendons throughout the body.Collagen is a fibrous protein that is a major component of the extracellular matrix in various connective tissues throughout the body. Tendons are strong, flexible bands of connective tissue that attach muscles to bones, providing stability and transmitting the force generated by muscles to bones to move. Collagen fibers are abundant in tendons, providing tensile strength and resilience to withstand the forces exerted during muscle contraction and movement. Therefore, collagen proteins are predominantly found in tendons among the options listed, although they are also present in other connective tissues such as ligaments, skin, cartilage, and bones.

Q163. _ is an eye irritant.

• A. Peroxyacetyl nitrate✓
• B. Peroxyacetyl nitrite
• C. Peroxy Methoxy aniline
• D. Peroxyacetyl aniline

Explanation: Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN) is a ubiquitous air pollutant formed from NO(2) reacting with acetoxy radicals generated from ambient aldehydes in the presence of sunlight and ozone. It contributes to eye irritation associated with photochemical smog and is present in most urban air.It is a fact.

Q164. Polystyrene is an additional polymer. Which one of the following structures representsthe monomer of polystyrene?

• A. CH2=CH2
• B. CH2=CH-CH3
• C. CH2=CH-Cl
• D. CH2=CH-C6H5✓

Explanation: Polystyrene (PS) is a synthetic aromatic hydrocarbon polymer made from the monomer known as styrene.

Q165. Which one of the following pollutants can cause death of a person by binding withhaemoglobin of red blood cells?

• A. Chlorofluorocarbons
• B. Oxides of Sulphur
• C. Carbon monoxide✓
• D. Oxides of nitrogen

Explanation: Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs when carbon monoxide builds up in your bloodstream. When too much carbon monoxide is in the air, your body replaces the oxygen in your red blood cells with carbon monoxide. This can lead to serious tissue damage, or even death.

Q166. The formula for electric field strength is ‘E = F/Q’, where E is electric field strength and F is force and Q is a charge. Which one of the following options gives the correct base units for electric field strength?

• A. kg m s-3 A-1✓
• B. kg s-2 A-3
• C. kg2 m-2 s-3 A
• D. m s-1 A-3

Explanation: Force-mass x acceleration-kg x ms-2.Q=current(1) x time(t)=IT=A.sE=F/Q-kg ms-2/As .E=kgms-3A-1As it is numerical, it can have only one possible answer. So option A is the correct choice.

Q167. Which set of the prefixes gives values in increasing order?

• A. Pico, Mega, Kilo, Tera
• B. Pico, Micro, Mega, Giga✓
• C. Tera, Pico, Micro, Kilo
• D. Giga, Kilo, Milli, Nano

Explanation: Pico, Micro, Mega, Giga are the prefixes in increasing order as highlighted below:

Q168. Two forces, 5 N and 10 N are acting at ‘O’ and ‘P’ respectively on a uniform rod of 100 cm is suspended at the position of center of gravity 50 cm mark as shown in the figure. What is position of P on meter rod?

• A. 80 cm
• B. 75 cm✓
• C. 70 cm
• D. 65 cm

Explanation: For the rod to be balanced, the clockwise moment must be equal to the anticlockwise moment.5×50=10×xx=25cm 50+25=75cm.250/10=xAs it is a numerical, it can have only one possible answer.

Q169. An oil film floating on water surface exhibits color pattern due to the phenomenon of:

• A. Diffraction
• B. Polarization
• C. Interference✓
• D. Surface tension

Explanation: The bright colors seen in an oil slick floating on water or in a sunlight, soap bubble are caused by interference. The brightest colors are those that interfere constructively. This interference is between the light reflected from different surfaces of a thin film; thus, the effect is known as thin-film interference.

Q170. Which of the following is the best graphical representation between drag force ‘F’ on a spherical object of radius ‘r’ and its speed ‘v’ through a fluid of viscosity ‘η’?

• A. A✓
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: The equation of stokes law (given below) shows that force and velocity are directly proportional to each other for a sphere with constant radius 'r' moving through a liquid of viscosity n. Hence the graph must be a straight line passing through the origin F = 6πιην

Q171. What is the speed of an incompressible non-viscous liquid flowing out from ‘B’ containedin a container as shown in the figure? Where AB = 5 m and g = 10 m/s2.

