Uhs Mdcat 2015 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. In spite of all the torture, the police have failed to _ any confession from the thief.

• A. Convince
• B. Elicit✓
• C. Refuse
• D. Refuse

Explanation: The correct option in this case is (b) elicit, as it aligns with the context of the sentence and implies that the police have been unsuccessful in obtaining a confession from the thief despite using torture. This option indicates that the police have been unsuccessful in obtaining or extracting a confession from the thief. It suggests that the police have tried various methods or techniques to get the thief to confess, but none of them have worked.

Q2. It is the duty of a teacher to _ moral values in his students besides teaching.

• A. Tell
• B. Record
• C. Inculcate✓
• D. Suggest

Explanation: the correct option in this case is (c) inculcate, as it conveys the idea that it is the duty of a teacher to actively and persistently instill moral values in their students, rather than just telling or suggesting them.

Q3. Many of the houses in Murree have basic _.

• A. Amenities✓
• B. Accuracy
• C. Affinity
• D. Array

Explanation: Amenities refer to the facilities or features that contribute to the comfort, convenience, and enjoyment of a place. In the context of houses in Murree, having basic amenities means that these houses are equipped with essential services and facilities that make them comfortable and functional. Therefore, option (A) suggests that the houses in Murree have basic facilities and services

Q4. Youngsters who indulge in love affairs are usually _ in worldly matters.

• A. Adjoined
• B. Addled✓
• C. Adjured
• D. Adhesive

Explanation: The term "addled" refers to being confused, muddled, or mentally disoriented. In the given context, using "addled" suggests that youngsters who indulge in love affairs are usually confused or mentally disoriented when it comes to worldly matters. This implies that their focus or attention may be primarily on their romantic relationships, potentially leading to a lack of understanding or awareness of practical matters. Therefore, option (b) could be a suitable term to complete the sentence.

Q5. Identify the segment in the following sentence which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. He picked up one or two magazines and after a hurried glance on the contents carefully replaced them.

• A. picked up
• B. a hurried
• C. on✓
• D. replaced

Explanation: The correct phrase would be a glance at the contents. OPTION A: incorrectOPTION B: incorrectOPTION C: correctOPTION D: Incorrect

Q6. Identify the segment in the following sentence which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.His guests found it fun to watch him make tea – mixing carefully spoonful from different caddies

• A. It fun
• B. To watch
• C. Make
• D. Carefully spoonful✓

Explanation: The correct answer is 'Careful spoonful'. The error in the sentence lies in the phrase 'mixing carefully spoonful from different caddies'. It should read as 'careful spoonfuls' to correctly use 'careful' as an adjective modifying 'spoonfuls', or 'carefully spooning' to use 'carefully' as an adverb modifying the action of 'spooning'. The other options do not contain any errors, as they are properly structured in the context of the sentence.

Q7. Identify the segment in the following sentence which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.You have put your life in his hands many a times.

• A. Put your life
• B. In his hands
• C. Many a
• D. Times✓

Explanation: The phrase “many a time” is singular and idiomatic; using “times” is incorrect.

Q8. Identify the segment in the following sentence which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.Chips, thinking it over a good many time, always added to himself that Kathie would have approved and also have been amused.

• A. A good many time✓
• B. Added to himself
• C. Would have approved
• D. Have been amused

Explanation: This segment contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. The correct phrase should be "a good many times" instead of "a good many time." The use of "time" instead of "times" is grammatically incorrect when referring to multiple instances.

Q9. Identify the segment in the following sentence which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.But the men ate their supper in good appetites.

• A. Men
• B. Ate
• C. Their
• D. In✓

Explanation: This segment contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. The correct preposition to use in this sentence is "with" instead of "in." The correct phrase should be "ate their supper with good appetites" to indicate that the men had hearty appetites while eating their meal.

Q10. Identify the segment in the following sentence which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.A common sense of failure is a mistaken ambition of the boys of the part of his parents.

• A. Common
• B. On
• C. Of✓
• D. His

Explanation: This segment contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. The correct preposition to use in this sentence is "of" instead of "on." The correct phrase should be "on the part of" to indicate the involvement or responsibility of the parents in the mistaken ambition of the boys. OPTION A: incorrectOPTION B: correctOPTION C: incorrectOPTION D: incorrect

Q11. Choose the correct sentence from the following:

• A. Tourism is burgeoned over the last fifteen years.
• B. Tourism will burgeoned over the last fifteen years.
• C. Tourism have burgeoned over the last fifteen years.
• D. Tourism has burgeoned over the last fifteen years.✓

Explanation: "Tourism has burgeoned over the last fifteen years.": This sentence is grammatically correct. It uses the present perfect tense, correctly indicating that tourism has experienced growth or development over the last fifteen years.

Q12. Choose the correct sentence from the following:

• A. His remains were interred in the new cemetery.✓
• B. His remains were entered in the new cemetery.
• C. His remains was interred in the new cemetery.
• D. His remains was entered in the new cemetery.

Explanation: "His remains were interred in the new cemetery.": This sentence is grammatically correct. The verb "interred" is used in the past tense to indicate the burial or placement of the remains in the new cemetery. Additionally, the verb agrees with the subject "remains" in the plural form.

Q13. Choose the correct sentence from the following:

• A. The Return of the King which is a popular movie made a huge amount of money
• B. "The Return of the King", which is a popular movie made a huge amount of money.
• C. "The Return of the King", which is a popular movie, made a huge amount of money.✓
• D. "The return of the king", which is a popular, movie, made a huge amount of money.

Explanation: The Return of the King is a title, therefore it must be in between quotation marks. Therefore, Option A is incorrect. Since it is a title, it must also be capitalised. This means that option D is incorrect.Finally, 'which is a popular movie' is a dependent clause. Therefore, it must be contained within commas. This means option B is incorrect. Therefore, option C is the right answer.

Q14. Choose the correct sentence from the following.

• A. The cheery trees stand over the woodland ride.
• B. The cheery trees stand about the woodland ride.✓
• C. The cheery trees beside about the woodland ride.
• D. The cheery trees stand on the woodland ride.

Explanation: The phrase “stand about” means the trees are positioned around or near the woodland ride, which correctly describes their placement along the path.

Q15. Select the nearest corrcet meaning of the given word:EMPATHY

• A. Understanding✓
• B. Animosity
• C. Friendship
• D. Sympathy

Explanation: This option is the nearest correct meaning of the word "empathy." Empathy refers to the ability to understand and share the feelings or experiences of another person. It involves recognizing and comprehending someone else's emotions or perspective.

Q16. Select the nearest correct meaning of the given word:FELICITY

• A. Boredom
• B. Business
• C. Happiness✓
• D. Relaxation

Explanation: Felicity means joy which is closest to happiness. (Students can confuse it with relaxation)The synonym of felicity is happiness.

Q17. Select the nearest correct meaning of the given word:UNCANNY

• A. Exact
• B. Opposite
• C. Good
• D. Strange✓

Explanation: Uncanny means unnatural or mysterious. This matches with option D i.e strange. Synonyms of uncanny are weird,unnatural,incredible, mysterious, spooky, unearthly, inexplainable, strange.OPTION D: synonyms of uncanny are weird,unnatural,incredible, mysterious, spooky, unearthly, inexplainable, strange.

Q18. Select the nearest correct meaning of the given word:VIRULENT

• A. Progressive
• B. Harmful✓
• C. Healthy
• D. Positive

Explanation: Virulent is often associated with viruses, which means it cannot be progressive, healthy or positive. Thus the correct option is B i.e harmfulSynonyms of virulent deadly,hamful, destructive, fatal, malignant, pernicious, and baneful.OPTION B: synonyms of virulent deadly,hamful, destructive, fatal, malignant, pernicious, and baneful.

Q19. Select the nearest correct meaning of the given word:RAPT

• A. Trumpet
• B. Bewitched✓
• C. Rapid
• D. Rash

Explanation: Rapt means ‘fascination’ which is closely associated with being bewitched so option B is correct. Synonyms of rapt are delighted, ecstatic, enthralled, inattentive, rapturous, and spellbound, bewitched.OPTION B: synonyms of rapt are delighted, ecstatic, enthralled, inattentive, rapturous, and spellbound, bewitched.

Q20. Select the nearest correct meaning of the given word:PEDAGOGY

• A. The study of pediatrics
• B. The study of teaching methods✓
• C. The study of cultural heritage
• D. The study of the pectoral muscle

Explanation: The study of teaching methods: This option is the nearest correct meaning of the word "pedagogy." Pedagogy refers to the study of teaching methods, principles, and practices. It encompasses the theory and practice of education, including instructional strategies, curriculum development, and classroom management.

Q21. Select the nearest correct meaning of the given word:INDICTMENT

• A. Humiliation
• B. Offended
• C. Accusation✓
• D. Invisible

Explanation: ‘Indictment’ is a word that is closely associated with criminals and trials therefore its nearestcorret meaning is “accusation”. Synonyms of indictment are allegation, arraignment, bill, charge, citation, and detention, accusation.OPTION C: synonyms of accusation are confusion, degradation, disgrace, ignominy, indignity, and shame.

Q22. Select the nearest correct meaning of the given word:MITIGATION

• A. Alleviation✓
• B. Classification
• C. Formidable
• D. Poisonous

Explanation: Mitigation means lessening or reduction which is synonym to alleviation. Synonyms of mitigation are cure, extenuation, moderation, reduction, relief, and remission, alleviation.OPTION A: synonyms of alleviation are cure, extenuation, moderation, reduction, relief, and remission, alleviation

Q23. Select the nearest correct meaning of the given word:CONCERTED

• A. Strenuous✓
• B. Furious
• C. Curious
• D. Precious

Explanation: Concerted means joint/coordinated. It should be noted that furious, curious, and precious do not have the exact definition as concerted so we choose option A which is nearest to the meaning of concerted. Synonyms of concerted are united, combined, joint, planned, prearranged, agreed upon, strenous.

Q24. Select the nearest correct meaning of the given word:ARCANE

• A. Mysterious✓
• B. Furious
• C. Arid
• D. Clear

Explanation: Arcane means secret / hidden so option A correct as mysterious can be a synonym for secretsynonyms of arcane are esoteric, impenetrable, cabalistic, mysterious, mystic, and occult.

Q25. In _ response, β-cells produce plasma cells that synthesize antibodies and release them in blood plasma and tissue fluid.

• A. Cell-Mediated
• B. Hormonal
• C. Humoral✓
• D. Phototactic

Explanation: This option is the correct response in the given context. Humoral response refers to the immune response involving the production of antibodies by plasma cells. In this context, β-cells are producing plasma cells that synthesize antibodies and release them into the blood plasma and tissue fluid. This accurately describes the process mentioned in the sentence.

Q26. Passive immunity is used against:

• A. Malaria
• B. Dengue
• C. Thypoid
• D. Tetanus✓

Explanation: The method of passive immunization is used to combat active infections of tetanus, infectious hepatitis, rabies, snake bite venom, etc. Passive immunization is the transfer of antibodies from one person or animal to another, providing immediate but temporary protection against a specific disease. Unlike active immunization, it does not require the recipient's own immune system to create antibodies. This can happen naturally, such as when a newborn receives antibodies from its mother.

Q27. B-lymphocytes are named due to their relationship with:

• A. Blood
• B. Bone Marrow
• C. Bursa of Fabricius✓
• D. Bile Duct

Explanation: B lymphocytes were first discovered in the Bursa of Fabricius (a structure found in birds), and they are called so with this respect.

Q28. In the light-independent stage of photosynthesis, the CO₂ combines with _ to form an unstable 6-carbon intermediate.

• A. Ribulose bisphosphate✓
• B. Hexose sugar
• C. Glycerate-3-phosphate
• D. Glyceraldehyde-9-phosphate

Explanation: In the light-independent stage of photosynthesis, also known as the Calvin cycle or dark reactions, carbon dioxide (CO2) combines with a five-carbon sugar called ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate (RuBP) to form an unstable 6-carbon intermediate. The enzyme responsible for this initial reaction is ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase, commonly abbreviated as Rubisco.

Q29. In glycolysis, glycerate-1,3-bisphosphate is converted into glycerate-3-phosphate by losing _ phosphate molecules.

• A. 3
• B. 2
• C. 1✓
• D. 4

Explanation: In glycolysis, the conversion of glycerate-1,3-bisphosphate to glycerate-3-phosphate involves the loss of one phosphate molecule. The specific enzyme catalyzing this reaction is phosphoglycerate kinase.

Q30. Malate is oxidized by _ to oxaloacetate in Krebs’s Cycle.

• A. ATP
• B. NADP
• C. NAD✓
• D. FAD

Explanation: NAD (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) is involved in the oxidation of malate to oxaloacetate in the Krebs's Cycle. NAD acts as a coenzyme that accepts hydrogen atoms (H+) and electrons (e-) during the redox reactions in cellular respiration, including the Krebs's Cycle.

Q31. In electron transport chain, the electrons from NADH and FADH2 are passed to:

• A. Cytochrome a
• B. Cytochrome a3
• C. Coenzyme C
• D. Coenzyme Q✓

Explanation: This option is the correct answer. Coenzyme Q (also known as ubiquinone) is involved in the electron transport chain, but it acts as a carrier rather than directly accepting electrons from NADH and FADH2. Coenzyme Q transfers electrons between complex I or II and complex III in the electron transport chain.

Q32. Carriers of the respiratory chain are located on:

• A. Matrix of mitochondria
• B. Outer membrane of mitochondria
• C. Inner membrane of mitochondria✓
• D. Cytoplasmic matrix In cystic fibrosis

Explanation: The carriers of the respiratory chain are located on the inner membrane of mitochondria. This membrane is highly folded into structures called cristae, which increase its surface area and provide a platform for the respiratory chain complexes involved in electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation.

