Uhs Mdcat 2018 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Choose the BEST Option.That is just an example of what I complain _.

• A. Of✓
• B. Off
• C. To
• D. With

Explanation: Of is a preposition that indicates relationships between other words, such as belonging, things made of other things, things that contain other things, or a point of reckoning. The object of "of" must be a problem of some kind: you could complain of a headache, an unreliable web server, an unfaithful spouse, mistreatment by police, etc.

Q2. Choose the BEST Option.The region _ which they were passing was known as the Land of Thirst and Death.

• A. Through✓
• B. By
• C. In
• D. From

Explanation: Through can be used as a preposition, an adverb, and an adjective. It has several meanings, including “from one side to the other,” “from beginning to end,” and “during an entire period”: He rode his bicycle through the door and onto the street. You have to read the book through if you want to be prepared for class.

Q3. Choose the BEST Option.I know how to _ a throat for inspection.

• A. Force
• B. Prepare
• C. Expose✓
• D. Open

Explanation: Expose is defined as to make something visible or known. Jence this is the correct option.

Q4. Choose the BEST Option.It is better for me to _ than to shed the blood of an innocent boy.

• A. Died
• B. Die✓
• C. Had died
• D. Have died

Explanation: The sentence is structured in a way that requires an infinitive verb form ("to die")."Die" is the infinitive form of the verb that correctly fits after "to" in this sentence.

Q5. In the following sentence some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.The most important and the least difficult thing to achieve is a desire amongst individuals to limit the size of family.

• A. The most
• B. The least✓
• C. Is a desire
• D. Amongst individuals

Explanation: Reading this sentence, we understand it talks about reducing the size of a family. While it is most important, it is also a very difficult idea to propagate 'the least' should be replaced by 'the most' so it fits in with the meaning of the sentence.

Q6. In the following sentence some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.There is terror from the outset and there are all the components necessary to create a melodrama -- a dimly lit bus station, the storm accompanied by flashes of lightning and the promise of violent action or emotion.

• A. From the outset
• B. There are all
• C. The storm accompanied✓
• D. The promise of violent

Explanation: The best way of solving this question is to read the entire sentence in your head and decipher which part does not seem right.The sentence says a dimly lit station, hence similarly 'the storm' should be replaced by 'a storm accompanied by flashes of lightning....'

Q7. In the following sentence some segments of the sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.The king feels disturbed and on hearing these words he could not control his tears.

• A. Feels✓
• B. And on
• C. These words
• D. Could not control

Explanation: The sentence is a simple past tense sentence hence use 'felt' instead of 'feels'.

Q8. In the following sentence some segments of the sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.He had earned the reputation of being a great jester, and jests were expected from him.

• A. Of being
• B. A great jester
• C. Jests
• D. From him✓

Explanation: 'Expected from' can be appropriately used in a situation when one is anticipating to receive something, material or nonmaterial from someone. Example: 'The weekly sales report is expected from you' or 'A negative response was not expected from her after such good news.' 'Expected of' should be used when you believe that someone is capable of living up to a certain characteristic or adopting a typical behaviour. For example, 'This degree of good behaviour is expected of him.' or 'It is expected of the company to appropriately share the corporate and social responsibilities.'

Q9. In the following sentence some segments of the sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.He glances back at the door, then turns his attention once more towards the paper and begins going through it casually.

• A. He glances
• B. At the door
• C. Towards the paper✓
• D. Through it casually
• E. No error

Explanation: There should be 'to the paper ' instead of 'towards the paper ' because 'to' is used for focus, for attention, for destination but 'towards' is used only for direction.

Q10. In the following sentence some segments of the sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.However, by being so long in lowest format I gained the immense advantage over the cleverer boys.

• A. However
• B. The✓
• C. An immense
• D. Cleverer boys

Explanation: “The” is incorrect here because “immense advantage” is used in a general sense, not referring to a specific advantage already known. It should be “an immense advantage” to indicate one of possibly many advantages, not a unique, definite one.

Q11. In the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one.

• A. The manager looked on me in some alarm.
• B. The manager looked on me with some alarm.
• C. The manager looked at me with some alarm.✓
• D. The manager looked at me in some alarm.

Explanation: "Look at" means to direct your eyes in a particular direction. 'At' will be the most appropriate preposition to use here.With some alarm, means to look at someone with some caution and uncertainty. The best way to solve this question is to read each option in your head and then decide which one sounds the best and fits in well.

Q12. Select the correct meaning of the given word.ILK

• A. Breed✓
• B. Civilization
• C. Origin
• D. Culture

Explanation: Ilk: a type of person or thing similar to one already referred to. Breed: to be of some the heritage or nature. Hecne option A is the most suitable answer.

Q13. Select the correct meaning of the given word.DUNCE

• A. Brainy
• B. Intellectual
• C. Cautious
• D. Oaf✓

Explanation: Dunce: a person who is slow at learning; a stupid person. Oaf: a man who is rough or clumsy and unintelligent. Hence it is the best answer.

Q14. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word.HIATUS

• A. Lull✓
• B. Longing
• C. Heretical
• D. Veneration

Explanation: Hiatus: a pause or break in continuity during an activity. Lull: a temporary interval of quiet or lack of activity. Hence it is the best answer.

Q15. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word.BUFFERS

• A. Shocks
• B. Shield✓
• C. Support
• D. Window

Explanation: Buffer: a person or thing that reduces a shock or that forms a barrier. Shield: a person or thing providing protection. Hence shield is the best answer.

Q16. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word:ENCUMBER

• A. Clear
• B. Spacious
• C. Convenient
• D. Strained✓

Explanation: Encumber: restrict in such a way that free action or movement is difficult. Strain: to tie up something, limiting movement. Hence it is the correct answer.

Q17. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word.HECTOR

• A. Harass✓
• B. Helpmate
• C. Hellish
• D. Hefty

Explanation: Hector: talk to (someone) in a bullying way. Harass: make someone a subject to aggressive pressure or intimidation. Hence it is the best answer.

Q18. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word.NEXUS

• A. Focal point✓
• B. Success
• C. Hinterland
• D. Politics

Explanation: Nexus: a central or focal point, and a connection or series of connections linking two or more things.

Q19. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word.PERPETUATE

• A. Skulk
• B. Deviate
• C. Eternize✓
• D. Perish

Explanation: Perpetuate: make (something) continue forever. Eternize: cause to live or last forever. Hence it is the best answer.

Q20. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word.AUGUST

• A. Local
• B. Old
• C. Venerable✓
• D. Foreign

Explanation: August: respected and impressive.Venerable: held in a great deal of respect, especially because of age, wisdom, or character.

Q21. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word.LAMPOON

• A. Appreciate
• B. Burlesque✓
• C. Approve
• D. Annoy

Explanation: Lampoon: publicly criticize (someone or something) by using ridicule, irony, or sarcasm. Burlesque: parody or imitate in an absurd or comically exaggerated way.

Q22. The thickest chamber of the human heart is:

• A. Left atrium
• B. Right atrium
• C. Right ventricle
• D. Left ventricle✓

Explanation: The left ventricle of your heart is larger and thicker than the other chambers. This is because it has to pump the blood further around the body, and against a higher pressure. The right ventricle pumps the oxygen-poor blood to the lungs through the pulmonary valve. The right atrium receives oxygen-poor blood from the body and pumps it to the right ventricle through the tricuspid valve, and hence does not need very thick walls. The left atrium receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs and pumps it to the left ventricle through the mitral valve; hence, it also doesn’t need thick walls.

Q23. The enzymes required for the Kreb cycle are found in _.

• A. F¹ particles
• B. Lysosomes
• C. Cytoplasm
• D. Matrix✓

Explanation: The Krebs cycle enzymes are membrane proteins found within the matrix of the mitochondria, except for succinate dehydrogenase, which is an integral membrane protein locked to the inner mitochondrial membrane.