• A. 5 m/s
• B. 10 m/s✓
• C. 2 m/s
• D. 50 m/s

Explanation: v2=u2+2as v2=0+2(5)(10) v2=100 v= 10m/s As it is a numerical, it can have only one possible answer.

Q172. For the horizontal pipe, the fluid inside it is flowing horizontally then Bernoulli’s equation can be written as

• A. P + ρv = constant
• B. 2P + ρv2 = constant
• C. P + 1/2ρv2 = constant✓
• D. 2P + 2ρv2 = constant

Explanation: In a horizontal pipe, the fluid's height does not change, so the gravitational potential energy term in Bernoulli's equation is zero. Thus, the equation simplifies to P + 1/2ρv2 = constant, where P is the pressure and 1/2ρv2 is the kinetic energy per unit volume. Option A and D incorrectly modify the coefficients, and Option B improperly simplifies the velocity term, leading to inaccurate representations of the equation.

Q173. The value of the least distance of distinct vision or near point is _ for a normal human eye.

• A. 20 cm
• B. 25 cm✓
• C. 10 cm
• D. 15 cm

Explanation: The near point of the eye is the minimum distance of the object from the eye, which can be seen distinctly without strain. For a normal human eye, this distance is 25 cm. The far point of the eye is the maximum distance to which the eye can see the objects clearly.

Q174. In a compound microscope, the magnification by objective = 20, magnification by eyepiece = 11, then the total magnification is

• A. M = -220
• B. M = -0.19
• C. M = -0.05
• D. M = 220✓

Explanation: The explanation is given below:To find the total magnification of two lenses combined we must multiply individual magnifications:20x11 = -220

Q175. The distance between atoms is 0.30 nm. What will be the wavelength of X-rays at an angle θ=30 for 1st-order diffraction?

• A. λ = 0.60 nm
• B. λ = 0.30 nm✓
• C. λ = 0.20 nm
• D. λ = 0.90 nm

Explanation: The explanation is given below:According to Bragg's law:2dsine=nX 2(0.3*10^-9) sin(30)=1λ=0.3x10^-9= 0.3nm

Q176. A 100kg man is standing in an elevator, which accidentally falls freely. What will be the weight of the person in the freely falling elevator (take g=10 m/s^2)

• A. 1000 N
• B. 10 N
• C. 500 N
• D. Zero✓

Explanation: Being free fall, the man will be in a state of weightlessness As it is a numerical, it can have only one possible answer.

Q177. The frequency of a simple pendulum of length 9.8 m will be

• A. 2 π Hertz
• B. π/2 Hertz
• C. 1/2π Hertz✓
• D. π/4 Hertz

Explanation: The frequency of the pendulum is: 1/2π/g/l F= 1/2π/9.8/9.8 F=1/2π Hz. As it is a numerical, it can have only one possible answer.

Q178. A body performs simple harmonic motion with a period of 0.063 s. The maximum speed of 3.0 ms-1. What are the values of the amplitude ‘xo (m)’ and angular frequency ‘ω(rads-1)’?

• A. xo = 0.03, ω = 100✓
• B. xo = 0.19, ω = 16
• C. xo = 5.3, ω = 16
• D. xo = 3.3, ω = 100

Explanation: Following is the correct solution:

Q179. Food being cooked in a microwave oven is an example of :

• A. Beats
• B. Overtones
• C. Resonance✓
• D. Stationary waves

Explanation: Resonance occurs when an external force matches the natural frequency of a system, leading to an increase in amplitude of vibrations. In the case of cooking food in a microwave oven, the microwaves generated match the natural frequency of water molecules, causing them to vibrate and generate heat through friction. This process is an example of resonance. Therefore, option c) is the correct choice.

Q180. Which of the following represents the total energy of the mass-spring system during SHM?

• A. A
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D✓

Explanation: Potential energy and Kinetic energy interconvert into one another during simple harmonic motion, but the total energy remains constant, which is shown by a straight line in diagram in D.

Q181. Three graphs for three types of materials are shown in the figure. Which row describes the correct materials?

• A. A
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D✓

Explanation: X is a ductile object; Y is a brittle object and Z is a polymer these graphs are a factual recall

Q182. A gas containing ‘N’ number of molecules of a gas having mass of each molecule‘m’ is in a cubic container having length of each side ‘a’. What is the density of gascontained in a cube?