Q33. In cystic fibrosis, liposomes-microscopic vesicles are sued which are coated with:

• A. Healthy Gene✓
• B. Chromosome
• C. Protein
• D. Carbohydrate

Explanation: In cystic fibrosis, liposomes (microscopic vesicles) can be used as a delivery system for introducing a healthy gene into cells affected by the disease. This technique, known as gene therapy, aims to replace or supplement the faulty CFTR gene responsible for cystic fibrosis with a functional one.

Q34. The DNA formed by the reverse transcription is called:

• A. rDNA
• B. dDNA
• C. cDNA✓
• D. DNA

Explanation: This option is the correct answer. cDNA stands for complementary DNA. It is the DNA molecule synthesized from an RNA template by the process of reverse transcription. Reverse transcription involves the synthesis of a complementary DNA strand using an RNA template and the enzyme reverse transcriptase. The resulting cDNA represents a copy of the RNA sequence.

Q35. Bacterial cells take up recombinant plasmids when they are treated with:

• A. CaCl2✓
• B. NaCl
• C. KCl
• D. NaOH

Explanation: CaCl2: This option is the correct answer. Bacterial cells are often treated with a solution of calcium chloride (CaCl2) during a process called "calcium chloride transformation" to increase their ability to take up recombinant plasmids. The treatment with CaCl2 helps to create temporary pores in the bacterial cell membrane, allowing the plasmids to enter the cells.

Q36. Which one of the following is made up of radioactively labeled nucleotides?

• A. Phage DNA
• B. Genomic Library
• C. Recombinant DNA
• D. Gene Probe✓

Explanation: A gene probe is a short DNA or RNA sequence that is complementary to a specific target sequence of DNA or RNA. Gene probes can be labeled with various markers, including radioactive nucleotides. The radioactively labeled nucleotides allow for the detection and visualization of the gene probe when it binds to its complementary target sequence.A gene probe is a short DNA or RNA sequence that is complementary to a specific target sequence of DNA or RNA. It is used to detect and identify the presence or absence of the target sequence in a sample.

Q37. A technique in transgenic animals in which the desired gene is inserted into the eggs of the animal is called:

• A. Embryonic Stem Cell mediated Transfer
• B. Microinjection✓
• C. Retro-virus mediated gene Transfer
• D. Virus vectors

Explanation: Microinjection: This option is the correct answer. Microinjection is a technique commonly used in transgenic animal research. In this technique, a desired gene is directly injected into the pronucleus of a fertilized egg or the nucleus of a developing embryo. The injected gene becomes incorporated into the genome of the animal, leading to the expression of the desired gene in its offspring.

Q38. Ozone is a layer of atmosphere extending from _ km above Earth and absorbs ultraviolet radiation.

• A. 10-50✓
• B. 50-60
• C. 5-30
• D. 10-80

Explanation: 10-50 km: This option is the correct answer. The ozone layer is a layer of the Earth's atmosphere that extends approximately 10-50 km above the Earth's surface. This layer plays a crucial role in absorbing the majority of the Sun's ultraviolet (UV) radiation, protecting life on Earth from harmful UV rays.

Q39. Light rays from the sun are absorbed by CO2 and re-radiate as _ radiations.

• A. Ultraviolet
• B. Indigo
• C. Infra-Red✓
• D. Green

Explanation: Infra-Red: This option is the correct answer. Light rays from the sun, including visible and ultraviolet light, can be absorbed by CO2 in the Earth's atmosphere. The absorbed energy is then re-radiated by CO2 as infrared (IR) radiation. This process contributes to the greenhouse effect and the warming of the Earth's atmosphere.

Q40. The gases which are produced by burning of fossils fuels and are responsible for acid rain are:

• A. CFCs
• B. CO2 and CO
• C. HCL and Oxides of Nitrogen
• D. SO2 and Oxides of Nitrogen✓

Explanation: SO2 and Oxides of Nitrogen: This option is the correct answer. Sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) are the main gases produced by the burning of fossil fuels that contribute to acid rain. These gases are released into the atmosphere as byproducts of burning coal, oil, and gas. When they react with water vapor and other atmospheric components, they form sulfuric acid (H2SO4) and nitric acid (HNO3), respectively, which contribute to the acidity of rainwater.

Q41. During successions, the first organisms that develop on bare rock are:

• A. Lichens✓
• B. Shrubs
• C. Moss
• D. Herbs

Explanation: Lichens: This option is the correct answer. Lichens are the first organisms that typically colonize and establish on bare rock during primary succession. Lichens are a symbiotic association between fungi and algae or cyanobacteria. They can tolerate extreme environmental conditions and play a vital role in breaking down rock surfaces, contributing to the formation of soil for other plants to establish.

Q42. The trophic level of a herbivore in a given food web is:

• A. 1
• B. 3
• C. 4
• D. 2✓

Explanation: D option is the correct answer. The trophic level of a herbivore is generally at the second level. Herbivores are primary consumers that directly feed on plants or algae, which occupy the first trophic level as primary producers. The energy flow in a food chain typically starts with primary producers, followed by herbivores at the second trophic level.

Q43. During maternal mitosis, nondisjunction of autosomal chromosome pair results in the formation of an egg having 24 chromosomes in:

• A. Klinefelter’s Syndrome
• B. Down’s Syndrome✓
• C. Turner’s Syndrome
• D. Jacob’s Syndrome

Explanation: Down’s Syndrome involves a child receiving an extra copy of their 21st chromosome.Klinefelter's syndrome is a genetic disorder that occurs in males and is characterized by the presence of an extra X chromosome, resulting in a chromosomal configuration of XXY.Down syndrome, also known as trisomy 21, is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21 . Chromosomes are small "packages" of genes in the body's cells, which determine how the body forms and functions. When babies are growing, the extra chromosome changes how their body and brain develop.Turner's syndrome, also known as monosomy X, is a genetic disorder that affects females. It occurs when one of the sex chromosomes is missing or partially missing, resulting in a chromosomal configuration of X0.Jacob's syndrome, also known as XYY syndrome, is a genetic condition that affects males. It is caused by the presence of an extra Y chromosome, resulting in a chromosomal configuration of XYY.

Q44. Typical symptoms like enlarged breasts and small testis in male are attributed to:

• A. Down’s Syndrome
• B. Turner’s Syndrome
• C. Klinefelter’s Syndrome✓
• D. Phenylketonuria

Explanation: Klinefelter's Syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects males and is characterized by the presence of an extra X chromosome (XXY instead of XY). This condition can lead to a variety of symptoms, including enlarged breasts (gynecomastia), small testes, and infertility.

Q45. Fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane states that protein molecules float in a fluid-like _ layer.

• A. Galactose
• B. Glucose
• C. Phospholipids✓
• D. Carbohydrate

Explanation: Fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane described the arrangement of phospholipids in two layers, stabilized interiorly by the hydrophobic interactions while hydrophilic interactions at intracellular and extracellular faces with embedded proteins randomly.

Q46. How many triplets of microtubules are present in centriole?

• A. Ten
• B. Eight
• C. Nine✓
• D. Seven

Explanation: The correct answer is Nine. Each centriole is a cylindrical structure composed of nine microtubule triplets arranged in a circular pattern, which contributes to its rigidity and function in cell division. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not match the typical structure of a centriole, which is characterized by having exactly nine triplets, not ten, eight, or seven.

Q47. Turner’s syndrome is characterized by having:

• A. Trisomy 21
• B. 44 + XXY
• C. Trisomy
• D. 44 + XO✓

Explanation: Turner’s Syndrome is characterized by the complete or partial loss of one of the X chromosomes in females. Turner's syndrome, also known as 45, X, or 44 + XO, is characterized by the complete or partial absence of one of the X chromosomes in females. Instead of the usual 46 chromosomes, individuals with Turner's syndrome have 45 chromosomes, with only one X chromosome (XO) present in most cases. Turner syndrome can cause a variety of medical and developmental problems, including short height, failure of the ovaries to develop and heart defects.

Q48. Which one of the following cell structures is involved in the synthesis of lipids?

• A. Endoplasmic Reticulum✓
• B. Golgi Complex
• C. Centriole
• D. Mitochondria

Explanation: The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for many metabolic processes including: synthesis of lipids, phospholipids as in plasma membranes, and steroids.The cell structure involved in the synthesis of lipids is the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). On the other hand, the Golgi body is responsible for modification and packing. The centriole is involved in the division process and helps in the formation of spindle fibres Mitochondrion is involved in the formation of ATP for energy expenditure processes.

Q49. Monosaccharide's are major components of:

• A. DNA, ATP, Ribulose bisphosphate and Cysteine
• B. DNA, NAD and Insulin
• C. DNA, NADP, ATP and Ribulose bisphosphate✓
• D. DNA, RNA and Myosin

Explanation: Monosaccharides are simple sugars that serve as building blocks for more complex carbohydrates. In the context of cellular molecules, ATP and NADP contain ribose, a monosaccharide, and Ribulose bisphosphate is a sugar involved in photosynthesis. DNA, while containing deoxyribose, is included in the correct answer option because it is partly composed of sugar units. Other options are incorrect because they include components like proteins or amino acids, which do not contain monosaccharides.

Q50. Blood group antigen contains:

• A. Glycoproteins✓
• B. Phospholipids
• C. Glycolipids
• D. Sphingolipids

Explanation: The correct answer is glycoproteins. Blood group antigens are mainly composed of glycoproteins, which include protein structures linked with carbohydrate chains crucial for identifying blood groups on the surface of red blood cells. Phospholipids, while essential for forming cell membranes, do not define blood group antigens. Glycolipids, though they have carbohydrate components, are not the primary molecules for blood group identity. Sphingolipids play a role in membrane integrity but do not directly participate in blood group antigen determination.

Q51. Myosin is a _ type of protein.

• A. Intermediate
• B. Simple
• C. Globular
• D. Fibrous✓

Explanation: Fibrous: This option is the correct answer. Fibrous proteins are characterized by their elongated, thread-like structure. Examples of fibrous proteins include collagen, keratin, and fibrin. Myosin has a fibrous structure and is classified as a fibrous protein. Fibrous: This option is the correct answer. Fibrous proteins are characterized by their elongated, thread-like structure. Examples of fibrous proteins include collagen, keratin, and fibrin. Myosin has a fibrous structure and is classified as a fibrous protein.

Q52. Which one of the following is an example of unsaturated fatty acid?

• A. Butyric Acid
• B. Oleic Acid✓
• C. Palmitic Acid
• D. Acetic Acid

Explanation: Correct answer is Oleic Acid as it is a monounsaturated fatty acid.The example of an unsaturated fatty acid among the options provided is Oleic acid.Unsaturated fatty acids are a type of fatty acid that contains one or more double bonds in their carbon chain.Butyric acid is a saturated fatty acid. It is a four-carbon chain fatty acid with no double bonds.Oleic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid. It is an eighteen-carbon chain fatty acid with one double bond located between the ninth and tenth carbon atoms from the methyl (CH3) end of the chain.Palmitic acid is a saturated fatty acid. It is a sixteen-carbon chain fatty acid with no double bonds.Acetic acid is not a fatty acid. It is a simple organic compound known as a carboxylic acid, with the chemical formula CH3COOH. It is the primary component of vinegar.

Q53. Number of base pairs in one turn of DNA is:

• A. 10✓
• B. 2
• C. 34
• D. 54

Explanation: A option is the correct answer. The number of base pairs in one turn of DNA is approximately 10.5 base pairs. This means that each complete turn of the DNA double helix consists of approximately 10.5 base pairs.

Q54. The Lymph vessel of the villi is called

• A. Lacteal✓
• B. Epithelium
• C. Adenoids
• D. Afferent lymph vessel

Explanation: The lymph vessel within the villi of the small intestine is called a lacteal. It plays a role in absorbing dietary fats.

Q55. Right atrium is seperated from right ventricle by:

• A. Bicuspid valve
• B. Tricuspid Valve✓
• C. Semilunar valve
• D. Interatrial Septum

Explanation: The right atrium is separated from the right ventricle by the tricuspid valve. The tricuspid valve is a three-leaflet valve that allows blood to flow from the right atrium to the right ventricle. The tricuspid valve is located at the opening of the right ventricle. The tricuspid valve is made up of three leaflets, which are called the septal leaflet, the anterior leaflet, and the posterior leaflet. The leaflets are attached to the papillary muscles by chordae tendineae. The papillary muscles are attached to the walls of the right ventricle.

Q56. The flaps of the tricuspid valves are attached to muscular extensions of the right ventricle known as:

• A. Smooth Muscles
• B. Papillary Muscles✓
• C. Intercostal Muscles
• D. Skeletal Muscles

Explanation: This option is the correct answer. The flaps of the tricuspid valves are attached to muscular extensions of the right ventricle known as papillary muscles. Papillary muscles are specialized muscles located within the ventricles of the heart. They are connected to the tricuspid valve by cord-like structures called chordae tendineae. The contraction of the papillary muscles prevents the backflow of blood by keeping the tricuspid valve closed during ventricular contraction.

Q57. One complete heartbeat consists of one systole and one diastole and lasts for about:

• A. 0.8 sec✓
• B. 0.2 sec
• C. 0.4 sec
• D. 0.5 sec

Explanation: 0.8 seconds: This option is the correct answer. One complete heartbeat, which includes one systole (contraction) and one diastole (relaxation) of the heart, typically lasts for 0.8 seconds.

Q58. The heartbeat cycle starts when electric impulses are generated from:

• A. AV Node
• B. SV Node
• C. SA Node✓
• D. PQ Node

Explanation: SA Node: This option is the correct answer. The SA (sinoatrial) node, also known as the natural pacemaker of the heart, is the initial site where electric impulses are generated to start the heartbeat cycle. The SA node is located in the right atrium of the heart and sends electrical signals that cause the atria to contract.

Q59. About 70-85% CO2 in blood is carried:

• A. As carboxylase myoglobin
• B. Freely as CO2
• C. With proteins in plasma
• D. As bicarbonate✓

Explanation: About 70% of CO2 is transported as bicarbonate ions.