Q24. Coccyx vertebrae are located in:

• A. Cervical region
• B. Lumbar region
• C. Pelvic region✓
• D. Thoracic region

Explanation: The coccyx, also known as the tailbone, is a small, triangular bone resembling a shortened tail located at the bottom of the spine in the pelvic region. It is composed of three to five coccygeal vertebrae or spinal bones. The cervical spine is the most superior portion of the vertebral column, lying between the cranium and the thoracic vertebrae. It consists of seven distinct vertebrae. The thoracic spine is the longest region of the spine, and by some measures it is also the most complex. Connecting with the cervical spine above and the lumbar spine below, the thoracic spine runs from the base of the neck down to the abdomen. The thoracic spine has 12 vertebrae stacked on top of each other, labeled from T1 down to T12. The lumbar spine (lower back) consists of five vertebrae in the lower part of the spine, between the ribs and the pelvis. The five lumbar vertebrae are numbered L1 to L5

Q25. Cell-mediated immune response is given by:

• A. T-lymphocytes✓
• B. B lymphocytes
• C. Neutrophils
• D. Macrophages

Explanation: Cell-mediated immunity is an immune response that does not involve antibodies. Rather, cell-mediated immunity is the activation of phagocytes, antigen-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocytes, and the release of various cytokines in response to an antigen. Humoral immunity is also called antibody-mediated immunity. With assistance from helper T cells, B cells will differentiate into plasma B cells that can produce antibodies against a specific antigen. The humoral immune system deals with antigens from pathogens that are freely circulating, or outside the infected cells. Antibodies produced by the B cells will bind to antigens, neutralizing them, or causing lysis (dissolution or destruction of cells by a lysin) or phagocytosis.

Q26. Crossing over takes place during _ of meiosis.

• A. Prophase I✓
• B. Telophase I
• C. Metaphase I
• D. Anaphase I

Explanation: Meiosis consists of two divisions, both of which follow the same stages as mitosis (prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase). Meiosis is preceded by interphase, in which DNA is replicated to produce chromosomes consisting of two sister chromatids. A second growth phase called interkinesis may occur between meiosis I and II, however no DNA replication occurs in this stage:Prophase I: Chromosomes condense, nuclear membrane dissolves, homologous chromosomes form bivalents, crossing over occurs.Crossing over occurs in Prophase I when homologous chromosomes pair up, forming a tetrad, and then non-sister chromatids exchange genetic material at points called chiasmata. This genetic exchange, known as recombination, shuffles alleles and creates new combinations of genes on the chromosomes. The process involves enzymes breaking DNA at similar locations on each chromosome and then reattaching the broken ends in a criss-cross pattern, resulting in genetically unique gametes. Metaphase I: Spindle fibres from opposing centrosomes connect to bivalents (at centromeres) and align them along the middle of the cell.Anaphase I: Spindle fibres contract and split the bivalent, homologous chromosomes move to opposite poles of the cell.Telophase I: Chromosomes decondense, nuclear membrane may reform, cell divides (cytokinesis) to form two haploid daughter cells.

Q27. During breathing, air from pharynx enters to:

• A. Trachea✓
• B. Bronchioles
• C. Alveoli
• D. Bronchi

Explanation: When you inhale through your nose or mouth, air travels down your pharynx (back of your throat), passes through your larynx (voice box) and into your trachea (windpipe). Your trachea is divided into two air passages called bronchial tubes. One bronchial tube leads to your left lung, the other to your right lung.

Q28. Gradual breakdown of the alveolar wall leads to which type of disease in a smoker?

• A. Coronary heart disease
• B. Bronchitis
• C. Emphysema✓
• D. Asthma

Explanation: In emphysema, the inner walls of the lungs' air sacs (alveoli) are damaged, causing them to eventually rupture. This creates one larger air space instead of many small ones and reduces the surface area available for gas exchange. Emphysema is a lung condition that causes shortness of breath.Asthma is a condition in which your airways narrow and swell and may produce extra mucus. This can make breathing difficult and trigger coughing, a whistling sound (wheezing) when you breathe out and shortness of breath.Bronchitis is an infection of the main airways of the lungs (bronchi), causing them to become irritated and inflamed. The main symptom is a cough, which may bring up yellow-grey mucus (phlegm)Coronary heart disease (CHD), or coronary artery disease, develops when the coronary arteries become too narrow. The coronary arteries are the blood vessels that supply oxygen and blood to the heart.CHD tends to develop when cholesterol builds up on the artery walls, creating plaques. These plaques cause the arteries to narrow, reducing blood flow to the heart. A clot can sometimes obstruct the blood flow, causing serious health problems.

Q29. Which of the following holds the alpha helix of protein in its place:

• A. R group
• B. Disulfide bond
• C. Amino group
• D. Hydrogen bond✓

Explanation: The α-helix is a right-handed helix with the peptide bonds present on the inside and the side chains extending outward. It is stabilized by the regular formation of hydrogen bonds parallel to the axis of the helix; they are formed between the amino and carbonyl groups of every fourth peptide bond.

Q30. If the molecule can bind to another site of the enzyme rather than the true active site, it is referred to as:

• A. Competitive inhibitors
• B. Allosteric inhibition
• C. Non-competitive inhibitors✓
• D. Irreversible inhibition

Explanation: Non-competitive inhibitors are molecules that bind to an enzyme at a location other than the active site, leading to a conformational change in the enzyme's structure. This conformational change makes the active site less effective at catalyzing the reaction, even though the inhibitor does not directly compete with the substrate for binding to the active site.

Q31. _ is the site of light-independent reaction.

• A. Thylakoid membrane
• B. Thylakoid space
• C. Stroma✓
• D. Grana

Explanation: The light-dependent reactions take place on the thylakoid membranes. The inside of the thylakoid membrane is called the lumen, and outside the thylakoid membrane is the stroma, where the light-independent reactions take place. Thylakoids are arranged in stacks called grana.The chloroplast matrix is called the stroma and contains enzymes that catalyse the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis. But stroma is not the site for light reactions. Stromal lamellae connect two or more grana to each other. In this way, the lamellae act as a skeleton of the chloroplast, maintaining efficient distances between the grana, thereby maximising the overall efficiency of the chloroplast. Dark reaction does not depend directly on the presence of light but is dependent on the products of light reaction i.e., ATP and NADPH. The dark reaction occurs through the Calvin cycle.

Q32. When a nerve impulse jumps from one node of Ranvier to the next in a myelinated neuron, it's called _.

• A. Synapses
• B. Saltatory conduction✓
• C. Resting potential
• D. Membrane potential

Explanation: Saltatory conduction is the propagation of action potentials along myelinated axons from one node of Ranvier to the next node, increasing the conduction velocity of action potentials. Saltatory conduction is the rapid "leap" of action potentials along a myelinated axon, moving quickly between gaps in the myelin sheath known as nodes of Ranvier. This process is significantly faster and more energy-efficient than conduction in unmyelinated axons because action potentials only need to be regenerated at these nodes, rather than along the entire length of the axon. The myelin sheath, a fatty insulating layer produced by Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes, prevents ion movement in the internodal regions, allowing the electrical signal to "jump" from node to node.

Q33. The term “Loss of appetite” refers to disease:

• A. Botulism
• B. Anorexia nervosa✓
• C. Obesity
• D. Bulemia nervosa

Explanation: Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an abnormally low body weight, an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted perception of weight.

Q34. They serve as a scaffold for formation of higher order chromatin structure:

• A. Nucleosome✓
• B. Nucleus
• C. Chromosomes
• D. Histones

Explanation: Nucleosomes are the basic units of DNA packaging and serve as a scaffold for the formation of higher-order chromatin structures. They consist of DNA wrapped around histone proteins, allowing the DNA to be compacted efficiently within the nucleus. While histones are essential for nucleosome formation, they do not act as a scaffold themselves. The nucleus is the organelle that contains the DNA but does not directly influence the chromatin structure. Chromosomes are the end result of further condensation of chromatin, representing a more complex level of organization, but they do not serve as the starting scaffold for chromatin formation.

Q35. Salivary Amylase begins to digest Starch to shorter polysaccharides and then to:

• A. Glucose
• B. Maltose✓
• C. Sucrose
• D. Lactose

Explanation: Salivary amylase breaks down starch into maltose, a disaccharide made of two glucose units.

Q36. The chemical nature of primers used in the PCR process is _.

• A. RNA
• B. Protein
• C. Carbohydrate
• D. DNA✓

Explanation: Primers are small, chemically synthesised oligonucleotides that are complementary to the sequences, present at 3' end of the template DNA. They hybridise to the target DNA region, one to each strand of the double helix. These primers are oriented with their ends facing each other allowing synthesis of the DNA towards one another. Thus, the primer is a short, single-stranded DNA sequence which hybridises with the template DNA and defines the region of the DNA that needs to be amplified.

Q37. In viruses, a combined structure formed by the core (nucleic acid) and the capsid is:

• A. Nucleocapsid✓
• B. Prion
• C. Envelope
• D. Capsomeres

Explanation: The capsid and nucleic acid together are known as the nucleocapsid.A prion is a type of protein that can trigger normal proteins in the brain to fold abnormally. Prion diseases can affect both humans and animals.A viral envelope is the outermost layer of many types of viruses. It protects the genetic material in its life cycle when travelling between host cells.The capsomere is a subunit of the capsid, an outer covering of protein that protects the genetic material of a virus.