• A. N/a^2
• B. m/a^3
• C. Nm/a^3✓
• D. Na^3/m

Explanation: Density=Total mass/Total volume Density=N*m/a^3. As it is a numerical, it can have only one possible answer.

Q183. In ‘General Gas Equation PV=nRT’, ‘n’ represents the number of moles of gas.Which of the following represents the relation of ‘n’?

• A. n = NNA
• B. n = N/NA✓
• C. n = NA/N
• D. n = N + NA

Explanation: The mathematical equation is: N = n × NA, n= N/ NA

Q184. Which feature of the following graph represents Young’s Modulus?

• A. Area under graph
• B. Gradient of the graph
• C. Reciprocal of the gradient✓
• D. Product of gradient and area of the curve

Explanation: Young's modulus of elasticity (E), also known as the elastic modulus, is the ratio between stress and strain. Since the gradient of graph is strain/stress (gradient = x-axis/y-axis). So, its reciprocal would be equal to Young's modulus.

Q185. At the triple point of water, the pressure of a gas is 2680 Pa, by changing ‘T’ the pressureincreases to 4870 Pa. Then ‘T’ is:

• A. 496.38 K✓
• B. 438.96 K
• C. 0
• D. 496.38 oF

Explanation: P₁/T₁ = P2/T₂=>T₂ = T1*P2/P₁ 2T, is the triple point temperature 1 of the water, i.e T₁ = 0.01°C=273.16KHence:T₂ = 273.16K 4870 Pa / 2680 Pa =496.37KAs it is a numerical, it can have only one possible answer.

Q186. The relation between Celsius and Fahrenheit scales is:C/100 = (F−32)/180At what temperature do both scales give the same reading?

• A. -100
• B. -40✓
• C. -180
• D. -273

Explanation: Water boils at temperatures=100°C, 212°F and water freezes at =0°C,32°F. 100-°C/100-0-212-°F/212-32 In this formula, 100-boiling point of water in °C and 0° is freezing temperature of water in °C and the same goes for 212 and 32 for Fahrenheit scale. And after simplifying this formula we get our desired formula °F 32 +1.8° C. Now we have to calculate which temperature has equal value in Celsius and Fahrenheit. So let that temperature be x becomes x = 32 +1.8x Now solving this simple equation we get the value of x =-40°. As it is a numerical, it can have only one possible answer.

Q187. A heat engine working according to the second law of thermodynamics has 50% efficiency.What will be the temperature of its low-temperature reservoir if the high-temperaturereservoir is 327 K?

• A. 27 0C✓
• B. 127 0C
• C. 300 0 C
• D. 600 0 C

Explanation: 327k means 327-273-54 degrees celsius. For a reservoir to work at a 50% efficiency, the low reservoir must have half the temperature than the high reservoir, which makes the temperature 27 degrees celsius. As it is a numerical, it can have only one possible answer.

Q188. Three NAND gates are connected as shown in the figure.Which of the following logic gates is formed in the connected circuit?

• A. OR✓
• B. AND
• C. NOR
• D. NAND

Explanation: We can check to which gate this diagram refers to by sending in 1 from A and 0 from B.Output at X, after working, will be 1. This means that this gate is working as an OR gate. Asonly in the OR gate, when two inputs are 1 and 0 respectively the output is 1.

Q189. What is the output of the truth table?

• A. A
• B. A AND C
• C. B
• D. NO CORRECT OPTION✓

Explanation: A.B means that A AND B imply that 0 AND 0 should give 1, 1 and 0 should give 1 and 1 and 1 should give 0.

Q190. What is the reading of Ammeter as shown in the circuit diagram?

• A. 1 A
• B. 15 A
• C. 4 A✓
• D. 10 A

Explanation: The total voltage, in this case, will be 6+6=12V; R=3 ohms I=V/R=12/3= 4A. As it is a numerical, it can have only one possible answer.

Q191. Three 6 Ω are connected as shown in the diagram What is the resistance between points ‘A’ and ‘B’

• A. 6 Ω
• B. 16 Ω
• C. 4 Ω
• D. 2 Ω V✓

Explanation: If looked into closely, these resistors are actually parallel to each other. The total resistance is equal to: 1/R-1/R1+1/R2+1/R3 1/R=1/6+1/6+1/6=3/6 1/R=2 R=2 ohms. As it is a numerical, it can have only one possible answer.