Q60. Those nephrons that are present along the border of the cortex and medulla are called:

• A. Juxtamedullary nephrons✓
• B. Cortical nephrons
• C. Internal nephrons
• D. Outer nephrons

Explanation: Option A is correct.Juxtamedullary nephrons are nephrons that are located at the border of the cortex and medulla of the kidney. These nephrons have a long loop of Henle that extends deep into the medulla. They play an important role in concentrating urine and regulating water balance.

Q61. When water is in short supply, increased water retention occurs through the:

• A. Cortical nephrons
• B. Proximal Convoluted Tubule
• C. Juxtamedullary nephrons✓
• D. The tissue of cortex

Explanation: Juxtamedullary nephrons have long loops of Henle that extend deep into the medulla, enabling them to create a strong osmotic gradient for water reabsorption and conserve water when the body is dehydrated. Cortical nephrons have shorter loops and are less involved in water conservation.

Q62. In nephrons, counter-current multiplier occurs at:

• A. Loop of Henle✓
• B. Collecting Duct
• C. Bowman’s Capsule
• D. Glomerulus

Explanation: The counter‑current multiplier system operates in the loop of Henle, where the opposing flow of fluid in the descending and ascending limbs creates and maintains a concentration gradient in the renal medulla, enabling water reabsorption and urine concentration.

Q63. Ascending loop of Henle does not allow outflow of:

• A. Na+ ions
• B. K+ ions
• C. Cl- ions
• D. Water✓

Explanation: The ascending limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to water, so water cannot pass through it. However, it actively reabsorbs Na⁺, K⁺, and Cl⁻ ions (via the Na⁺ K⁺-2Cl⁻ cotransporter).

Q64. A larger quantity of dilute urine is produced in diabetes insipidus. This disease is due to the deficiency of:

• A. Antidiuretic Hormone✓
• B. Aldosterone
• C. Thyroxine
• D. Cortisol

Explanation: Option A is correct.Diabetes insipidus is a condition characterized by the deficiency or dysfunction of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin. ADH is produced by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. Its main function is to regulate water balance by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys. In diabetes insipidus, the lack of ADH or the kidneys' inability to respond to it leads to the production of larger quantities of dilute urine.

Q65. Water and sodium ions are reabsorbed in:

• A. Urinary Bladder and Urethra
• B. Ureter
• C. Adrenal Cortex
• D. Proximal Convoluted Tubule & Collecting Duct✓

Explanation: The majority of water and sodium ion reabsorption occurs in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) of the nephron. Additional fine-tuning of water reabsorption (under ADH influence) happens in the collecting duct. The bladder and ureter are involved in urine storage and transport, not reabsorption. The adrenal cortex produces hormones like aldosterone (which affects sodium reabsorption) but is not a site of direct reabsorption.

Q66. Which disease is responsible for dementia (memory loss)?

• A. Parkinson’s Disease
• B. Alzheimer’s Disease✓
• C. Epilepsy
• D. Grave’s Disease

Explanation: The disease responsible for dementia, which is characterized by memory loss and cognitive decline, is Alzheimer's disease. Alzheimer's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that primarily affects older adults.

Q67. Neurotransmitter secreted at the synapse outside the central nervous system is:

• A. Dopamine
• B. Androgen
• C. Polypeptide
• D. Acetylcholine✓

Explanation: Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that is secreted at synapses outside the central nervous system. It plays a crucial role in transmitting signals between neurons and between neurons and muscles in various parts of the body. Acetylcholine (ACh) is an important neurotransmitter that carries messages between nerve cells, affecting muscle contraction, memory, learning, arousal, and various autonomic functions like heart rate and blood pressure. It acts at neuromuscular junctions, in the central nervous system, and throughout the autonomic nervous system, being released by neurons and then broken down by an enzyme to allow for rapid signaling. Conditions like Alzheimer's disease and myasthenia gravis are associated with low acetylcholine levels.

Q68. Conduction of action potentials from one node of Ranvier to another in myelinated neurons is through:

• A. Hyperpolarization
• B. Depolarization
• C. Resting Membrane Potential
• D. Saltatory Conduction✓

Explanation: In myelinated neurons, action potentials jump from one node of Ranvier to the next. Myelin acts as insulation, speeding up conduction by preventing continuous depolarization along the axon.

Q69. In the following diagram of action potential in a neuron, ‘x’ depicts:

• A. Depolarization✓
• B. Polarization
• C. Repolarization
• D. Hyperpolarization

Explanation: Depolarization refers to the phase of an action potential where the membrane potential of a neuron becomes less negative or more positive. It typically occurs after the initial stimulus triggers a rapid influx of sodium ions into the cell, causing a change in the membrane potential. In the given diagram, 'x' represents depolarization.

Q70. In human testis, which structure is responsible for carrying sperm from inside the testis?

• A. Seminiferous tubules
• B. Urinogenital duct
• C. Seminal Vesicles
• D. Vasa efferentia✓

Explanation: Vasa efferentia is the correct answer. The vasa efferentia are a series of ducts that connect the rete testis (a network of tubules within the testis) to the epididymis. These ducts are responsible for transporting sperm from the testis to the epididymis, where sperm maturation and storage take place.

Q71. In which part of human female reproductive system does fertilization occur?

• A. Ovary
• B. Cervix
• C. Uterus
• D. Fallopian tube✓

Explanation: Fertilization occurs in ampulla of fallopian tube.

Q72. In females, FSH stimulates the ovary to produce:

• A. Progesterone
• B. Lactin
• C. Oestrogen✓
• D. Oxytocin

Explanation: Oestrogen (Estrogen) is the correct answer. FSH stimulates the ovary to produce estrogen (also spelled as oestrogen). Estrogen is a group of hormones primarily responsible for the development of secondary sexual characteristics, regulation of the menstrual cycle, and preparation of the uterus for potential pregnancy. FSH stimulates the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles, which then produce estrogen.

Q73. Syphilis, sexually transmitted disease is caused by:

• A. HIV
• B. Treponema pallidum✓
• C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
• D. Type ‘2’ virus

Explanation: Syphillis is caused by the bacterium Treponema Pallidum.HIV causes AIDS. Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes Gonorrhoea and Type ‘2’ virus causes Herpes.HIV is the virus that causes HIV infection and leads to Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS),Syphilis, a sexually transmitted disease, is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum.Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the bacterium responsible for causing the sexually transmitted infection known as gonorrhea.

Q74. In which phase of the human female menstrual cycle, endometrium prepares for the implantation of embryo?

• A. Proliferative phase
• B. Menstrual phase
• C. Secretory phase✓
• D. Ovulation phase

Explanation: From day 14 to day 28 of the menstrual cycle (secretory phase) Progesterone thickens endometrium in preparation for possible fertilization and subsequent implantation.During the secretory phase, which occurs after ovulation, the levels of progesterone rise. Progesterone stimulates the thickening and development of the endometrium, the lining of the uterus. The endometrium becomes rich in blood vessels and glandular secretions, preparing it for the potential implantation of a fertilized embryo.The proliferative phase occurs earlier in the menstrual cycle, prior to ovulation. During this phase, the levels of estrogen rise.The ovulatory phase is the phase in which ovulation occurs. It involves the release of a mature egg (ovum) from the ovary.Secretory phase, which occurs after ovulation, the levels of progesterone rise. Progesterone stimulates the thickening and development of the endometrium, the lining of the uterus. The endometrium becomes rich in blood vessels and glandular secretions, preparing it for the potential implantation of a fertilized embryo.If fertilization and implantation do not occur, hormone levels decrease towards the end of the secretory phase. This leads to the shedding of the endometrium during the subsequent menstrual phase, which marks the beginning of a new menstrual cycle.

Q75. The total number of cervical and thoracic vertebrae in human vertebral column is:

• A. 7
• B. 19✓
• C. 14
• D. 33

Explanation: There are 7 vertebrae in the cervical region and 12 in the thoracic region, so 19 is the correct answer.

Q76. A sarcomere is the region of a myofibril between two successive:

• A. M-lines
• B. I-bands
• C. Z-lines✓
• D. T-tubules

Explanation: The correct answer is Z-lines. Z-lines, or Z-discs, define the boundaries of a sarcomere, marking where one sarcomere ends and the next begins. They are crucial for anchoring the thin filaments and maintaining the structural integrity of the myofibril. M-lines are central structures within a sarcomere and do not define its boundaries. I-bands contain only thin filaments and span across two sarcomeres without defining their limits. T-tubules are involved in signal transmission for muscle contraction but do not relate to sarcomere boundaries.

Q77. The sarcolemma of muscle fibre folds inwards and forms a system of tubes which runs through the sarcoplasm called:

• A. Myofilaments
• B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
• C. Z-lines
• D. Transverse tubules✓

Explanation: Transverse tubules: This option is the correct answer. The sarcolemma of a muscle fiber folds inwards at regular intervals to form invaginations called transverse tubules (T-tubules). T-tubules play a crucial role in transmitting electrical impulses (action potentials) deep into the muscle fiber, allowing for synchronous contraction of the sarcomeres.

Q78. According to the sliding filament theory, when muscle fibers are stimulated by the nervous system, which of the following changes occurs?

• A. I-bands shorten✓
• B. H-zone becomes more visible
• C. Z-lines move further apart
• D. A-bands shorten

Explanation: According to the sliding filament theory, muscle contraction involves the sliding of thin actin filaments over thick myosin filaments within the sarcomere. This process brings the Z-lines closer together, shortening the sarcomere, and results in the shortening of the I-bands. The A-bands remain constant in length because they represent the region of overlap between actin and myosin. Conversely, the H-zone, which contains only myosin filaments, narrows or disappears entirely during contraction. Therefore, the correct answer is that the I-bands shorten during muscle contraction.

Q79. If lactic acid builds up in thigh muscles, it causes muscle tiredness and pain. This condition is called:

• A. Muscle Fatigue✓
• B. Tetany
• C. Cramps
• D. Oxygen debt in muscles

Explanation: Muscle Fatigue: This option is the correct answer. The condition described, where lactic acid builds up in thigh muscles, causing tiredness and pain, is known as muscle fatigue. Muscle fatigue occurs when muscles are unable to contract efficiently and sustain their performance due to various factors such as the depletion of energy stores, accumulation of metabolic byproducts like lactic acid, or inadequate oxygen supply.

Q80. Thyroxine deficiency in adults results in a condition called:

• A. Cretinism
• B. Hypothyroidism
• C. Thyrotoximia
• D. Myxoedema✓

Explanation: Myxedema refers to the advanced or severe form of hypothyroidism characterized by swelling of the skin, subcutaneous tissues, and other organs. It is more commonly seen in adults.

Q81. Alpha cells of pancreas release a hormone known as:

• A. Glucagon✓
• B. Insulin
• C. Gastrin
• D. Rennin

Explanation: Alpha cells of the pancreas release the hormone glucagon. Glucagon plays a key role in regulating blood glucose levels. It stimulates the liver to break down stored glycogen into glucose, which is then released into the bloodstream, increasing blood sugar levels.

Q82. X-linked recessive trait is:

• A. Hypophosphatemia
• B. Vitamin-D resistant rickets
• C. Hemophilia✓
• D. Diabetes Mellitus

Explanation: Hemophilia: This option is the correct answer. Hemophilia is a classic example of an X-linked recessive disorder. It leads to impaired blood clotting due to deficiencies in clotting factors, particularly factor VIII (hemophilia A) or factor IX (hemophilia B). This disorder primarily affects males because they have only one X chromosome, meaning a single recessive gene on this chromosome can manifest the disorder.The other options are not X-linked recessive traits. Hypophosphatemia can be due to various causes, not limited to X-linked inheritance. Vitamin-D resistant rickets is an X- linked dominant disorder, and Diabetes Mellitus, while having genetic influences, is not tied to X-linked recessive inheritance.

Q83. Human skin color is a good example of a?

• A. Sex-linked inheritance
• B. Polygenic inheritance✓
• C. X-linked inheritance
• D. Y-linked inheritance

Explanation: Polygenic inheritance: This option is the correct answer. Human skin color is a good example of polygenic inheritance. Polygenic inheritance occurs when a trait is influenced by multiple genes, each contributing a small effect. Skin color is determined by the combined effects of several genes that control the production and distribution of melanin, the pigment responsible for skin color.

Q84. From an evolutionary point of view, which respiratory protein is common in many organisms?

• A. Cytochrome a
• B. Cytochrome b
• C. Cytochrome c✓
• D. Cytochrome d

Explanation: Cytochrome c: This option is the correct answer. Cytochrome c is a highly conserved respiratory protein found in a wide range of organisms, including bacteria, fungi, plants, and animals. It plays a vital role in electron transport and is involved in transferring electrons between different protein complexes within the mitochondrial membrane. Due to its high level of conservation, cytochrome c is considered a common respiratory protein across diverse organisms.

Q85. Number of pairs of autosomes in humans in:

• A. 23
• B. 24
• C. 21
• D. 22✓

Explanation: The correct answer is 22 because humans have 22 pairs of autosomes, which are the non-sex chromosomes. These autosomes are numbered from 1 to 22 and contain genes that are not involved in determining the sex of an individual. The remaining pair of chromosomes is the sex chromosomes (XX in females or XY in males). Option A (23) is incorrect because it includes the pair of sex chromosomes. Option B (24) is incorrect as the total number of pairs of chromosomes in humans is 23. Option C (21) is incorrect as it suggests a reduction in chromosome number, which is not characteristic of typical human genetics.

Q86. ABO blood system is an example of:

• A. Polygenes
• B. Multiple alleles✓
• C. Multiple genes
• D. Multiple mutation

Explanation: Option B is correct. The ABO blood system is an example of multiple alleles. Multiple alleles are different forms of the same gene. In the case of the ABO blood system, the gene is called ABO, and it has three alleles: A, B, and O. The A allele is responsible for the production of the A antigen in red blood cells. The B allele is responsible for the production of the B antigen in red blood cells. The O allele is responsible for the production of neither antigen on red blood cells. A person's blood type is determined by the alleles they inherit from their parents. If a person inherits two A alleles, they will have type A blood. If a person inherits two B alleles, they will have type B blood. If a person inherits one A allele and one B allele, they will have type AB blood. And if a person inherits two O alleles, they will have type O blood. Multiple alleles are a common occurrence in human genetics. Other examples of multiple alleles include the Rh blood group system, the MN blood group system, and the sickle cell anemia gene.