Q38. Skull, vertebral column, ribs, and sternum form:

• A. Appendicular skeleton
• B. Hydrostatic skeleton
• C. Exoskeleton
• D. Axial skeleton✓

Explanation: The axial skeleton forms a vertical axis that includes the head, neck, back, and chest. It has 80 bones and consists of the skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage. The appendicular skeleton is the portion of the skeleton of vertebrates consisting of the bones that support the appendages. There are 126 bones. The appendicular skeleton includes the skeletal elements within the limbs, as well as the supporting shoulder girdle, pectoral, and pelvic girdle. A hydrostatic skeleton is a skeleton formed by a fluid-filled compartment within the body, called the coelom. An exoskeleton is an external skeleton that supports and protects an animal's body.

Q39. Synthesis of microtubules increases in:

• A. M phase
• B. S phase
• C. G1 phase
• D. G2 phase✓

Explanation: Following the G1 is the S-phase (synthesis phase) during which the DNA is synthesised and (chromosome are replicated) which initiates G2 phase (pre- mitotic phase), thus preparing the cell for division e.g., energy storage for chromosome movements, mitosis specific proteins, RNA and microtubule subunits (for spindle fibres) synthesise.G2 phase is the second growth phase. It occurs after the synthesis phase in a typical cell cycle. In the G2 phase synthesis of tubulin protein which is the major component of microtubules takes place. The spindle fibres are made of microtubules.

Q40. The region of the chromosome or, more specifically, the length of the DNA molecule, which has a particular function is called _.

• A. Kinetochore
• B. Locus
• C. Allele
• D. Gene✓

Explanation: The gene is the basic physical and functional unit of heredity. It consists of a specific sequence of nucleotides at a given position on a given chromosome that codes for a specific protein.In genetics, a locus is a specific, fixed position on a chromosome where a particular gene or genetic marker is located.

Q41. Urea cycle helps in the the detoxification of:

• A. Creatine
• B. Amino acids
• C. Carbon dioxide
• D. Ammonia✓

Explanation: The urea cycle is a metabolic pathway that converts toxic ammonia (NH₃), produced from the breakdown of amino acids, into urea, which is less harmful and excreted in urine. Thus, the cycle primarily detoxifies ammonia.

Q42. Chitin, which makes the exoskeleton in insects, is further hardened by:

• A. Protein and Sodium Bicarbonate
• B. Protein and Calcium Carbonate✓
• C. Protein and Potassium Carbonate
• D. Protein and Sodium Carbonate

Explanation: Chitin is translucent and tough in its pure form, but it also combines with other materials to form a strong outer structure. For example, in arthropods, it combines with proteins, while in crustaceans, it combines with calcium carbonate. This material makes the exoskeleton and shells hard, tough, and stiff.

Q43. The number of salivary glands found in the human oral cavity.

• A. 4
• B. 3
• C. 6✓
• D. 2

Explanation: Human salivary glands are divided into two main types: major salivary glands (parotid, submandibular, and sublingual) and numerous minor salivary glands located throughout the mouth. The three pairs of major glands produce about 90% of saliva, while the minor glands provide a smaller volume but are important for lubrication and protection.

Q44. Following group is the example of acoelomates:

• A. Annelids
• B. Aschelminthes
• C. Molluscs
• D. Platyhelminthes✓

Explanation: Acoelomates do not possess a body cavity or coelom i.e the fluid-filled cavity between the digestive tract and the body wall that also surrounds the other internal organs is absent. Platyhelminthes and sponges are classic examples of acoelomates. In some animals, the embryonic blastocoel acts as a fluid-filled cavity. This body cavity is partially lined with the mesodermal derivative cells. Here, the coelom is much reduced or lost. It is not considered a true coelom, and hence the name pseudocoelomates. Examples include nematodes (roundworms). Animals that have their body cavities filled with fluid are called coelomates. Their internal organs are suspended in the fluid cavity. Examples include arthropods, annelids, molluscs, hemichordates, echinoderms and chordates.

Q45. Glycosidic bond is formed by the:

• A. Removal of Oxygen
• B. Addition of Oxygen
• C. Removal of water✓
• D. Addition of water

Explanation: Glycosidic bond is a condensation reaction between two sugar units, where the H- group from one sugar interacts with the -OH group on another to release water and link the sugar units together to form a polysaccharide.

Q46. Which of the following statements is correct about the respiratory pigments?

• A. Myoglobin and Haemoglobin has higher affinity for nitrogen
• B. Cyanide and Haemoglobin has a low affinity for oxygen
• C. Myoglobin has more affinity for oxygen as compared to haemoglobin✓
• D. Albumin, Globulin and Globin proteins are present in respiratory pigments

Explanation: Myoglobin's affinity for oxygen is higher than haemoglobin's. And unlike haemoglobin, which is found in the red blood cells, myoglobin is found in muscle tissues. Thus, haemoglobin's lower affinity for oxygen serves it well because it allows haemoglobin to release oxygen more easily in the cells. Myoglobin, on the other hand, has a significantly higher affinity for oxygen and will therefore be much less inclined to release it once it is bound.

Q47. Conversion of ammonium into nitrates is:

• A. Nitrification✓
• B. Nitrogen Fixation
• C. Ammonification
• D. Denitrification

Explanation: The correct answer is Nitrification, as it specifically refers to the conversion of ammonium into nitrates by bacteria such as Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter. Nitrogen Fixation is unrelated because it involves converting atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia. Ammonification involves the breakdown of organic matter into ammonium, not its conversion into nitrates. Denitrification involves the reduction of nitrates into nitrogen gas, not the conversion of ammonium to nitrates.

Q48. An area previously supporting life is made barren, the subsequent recolonization is called _.

• A. Climax community
• B. Pioneer succession
• C. Primary succession
• D. Secondary succession✓

Explanation: Secondary succession occurs when the primary ecosystem is destroyed. For example, a climax community gets destroyed by fire. It gets recolonised after the destruction. A climax community is the final stage of succession, remaining relatively unchanged until destroyed by an event such as fire or human interference. Primary succession is an ecological succession that begins in essentially lifeless areas, such as regions in which there is no soil or where the soil is incapable of sustaining life. The pioneer species are hardy species that are the first to colonise barren environments or previously biodiverse steady-state ecosystems that have been disrupted, such as by fire. Therefore, the correct answer is secondary succession.

Q49. In human female, the egg is fertilized in:

• A. Ovary
• B. Vagina
• C. Oviduct✓
• D. Uterus

Explanation: In human females, fertilization typically occurs in the fallopian tubes, also known as the oviducts. The process begins with the release of an egg (ovum) from one of the ovaries during ovulation. The released egg then travels through the fallopian tube. If sexual intercourse has taken place and sperm are present in the female reproductive tract, fertilization can occur in the fallopian tube.

Q50. Which hormone is released in females in response to FSH from the pituitary gland?

• A. Estrogen✓
• B. ADH
• C. Oxytocin
• D. Progesterone

Explanation: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) from the pituitary gland stimulates the ovaries in females. In response to FSH, the ovaries produce estrogen. Estrogen is a group of hormones that includes estradiol, estrone, and estriol. These hormones play crucial roles in the development and maturation of the ovarian follicles (structures that contain the developing eggs) and in regulating the menstrual cycle.

Q51. In a cross section, each centriole consists of nine triplets of:

• A. Microfilaments
• B. Microvilli
• C. Microtubules✓
• D. Intermediate filaments

Explanation: In a cross section, each centriole appears as a ring of nine triplets of microtubules. The microtubules in the triplets are arranged in a clockwise or counterclockwise direction. The triplets are connected to each other by proteins, and they form a rigid structure that is essential for the function of the centriole.

Q52. In immunoglobulins/antibodies, two light chains and two heavy chains are linked to each other by:

• A. Covalent bonds
• B. Hydrogen bonds
• C. Ionic bonds
• D. Disulphide bonds✓

Explanation: Each antibody is made up of two short light (L) peptide chains and two long heavy (H) peptide chains (H2L2) joined to each other by disulfide bonds. Disulfide bonds are covalent linkages between the sulphur-containing side chains of cysteine amino acids. The peptide chains are arranged in a Y-shaped structure. Each chain in the antibody has both constant and variable regions. The amino acid sequence and conformation of the variable region keep changing from one type of antibody to another. The conformation and amino acid sequence of the constant region remain the same. The unique antigen-binding site in each antibody that is compatible with specific antigens is composed of the variable regions of both the heavy and the light chains.

Q53. In the nervous system chemical messengers are called _.