Q192. The difference between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is 2.0 mm and the area of each plate is 2.0 m2. The plates are in a vacuum. A potential difference of 1.0x104 V is applied across the plates. Find the capacitance.

• A. 4.0 x 10-3 F
• B. 3.54 x 10-9 F
• C. 8.85 x 10-9 F✓
• D. 9.0 x 10-9 F

Explanation: The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor isC=ЄA/dC=(8.85x10^-12)x(2)/(2x10^-3)=8.85 x 10^-9CAs it is numerical, it can have only one possible answer.

Q193. A solenoid 15 cm long has 300 turns of wire. A current of 5 A flows through it. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field inside the solenoid?

• A. 75 x 107 T
• B. 60 x 10+3 T
• C. 4π x 10-3✓
• D. 750π x 10+3

Explanation: The magnetic field inside a solenoid is given by the formula:B=μ0nIwhere:B = Magnetic field (T)μ0​ = Permeability of free space (4π×10−7n = Number of turns per unit length (N/L)I = Current (A)Given data:N=300N = 300N=300 turnsL=15L = 15L=15 cm = 0.15 mI=5I = 5I=5 AFirst, calculate n:n=NL=3000.15=2000 turns/mNow, calculate BBB:B=(4π×10−7)×(2000)×(5)Approximating π≈3.1416B≈4×3.1416×10−3

Q194. Due to the current in a straight conductor the difference between magnetic field lines:

• A. Increases away from conductor✓
• B. Decreases away from conductor
• C. Increases towards conductor
• D. Decreases and then increases towards conductor

Explanation: The difference between the magnetic field lines increases as shown below:

Q195. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is used to identify the image of:

• A. Tumors and inflamed tissues✓
• B. Blood cells
• C. Skin cells
• D. Bone structures

Explanation: MRI is used to identify images of tumours and inflamed tissues. Blood cells are identified by smear stain, skin cells are identified under a microscope, and bone structures are looked at using X-rays.It is a fact.

Q196. The stimulated emission of two photons ‘A’ and ‘B’ during LASER action is shown in the figure. What is the relation between wavelengths of two photons?

• A. λA = λB✓
• B. λA > λB
• C. λA < λB
• D. λA = 2λB

Explanation: Wavelengths of photons in a laser action are all the same hence the wavelength of A is equal to the wavelength of B. Lasers are monochromatic, having the same wavelengths.

Q197. Bones absorb greater amounts of incident X-rays than flesh. This is because:

• A. Bones lie between the flesh
• B. Bones are light in color
• C. Bones contain material of low densities
• D. Bones contain material of high densities✓

Explanation: Bones absorb more amounts of incident X-rays than flesh because bones contain a very large amount of calcium which makes it highly dense.The colour of bones has nothing to do with radiation absorption,nor does the position of bones in flesh.It is a fact.

Q198. Which of the following techniques is the practical application of X-rays?

• A. Magnetic Resonance Imaging
• B. Ultrasonography
• C. Computerized Axial Topography✓
• D. Positron Emission Tomography

Explanation: Computed tomography (CT) scanning, also known as, especially in the older literature and textbooks, computerized axial tomography (CAT) scanning, is a diagnostic imaging procedure that uses x-rays to build cross-sectional images ("slices") of the body.It is a fact.

Q199. Which of the following spectra is most typical of the output of an X-ray tube?

• A. A✓
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: The graph, shown in option A, comprises of two types of X-rays, labeled in the graph presented below;1. Characteristic X-rays;These X-rays are produced on instances when outer-shell electrons fill a vacancy in the inner shell of an atom, releasing X-rays.2. Bremsstrahlung/Braking Continnuum;This release of X-ray is exclusive to instances where a charged, accelerated particle i.e. Electrons is decelerated, upon striking against a metal surface or any surface. The outcome is the release of electromagnetic radiation, in the form of photons.

Q200. Which one of the following has the largest energy content?

• A. γ-rays✓
• B. X-rays
• C. Infra-red radiations
• D. Ultra-violet radiations

Explanation: Gamma rays have the highest energy in all of the above mentioned, it is because of their highest frequency among all, as shown below:

Q201. What will be the energy of the accelerated electron used to produce X-rays when theaccelerating potential is 2 kV?