Q87. Which molecular structure of enzyme is essential for activity of enzyme?

• A. Primary structure
• B. Secondary structure
• C. Quaternary structure
• D. Tertiary structure✓

Explanation: The correct answer is the tertiary structure. The tertiary structure of an enzyme refers to its three-dimensional shape, which is vital for forming the active site. The active site is the specific region where substrates bind and reactions occur, making the tertiary structure crucial for the enzyme's catalytic activity. In contrast, the primary structure provides the amino acid sequence, but not the functional shape. The secondary structure contributes to stability but not directly to the active site formation. The quaternary structure is important only for enzymes composed of multiple subunits and is not universally required for enzyme activity.

Q88. Which one of the following edible products is widely pasteurized?

• A. Soft drinks
• B. Mango squash
• C. Milk✓
• D. Orange Juice

Explanation: Milk: This option is the correct answer. Milk is widely pasteurized to kill harmful bacteria and increase its shelf life. Pasteurization involves heating the milk to a specific temperature for a set period of time and then rapidly cooling it. This process helps to eliminate pathogenic bacteria while retaining the nutritional value of the milk.

Q89. Ribosomes are tiny organelles, which are involved in the synthesis of:

• A. Protein✓
• B. RNA
• C. Nucleus
• D. Nucleosome

Explanation: Ribosomes are essential cellular organelles tasked with synthesizing proteins by translating messenger RNA (mRNA) sequences into polypeptide chains. These proteins play various roles in cellular functions. The incorrect options relate to different cellular components and functions: RNA synthesis is a nuclear process, the nucleus functions as the control center of the cell, and nucleosomes are involved in DNA packaging, not protein synthesis.

Q90. Which organelle is bounded by two membranes?

• A. Ribosomes
• B. Lysosomes
• C. Mitochondria✓
• D. Nucleolus

Explanation: Mitochondria are one of the organelles that are bound by two membranes. The outer membrane of mitochondria is smooth while the inner membrane has infoldings called cristae.

Q91. At the beginning of nuclear division, the number of microtubule triplets in two pairs of centrioles that migrate to opposite poles are:

• A. 9
• B. 18
• C. 108
• D. 36✓

Explanation: Structure of a Centriole:Each centriole is composed of 9 microtubule triplets arranged in a cylindrical structure, forming the 9+0 arrangement.Centrioles in the Centrosome:Each centrosome contains a pair of centrioles (two centrioles).Since the cell contains two centrosomes during nuclear division (one for each pole), there are a total of 4 centrioles.Number of Microtubule Triplets:Each centriole has 9 triplets, so the total number of triplets in 4 centrioles is: 36

Q92. The disease in which an individual has extra sex chromosome (44 + XXY) is known as:

• A. Down’s syndrome
• B. Turner's syndrome
• C. Klinefelter’s syndrome✓
• D. Jacob’s syndrome

Explanation: Klinefelter's syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects males, characterized by the presence of an extra X chromosome. The most common karyotype in Klinefelter's syndrome is 47 + XXY, indicating an additional X chromosome. Individuals with Klinefelter's syndrome may have physical, hormonal, and developmental differences.

Q93. Over-secretion of cortical hormone causes a disease called:

• A. Cushing’s Disease✓
• B. Diabetes Mellitus
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Addison’s Disease

Explanation: Cushing's Disease is caused by excess production/release of the cortisol hormone in the adrenal glands. The disease caused by the over-secretion of cortical hormones (specifically glucocorticoids) is called Cushing's disease. Cushing's disease is a condition characterized by excessive production of cortisol, which is a type of glucocorticoid hormone. It is typically caused by a tumor or abnormality in the pituitary gland, which leads to overstimulation of the adrenal glands and increased production of cortisol. Cushing's disease is a condition characterized by excessive production of cortisol, which is a type of glucocorticoid hormone.

Q94. Ejection of milk from mammary glands is under the control of which one of the following hormones?

• A. Androgen
• B. Oxytocin✓
• C. Progesterone
• D. Estrogen

Explanation: Oxytocin causes an increase in intramammary pressure through the induction of contraction of myoepithelial cells and thus aids in expelling milk from the mammary glands. The ejection of milk from the mammary glands is primarily under the control of the hormone oxytocin.

Q95. Granulocytes are:

• A. Monocytes, Eosinophils, Basophils
• B. Basophils, Macrophages, Neutrophils
• C. Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Basophils✓
• D. Monocytes, Macrophages, Basophils

Explanation: Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Basophils: This option is the correct answer. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are all types of granulocytes. They are characterized by the presence of granules in their cytoplasm and play important roles in the immune response. Neutrophils are involved in the phagocytosis of bacteria, eosinophils are involved in allergic reactions and defense against parasites, and basophils are involved in inflammatory responses.

Q96. The response of the body against the transplanted organ is:

• A. Homeostatic Response
• B. Primary Immune Response
• C. Behavioral Response
• D. Cell-mediated Response✓

Explanation: Transplant rejection is caused primarily by a cell-mediated immune response to HLA antigens expressed on donor antigen-presenting cells (APCs) transferred along with the transplanted organ. Recognition of donor HLA antigens on the cells of the graft induces vigorous T cell proliferation in the recipient.

Q97. Some enzymes require helper which is non-protein part for its efficient functioning that is called:

• A. Accelerator
• B. Cofactor✓
• C. Prosthetic group
• D. Apoenzyme

Explanation: Some enzymes require non protein parts for their proper functioning. If the non-protein part is covalently bonded, it is known as a prosthetic group. If it is loosely attached to the protein part, it is known as coenzyme. Enzyme with its cofactor removed is called apoenzyme.

Q98. Pepsin, protein digesting enzymes, sets best pH:

• A. 3.00
• B. 4.50
• C. 2.00✓
• D. 6.00

Explanation: Pepsin works best at a pH of around 2.00, which is highly acidic. The low pH helps denature proteins and allows pepsin to cleave peptide bonds efficiently.

Q99. Which one of the following is an example of a competitive inhibitor?

• A. Glucose
• B. Fumarate
• C. Succinic acid
• D. Malonate✓

Explanation: Malonate has structural similarity with succinic acid and it binds competitively with the active site of succinic acid dehydrogenase enzyme and blocks its activity.

Q100. HIV is classified as?

• A. Bacteriophage
• B. Retrovirus✓
• C. Hepatitis
• D. Icosahedral virus

Explanation: Option B is correct. Retroviruses use RNA as their genetic material and employ reverse transcriptase to form DNA, which integrates into the host genome for replication. HIV is a classic example. In contrast, bacteriophages infect bacteria, hepatitis is liver inflammation often caused by viruses (A–E), and icosahedral viruses have a capsid with 20 triangular faces, as seen in poliovirus and adenovirus.

Q101. Cyanobacteria are:

• A. Photoautotrophic bacteria✓
• B. Chemosynthetic bacteria
• C. Saprotrophic bacteria
• D. Parasitic bacteria

Explanation: Cyanobacteria synthesize their own food from inorganic substances and this fall into the category of photoautotrophs.

Q102. During unfavourable conditions, certain bacteria produces:

• A. Ribosomes
• B. Plasmids
• C. Mitochondria
• D. Spores✓

Explanation: Spores are specialized structures produced by certain bacteria, fungi, and other organisms during unfavorable conditions. Bacterial spores are highly resistant environmental strasses like heat, radiation, and dessication. Spore formation is a survival strategy that allows bacteria to enter a dormant state, protecting their genetic material and essential components until more favorable conditions arise. When conditions improve, spores can germinate and grow into vegetative cells again.

Q103. In rhizopus, zygote forms temporary, dormant, thick-walled resistant structure called:

• A. Zygospore✓
• B. Spore
• C. Sporangia
• D. Hydra

Explanation: Zygospore: This option is the correct answer. In Rhizopus, the zygote undergoes sexual reproduction and forms a temporary, dormant, thick-walled resistant structure called a zygospore. The zygospore is formed through the fusion of two specialized hyphae, and it serves as a survival structure during unfavorable conditions.

Q104. _ is a triploblastic organism.

• A. Jelly Fish
• B. Sea Anemone
• C. Tapeworm✓
• D. Corals

Explanation: Tapeworms are triploblastic organisms. They belong to the phylum Platyhelminthes and have three germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm. They are considered triploblastic.

Q105. In arthropods, the body cavity is in the form of:

• A. Coelom
• B. Pseudocoelom
• C. Haemocoel✓
• D. Enteron

Explanation: In Arthropoda, the true coelom is greatly reduced and does not function as the main body cavity. Instead, they possess a large, blood-filled cavity called a haemocoel, which is part of an open circulatory system. In this haemocoel, tissues and organs are bathed directly in haemolymph (blood-like fluid), allowing the transport of nutrients and gases. Thus, the coelom is present only in small, reduced regions around certain organs, while the haemocoel serves as the primary body cavity in arthropods.

Q106. _ is a good example of polymorphism.

• A. Hydra
• B. Starfish
• C. Obelia✓
• D. Euplectella

Explanation: Polymorphism refers to the occurrence of different forms or variations within the same species. In the context of the given options, Obelia is a good example of polymorphism. Obelia is a genus of hydrozoan cnidarians, which includes various species of marine animals such as hydroids. These organisms exhibit different forms in their life cycle. The life cycle of Obelia involves both a polyp stage, where the organism is attached to a substrate and resembles a small, often colonial, organism, and a medusa stage, where the organism is free-swimming and has a bell-like body plan. The polyp and medusa stages of Obelia represent distinct forms within the same species, and this variation in form is a characteristic of polymorphism. The polyp and medusa forms serve different functions and exhibit different structures and behaviors, which is a key feature of polymorphism.

Q107. Name common gut roundworm parasites of humans and pigs.

• A. Ascaris lumbricoides✓
• B. Lumbricus terrestris
• C. Pheretima posthuma
• D. Hirudo Medicinalis

Explanation: Ascaris lumbircoides is a large roundworm parasite that can infect both humans and pigs.

Q108. _ is also called liver fluke.

• A. Dugesia
• B. Fasciola✓
• C. Taenia
• D. Coral

Explanation: With few exceptions, the Platyhelminthes are parasites, mostly endoparasites, i.e., live inside their hosts. The most common examples are Taenia solium (tapeworm), Fasciola hepatica (liver luke), and Schistosoma (blood luke).

Q109. Oxyntic cells in stomach produce :

• A. Pepsin
• B. Pepsinogen
• C. Gastrin
• D. HCl✓

Explanation: HCL (Hydrochloric acid): This option is the correct answer. Oxyntic cells, also known as parietal cells, in the stomach are responsible for producing and secreting hydrochloric acid (HCl). HCl creates an acidic environment in the stomach, which aids in the digestion of food, activates pepsinogen to form pepsin, and helps kill bacteria present in ingested food.

Q110. The hormone that inhibits the secretion of pancreatic juice is:

• A. Somatostatin✓
• B. Gastrin
• C. Thyroxine
• D. Parathormone

Explanation: This is the correct option because somatostatin inhibits the secretion of pancreatic juice by suppressing the release of digestive enzymes and hormones like insulin and glucagon from the pancreas. It acts as a regulatory hormone to maintain balance in digestive and endocrine functions.

Q111. Trypsinogen is activated to trypsin by:

• A. HCI
• B. Mucus
• C. Enterokinase✓
• D. Gastrin

Explanation: Enterokinase is an enzyme produced by cells of the duodenum and is involved in digestion in humans and other animals. It converts trypsinogen into its active form, trypsin, resulting in the subsequent activation of pancreatic digestive enzymes.

Q112. The emulsification of fats is the role of:

• A. Saliva
• B. Gastrin
• C. Pancreatic juice
• D. Bile✓

Explanation: Bile secreted by liver contains bile salts which are responsible for emulsifying the fats. Emulsification of fats break down the fats into small emulsion droplets which increases the surface area for lipase to act on it and digest it.

Q113. ‘Ka’ values of a few organic acids are given. The order of acid strength is:

• A. CCl3COOH > CHCl2COOH > CH2ClCOOH > CH3COOH✓
• B. CH3COOH > CHCl2COOH > CCl3COOH > CH2ClCOOH
• C. CHCl2COOH > CH3COOH > CCl3COOH > CH2ClCOOH
• D. CCl3COOH > CH3COOH > CHCl2COOH > CH2ClCOOH

Explanation: CCl3COOH > CHCl2COOH > CH2ClCOOH > CH3COOH: This option suggests that trichloroacetic acid (CCl3COOH) is the strongest acid, followed by dichloroacetic acid (CHCl2COOH), chloroacetic acid (CH2ClCOOH), and acetic acid (CH3COOH). The order is based on the increasing number of chlorine atoms attached to the carboxyl group, which increases the electron-withdrawing effect and enhances the acidity of the molecule. Therefore, this option represents the correct order of acid strength.

Q114. An organic acid ‘z’ reacts separately with sodium bicarbonate, sodium hydroxide and sodium carbonate. Which one of the following represent the structure of ‘z’?

• A. HCOOC2H5
• B. CH3―CH=CH2
• C. CH3CH2OH
• D. H3C―CH2―COOH✓

Explanation: H3C―CH2―COOH: This structure represents propanoic acid, which is an organic acid. The carboxylic acid functional group (-COOH) is present in this structure, which is characteristic of organic acids. Therefore, this option represents the correct structure of 'z'.

Q115. Carboxylic acids are rather hard to reduce, which powerful reducing agent can be used to convert them to the corresponding primary alcohol:

• A. H2SO4 / HgSO4
• B. V2O5
• C. LiAlH4✓
• D. K2Cr2O7 /H2SO4

Explanation: LiAlH4 : Lithium aluminum hydride (LiAlH4) is a powerful reducing agent commonly used to convert carbonyl compounds, including carboxylic acids, to their corresponding primary alcohols. This option represents the correct reducing agent for the conversion.