• A. Neurotransmitters✓
• B. Hormones
• C. Chemoreceptors
• D. Enzymes

Explanation: Neurotransmitters are often referred to as the body's chemical messengers. They are the molecules used by the nervous system to transmit messages between neurons, or from neurons to muscles.

Q54. The first part of the large intestine is:

• A. Colon
• B. Appendix
• C. Caecum✓
• D. Rectum

Explanation: The large intestine begins with the caecum, a pouch-like structure that connects with the ileum of the small intestine. The appendix is a small finger-like extension of the caecum, the colon is the longest part of the large intestine, and the rectum is the last part leading to the anus.

Q55. Scapula is a:

• A. Tail bone
• B. Hip bone
• C. Skull bone
• D. Shoulder bone✓

Explanation: The scapula or shoulder blade is the bone that connects the clavicle to the humerus. The scapula forms the posterior of the shoulder girdle. It is a sturdy, flat, triangular bone. The scapula provides attachment to several groups of muscles.

Q56. A complete turn of the double helix of DNA comprises of:

• A. 34 nanometer
• B. 3.4 Angstrom
• C. 3.4 nanometer✓
• D. 34 micrometers

Explanation: At a distance of 3.4nm, the double helix DNA produces one full turn. Each full turn of DNA consists of 10 base pairs. Pitch is the term for the distance covered by a DNA molecule in one full turn.

Q57. The enzymes required in Glycolysis are present in:

• A. Golgi Apparatus
• B. Cell cytoplasm✓
• C. Inner Mitochondrial Membrane
• D. Matrix of Mitochondria

Explanation: Glycolysis is the process where glucose breaks partially to form pyruvic acid. Further the pyruvic acid enters as a substrate to continue the respiratory pathway. It takes place in the cytoplasm.It does not depend upon the availability of the oxygen.

Q58. Which lipid is hydrophilic and soluble?

• A. Triglycerides
• B. Phospholipids✓
• C. Waxes
• D. Terpenoids

Explanation: Phospholipids are soluble in both water and oil (amphiphilic) because the hydrocarbon tails of two fatty acids are still hydrophobic, but the phosphate group end is hydrophilic. Phospholipids are the major component of cell membrane to form lipid bilayers.

Q59. _ hormone is released from the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland.

• A. Adrenaline
• B. Thyroid stimulating hormone
• C. FSH
• D. Antidiuretic hormone✓

Explanation: The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland produces two hormones, vasopressin (Antidiuretic hormone) and oxytocin. Adrenaline is released from the adrenal glands and its major action, together with noradrenaline, is to prepare the body for 'fight or flight'. Thyroid-stimulating hormone, also known as TSH, is a glycoprotein hormone produced by the anterior pituitary. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is released by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland.

Q60. Ribosomes are made up of _ and _.

• A. Proteins and carbohydrates
• B. RNA and lipid
• C. RNA and proteins✓
• D. RNA and carbohydrates

Explanation: A ribosome is an intercellular structure made up of equal amounts of both RNA and protein, hence named as 'ribonucleo-protein particles 'and it is the site of protein synthesis in the cell. The ribosome reads the messenger RNA (mRNA) sequence and translates that genetic code into a specified string of amino acids, which grow into long chains that fold to form proteins.

Q61. A non-protein part which is essential for proper functioning of enzyme is called:

• A. Additional factor
• B. Cofactor✓
• C. Efficient cofactor
• D. Extra factor

Explanation: A non-protein part that is essential for the proper functioning of an enzyme is called a "cofactor." Cofactors are often inorganic ions or organic molecules that associate with the protein component (apoenzyme) of an enzyme to form the complete and catalytically active holoenzyme.

Q62. DNA made by joining pieces from two or more different sources is called:

• A. Probes
• B. Restriction endonuclease
• C. Mutated DNA
• D. Recombinant DNA✓

Explanation: Recombinant DNA (or rDNA) is made by combining DNA from two or more sources.DNA probes are stretches of single-stranded DNA used to detect the presence of complementary nucleic acid sequences (target sequences) by hybridization.A restriction enzyme, restriction endonuclease, or restrictase is an enzyme that cleaves DNA into fragments at or near specific recognition sites within molecules known as restriction sites.A mutation is a change in a DNA sequence. Mutations can result from DNA copying mistakes made during cell division, exposure to ionizing radiation, exposure to chemicals called mutagens, or infection by viruses.

Q63. The hormone which controls the uptake of Sodium ions in kidney and its maintenance in blood plasma is:

• A. Somatotrophic Hormone
• B. Aldosterone Hormone✓
• C. Gonadotrophic Hormone
• D. Thyroxine Hormone

Explanation: Aldosterone is a steroid hormone. Its main role is to regulate salt and water in the body, thus having an effect on blood pressure.Growth hormone (GH), also called somatotropin or human growth hormone, is a peptide hormone secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland. It stimulates the growth of essentially all tissues of the body, including bone.Gonadotropins: Luteinizing and Follicle Stimulating Hormones. Luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) are called gonadotropins because they stimulate the gonads - in males, the testes, and in females, the ovaries.Thyroxine is the main hormone secreted into the bloodstream by the thyroid gland. It plays vital roles in digestion, heart and muscle function, brain development and maintenance of bones.

Q64. Which of the following statements are true for mitochondria and chloroplasts?A. ATP synthesis is seen in bothB. The outer membrane has more surface area in bothC. Circular naked DNA, RNA, and 70 ribosomes are seen in bothD. Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in both

• A. A and B
• B. B and C
• C. A and C✓
• D. A and D

Explanation: ATP synthesis is seen in both chloroplasts and mitochondria. The inner membrane of mitochondria is folded to increase surface area.Both mitochondria and chloroplasts have small, circular DNA, all kinds of RNA and 70S ribosomes.Oxidative phosphorylation takes place only in mitochondria.

Q65. The capillaries of glomerulus rejoin to form an _.

• A. Efferent arteriole✓
• B. Afferent arteriole
• C. Peritubular capillaries
• D. Collecting duct

Explanation: At the distal end of the glomerulus, the capillaries rejoin to form the afferent arteriole through which blood leaves the glomerulus.The afferent arterioles branch from the renal artery, which supplies blood to the kidneys. The afferent arterioles later diverge into the capillaries of the glomerulus.In the renal system, peritubular capillaries are tiny blood vessels, supplied by the efferent arteriole, that travel alongside nephrons allowing reabsorption and secretion between blood and the inner lumen of the nephron.The collecting duct system of the kidney consists of a series of tubules and ducts that physically connect nephrons to a minor calyx or directly to the renal pelvis.

Q66. How many sodium ions are pumped out in response to two potassium ions transported into the membrane?

• A. 4
• B. 1
• C. 2
• D. 3✓

Explanation: The sodium-potassium pump moves 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ in per cycle, maintaining the resting membrane potential (-70 mV) with more positive charge outside than inside.

Q67. Chance of a crossing over between two loci is directly proportional to their:

• A. Thickening
• B. Width
• C. Length
• D. Distance✓

Explanation: The correct answer is 'Distance.' In genetics, the likelihood of a crossover event between two loci is directly proportional to the physical distance separating them on a chromosome. The greater this distance, the more likely it is that a crossover will occur during meiosis, resulting in genetic recombination. Other options like thickening, width, and length do not accurately describe the relationship between loci distance and crossover frequency, making them incorrect choices in this context.

Q68. Process ensuring the survival of species over long periods of time, even though individual members of the species die.

• A. Reproduction✓
• B. Adaptability
• C. Mitosis
• D. Respiration

Explanation: Reproduction is the biological process by which new individual organisms offspring are produced from their parents. Reproduction is the biological process by which new individual organisms are produced from preexisting ones. It is a fundamental characteristic of living organisms and is essential for the continuation of a species. Reproduction can occur through various mechanisms, and it is central to the life cycle of organisms.

Q69. Phages which show lysogenic cycle are known as:

• A. Enveloped Phage
• B. Virulent Phage
• C. Temperate phages✓
• D. Bacteriophage

Explanation: Temperate phages are some bacteriophages which display a lysogenic life cycle. Lysogeny is characterized by an integration of the bacteriophage nucleic acid into the host bacteria genome and becomes prophage. In this condition, the bacterium continues to live and reproduce normally. Bacteriophages that only use the lytic cycle are called virulent phages. So, the correct answer is 'temperate phages'.