• A. 2 x 10-19 J
• B. 1.6 x 10-19 J
• C. 3.2 x 1019 J
• D. 3.2 x 10-16 J✓

Explanation: The formula relating energy, charges, and voltages is:APE = qAV. PE=(2x10^3)*(1.6x10^-19)PE=3.2x10^-16 J.As it is a numerical, it can have only one possible answer.

Q202. Process of generating three dimensional images of objects by using laser beam is called

• A. Photography
• B. 3-D cinema
• C. Holography✓
• D. Tomography

Explanation: Holography is a process that creates three-dimensional images called holograms using laser beams, the properties of intensity interference and diffraction, light recording, and illumination of the recording.

Q203. Which one of the following isotopes of Iodine is used for the treatment of thyroid cancer?

• A. I-113
• B. I-120
• C. I-131✓
• D. I-140

Explanation: Because of this, radioactive iodine (RAI, also called I-131) can be used to treat thyroid cancer. The RAI collects mainly in thyroid cells, where the radiation can destroy the thyroid gland and any other thyroid cells (including cancer cells) that take up iodine, with little effect on the rest of your body.It is a fact.

Q204. A beta (β) particle is a fast-moving electron. During a β – decay how does the atomic number and mass number of a nucleus change?

• A. A
• B. B
• C. C✓
• D. D

Explanation: In beta decay, one of the neutrons in the nucleus suddenly changes into a proton, causing an increase in the atomic number of an element while the mass number remains the same, as shown below:

Q205. A Uranium isotope 92U232 undergoes one α–decay and two β-1 – decay. What is the final product?

• A. 90
• B. 92✓
• C. 89
• D. 88

Explanation: Alpha decay causes a decrease in atomic number by 2 and mass number by 4. One beta decay causes increases in atomic number by one while the mass number remains the same. Since there are two beta-decay the atomic numbers increase by two making the atomic number back to 92.It is numerical and can have only one possible answer.

Q206. A naturally occurring radioactive element decays into two alpha particles. Which one of the following represents the status of the daughter element concerning the mass number ‘A’ and charge number ‘Z’?

• A. ‘Z’ decreases by 4 and ‘A’ decreases by 2
• B. ‘Z’ decreases by 2 and ‘A’ decreases by 4
• C. ‘Z’ decreases by 4 and ‘A’ decreases by 8✓
• D. ‘Z’ decreases by 8 and ‘A’ decreases by 4

Explanation: Alpha particle has 2 neutrons and 2 protons, thus alpha decay causes. the decrease of mass number by 4 and proton number by 2. One alpha decay causes the decrease of mass number by 4 and atomic number by 2. Two alpha decays thus causes the decrease of mass number by 8 and decrease of atomic number by 4.It is numerical and can have only one possible answer.

Q207. A radioactive isotope ‘W’ decays to ‘X’ which decays to ‘Y’ and ‘Y’ decays to ‘Z’ as represented by the figure below. What is the change in the atomic number from ‘W’ to ‘Z’?

• A. Increases by 3
• B. Decreases by 3✓
• C. Increases by 5
• D. Decreases by 5

Explanation: The atomic number decreases by two during an alpha-decay and increases by 1 during beta-decay. There are two alpha decays(decreases by 4) and one beta decay(increases by 1). So the overall change is -4+1=-3(decrease by 3). It is numerical and can have only one possible answer.

Q208. Three paths of radioactive radiation are observed as shown in the figure in the presence of an electric field. Which type of radiation is shown in path 1?

• A. Alpha
• B. Beta
• C. Gamma✓
• D. Cathode Rays

Explanation: 1 is the particle that remains undeflected which means it does not have charge, which is gamma rays.

Q209. What is the absorbed dose ‘D’ of a sample of 2 kg which is given an amount of 100 J of radioactive energy?

• A. 200 Gy
• B. 102 Gy
• C. 50 Gy✓
• D. 98 Gy

Explanation: Radioactive energy absorbed per kg is called an absorbed dose(D).Absorbed dose=Energy/MassD=100/2=50Gy

Q210. Fill in the blank with appropriate article as required._ umbrella is of no avail against a thunderstorm.

• A. The
• B. A
• C. An✓
• D. No article required

Explanation: "An" umbrella is of no avail against a thunderstorm. The indefinite article "an" is used in this sentence because it introduces the general concept of an umbrella without specifying a particular umbrella. It implies that any umbrella in general would not be effective against a thunderstorm.