Q116. This structure is:

• A. Gly-Ala (dipeptide)✓
• B. Asp-Gly (dipeptide)
• C. Gly-Val (dipeptide)
• D. Asp-Val (dipeptide)

Explanation: Glycine is HO2CCH2NH2 and Alanine is CH3-CH(NH2)-COOH. Hence when these two amino acids form a dipeptide bond they make the structure above.

Q117. Which one of the following amino acids is basic in nature?

• A. glycine
• B. alanine
• C. lysine✓
• D. glutamic acid

Explanation: Lysine is a basic amino acid. It has a side chain with an amino group (-NH2) which can accept a proton (H+) and make the amino acid basic in nature. Lysine has a positively charged amino group at physiological pH, which contributes to its basicity. Therefore, lysine is the basic amino acid.

Q118. Which one of the following structures shows the correct formula of glutamic acid?

• A. A
• B. B✓
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: Glutamic acid is HOOC−CH(NH2)−(CH2)2−COOH.

Q119. Select the correct Zwitter ionic structures of an amino acid:

• A. A
• B. B✓
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: An amino acid has both a basic amine group and an acidic carboxylic acid group. There is an internal transfer of a hydrogen ion from the -COOH group to the -NH2 group to leave an ion with both a negative charge and a positive charge. This is called a zwitterion.

Q120. How many moles of sodium are present in 0.1 g of sodium?

• A. 4.3 ×10-3✓
• B. 4.03 ×10-1
• C. 4.01 ×10-2
• D. 4.3 × 10-2

Explanation: To calculate the number of moles of sodium present in 0.1g of sodium, we need to use the molar mass of sodium (Na), which is approximately 22.99 g/mol.The number of moles (n) can be calculated using the formula:n = mass / molar massn = 0.1g / 22.99 g/moln ≈ 0.00434 molRounded to two decimal places, the number of moles of sodium in 0.1g of sodium is approximately 0.0043 mol.4.3 x 10-3 (0.0043) - This matches the calculated value.

Q121. The structural formula for alanine is:

• A. A Option
• B. B Option
• C. C Option
• D. D Option✓

Explanation: This structure features a methyl group as a side chain. Alanine is CH3-CH(NH2)-COOH.

Q122. With the help of spectral data given, calculate the mass of Neon and encircle the best option. (Percentage of 10Ne20, 10Ne21 and 10Ne22 are 90.92%, 0.26% and 8.82% respectively).

• A. 22.18 amu
• B. 21.18 amu
• C. 20.18 amu✓
• D. 22.20 amu

Explanation: relative atomic mass = (20 × 90.92 + 21 × 0.26 + 22 × 8.82) ÷ 100 = 20.179 ≈ 20.18

Q123. Which one of the following pairs has the same electronic configuration as possessed by Neon (Ne-10)?

• A. Na+, Cl-
• B. K+, Cl-
• C. Na+, K+
• D. Na+, F-✓

Explanation: Sodium (Na+) has the electronic configuration 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^1, while fluorine (F-) has the electronic configuration 1s^2 2s^2 2p^5. Na+ loses one electron and F- ions gain one electron from their valence shells, resulting in the same electronic configuration as neon. Therefore, this pair has the same electronic configuration as neon.

Q124. If the volume of a gas collected at a temperature of 600 °C and pressure of 1.05 × 105 Nm-2 is 60 dm3, what would be the volume of gas at STP (P=1.01 × 105 Nm-2, T = 273 K)?

• A. 100 dm3
• B. 75 dm3
• C. 19.5 dm3✓
• D. 51 dm3

Explanation: To find the volume of the gas at STP (Standard Temperature and Pressure), we apply the combined gas law equation:(P1 * V1) / T1 = (P2 * V2) / T2Given:P1 = 1.05 × 105 N/m2V1 = 60 dm3T1 = 873.15 K (600°C converted to Kelvin)P2 = 1.01 × 105 N/m2T2 = 273 KSolving for V2:V2 = (1.05 × 105 N/m2 * 60 dm3 * 273 K) / (1.01 × 105 N/m2 * 873.15 K) ≈ 19.5 dm3Thus, the correct volume at STP is approximately 19.5 dm3, confirming that Option C is correct. Other options do not satisfy the equation when calculated under given conditions.

Q125. There are four orbitals s, p, d and f. Which order is correct with respect to the increasing energy of the orbitals?

• A. 4s < 4p < 4d < 4f✓
• B. 4p < 4s < 4f < 4d
• C. 4s < 4f < 4p < 4d
• D. 4f < 4s < 4d < 4p

Explanation: According to the order of increasing energy, the s orbitals have lower energy than the p orbitals. However, the d orbitals have higher energy than the p orbitals, and the f orbitals have higher energy than the d orbitals. Therefore, the correct order should be: 4s < 4p < 4d < 4f.

Q126. Which graph represents Boyle’s law?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B✓
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: Boyles law states that at a fixed temperature, the volume of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure exerted by the gas.

Q127. Which one of the following hydrogen bonds is stronger than others?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B✓
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: Electronegativity trend is F>O>N. The greater the difference between the electronegativity of bonded atoms, the stronger the bond. Fluorine is the most electronegative, hence forming the strongest hydrogen bond.

Q128. The half - life of N2O5 at 45 °C is 24 minutes. How long will it take for sample of N2O5 to decay to 25% of its original concentration?

• A. 24 minutes
• B. 120 minutes
• C. 72 minutes
• D. 48 minutes✓

Explanation: First, find out how many half-lives it takes to reach 25% (which is 1/4) of the original concentration:- (¼) = 2 , where 'n' is the number of half-lives.(-n) Taking the logarithm of both sides:-n = log(¼) / log(2) n = log(4) / log(2) = 2Since it takes 2 half-lives to reach 25% of the original concentration, you can multiply the half-life by 2 to find the total time required:Total time = 2 * 24 minutes = 48 minutes.

Q129. When the change in concentration is 6 x 10-4 mol dm-3 and time for that change is 10 seconds, the rate of reaction will be:

• A. 6 × 10-3mol dm-3 sec-1
• B. 6 × 10-4 mol dm-3 sec-1
• C. 6 × 10-2 mol dm-3 sec-1
• D. 6 × 10-5 mol dm-3 sec-1✓

Explanation: 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 = Δ𝐶/𝑡 = (6 × 10−4 )/10 = 6 × 10−5𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑑𝑚−3𝑠𝑒𝑐−1 Given: Change in concentration = 6 x 10^(-4) mol dm^(-3) Time = 10 secondsRate of reaction = Change in concentration / TimeSubstituting the given values:Rate of reaction = (6 x 10^(-4) mol dm^(-3)) / 10 secondsSimplifying:Rate of reaction = 6 x 10^(-5) mol dm^(-3) sec^(-1)Among the given options, the closest value to the calculated rate is Option D: 6 x 10^(-5) mol dm^(-3) sec^(-1).Therefore, the rate of reaction will be approximately 6 x 10^(-5) mol dm^(-3) sec^(-1).

Q130. Which one of the following will have the smallest radius?

• A. Al3+
• B. Si3+✓
• C. Mg2+
• D. Na1+

Explanation: Silicon has the highest atomic number and Si3+ has the highest nuclear charge. Hence, it has the smallest radius. ion with the most protons will have the strongest pull on those electrons, resulting in the smallest radius. Silicon (Si³⁺) has the most protons (14), so it has the smallest radius.

Q131. Keeping in view the size of atoms, which order is correct?

• A. N > C
• B. P > Si
• C. Ar > Cl
• D. Li > Be✓

Explanation: Option D is correct because Lithium (Li) and Beryllium (Be) are in the same period, with Li positioned to the left of Be. As you move from left to right within a period, the atomic size decreases due to the increase in nuclear charge, which pulls electrons closer to the nucleus. Therefore, Li has a larger atomic size than Be.The other options are incorrect because they either misrepresent the relative sizes based on periodic trends or misplace elements in different periods or groups without considering the correct periodic trend.

Q132. On the basis of the oxidising power of halogens, which reaction is possible?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B✓
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: Oxidising power of halogens decreases down the group. Iodine has the least oxidising power, followed by Br2, Cl2 and then F2.

Q133. [Ti(H2O)6]3+ transmits:

• A. Yellow and Red light
• B. Yellow and Blue light
• C. Red and white light
• D. Red and blue light✓

Explanation: When white light is allowed to fall on [Ti(H2O)6]3+ ion, this ion absorbs the light of green and yellow colour and transmits almost purple colour. Red and Blue are transmitted.

Q134. Electronic configuration of Gold [Au79] is

• A. [Xe]4f14, 5d10, 6s1✓
• B. [Xe]4f¹⁰f10, 5d¹⁰, 6s²
• C. [Xe]4f14, 5d9, 6s2
• D. [Xe]4f14, 5d10, 6s2

Explanation: Atomic number of Au is 79, its electronic configuration is1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p64d105s25p64f145d106s1(The electronic configuration of Xe is 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p64d105s25p6)Hence electronic configuration of Au79 is [Xe] 4f14, 5d10, 6s1The correct electron configuration of gold (Au79) is:[Xe]4f14, 5d10, 6s1 This configuration represents the filling of electron orbitals in the order of increasing energy levels. The noble gas core notation [Xe] indicates the electron configuration of the noble gas xenon (54 electrons) up to its completed 5p orbital.

Q135. About 80% of ammonia is used for the production of:

• A. Explosives
• B. Fertilizers✓
• C. Nylon
• D. Polymers

Explanation: About 80% of the ammonia produced by industry is used in agriculture as fertilizer. Ammonia is also used as a refrigerant gas, for the purification of water supplies, in the manufacture of plastics, explosives, textiles, pesticides, dyes and other chemicals.About 80% of ammonia is used for the production of fertilizers.Ammonia (NH3) is a key component in the production of nitrogen-based fertilizers. Ammonia can ber eacted with various substances, such as nitric acid or sulfuric acid, to produce ammonium nitrate or ammonium sulfate, which are commonly used fertilizers. These fertilizers provide essential nitrogen top lants, promoting their growth and enhancing crop yields.

Q136. Urea is the most widely used nitrogen fertilizer in Pakistan. Its composition is:

• A. NH2CO
• B. N2H5CO2
• C. N2H4CO2
• D. N2H4CO✓

Explanation: Urea, also known as carbamide, is an organic compound with the chemical formula CO(NH2)2. This amide has two –NH2 groups joined by a carbonyl (C=O) functional group.The composition of urea, which is the most widely used nitrogen fertilizer in Pakistan, is N2H4CO.Urea has the chemical formula CO(NH2)2, which can also be represented as NH2CONH2. This indicates that urea consists of two amine groups (NH2) attached to a carbonyl group (C=O). The structure of urea is shown as N2H4CO, representing the arrangement of atoms.

Q137. During the manufacture of nitric acid, nitric oxide is oxidized to nitrogen dioxide.This reaction is given as:2NO(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g) ΔH = -114 kJ/molAccording to Le Chatelier’s Principle;

• A. Reaction must not be temperature dependent
• B. Reaction must be carried out at room temperature
• C. Reaction must be carried out at low temperature✓
• D. Reaction must be carried out at high temperature

Explanation: Since ΔH is negative, the reaction is exothermic. More products will be formed at lower temperatures (equilibrium will shift to the right).We can see that the reaction is exothermic, as indicated by the negative value of ΔH (enthalpy change). According to Le Chatelier's principle, if the temperature is increased, the equilibrium will shift in the direction that absorbs heat, i.e., in the backward direction.Therefore, to favor the formation of more nitrogen dioxide (NO2) and drive the reaction towards the right, it would be preferable to carry out the reaction at a lower temperature. Lowering the temperature would help to maximize the yield of nitrogen dioxide.

Q138. What is the percentage of nitrogen in NH3NO3?

• A. 65%
• B. 35%✓
• C. 20%
• D. 58%

Explanation: Mass of N is 14, in NH3NO3 there are two Nitrogens hence the mass of N is 28g.Mass of NH3NO3 = 14+(1x3)+14+(16x3)=79Percentage of N = 28/79 = 35%

Q139. The structural formula of 2,3,4 trimethylpentane is:

• A. Option A✓
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: There are methyl groups (CH3) on carbons 2, 3 and 4 in option A only.

Q140. Which one of the following is a powerful electrophile used to attack on the electrons of a benzene ring?

• A. FeCl2
• B. FeCl4-
• C. Cl+✓
• D. Cl2

Explanation: When benzene reacts with a powerful electrophile like Cl+ (chlorine cation), it undergoes electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions where the positively charged carbon of Cl+ attacks the electron-rich benzene ring. This leads to the formation of chlorinated derivatives of benzene. In contrast, FeCl2 and FeCl4- act as Lewis acids, accepting electron pairs but not directly attacking benzene. Cl2 (chlorine gas) is unreactive towards benzene and does not serve as an electrophile in attacking the benzene ring.

Q141. The given three hydrocarbons are:

• A. Alicyclic hydrocarbons
• B. Aromatic hydrocarbons✓
• C. Acyclic hydrocarbons
• D. Heterocyclic hydrocarbons

Explanation: Aromatic hydrocarbons are the correct answer because they contain benzene rings, which the hydrocarbons shown possess. Alicyclic hydrocarbons have non-aromatic carbon rings, acyclic hydrocarbons do not have any rings, and heterocyclic hydrocarbons contain atoms other than carbon in their ring structures. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect based on the structures of the hydrocarbons provided.

Q142. The IUPAC name of the given compound is:

• A. 1-Chloro-2-methylpropane✓
• B. 1-Chloro-2-methylbutane
• C. Isobutyl chloride
• D. 2-Methyl-3-chloropropane

Explanation: There are 3 carbons in a chain, Cl group is bonded to the 1st carbon and methyl is bonded to the 2nd carbon. Hence, the compound is called 1-chloro-2-methylpropane.