Q70. Organs specialized to perform different functions but structurally alike are:

• A. Analogous organs
• B. Homologous organs✓
• C. Autologous organs
• D. Anuclogous organs

Explanation: Organs that have the same internal structure but perform different functions are called homologous organs.Homologous organs result from divergent evolution, where a common ancestral structure evolves to perform different functions in different species, adapting to new environments. This occurs because populations become isolated and face different selective pressures, leading to diversification. A classic example is the forelimbs of vertebrates like humans, bats, whales, and cheetahs, which share a similar bone structure but are adapted for grasping, flying, swimming, and running, respectively. Analogous organs are the opposite of homologous organs, which have similar functions but different origins.

Q71. By PCR we mean:

• A. Polymerase chronic reaction
• B. Polymerase chain reaction✓
• C. Polymerase copy reaction
• D. Polymerase cross-reaction

Explanation: Polymerase chain reaction (abbreviated PCR) is a laboratory technique for rapidly producing (amplifying) millions to billions of copies of a specific segment of DNA, which can then be studied in greater detail.

Q72. If lipopolysaccharides did not appear in the wall of bacteria on staining then it will be known as _.

• A. Gram-negative
• B. Gram-positive✓
• C. Capsule
• D. Both Gram positive & negative

Explanation: The Gram stain procedure distinguishes between Gram positive and Gram negative groups by coloring these cells red or violet. Gram positive bacteria stain violet due to the presence of a thick layer of peptidoglycan in their cell walls, which retains the crystal violet these cells are stained with. Alternatively, Gram negative bacteria stain pink, which is attributed to a thinner peptidoglycan wall, which does not retain the crystal violet during the decoloring process. Gram-positive bacteria do not contain lipopolysaccharides, but carry surface teichoic acids, lipoteichoic acids and peptidoglycan instead. The outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria contains lipopolysaccharides, proteins, and phospholipids. The bacterial capsule is a large structure of many bacteria. It is a polysaccharide layer that lies outside the cell envelope, and is thus deemed part of the outer envelope of a bacterial cell.

Q73. The low levels of surfactant produced by the alveolar epithelium cause:

• A. Respiratory distress syndrome✓
• B. Emphysema
• C. Bronchitis
• D. Asthma

Explanation: The key feature of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) is the insufficient production of surfactant in the lungs.Emphysema is a lung condition that causes shortness of breath. In people with emphysema, the air sacs in the lungs (alveoli) are damaged. Over time, the inner walls of the air sacs weaken and rupture — creating larger air spaces instead of many small ones.Bronchitis is an infection of the main airways of the lungs (bronchi), causing them to become irritated and inflamed.Asthma is a condition in which your airways narrow and swell and may produce extra mucus. This can make breathing difficult and trigger coughing.

Q74. Deficiency of enzyme _ causes combined immunodeficiency syndrome.

• A. Adenosine transcriptase
• B. Adenosine transaminase
• C. Adenosine polymerase
• D. Adenosine deaminase✓

Explanation: Adenosine deaminase deficiency (ADA deficiency) is an inherited condition that damages the immune system and is a common cause of severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID).

Q75. Site of protein synthesis in cells are:

• A. Ribosomes✓
• B. Endoplasmic Reticulum
• C. Nucleolus
• D. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

Explanation: The site of protein synthesis in the cell are ribosomes. These are present attached to the surface of the rough endoplasmic reticulum and also in the free state in the cytoplasm. These organelles are involved in the process of translation which is the conversion of the mRNA to protein.

Q76. Keeping correct balance of ions and water in our body is called as:

• A. Thermoregulation
• B. Osmoregulation✓
• C. Excretion
• D. Selective reabsorption

Explanation: Osmoregulation is the process of maintaining salt and water balance (osmotic balance) across membranes within the body.Thermoregulation is a process that allows your body to maintain its core internal temperature.Excretion is a process in which metabolic waste is eliminated from an organism. In vertebrates this is primarily carried out by the lungs, kidneys and skin.Selective reabsorption is the process whereby certain molecules (e.g. ions, glucose and amino acids), after being filtered out of the capillaries along with nitrogenous waste products (i.e. urea) and water in the glomerulus, are reabsorbed from the filtrate as they pass through the nephron.

Q77. There are _ number of linkage groups in humans.

• A. 46
• B. 22
• C. 80
• D. 23✓

Explanation: This phenomenon of staying together of all the genes of a chromosome is called linkage. Gene linkage is a physical relationship between genes. A chromosome carries its linked genes in the form of a linkage group. The number of linkage groups corresponds to the number of homologous pairs of chromosomes. Man has 23 linkage groups.

Q78. The actual or preserved remains of the organisms that lived in the ancient past are called:

• A. Fossils✓
• B. Impression
• C. Ancient prints
• D. Ancient cast

Explanation: Fossils are the preserved remains, or traces of remains, of ancient organisms. An impression fossil is formed when the plant or animal decays completely but leaves behind an impression of itself.

Q79. Which one of the following cells does not have a nucleus:

• A. Eosinophils
• B. Neutrophils
• C. Basophils
• D. Platelets✓

Explanation: Platelets are irregularly shaped and typically measure only 2–3 micrometers in diameter. Platelets do not possess a nucleus as they are not true cells, but are instead classified as cell fragments produced by megakaryocytes. These are involved in blood clotting.Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are all types of white blood cells that contain a nucleus.

Q80. These structures are involved in the breakdown of old organelles:

• A. Leucoplasts
• B. Glyoxysomes
• C. Lysosomes✓
• D. Peroxisomes

Explanation: Lysosomes are membrane-bounded, dense granular structures containing hydrolytic enzymes responsible mainly for intracellular and extracellular digestion. They are also involved in the process called autophagy (self-eating). In this process, some old parts of the cell, such as old mitochondria, are engulfed and digested by lysosomes.

Q81. Which combination is an example of ball and socket joints:

• A. Hip and shoulder joints✓
• B. Hip and knee joints
• C. Shoulder and knee joints
• D. Hip and elbow joints

Explanation: The ball and socket joint, also called the spheroidal joint, is a joint in which the ball-like rounded surface of a bone moves within a cup-like depression on another bone. This allows greater freedom of movement (full circle) than any other kind of joint. As evident from the figure, the shoulder joint and the hip joint are of a ball-and-socket type. Whereas the elbow, knee, and ankle joints are hinge joints.

Q82. In aerobic respiration which of the following is correct?

• A. Pyruvate is completely oxidized to form carbon dioxide and water✓
• B. Pyruvate is completely oxidized to form oxygen and water
• C. Pyruvate carboxylated to produce citrate
• D. Pyruvate is converted to ethanol and carbon dioxide

Explanation: In aerobic respiration, glucose is oxidised to form pyruvate during glycolysis. This is followed by Link reaction, Krebs cycle and Electron transport chain all of which leads to the formation of ATP, water and CO2. During the citric acid cycle, pyruvate is completely oxidized, converting it into carbon dioxide (CO2) and high-energy electron carriers (NADH and FADH2).

Q83. Yeasts, the unicellular fungi belongs mostly to the group:

• A. Deuteromycota
• B. Zygomycota
• C. Basidiomycota
• D. Ascomycota✓

Explanation: Yeast is a eukaryotic organism that is single-celled and is classified under the kingdom of fungi. Most of the species of yeast reproduce asexually by budding. The most common species of yeast is the Saccharomyces cerevisiae which is used for fermentation and baking purpose. Ascomycetes are also called sac fungi because these fungi produce elongated sacs called asci. This is the largest subdivision of fungi and contains some very well-known genera such as Penicillium, Saccharomyces, Aspergillus, Neurospora, etc

Q84. The enzyme used by the bacteria to cut the DNA of the invading virus for its protection is:

• A. Restriction Exonuclease
• B. Restriction Ligase
• C. Restriction Endonuclease✓
• D. DNA polymerase

Explanation: Restriction enzyme, also called restriction endonuclease, a protein produced by bacteria that cleaves DNA at specific sites along the molecule. In the bacterial cell, restriction enzymes cleave foreign DNA, thus eliminating infecting organisms.Specific endonucleases, also called restriction endonucleases, are available that cleave specific sites within a DNA sequence. Exonuclease is usually non-specific and does not have defensive properties against the entry of pathogenic microbes.Ligase is an enzyme that uses ATP to form bonds, and is used in recombinant DNA cloning to join restriction endonuclease fragments that have annealed. (There is no such thing as restriction ligase)A DNA polymerase is a member of a family of enzymes that catalyze the synthesis of DNA molecules from nucleoside triphosphates, the molecular precursors of DNA.

Q85. The number and sequence of amino acids along a polypeptide chain is called _ structure of a protein.

• A. Quaternary
• B. Tertiary
• C. Primary✓
• D. Secondary

Explanation: Primary structure is the amino acid sequence.Secondary structure is local interactions between stretches of a polypeptide chain and includes α-helix and β-pleated sheet structures.Tertiary structure is the overall three-dimension folding driven largely by interactions between R groups.Quaternary structures is the orientation and arrangement of subunits in a multi-subunit protein.