Q211. Not only the parents but also their son _ for interview.

• A. Has called
• B. Have called
• C. Have been called
• D. Has been called✓

Explanation: Parents are plural but the blank follows the noun 'son' which is singular. Hence "has" instead of "have" is the right option.The sentence refers to an act being done to the noun instead of the son doing something. Hence it will be: ‘been called’ instead of just ‘called’

Q212. Neither they nor their friend _ solved the question.

• A. Has✓
• B. Have
• C. Was
• D. Were

Explanation: In this sentence, 'neither...nor' indicates that the verb should agree with the subject that is closest to it. Since 'friend' is singular, the correct verb is 'has.' The other options are incorrect: 'Have' would be used if the subject closest to the verb were plural; 'Was' and 'Were' do not fit because they do not appropriately express the current action of solving the question.

Q213. Fill in the blank with the correct option:He was _ with theft in the court.

• A. Charged✓
• B. Reported
• C. Blamed
• D. Accused

Explanation: In a legal context, being charged means that a person has been formally accused of committing a crime. It implies that there are legal proceedings taking place or about to take place in a court of law. Option A fits the context of the sentence, indicating that the person is facing legal accusations related to theft.

Q214. Complete the sentence by choosing the most appropriate option, from the given lettered choices (A to E) below:It is quite _ for poor people to be happier than rich people.

• A. Possible✓
• B. Risky
• C. Potential
• D. Liable
• E. Different

Explanation: The best option is "possible", as it expresses the idea that it is indeed possible for poor people to be happier than rich people.

Q215. The headmaster _ to speak to you.

• A. Wants✓
• B. Is wanting
• C. Was wanting
• D. Want

Explanation: “The headmaster wants to speak to you” in Option A sounds most appropriate because "headmaster" is a singular noun so we should complement it with a singular verb - eliminating Option D. The tense is simple present indicated by the verb "speak", hence the present continuous form "is wanting" in Option B is also incorrect. while the past tense form in Option C is also incorrect.

Q216. Several times during the session the director _ to tell his success story to the other promotion.

• A. Asked he
• B. Asked who
• C. Asked him✓
• D. Asked his

Explanation: The correct answer is C. "Asked him."Explanation:In this sentence, the director is the subject who wants to tell his success story. The verb "asked" is followed by an object pronoun to indicate whom the director is asking.Let's analyze the given options:A. "Asked he" - This option is incorrect because "he" is a subject pronoun, and after the verb "asked," we need an object pronoun.B. "Asked who" - This option is incorrect because "who" is an interrogative pronoun used for asking questions about the subject, not the object. In this context, we need an object pronoun to indicate whom the director is asking.C. "Asked him" - This option is correct. "Him" is the objective pronoun and the correct choice to indicate the person the director is asking. This option correctly conveys the intended meaning.D. "Asked his" - This option is incorrect because "his" is a possessive pronoun used to indicate ownership, not the person being asked. It does not convey the meaning of the director asking someone to tell his success story.Therefore, option C, "Asked him," is the correct answer as it uses the appropriate object pronoun to indicate the person the director is asking to tell his success story.

Q217. Did anybody do the work _?

• A. Themselves
• B. Himself✓
• C. His self
• D. None

Explanation: Since "anybody" is singular, therefore "himself" should be used.

Q218. Ahmed _ me for a long time.

• A. Know
• B. Has known✓
• C. Knows
• D. Knew

Explanation: The most appropriate word to fill in the blank would be "has known."The complete sentence would be: "Ahmed has known me for a long time."Using the present perfect tense "has known" indicates that Ahmed developed knowledge or familiarity with the speaker in the past and that this knowledge or familiarity has continued up until the present time.

Q219. When your friend _, he’ll be very tired.

• A. Arrived
• B. Will arrive
• C. Arrives✓
• D. Is arriving

Explanation: Future is always followed by the present. In the given sentence, in the second clause there is use of simple future so its grammatical rule that the first clause must be in simple present.

Q220. Select the correct option:He was killed _ a robber _ a hatchet.

• A. From, with
• B. By, at
• C. Through, far
• D. By, with✓

Explanation: The first blank needs a preposition, that shows property and accountability, hence ‘by’ is the best choice here.The second blank needs a word that means 'to refer to something', hence 'with' will be the best option here.