Q143. Which one of the following was used as one of the earliest antiseptic and disinfectants?

• A. Phenol✓
• B. Ether
• C. Ethanol
• D. Methanol

Explanation: The antiseptic properties of phenol were used by Sir Joseph Lister (1827–1912).Phenol was one of the earliest disinfectants and antiseptics used in medical and surgical settings. It was first introduced by the British surgeon Joseph Lister in the 19th century as a means to prevent infection during surgeries. Lister recognized the antiseptic properties of phenol and began using it to clean wounds and surgical instruments.Ether (specifically diethyl ether) is a volatile organic compound that has been historically used as an anesthetic. Its function is to induce general anesthesia, causing loss of consciousness and a lack of pain sensation during surgical procedures.Ethanol, also known as ethyl alcohol has antimicrobial properties and is effective against a wide range of bacteria, viruses, and fungi.Methanol has various industrial uses, such as a solvent or fuel, but it is not suitable for direct use on the skin or as a disinfectant due to its toxic effects.

Q144. Which one of the following is NOT able to denature the ethanol?

• A. Methanol
• B. Lactic acid✓
• C. Pyridine
• D. Acetone

Explanation: Methanol, pyridine and acetone are able to denature ethanol.Denaturation refers to the process of rendering alcohol undrinkable or unsuitable for consumption by adding or mixing it with substances that are toxic or unpalatable. This is commonly done for various purposes such as industrial use, preventing misuse or consumption, or meeting regulatory requirements. Lactic acid is not able to denature alcohol.

Q145. In the below reaction, the configuration of product is:

• A. 100% same of the configuration of reactant
• B. 50% retained
• C. 50% inverted
• D. 100% opposite from configuration of reactant✓

Explanation: The reaction occurs with inversion of configuration. Thus, the nucleophile approaches the electrophilic carbon atom from the back and the leaving group simultaneously departs from the front of the substrate in the SN2 mechanism.

Q146. How will you distinguish between methanol and ethanol?

• A. By Lucas test
• B. By silver mirror test
• C. By oxidation
• D. By Iodoform test✓

Explanation: The solution in the ethanol test tube should go cloudy and then a yellow precipitate of tri-iodomethane (iodoform) should be seen. Methanol won’t react.The iodoform test is a specific test for methyl ketones, including acetone. Methanol does not react with the iodoform test. However, ethanol can undergo oxidation to acetaldehyde, which is a methyl ketone, and subsequently react with iodine and sodium hydroxide (NaOH) to produce a yellow precipitate of iodoform. This test can help differentiate between ethanol and methanol.

Q147. To produce absolute alcohol (100%) from rectified spirit (95.6% alcohol), the remaining 4.4% water must be removed by a drying agent such as

• A. Calcium oxide✓
• B. Calcium chloride
• C. Calcium carbonate
• D. Carbon monoxide

Explanation: if we add lime (CaO) to the rectified spirit then the water of the mixture can be absorbed by the lime. As a result, the percentage of ethanol will be changed. So the mixture will not act as an azeotropic mixture. In this way, we can prepare absolute alcohol by using the distillation method from a rectified spirit.To remove the remaining water from rectified spirit (95.6% alcohol) and obtain absolute alcohol (100% alcohol), a drying agent is used. The drying agent commonly used for this purpose is calcium oxide (CaO), also known as quicklime.Calcium oxide has a strong affinity for water and can effectively absorb the water present in the rectified spirit. It reacts with water to form calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)2), releasing heat in the process. The reaction helps to remove the remaining water content, leaving behind pure or absolute alcohol.

Q148. Which one of the following is also called the silver mirror test?

• A. Fehling’s solution test
• B. Iodoform test
• C. Tollen’s reagent✓
• D. Benedict’s solution test

Explanation: Tollens' reagent is a chemical reagent used to determine the presence of an aldehyde, aromatic aldehyde and alpha-hydroxy ketone functional groups. The reagent consists of a solution of silver nitrate and ammonia. If these functional groups are present you will observe a silver mirror.Fehling's solution tests used to detect the presence of reducing sugars, such as aldehydes or ketones,The iodoform test is used to identify the presence of a methyl ketone, such as acetone, and it involves the formation of a yellow precipitate of iodoform (CHI3).The test that is also called the "silver mirror test" is the Tollen's reagent test.In the Tollen's reagent test, a substance (usually an aldehyde) is mixed with Tollen's reagent, which consists of a solution of silver nitrate (AgNO3) in aqueous ammonia (NH3). The aldehyde reduces the silver ions in Tollen's reagent, resulting in the formation of a silver mirror on the inner surface of the test tube or container. This silver mirror appearance is the basis for the name "silver mirror test."Benedicts solution tests used to detect the presence of reducing sugars, such as aldehydes or ketones.

Q149. When acetaldehyde reacts with 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine (2,4-DNPH), which one of the following products is formed?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D✓

Explanation: An aldehyde reacts with 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine to give a bright, yellow-to-orange crystalline solid called a 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazone (2,4-DNP). Acetaldehyde is also known as ethanal (CH3CHO).

Q150. Both aldehydes and ketones are planar to the neighborhoods of the carbonyl (C=O) group. Which one of the following bonds is distorted towards the oxygen atoms?

• A. π-bond of C and O✓
• B. Sigma bond of C and H
• C. Sigma bond of C and O
• D. Sigma bond of C and C

Explanation: The correct answer is the π-bond of C and O. In a carbonyl group, the π-bond is formed by the overlap of p-orbitals from carbon and oxygen. Due to the higher electronegativity of oxygen compared to carbon, the shared electron density is pulled towards the oxygen atom, resulting in a distortion of the bond. This distortion is significant because it contributes to the reactivity of aldehydes and ketones.In contrast, the sigma bond of C and H does not experience such distortion since hydrogen is less electronegative than carbon, allowing the bond to remain relatively unaffected. The sigma bond of C and O is also part of the carbonyl but is not distorted in the same manner as the π-bond, as it is a single bond. Lastly, the sigma bond of C and C does not involve oxygen and therefore is not relevant to the question of distortion in the carbonyl group.

Q151. In the following structure, which one is an α-carbon atom?

• A. 1
• B. 2✓
• C. 3
• D. 4

Explanation: Alpha carbon is a carbon atom bonded to a functional group in an organic compound.Carbon 2 is considered to be alpha because it has a functional group attached.

Q152. The specific substances (metabolite) that fits on the enzyme surface and is converted to products is called

• A. Co-factor
• B. Prosthetic group
• C. Isoenzyme
• D. Substrate✓

Explanation: Substrate binds to the active site on the enzyme surface and is converted into products.Co-factors are non-protein molecules or ions that are required for the proper functioning of certain enzymes. They can assist enzymes in carrying out their catalytic functionsProsthetic groups are non-protein components that are tightly bound to enzymes and are essential for their catalytic activity. They can be considered as specialized co-factors that are permanently attached to the enzyme, assisting in the enzyme's function.Isoenzymes are different forms of an enzyme that catalyze the same reaction but differ in their amino acid sequence, subunit composition, or other properties.In enzyme-catalyzed reactions, the substrate is the specific molecule or metabolite that binds to the active site of the enzyme. The active site is a region on the enzyme's surface that is complementary in shape and chemical properties to the substrate. When the substrate binds to the active site, it undergoes a series of chemical reactions facilitated by the enzyme, leading to the conversion of the substrate into a product.

Q153. Polyamide is formed due to the condensation of hexane-dioic acid with

• A. Hexane-1,5-diamine
• B. Hexane-1,6-diamine✓
• C. Hexane-1,4-diamine
• D. Hexane-2,5-diamine

Explanation: Hexane-1,6-diamine – ✅ Correct: Matches perfectly with hexane-dioic acid to form nylon-6,6, a common polyamide.

Q154. Haemoglobin is a

• A. Genetic protein
• B. Building protein
• C. Transport protein✓
• D. Structural protein

Explanation: Transport protein: This option is correct. Haemoglobin is a transport protein found in red blood cells. Its main function is to transport oxygen from the lungs to the tissues and carbon dioxide from the tissues back to the lungs. It binds to oxygen in the lungs and releases it in the body's tissues.

Q155. Which one of the following polymer is polystyrene?

• A. Option A✓
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: Polystyrene is a synthetic aromatic hydrocarbon polymer made from the monomer known as styrene. Its formula is (C8H8)n.

Q156. Out of these, which nitrogen base is NOT present in DNA?

• A. Adenine
• B. Guanine
• C. Uracil✓
• D. Thymine

Explanation: Uracil: Uracil is not found in DNA. It is a nitrogenous base that is specific to RNA (ribonucleic acid) instead. In RNA, uracil replaces thymine as one of the four bases. Uracil forms a complementary base pair with adenine in RNA.

Q157. Which one of the following is an example of a co-polymer?

• A. Polyamide✓
• B. Polystyrene
• C. Polyvinyl acetate
• D. Polyvinyl chloride

Explanation: Copolymer is a polymer derived from more than one species of monomer.polyamide is the only one that is a copolymer. Polyamide is formed by the condensation polymerization of two different monomers: a diacid and a diamine. Examples of polyamides include Nylon-6,6 (hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid) and Nylon-6 (caprolactam).Polyestrene is a homopolymer derived from the polymerization of a single monomer, styrene.Polyvinyl acetate is also a homopolymer formed from the polymerization of vinyl acetate monomers.Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is a polymer formed from the polymerization of vinyl chloride monomers.

Q158. The biggest source of acid rain is the oxide of:

• A. N
• B. S✓
• C. O
• D. C

Explanation: Acid rain results when sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOX) are emitted into the atmosphere and transported by wind and air currents.The biggest source of acid rain is the oxide of sulfur (S).Acid rain is formed when sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx), primarily nitrogen (NO2), are released into the atmosphere as pollutants from various human activities, particularly the combustion of fossil fuels. These pollutants can undergo chemical reactions in the atmosphere and sulfuric acid (H2SO4) and nitric acid (HNO3), respectively. These acids can then combine with water vapor in the atmosphere and fall to the ground as acid rain.

Q159. Burning of which one of the following waste is considered as useful industrial fuel or to produce electricity:

• A. Metals
• B. Grass
• C. Paper
• D. Plastic✓

Explanation: Burning plastic waste releases a high amount of energy, making it useful as an industrial fuel or for electricity generation, whereas grass has much lower energy content and is not commonly used for such purposes.

Q160. Which of the following is the correct dot and cross diagram of bonding between two chlorine atoms?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C✓
• D. Option D

Explanation: Two chlorine atoms will form a covalent bond between shared electrons. Covalent bonds occur between non-metals.

Q161. The equation that represents standard enthalpy of atomization of hydrogen is:

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C✓
• D. Option D

Explanation: Standard enthalpy of atomization is the enthalpy change that occurs when one mole of a sample is dissociated into its atoms under standard conditions. All bonds in the compound are broken in atomization and none are formed, so enthalpies of atomization are always positive (endothermic). For example, the standard enthalpy of atomization of hydrogen is given below.

Q162. Standard enthalpy of combustion of graphite at 25 °C is –393.51 kJ mol-1 and that of diamond is –395.41 kJ mol-1. The enthalpy change for graphite is:

• A. -1.91✓
• B. +2.1
• C. -2.1
• D. +1.91

Explanation: -2.1: This option suggests a negative value for the enthalpy change of graphite, and it is the correct answer. Since the standard enthalpy of combustion of graphite is -393.51 kJ mol-1 and that of diamond is -395.41 kJ mol-1, the enthalpy change for graphite can be calculated as the difference between these two values:Enthalpy change for graphite = Standard enthalpy of combustion of diamond - Standard enthalpy of combustion of graphite= (-395.41 kJ mol-1) - (-393.51 kJ mol-1)= -1.90 kJ mol-1Rounding off to two decimal places, the enthalpy change for graphite is approximately -1.91 kJ mol-1.

Q163. 10.0 grams of glucose are dissolved in water to make 100 cm3 of its solution, its molarity is:

• A. 0.55✓
• B. 0.1
• C. 10
• D. 1

Explanation: 0.55: This option suggests a molarity of 0.55 for the glucose solution. To determine the molarity, we need to calculate the number of moles of glucose present in the solution. Given that the mass of glucose is 10.0 grams and its molar mass is approximately 180.16 g/mol, we can calculate the number of moles using the formula:Number of moles = Mass of substance / Molar massNumber of moles of glucose = 10.0 g / 180.16 g/mol ≈ 0.0554 molNow, we can calculate the molarity using the formula:Molarity = Number of moles / Volume of solution (in liters)Since the volume of the solution is given as 100 cm3, we need to convert it to liters:Volume of solution = 100 cm3 / 1000 = 0.1 LMolarity = 0.0554 mol / 0.1 L ≈ 0.554 M

Q164. Given solution contains 16.0 g of CH3OH, 92.0 g of C2H5OH and 36 g of water. Which statement about mole fraction of the components is true?

• A. Mole fraction of CH3OH is highest among all components
• B. Mole fraction of C2H5OH and H2O is the same✓
• C. Mole fraction of CH3OH and C2H5OH is same
• D. Mole fraction of H2O is the lowest among all

Explanation: No. of moles of CH3OH = 16/32 = 0.5No. of moles of C2H5OH= 92/46 =2No. of moles of H2O = 36/18 =2Formula to calculate mole fraction,no. of moles of the component/ Total no. of moles of all the components∴ no. of moles of CH3OH = 0.5/4.5 =1/9no. of moles of C2H5OH= 2/4.5no. of moles of H2O = 2/4.5

Q165. Study the following facts:Zn → Zn+2 + 2e― Eo = +0.76 VCu → Cu+2 + 2e― Eo = – 0.34 V

• A. Cu + Zn+2 → Cu+2 + Zn
• B. Cu+2 + Zn+2 → Cu + Zn
• C. Cu+2 + Zn → Cu + Zn+2✓
• D. Cu+2 + Zn+2 → Cu + Zn+2

Explanation: The half cell equation with the lower Eo is the anode. Electrons travel from cathode to anode. (Flip the equation with the lower Eo and then 2e cancel out).the correct redox reaction involving Cu and Zn is: Cu+2 + Zn -> Cu + Zn+2Cu+2 + Zn -> Cu + Zn+2: This equation represents a redox reaction between copper ions (Cu2+) metal (Zn). In this reaction, copper ions gain two electrons to form copper metal, while zinc atoms two electrons to form zinc ions. This reaction is a spontaneous redox reaction because the potential of copper ions (Cu2+) is lower than that of zinc ions (Zn2+). Therefore, copper ions reduced, and zinc metal is oxidized.