Q86. Rod-shaped bacteria are known as

• A. Spirilla
• B. Bacilli✓
• C. Spirochete
• D. Cocci

Explanation: Bacilli are rod shaped bacteria. Cocci are spherical shaped bacteria. Spirillas are corkscrew shaped bacteria. Spirochetes are any group of spiral shaped bacteria.

Q87. _ is the exact position of a gene on the chromosome.

• A. Trait
• B. Centromere
• C. Genotype
• D. Locus✓

Explanation: The correct answer is locus. A locus is the precise, fixed location on a chromosome where a particular gene or genetic marker is situated. This term is specific to genetics and is used to identify the position of genes.In contrast, a trait is a characteristic of an organism, not a location on a chromosome. The centromere is a region of the chromosome that connects sister chromatids, and genotype refers to the overall genetic makeup of an organism, not the position of individual genes.

Q88. Parathormone production is controlled by the blood:

• A. Ca level✓
• B. Sugar level
• C. Na level
• D. Mg level

Explanation: Parathyroid hormone is mainly controlled by the negative feedback of calcium levels in the blood to the parathyroid glands. Low calcium levels in the blood stimulate parathyroid hormone secretion, whereas high calcium levels in the blood prevent the release of parathyroid hormone.

Q89. Which is the pacemaker of human heart:

• A. AV node
• B. SA node✓
• C. Purkinjie fibres
• D. Bundle of His

Explanation: SA node generates impulses that initiate heartbeats.

Q90. Single ringed pyrimidines are:

• A. Uracil, Cytosine and Thymine✓
• B. Cytosine, Guanine and Uracil
• C. Adenine and Guanine
• D. Cytosine, Adenine and Thymine

Explanation: The pyrimidines, Thymine, Cytosine and Uracil, are smaller and have a single ring, while the purines, Adenine and Guanine, are larger and have two rings.

Q91. Which one of the following is Multiple allelic characters?

• A. Colour of flower in pea plant
• B. Blood group of the human being✓
• C. Shape of seed in pea plant
• D. Length of stem in pea plant

Explanation: Multiple alleles are the alternative forms of the same gene so they influence the same trait. An excellent example of multiple allele inheritance is human blood type. Blood type exists as four possible phenotypes: A, B, AB, & O. There are 3 alleles for the gene that determines blood type.

Q92. Which statement is correct about atrial systole?

• A. Atria relax and ventricles contract
• B. Atria contract and ventricle also contract
• C. Atria and ventricles are relaxed
• D. Ventricles remain relax while atria contract✓

Explanation: During atrial systole following events occur:• AV valves open• SL valves close• Muscles of atria contract and pump blood to ventricles• Ventricles are relaxed and receive blood from atria.

Q93. Growth in the larva of young arthropods is restricted by:

• A. Exoskeleton✓
• B. Appendages
• C. Endoskeleton
• D. Reduced mitosis

Explanation: As the body underneath the exoskeleton grows, the animal begins to outgrow its tough exterior. In order to cope with this situation, arthropods undergo a process of shedding their exoskeleton and forming a new one periodically throughout their lifetime. This process is called molting, or ecdysis.

Q94. At the last step of Glycolysis, which of the following compound is formed:

• A. Pyruvic acid/ Pyruvate✓
• B. Lactic acid
• C. Ethyl Alcohol
• D. Fructose Phosphate

Explanation: The last step in glycolysis is catalyzed by the enzyme pyruvate kinase. Conversion of the PEP into pyruvate results in the production of a second ATP molecule by substrate-level phosphorylation and the compound pyruvic acid (or its salt form, pyruvate).

Q95. NADP, nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate, is a carrier of:

• A. OH group
• B. O2 group
• C. Hydrogen✓
• D. Phosphate

Explanation: NADP+ is a coenzyme that functions as a universal electron carrier, accepting electrons and hydrogen atoms to form NADPH, or nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate.

Q96. When filtration is completed the waste products through distal tube of Nephrons empties to:

• A. Efferent Arteriole
• B. Collecting Tubules✓
• C. Peritubular capillaries
• D. Proximal tubules

Explanation: After filtration, the filtrate moves through the proximal tubule, loop of Henle, and then the distal convoluted tubule. The distal tubule empties its contents (including waste products) into the collecting tubules (or collecting ducts), which carry the urine toward the renal pelvis.

Q97. Blood solute potential is controlled by the following hormone.

• A. Estrogen
• B. Epinephrine
• C. Thyroxine
• D. Vasopressin✓

Explanation: Option B is correct.Antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also called vasopressin, is produced by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary. It helps the kidneys reabsorb water, reducing urine volume and making it more concentrated. By conserving water, ADH regulates blood volume, blood pressure, and osmolarity. In higher amounts, it also constricts blood vessels, further increasing blood pressure.

Q98. The temperature that promotes the maximum activity of enzymes is referred to as:

• A. Fixed temperature
• B. Optimum temperature✓
• C. Controlled temperature
• D. Active temperature

Explanation: The optimum temperature is the specific temperature at which an enzyme's activity is at its maximum. This temperature allows the enzyme to function most efficiently without denaturation.

Q99. Divergent evolution produces:

• A. Vital Organs
• B. Homologous Organs✓
• C. Vestigial Organs
• D. Analogous Organs

Explanation: Homologous organs are created in divergent evolution. Homologous organs refer to the organs with similar structures but having different functions. The evolution of apes and humans from common primate ancestors is an example of divergent evolution.

Q100. Tonoplast bounds which organelle:

• A. Golgi complex
• B. Nucleus
• C. Endoplasmic Reticulum
• D. Vacuoles✓

Explanation: A cell can have membrane bound organelles and non-membrane bound organelles. Membrane bound organelles are mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, vacuoles, lysosomes, Golgi apparatus, plastids. Membrane which occurs around the vacuole is called a tonoplast and separates the contents of the vacuole from the cytoplasm.

Q101. Anti-venom given after a snake bite venom is an example of:

• A. Artificial active immunity
• B. Artificial passive immunity✓
• C. Natural active immunity
• D. Natural passive immunity

Explanation: Therefore, the correct answer is B) Artificial passive immunity, as the administration of anti-venom provides immediate protection through the transfer of preformed antibodies. Artificially acquired passive immunity is protection acquired by giving a person an injection or transfusion of antibodies made by someone else. These antibodies neutralize the infectious agents in the usual way, but the protection lasts only a few weeks because the antibodies gradually break down and are not replaced.

Q102. The cisternae breaks up into vesicles from _ , _ of Golgi complex.

• A. Convex, maturing face
• B. Concave, forming face
• C. Convex, forming face
• D. Concave, maturing face✓

Explanation: The trans face of golgi apparatus (concave surface) where the cisternae breaks up to form new vesicles is also known as the maturing face.

Q103. Which hormone causes uterine contractions during childbirth?

• A. Progesterone
• B. Prolactin
• C. Oxytocin✓
• D. Relaxin

Explanation: Oxytocin stimulates strong uterine contractions during labor and aids milk ejection.

Q104. Which of the following is Unsaturated “Fatty Acid”?

• A. Stearic Acid
• B. Palmitic Acid
• C. Butyric Acid
• D. Oleic Acid✓

Explanation: Oleic acid is a mono-unsaturated omega-9 fatty acid found in various animal and vegetable sources.

Q105. When we extract Carotenoids from its source we see that it is:

• A. Violet in color
• B. Blue green in color
• C. Yellow green in color
• D. Yellow to orange red in color✓

Explanation: Carotenoids also called tetraterpenoids, are yellow, orange, and red organic pigments that are produced by plants and algae, as well as several bacteria, and fungi.

Q106. When two or more alleles do not show complete dominance or both the alleles are expressing independently in heterozygotic conditions. Such a condition is called:

• A. Complete dominance
• B. Over-dominance
• C. Codominance✓
• D. Incomplete dominance

Explanation: Codominance, as it relates to genetics, refers to a type of inheritance in which two versions (alleles) of the same gene are expressed separately to yield different traits in an individual.

Q107. Taste buds on the tongue are example of:

• A. Thermoreceptors
• B. Photoreceptors
• C. Mechanoreceptors
• D. Chemoreceptors✓

Explanation: The taste receptors are located around the small structures known as papillae found on the upper surface of the tongue; these are chemoreceptors. Taste receptors are proteins located on taste receptor cells within taste buds that bind to chemical compounds in food, initiating signals that the brain interprets as the basic tastes: sweet, salty, sour, bitter, and umami. These receptors are located on the microvilli that project from the taste cells into the taste pore, where they interact with food molecules, ultimately transmitting taste information to the brain via nerves.