Q166. Keeping in mind the electrode potential, which one of the following reactions is feasible?

• A. Zn+2 + Cu → Cu+2 + Zn
• B. Zn + MgSO4 → ZnSO4 + Mg
• C. Fe + CuSO4 → FeSO4 + Cu✓
• D. Cd + MgSO4 → CdSO4 + Mg

Explanation: Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu is feasible because iron has a lower reduction potential (–0.44 V) than copper (+0.34 V), meaning iron is more reactive and can displace copper from its salt solution. The positive cell potential (+0.78 V) confirms the reaction is spontaneous.

Q167. What is the correct relation between pH and pKa?

• A. pH = pKa + log[ Acid/Base ]
• B. pH = pKa - log[ Acid/Base ]✓
• C. pH = pKa - log[ Base/Acid ]
• D. pH = pKa + log[ Base]

Explanation: The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation relates pKa and pH. However, it is only an approximation and should not be used for concentrated solutions or for extremely low pH acids or high pH bases.pH = pKa + log ([conjugate base]/[weak acid])pH = pka + log ([A-] / [HA])pH is equal to the sum of the pKa value and the log of the conjugate base concentration divided by the weak acid concentration.

Q168. Which one of the following is the correct presentation for Ksp?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B✓
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Explanation: The solubility product constant, Ksp , is the equilibrium constant for a solid substance dissolving in an aqueous solution. It represents the level at which a solute dissolves in solution. The more soluble a substance is, the higher the Ksp value it has.

Q169. The weight of an electron is:

• A. 9.108 × 10−30g
• B. 9.108 × 10−25 g
• C. 9.108 × 10−31 g✓
• D. Too less to be measured

Explanation: 9.108 × 10-30 g: This option represents the approximate weight of an electron. It is in the range of the actual mass of an electron, which is approximately 9.109 × 10-30 kg.

Q170. One method of creating an inverted population is known as _ and consists of illuminating the laser material with light.

• A. Optical Pumping✓
• B. Excitation
• C. Bremsstrahlung
• D. Holography

Explanation: Optical pumping suggests that the method of creating an inverted population is called optical pumping. Optical pumping is a technique where the laser material is illuminated with light to excite the atoms or molecules, causing them to populate higher energy levels. This population inversion is necessary for the operation of a laser.

Q171. In population inversion (Ruby Laser) atoms can reside in the excited state for:

• A. 10-11
• B. 10-8
• C. 10-3✓
• D. 10+3

Explanation: In the context of population inversion in a Ruby laser, the correct answer is that atoms can reside in the excited state for a relatively long time, typically in the order of 10^-3 seconds (or 1 millisecond).

Q172. If electrons of charge ‘e’, with rest mass ‘m’, are accelerated through a potential difference ‘V’ and strike a metal target, then velocity of electrons is:

• A. Ve/m
• B. √(Ve/m)
• C. √(Ve/)2m
• D. √(2Ve/m)✓

Explanation: √(2Ve/m): This option suggests that the velocity of electrons is the square root of twice the potential difference (2V) divided by the rest mass (m). This option introduces a factor of 2 in the numerator, which is incorrect based on the equation for velocity.Based on the correct equation, the velocity of electrons accelerated through a potential difference (V) can be calculated using the formula:velocity = √(2eV/m)Therefore, the correct answer is option d) √(2Ve/m).Please note that 'e' represents the charge of an electron, 'm' represents the rest mass of an electron, and 'V' represents the potential diffe√(2Ve/m): This option suggests that the velocity of electrons is the square root of twice the potential difference (2V) divided by the rest mass (m). This option introduces a factor of 2 in the numerator, which is incorrect based on the equation for velocity.Based on the correct equation, the velocity of electrons accelerated through a potential difference (V) can be calculated using the formula:velocity = √(2eV/m)Therefore, the correct answer is option d) √(2Ve/m).Please note that 'e' represents the charge of an electron, 'm' represents the rest mass of an electron, and 'V' represents the potential difference.

Q173. In X-ray tube, electrons after being accelerated through velocity ‘v’ strike the target, then the wavelength of emitted X-rays is:

• A. Not greater than hc/eV
• B. . Not less than hc/eV
• C. Equal to the h/mV
• D. Greater than or equal to hc/eV✓

Explanation: Greater than or equal to hc/eV: This option suggests that the wavelength of emitted X-rays is at least equal to the value of hc/eV. This option is correct because the wavelength of X-rays emitted from the X-ray tube is directly related to the energy of the X-rays, which is determined by the accelerating voltage.Based on the correct understanding of X-ray emission in an X-ray tube, the correct answer is option d) Greater than or equal to hc/eV.Please note that 'h' represents Planck's constant, 'c' represents the speed of light, 'e' represents the electron charge, 'V' represents the accelerating voltage, and 'm' represents the electron mass.

Q174. In the reaction, 234Th92 → 234Y91 + 0e-1, the electron 0e-1 emits from the:

• A. Z – 6, A – 12
• B. Z – 2, A – 4
• C. Z + 1, A✓
• D. Z + 3, A

Explanation: Z + 1, A: This option suggests that the electron is emitted from the electron cloud, resulting in a change in the atomic number (Z) but no change in the mass number (A) of the nucleus. This option is correct because the emission of an electron does not affect the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.

Q175. A certain radioactive nuclide of mass number ‘x’ decays by β-emission and α-emission to a second nuclide of mass number ‘t’. Which of the following correctly relates ‘x’ and ‘t’?

• A. x = t + 4✓
• B. x = t – 4
• C. x – 3 = t
• D. x – 1 = t

Explanation: x-4 = tx = t + 4x = t + 4: This option suggests that the initial nuclide with mass number 'x' decays by β-emission and α-emission, resulting in a final nuclide with mass number 't' that is four units less than the initial nuclide. This option is correct because α-emission results in the loss of an α particle, which has a mass number of 4. Therefore, the mass number of the final nuclide would be four units less than the initial nuclide.

Q176. During the decay of radioactive isotopes 232X90 to a stable isotope, six α-particles and four β - particles are emitted, what is the atomic number ‘Z’ and mass number ‘A’ of the stable isotopes?

• A. Z = 70, A = 220
• B. Z = 78, A = 212
• C. Z = 82, A = 212
• D. Z = 82, A = 208✓

Explanation: Z = 82, A = 208: This option suggests that during the decay of the radioactive isotope 232 90X, six α-particles and four β-particles are emitted, resulting in a stable isotope with atomic number (Z) of 82 and mass number (A) of 208. This option is correct as it accurately represents the resulting stable isotopes from the given decay process.

Q177. Cobalt 60 is used in medicine and is an intense source of:

• A. α-particles
• B. β-particles
• C. γ-rays✓
• D. Neutrons

Explanation: γ-rays: γ-rays are high-energy photons emitted during radioactive decay or nuclear reactions. They have no charge and are similar to X-rays but with higher energy. Cobalt-60 is an intense source of γ-rays. It is commonly used in medicine for radiation therapy and imaging.

Q178. In fluid flow, for the equation of continuity A1v1 = A2v2. If the velocity of the fluid at one end is doubled, then what will be the cross-sectional area at this end?

• A. Double
• B. Half✓
• C. (Half)2
• D. (Double)2

Explanation: Half: This is the correct answer. According to the equation of continuity (A1v1 = A2v2), if the velocity of the fluid at one end is doubled, the cross-sectional area at that end will be halved to maintain the constant product.

Q179. The value of least distance vision for a normal eye is:

• A. 20 cm
• B. 30cm
• C. 25cm✓
• D. 40cm

Explanation: This option suggests that the least distance of distinct vision for a normal eye is 25 cm. This is the correct value. The least distance of distinct vision refers to the minimum distance at which the human eye can focus on an object and see it clearly without any strain.

Q180. The distance between two dark adjacent fringes is mathematically written as:

• A. ∆Y = λL/d✓
• B. ∆Y = λ/dL
• C. ∆Y = λd/L
• D. ∆Y = d/λL

Explanation: This option represents the mathematical expression for the distance between two dark adjacent fringes. It states that the fringe spacing (∆Y) is equal to the product of the wavelength of light (λ), the distance from the source to the screen (L), divided by the separation between the slits (d). This is the correct mathematical representation for the fringe spacing in interference patterns.

Q181. In Young’s Double Slit Experiment, slit separation x = 0.05 cm, the distance between screen and slit D = 200 cm, fringes separation x = 0.13 cm, then the wavelength ‘λ’ of light is:

• A. λ = 1.23 x 10-2 m
• B. λ = 3.25 x 10-4 m✓
• C. λ = 4.55 x 10-5 m
• D. λ = 5.1 x 10-7 m

Explanation: In Young’s Double Slit Experiment, the fringe separation (β) is given by:β=λD/xGiven:β=0.13 cm=0.0013 mx=0.05 cm=0.0005 mD=200 cm=2 mλ=0.0013×0.0005/2=3.25×10−7 m

Q182. In the normal adjustment of a compound microscope, the eyepiece is positioned so that the final image is formed at

• A. Optical Center
• B. Infinity✓
• C. Principle Focus
• D. Near Point

Explanation: This option is the correct position for the final image in the normal adjustment of a compound microscope. In the normal adjustment, the eye piece of the microscope is positioned in such a way that the final image formed by the objective lens is at infinity. This allows the viewer to observe the image comfortably and clearly.

Q183. When two slightly different frequency waves superimpose _ is formed.

• A. Stationary waves
• B. Sounds waves
• C. Beats✓
• D. Light waves

Explanation: When two sound waves of different frequency approach your ear, the alternating constructive and destructive interference causes the sound to be alternatively soft and loud - a phenomenon which is called "beating" or producing beats.When two slightly different frequency waves superimpose, beats are formed. Beats occur when two waves with slightly different frequencies interfere with each other. The resulting pattern consists of alternating regions of constructive and destructive interference, resulting in a periodic variation in the amplitude (loudness) of the combined wave.Stationary waves, also known as standing waves, are formed when two waves of the same frequency and amplitude traveling in opposite directions superimpose.Sound waves are longitudinal waves that result from the mechanical vibrations of particles in a medium, such as air or water.Beats occur when two waves with slightly different frequencies interfere with each other.Light waves are electromagnetic waves that consist of oscillating electric and magnetic fields.

Q184. A body is having weight 20 N, when the elevator is descended with a = 0.1 ms-2, then the value of tension ‘T’ is:

• A. 196 N
• B. 19.8 N✓
• C. 1.98 N
• D. 2 N

Explanation: 19.8 N: This option is the correct value for the tension 'T' when the elevator is descended with an acceleration of 0.1 m/s². The tension in the cable can be calculated using the equation T = mg - ma, where 'm' is the mass of the body, 'g' is the acceleration due to gravity, and 'a' is the acceleration of the elevator. Substituting the given values, T = (20 N) - (0.1 m/s²) = 19.8 N.

Q185. Sodium 24 has a half-life of 15 hours and it is used in medicine to estimate:

• A. Kidney Function
• B. Plasma Blood Volume✓
• C. Iron in Plasma
• D. Thyroid Function

Explanation: The sodium-24 isotope is used to study the circulation of blood. Sodium-24 (Na-24) IS commonly used in medicine for estimating plasma blood volume.

Q186. The unit of temperature in base unit is:

• A. Celsius
• B. Degree
• C. Kelvin✓
• D. Fahrenheit

Explanation: Kelvin: Kelvin (K) is the base unit of temperature in the International System of Units (SI). It is an absolute temperature scale where 0 Kelvin represents absolute zero, the theoretical lowest possible temperature where all molecular motion ceases. Kelvin is commonly used in scientific and technical applications, particularly in physics and chemistry.

Q187. The dimensions of pressure is:

• A. A
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D✓

Explanation: The following is the solution:𝑃𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑒 = 𝐹𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒/𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎By dimensional analysis: 𝑃𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑒 = 𝑘𝑔. 𝑚. 𝑠−2/𝑚2 Therefore, by simplification we get out answer:[MLT−2]/[L2]=ML-1T-2The correct dimension of pressure: [MLT−2]/[L2]=ML-1T-2

Q188. Mass flow per second of the fluid is given by:

• A. ρAv✓
• B. Av
• C. ρv
• D. Av/ρ

Explanation: 𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠/𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 = ρ × 𝑉/𝑇 = ρ × 𝐴 × 𝑑/𝑇 = ρ × 𝐴 × 𝑣Where T is time, V is volume, A is area, v is velocity.Mass flow per second of fluid is given by: pAv

Q189. The dimension of coefficient of viscosity is:

• A. A
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D✓

Explanation: η = 𝐹×𝑑 𝐴×𝑣 Where F is the tangential force, d is the distance between two layers skidding over each other, A is the area and v is the velocity. By dimensional analysis, η = 𝑘𝑔.𝑚.𝑠 −2×𝑚 𝑚 2×𝑚𝑠 −1

Q190. What should be the length of a simple pendulum whose period is 6.28 seconds at a place where g = 10 ms-2?

• A. 0.28 m
• B. 10.8 m
• C. 6.28 m
• D. 10 m✓

Explanation: 10 m: This option represents the correct length for the simple pendulum. The period of a simple pendulum is given by the formula T = 2π√(L/g), where T is the period, L is the length of the pendulum, and g is the acceleration due to gravity. Rearranging the formula, we have L = (T^2 * g) / (4π^2), where T = 6.28 s and g = 10 ms^-2. Plugging in these values, we get L = (6.28^2 * 10) / (4π^2) ≈ 9.99 m, which can be approximated as 10 m.

Q191. What should be the ratio of kinetic energy to total energy for simple harmonic oscillator?

• A. 1 − (x 2 / xo 2 )✓
• B. 1
• C. (xo 2 − x 2 )
• D. ½ (x 2)

Explanation: 𝐾𝐸 = 1 2 𝑚ω 2 (𝑥 0 2 − 𝑥 2 ) 𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝐸𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦 = 1 2 𝑚ω 2 𝑥 0 2 Dividing the two terms gives us the ratio and the solution to the equationKE/E = 1 - (x^2/xo^2)Where x is the displacement from the equilibrium position and xo is the amplitude of the oscillation.This means that the ratio of kinetic energy to total energy is given by 1 minus the square of displacement divided by the square of the amplitude.Therefore, the correct answer is:1 - (x^2/xo^2)

Q192. An observer moves with velocity ‘vO’ towards a stationary source, then the number of waves received in one second is:

• A. A
• B. B
• C. C✓
• D. D

Explanation: For a stationary source and an observer moving towards the source the equation is: 𝑓 ' = 𝑓( 𝑣+𝑣 0 𝑣 )

Q193. Strain energy in deformed energy is stored in the form of:

• A. Elastic Energy
• B. Potential Energy✓
• C. Plastic Energy
• D. Kinetic Energy

Explanation: For an object that is deformed energy as stored as the potential energy and is known as the Strain energy.Elastic energy is the energy stored in a deformed object when it undergoes elastic deformation. This energy is stored in the form of potential energy within the object's molecular or atomic bonds.Potential energy is a type of energy associated with the position or configuration of an object. In the case of a deforming train, potential energy is stored as the train's shape changes. This potential energy can be released or converted into other forms of energy, such as kinetic energy, when the train returns to its original shape or undergoes further deformation.Plastic energy Is not a correct term.Kinetic energy is the energy of motion. While a deforming train may have some kinetic energy due to its motion.

Q194. A wire of area of cross-section ‘A’ and original length ‘l’ is subjected to a load ‘L’. A second wire of the same material with an area is ‘2A’ and a length of ‘2l’ is subjected to the same load ‘L’. If the extension in the first wire is ‘X’ and the second wire is ‘Y’, find the ratio ‘X/Y’.

• A. 1:4
• B. 1:2
• C. 1:1✓
• D. 2:1

Explanation: To determine the correct ratio, we can use the formula for the extension of a wire under an applied load, which is given by Hooke's Law:Extension (ΔL) = (Load (L) * Length (l)) / (Area of Cross Section (A) * Young's Modulus (E))For the first wire: X = (L * l) / (A * E)For the second wire: Y = (L * 2l) / (2A * E)By simplifying the expressions, we find that X = Y, which means the extension in the first wire is equal to the extension in the second wire. Therefore, the correct ratio is 1:1.Hence, the correct option is c) 1:1, which represents the ratio of X/Y as 1:1.

Q195. Two sample of gases ‘1’ and ‘2’ are taken at same temperature and pressure but the ratio of number of their volume is V1:V2 = 2:3. What is the ratio of the number of moles of the gas sample?

• A. 3:2
• B. √2 :√3
• C. 4:9
• D. 2:3✓

Explanation: To determine the correct ratio, we can use the Avogadro's Law, which states that equal volumes of gases at the same temperature and pressure contain an equal number of molecules.Since the volumes of the gases are given as V1:V2 = 2:3, the ratio of the number of moles (n1:n2) will also be 2:3. This means that the correct option is d) 2:3, which represents the ratio of the number of moles of the gas sample.Hence, the correct option is d) 2:3, which represents the ratio of the number of moles of the gas sample.

Q196. Root mean square velocity of a gas having pressure ‘P’ and density ‘ρ’ is given by:

• A. √(3P/ρ)✓
• B. 3Pρ
• C. 3ρ/P
• D. √3ρ/P

Explanation: √3P/ρ: This option represents the correct equation for the root mean square velocity of a gas. The RMS velocity is given by the formula √(3ρ/P), where ρ is the density of the gas and P is the pressure.

Q197. When the rate of a gas changes without a change in temperature, the gas is said to haveundergone:

• A. Isothermal Process✓
• B. Adiabatic Process
• C. Isochoric Process
• D. Isobaric Process

Explanation: An isothermal process is one in which there is no change in temperature. An adiabaticprocess is one in which there is no transfer of heat energy between the system and thesurroundings. An isochoric process is one in which the volume stays constant. An isobaricprocess is one in which the pressure is kept constant. Therefore, the answer is A.The term isothermal refers to as same temperature or no change in temperature, so according to statement the correct option will be option A isothermal process.An adiabatic process is one in which there is no transfer of heat energy between the system and the surroundings.isochoric process is one in which the volume stays constant.An isobaric process is one in which the pressure is kept constant.

Q198. What is 273 K on the Celsius scale of temperature?

• A. 0.15 °C
• B. 273.15 °C
• C. -0.15 °C✓
• D. -273.15 °C

Explanation: The explanation is given below:

Q199. If heat ‘Q1 is absorbed in temperature ‘T’ and heat ‘Q2 is absorbed at temperature of the triple point of water, then the unknown temperature of the system (in K) is :

• A. 273.16
• B. 273.16 Q2/Q1
• C. 273.16 Q
• D. 273.16 Q1/Q2✓

Explanation: 𝑇 1 𝑇 2 = 𝑄1 𝑄2 The triple point of water is 0.01C or 273.16K. Inputting this value as T2 in equation above we get the answer.

Q200. If the fundamental logic gates are connected as:

• A. A
• B. B✓
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: There are 3 inputs/ gates in the given lohic gate. Two are NOR (OR+NOT) gates with an output of (Ā+B) and the third gate is an AND gate with an output of A.B.So, the answer should be B.

Q201. Which combinations of ten identical resistors each of 2 Ω gives rise to the resultant of 10.4 Ω?

• A. 5 Parallel, 5 Series✓
• B. 4 Parallel, 3 Series
• C. 3 Parallel, 4 Series
• D. 2 Parallel, 5 Series

Explanation: Use Ohm's Law to add parallel resistors. The equation is 1/RTotal = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 + … + 1/RLast. Hence 5 X ½ = 5/2. Total Resistance through parallel is ⅖. When resistors are in series their individual resistance is added to get the total resistance. So 5 X 2= 10 Ω. Adding this gives 10.4 Ω.

Q202. If a resistor having resistance ‘R’ is cut into three equal parts, then theequivalent of parallel combination is:

• A. 6/R
• B. 3/R
• C. . R/9✓
• D. R/3

Explanation: Since wire with resistance R is cut in 3 equal parts therefore each part will have resistance R/3. Using: 1 𝑅 𝑇 = 1 𝑅 1 + 1 𝑅 2 +... 1 𝑅 𝑛 When we input R/3 as R1 , R2 and R3 we get the answer as RT = R/9.The original resistor is cut into three equal parts, so each part has a resistance of R/3.Now, we can calculate the equivalent resistance of the three parts in parallel:1/Req = 1/(R/3) + 1/(R/3) + 1/(R/3) = 3/R + 3/R + 3/R = 9/RTaking the reciprocal of both sides:Req = R/9

Q203. A bar of length ‘L’ pivoted at ‘O’ is acted by a force ‘F’ at an angle ‘ϴ’ with vertical line. What is the moment of force?

• A. L sinϴ
• B. L cosϴ
• C. LF cosϴ✓
• D. LF sinϴ

Explanation: This option suggests that the moment of force is LF cosϴ. This is the correct answer. The moment of force, also known as torque, is calculated by multiplying the magnitude of the force (F) by the perpendicular distance (L) from the point of rotation (pivot) to the line of action of the force. The angle ϴ represents the angle between the force and the vertical line. The expression LF cosϴ correctly represents the moment of force in this scenario.

Q204. The resistance of a piece of wire is 12 Ω. It is bent to form an equilateral triangle. What is the equivalent resistance between any two corners of the triangles?

• A. 1.3 Ω
• B. 2.0 Ω
• C. 4.0 Ω
• D. 2.7 Ω✓

Explanation: 2.7 Ω: This option suggests that the equivalent resistance between any two corners of the triangle is 2.7 Ω. This is the correct answer.When a wire is bent to form an equilateral triangle, each side of the triangle has the same resistance as the original wire.

Q205. Magnetic field strength is measured in:

• A. Wbm-1
• B. Wbm-2✓
• C. Wbm2
• D. Wb

Explanation: Wbm-2: This option suggests that magnetic field strength is measured in Wbm-2. The unit "Wbm-2" represents webers per meter square, which is correct.

Q206. Force on the current carrying conductor per unit length is given by:

• A. IL sinϴ
• B. ILB
• C. IL
• D. IB sinϴ✓

Explanation: IB sinϴ: This option suggests that the force on a current-carrying conductor per unit length is given by IB sinϴ. This is the correct expression. The force on a current-carrying conductor is proportional to the product of the current (I), the magnetic field strength (B), and the sine of the angle (ϴ) between the current direction and the magnetic field direction.

Q207. In the case when the electrons lose all their kinetic energy (K.E.) in the first collision, the X-ray photon emitted has the following set of frequency and wavelength?

• A. fmax , λmin✓
• B. fmax , λmax
• C. fmin , λmax
• D. fmin , λmin

Explanation: fmax , λmin : This option suggests that when electrons lose all their kinetic energy in the first collision, the emitted X-ray photon will have maximum frequency ( fmax ) and minimum wavelength ( λmin ). According to the relationship between frequency and wavelength (c = λf, where c is the speed of light), as frequency increases, wavelength decreases. So, if the frequency is maximum, the wavelength should be minimum, and vice versa.

Q208. If ‘A’ is the fundamental dimension of ampere, then the dimension of magnetic field strength is:

• A. [MT2A-2]
• B. [MT-²A-1]✓
• C. [MT2A-2]
• D. [MT-2A-2]

Explanation: The following is the solution:

Q209. The potential difference between the target and cathode of an X-ray tube is 20 kV and the current is 20 mA. What is the λmin of the emitted X-ray?

• A. 6.19 x 10-4 m
• B. 6.19 x 10-14 m
• C. 6.19 x 10-11 m✓
• D. 6.19 x 10-19 m

Explanation: Following is the correct solution:

Q210. Which of the following spectra is most typical of the output of an X-ray tube?

• A. A✓
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: The graph, shown in option A, comprises of two types of X-rays, labeled in the graph presented below;1. Characteristic X-rays;These X-rays are produced on instances when outer-shell electrons fill a vacancy in the inner shell of an atom, releasing X-rays.2. Bremsstrahlung/Braking Continnuum;This release of X-ray is exclusive to instances where a charged, accelerated particle i.e. Electrons is decelerated, upon striking against a metal surface or any surface. The outcome is the release of electromagnetic radiation, in the form of photons.

Q211. Which of the following is the truth table for the logic gate:

• A. A✓
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: This a truth table of OR logic gate and the logic gate corresponds to OR gate. option A is correct.

Q212. If the fundamental logic gates are connected as:

• A. A
• B. B✓
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: There are 3 inputs/ gates in the given lohic gate. Two are NOR (OR+NOT) gates with an output of (Ā+B) and the third gate is an AND gate with an output of A.B.So, the answer should be B.

Q213. In Wilson Cloud Chamber which of the following tracks represented β-particles?

• A. A
• B. B✓
• C. C
• D. None of these

Explanation: Beta-particles produced 'two or three absolutely straight thread-like lines' from the direction of an impure radium salt source. The tracks produced by beta-particles were less clear than those produced by alpha-particles. Less energetic particles would spiral in the earth's field.The charged particles which produce tracks in a cloud chamber are alpha and beta particles (from radioactive atoms), and protons and muons (from space). Alpha and beta particles come from radioactive materials in our environment so the OPTION B represents Beta particles in wilson cloud chambers.

Q214. Identify the type of sentence Without a doubt, may he get the first position!

• A. Declarative Sentence
• B. Imperative Sentence
• C. Optative Sentence✓
• D. Exclamatory Sentence

Explanation: The sentence expresses a wish or desire specifically hoping that someone gets the first position. The phrase "may he" is a characteristic of optative sentences which express a wish or desire for someone or something.

Q215. Identify the type of sentence Should I call or email you?

• A. Declarative Sentence
• B. Imperative Sentence
• C. Interrogative Sentence✓
• D. Exclamatory Sentence

Explanation: The sentence asks a question specifically inquiring about the preferred method of communication. The word "should" is used to seek advice or guidance, making it an interrogative sentence.

Q216. Identify the type of sentence God showers his blessings.

• A. Declarative Sentence✓
• B. Imperative Sentence
• C. Optative Sentence
• D. Exclamatory Sentence

Explanation: The sentence states a fact or describes a situation, specifically that God showers his blessings. It's a neutral statement, simply declaring or asserting that something is the case.

Q217. Identify the type of sentence Mister, can you spare us for a while?

• A. Declarative Sentence
• B. Imperative Sentence
• C. Interrogative Sentence✓
• D. Exclamatory Sentence

Explanation: The sentence asks a question, specifically requesting permission or asking if someone is available to talk or meet. The word "can" is used to inquire about ability or willingness making it an interrogative sentence.

Q218. Identify the type of sentence Wish you a happy journey together.

• A. Declarative Sentence
• B. Imperative Sentence
• C. Optative Sentence✓
• D. Exclamatory Sentence

Explanation: The sentence expresses a wish or desire, specifically hoping that someone has a happy journey together. The phrase "wish you" is a characteristic of optative sentences, which express a desire or wish for someone or something.

Q219. Identify the type of sentence Please stop!

• A. Declarative Sentence
• B. Imperative Sentence✓
• C. Optative Sentence
• D. Exclamatory Sentence

Explanation: The sentence "Please stop!" is an imperative sentence, giving a direct command or instruction to the listener, telling them to stop what they are doing. Imperative sentences often begin with a verb, and sometimes include words like "please" to make the command more polite.