Q108. Which of the following hormones acts on the uterus wall for thickening?

• A. Progesterone✓
• B. Zona pellucida
• C. Follicle stimulating hormone
• D. Oxytocin

Explanation: The hormone that acts on the uterus wall (endometrium) for thickening is progesterone. Progesterone is a steroid hormone that plays a key role in the menstrual cycle and the preparation of the uterus for potential pregnancy. During the menstrual cycle, after ovulation occurs, the ruptured follicle transforms into a structure called the corpus luteum. The corpus luteum is responsible for producing progesterone. Progesterone acts on the endometrial lining of the uterus to prepare it for the possible implantation of a fertilized egg.

Q109. If concentration time graph of a reactant indicates a constant half life, then the order reaction with respect to that reactant is:

• A. Zero order
• B. Half order
• C. Second order
• D. First order✓

Explanation: In First order reactions, the graph represents the half-life is different from zero order reaction in a way that the slope continually decreases as time progresses until it reaches zero. We can also easily see that the length of half-life will be constant, independent of concentration. For example, it takes the same amount of time for the concentration to decrease from one point to another point. The half-life of zero order reaction decreases as the concentration decreases. The half life of second order reactions increases as the concentration increases.

Q110. Which of the following catalysts is used in the below reaction?

• A. Conc. H2SO4✓
• B. Pumice stone
• C. Pt
• D. Ni

Explanation: Esterification process is a slow process when it is performed at room temperature also the process does not complete at all in the room temperature. So to complete the process of esterification there should be something to complete the process as well as to speed up the process. Thus concentrated sulphuric acid is added. It is a catalyst which will speed up the process and esterification will proceed speedily and complete on time. Also concentrated sulphuric acid has a property to remove water. Therefore it also acts as a dehydrating agent. After adding this will take reaction in the equilibrium position and will be able to give a greater yield of ester as result.

Q111. Halothane is a halo derivative of:

• A. Methane
• B. Ethane✓
• C. Methanol
• D. Ethanol

Explanation: The chemical Formula for Halothane is F3CCHBRCI, which is a derivative of the chemical formula of Ethane (C2H6).

Q112. The species which are produced by heterolytic bond breaking and can act as electron pair donors are known as:

• A. Nucleophiles✓
• B. Cations
• C. Free radicals
• D. Anions

Explanation: A nucleophile is a chemical species that donates an electron pair to form a chemical bond in relation to a reaction. Heterolytic bond cleavage (heterolytic cleavage; heterolysis): Bond breaking in which the bonding electron pair is split unevenly between the products. Heterolytic cleavage often produces at least one ion.Cation is a positively charged ion.Anion is a negatively charged ion.A free radical is an atom, molecule, or ion that has an unpaired valence electron.

Q113. The product of the concentrations of each ion in a saturated solution of a sparingly soluble salt at 298 K, raised to the power of their relative concentrations, is the:

• A. Ksp✓
• B. Ka
• C. Kw
• D. Kb

Explanation: This is the definition of the solubility product constant (Ksp ). It represents the equilibrium constant for the dissolution of a sparingly soluble ionic compound into its constituent ions in a saturated solution.

Q114. The catalyst used for the manufacture of H2SO4 by contact process is:

• A. SO3
• B. V2O5✓
• C. Fe2O3
• D. Pt/Pd

Explanation: The contact process is one of the most common methods of forming Sulphuric acid. In this process not only Sulphuric acid is formed, but Oleum and Sulphur trioxide is also formed.First, Sulphur dioxide and oxygen are combined in a 1:1 ratio. And it is then treated with the catalyst Vanadium pentoxide at a temperature between (400-450)° and pressure. This converts the Sulphur dioxide into Sulphur trioxide Now this Sulphur trioxide formed is reacted with Sulphuric acid in order to dilute it. In this process Oleum is formed. This Oleum formed is then diluted with water to ultimately yield Sulphuric acid:Therefore, the catalyst used in making the contact process is Vanadium pentoxide.

Q115. Ligands having two lone pair of electrons for donation to the central transition metal ion are known as:

• A. Polydentate ligands
• B. Monodentate ligand
• C. Bidentate ligands✓
• D. Hexadentate ligands

Explanation: Bidentate ligands have two lone pairs, both of which can bond to the central metal ion. Monodentate ligand is a ligand that has only one atom that coordinates directly to the central atom in a complex. A polydentate ligand is a ligand that is attached to a central metal ion by bonds from two or more donor atoms. A hexadentate ligand in coordination chemistry is a ligand that combines with a central metal atom with six bonds.

Q116. The stability in the following structure is due to the:

• A. Disulphide bridges
• B. Weak Van Der Waal's forces
• C. Presence of unpaired electron in the structure.
• D. Hydrogen bonding between NH group of one peptide and CO group of another peptide.✓

Explanation: Residue in the given structure of alpha helix is due to the hydrogen bonding between the NH group of one peptide and carbonyl (C=O) of another peptide residue

Q117. Which is the structure of polyvinyl chloride (polychloroethane)?

• A. [CCl2-CCl2]
• B. [HCCl-CH-Cl]
• C. [H2C=CH-Cl]
• D. [H2C-CH-Cl]✓

Explanation: Poly(vinyl chloride) (PVC) is a synthetic resin made from vinyl chloride and is a member of a large family of polymers broadly referred to as “vinyls.” The chemical formula for vinyl chloride is H2C=CHCl, and the formula for PVC is (H2C–CHCl)n, where n is the degree of polymerization.

Q118. Nylon-6,6 is also called:

• A. Poly styrene
• B. Polyester
• C. Polyamide✓
• D. Polyvinyl alcohol

Explanation: Nylon-6,6 is a synthetic polymer called a polyamide because of the characteristic monomers of amides in the backbone chainPolystyrene is a plastic. It is made up of many styrenes. Styrene is a small organic compound with the chemical formula C6H5CH=CH2.Polyester is a synthetic fabric that's usually derived from petroleum. This fabric is one of the world's most popular textiles, and it is used in thousands of different consumer and industrial applications. Chemically, polyester is a polymer primarily composed of compounds within the ester functional group.Poly is a water-soluble synthetic polymer. It has the idealized formula [CH₂CH]ₙ.

Q119. Which compound will be produced by the oxidation of ethanal by acidified K2Cr2O7 ?

• A. Ethene
• B. Ethanol
• C. Ethanoic acid✓
• D. Ethanone

Explanation: Aldehyde when undergoes oxidation reaction in presence of acidified potassium dichromate or alkaline potassium permanganate forms carboxylic acid as a product.

Q120. Alcohol in which carbon atom bonded to OH group is further attached with three alkyl group is:

• A. Tertiary alcohol✓
• B. Primary alcohol
• C. Aromatic alcohol
• D. Secondary alcohol

Explanation: A tertiary (3°) alcohol is one in which the carbon atom with the OH group is attached to three other carbon atoms. Its general formula is R3COHPrimary alcohols are those alcohols where the carbon atom of the hydroxyl group (OH) is attached to only one single alkyl group.The aromatic alcohols or aryl-alcohols are a class of chemical compounds containing a hydroxyl group (—OH) bonded directly to an aromatic hydrocarbon group.A secondary alcohol is a compound in which a hydroxyl group( ‒OH) is attached to a saturated carbon atom which has two other carbon atoms attached to it.

Q121. The following sketch shows the variation in a physical property of third period elements against their atomic numbers: What physical property is plotted in this sketch?

• A. Ionization energy
• B. Melting point✓
• C. Ionic radius
• D. Atomic radius

Explanation: Na, Mg, Al, Si are all GIANT LATTICE structures involving either metallic (Na, Mg, Al) or giant covalent macromolecule (Si) bonding. Whereas, P, S, Cl are COVALENT MOLECULES, with Ar being a monatomic nonmetal gas. Melting is achieved by disrupting the considerably weaker van der Waals intermolecular forces that exist between the molecules. Melting point steadily increases between Na and Al due to: increased metal cation charge (more protons), more delocalised e− per atom, smaller sized metal ions, hence stronger electrostatic attraction between cations and delocalised e− therefore stronger metallic bonding. Silicon has a significantly higher melting point because Silicon is a giant covalent macromolecule. In order to melt Silicon there is a need to break down many strong covalent bonds between Si atoms, that can only be achieved by applying considerable energy. Melting point of S8 > P4 > Cl2 > Ar because there is decreasing strength of vdW intermolecular forces of attraction as there is a decreasing size of molecule. This explanation is based on the known correlation between molecular size (molecular mass) and magnitude of vdW force of attraction between molecules.

Q122. The standard electrode potential of hydrogen is arbitrarily taken at 298 K is _

• A. 0.00 volt✓
• B. 0.10 volt
• C. 10.0 volt
• D. 1.00 volt

Explanation: SHE is a redox electrode which forms the basis of oxidation-reduction potential. The standard electrode potential value of hydrogen is declared to be zero.

Q123. The potential difference of an electrochemical cell is measured by:

• A. Ammeter
• B. Voltmeter✓
• C. Galvanometer
• D. Calorimeter

Explanation: A voltmeter is an instrument used for measuring the electric potential difference between two points in an electric circuit. An ammeter (from an ampere meter) is a measuring instrument used to measure the current in a circuit. A galvanometer is an electromechanical instrument used for detecting and indicating an electric current. A calorimeter is an object used for calorimetry or the process of measuring the heat of chemical reactions or physical changes as well as heat capacity.

Q124. Which of the following acts as a nucleophile in the reaction of alkyl halide with alcoholic / aqueous ammonia?

• A. H+
• B. NH3✓
• C. NO2+
• D. Br-

Explanation: Since ammonia is nucleophilic, it attacks the electropositive carbon and causes the Br- ion to leave, this allows for the formation of amines as a result of this reaction.

Q125. The liquid in the container has a temperature of 70°C. What will be the temperature on the Kelvin scale?

• A. 350 K
• B. 343 K✓
• C. 300 K
• D. 283 K

Explanation: To convert temperature from celsius to kelvin scale the formula is°C + 273.15 K 70° + 273.15 =343 K.

Q126. The formula which shows the simplest whole number ratio for the atoms of different elements in a compound is:

• A. Ionic formula
• B. Structural formula
• C. Empirical formula✓
• D. Molecular formula

Explanation: The empirical formula of a chemical compound is the simplest positive integer ratio of atoms present in a compound.Ionic formula is the formula of an ionic compound.The structural formula of a chemical compound is a graphic representation of the molecular structure, showing how the atoms are possibly arranged in the real three-dimensional space.A molecular formula consists of the chemical symbols for the constituent elements followed by numeric subscripts describing the number of atoms of each element present in the molecule

Q127. Which one will act as a strong acid?

• A. Chloroethanoic acid
• B. Ethanoic acid
• C. Trichloroethanoic acid✓
• D. Dichloroethanoic acid

Explanation: Chloro groups cause an inductive effect(-I). i.e it is a withdrawing group because it is more electronegative than carbon to which it is attached. -Cl groups pull the bonded electrons from carbon and carbon in turn pulls the electron pair from hydrogen of -COOH group causing more electron deficiency on hydrogen. hydrogen becomes more partially positive hence more acidic. greater the withdrawing effect greater will be polarity and acidity. Since trichloro substituted acetic acid has greater no. of withdrawing groups (3 chloro groups)so it will be more polar and more acidic.

Q128. The shape of [Co(NH3)6]3+ complex is:

• A. Linear
• B. Square planar
• C. Tetrahedral
• D. Octahedral✓

Explanation: The cobalt ion is in +3 oxidation state and has an electronic configuration of 3d6. Six pairs of electrons, one from each ammonia molecule, occupy the six hybrid orbitals, hence the molecule is diamagnetic and octahedral in shape.

Q129. Amino acids react with each other such that -COOH group of one amino acid reacts with the -NH2 group of another amino acid to give a condensed structure as shown below. What is the name of the circled part of this structure?

• A. Ester linkage
• B. Peptide linkage✓
• C. Carbide linkage
• D. Azide linkage

Explanation: A peptide linkage is a chemical bond formed between two molecules when the carboxyl group of one molecule reacts with the amino group of the other molecule, releasing a molecule of water (H2O) to form —CONH—. In an ester molecule, the bond connecting the atom doubly bonded to oxygen and the oxygen atom bearing the alkyl or aryl group is called the ester bond or, in biochemistry, ester linkage. ester linkage.

Q130. 3.0 mole of Calcium will contain _ g of Calcium.

• A. 105 g
• B. 120 g✓
• C. 80 g
• D. 100 g

Explanation: Moles of Calcium = 3Molar mass of Calcium (Ca) = 40Mass of Calcium in grams = ?Moles = Mass/Molar massMass = Moles × Molar massMass = 3 x 40 → Mass 120g

Q131. Which of the following is the correct equation to calculate the relative molecular mass of a gas?

• A. M = mPR / VT
• B. M = PV / mRT
• C. M = mPRT / V
• D. M = mRT / PV✓

Explanation: Since PV=NRT where n = m / MPV=MRT / MM=mRT / PV.

Q132. Reaction of water with quicklime results in the rise in the temperature of the system. Using the concept of an energy change, indicates the nature of the reaction?

• A. Endothermic Reaction
• B. Non-Spontaneous Reaction
• C. Third Order Reaction
• D. Exothermic Reaction✓

Explanation: Calcium oxide reacts with water to form calcium hydroxide, also called slaked lime. Here are the for this reaction: Calcium oxide + water → calcium hydroxide CaO+H2O → Ca(OH)2 A lot of heat is produced in the reaction, which may even cause the water to boil. Hence it is a combination reaction as well as exothermic reaction.

Q133. Which one of the following compounds act as a catalyst when alcohols react with carboxylic acids.

• A. Pt
• B. Conc. HNO3
• C. Ni
• D. Conc. H2SO4✓

Explanation: When a carboxylic acid is treated with an alcohol and an acid catalyst (Conc H2SO4), an ester is formed (along with water).

Q134. In Period 2 and Period 3 maximum melting point shown by elements:

• A. Nitrogen and Phosphorus
• B. Neon and Argon
• C. Lithium and Sodium
• D. Carbon and Silicon✓

Explanation: So in periods two and three, the highest melting point elements tend to be the metal elements with the most delocalized electrons.In period 2, Carbon has the highest melting point, whereas in period 3 silicon has the highest melting point.

Q135. Which one of the following reagents is used to distinguish between aldehydes and ketones?

• A. Alkaline Iodine
• B. Tollen’s Reagent✓
• C. Bromine
• D. 2, 4 DNPH

Explanation: The Tollens' test is a reaction that is used to distinguish aldehydes from ketones, as aldehydes are able to be oxidized into a carboxylic acid while ketones cannot.Alkaline iodine is used in the iodoform test. When Iodine and sodium hydroxide are added to a compound that contains either a methyl ketone or a secondary alcohol with a methyl group in the alpha position, a pale yellow precipitate of iodoform or triiodomethane is formed. It can be used to identify aldehydes or ketones.A solution of bromine in CH2CL2 is used to either test for unsaturation or to check the ability to be oxidized for example in aldehydes. Bromine solution is naturally orange and when consumed in oxidation, it becomes colourless.2, 4 DNPH is used to detect ketones and aldehydes. A positive test is signalled by the formation of a yellow, orange or red precipitate of the dinitrophenylhydrazone.

Q136. Gas is enclosed in a container of 20 cm3 with a moving piston. According to the kinetic theory of gases, what will be the effect on freely moving molecules of the gas if the temperature is increased from 20 oC to 100 oC?

• A. Pressure will become one half
• B. The volume will be increased✓
• C. Temperature has no effect on freely moving molecules
• D. Colliding capability of molecule will become lower

Explanation: According to Charles's law, the volume occupied by a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature, if the pressure remains constant. Since the piston is movable, hence increased temperature causes the volume to be increased.

Q137. Which of these pollutants is produced by burning of coal and causes acid rain:

• A. NO
• B. CO2
• C. SO2✓
• D. CO

Explanation: SO2 is emitted by the burning of fossil fuels — coal, oil, and diesel. SO2 and other sulfur oxides can contribute to acid rain which can harm sensitive ecosystems.Nitrogen oxides are produced in combustion processes, partly from nitrogen compounds in the fuel, but mostly by direct combination of atmospheric oxygen and nitrogen in flames. They also contribute to acid rain.CO2 is a product of combustion reaction and is a greenhouse gas.Carbon monoxide (CO)—a colorless, odorless, tasteless, and toxic air pollutant—is produced in the incomplete combustion of carbon-containing fuels, such as gasoline, natural gas, oil, coal, and wood. It can cause carbon monoxide poisoning.

Q138. Role of a catalyst in a chemical reaction is to:

• A. Increase rate of a reaction✓
• B. Decrease rate of reaction
• C. Decrease yield of a reactant
• D. Increase yield of product

Explanation: A positive catalyst increase rate of reaction, decreases activation energy, decrease equilibrium time and changes mechanism of reaction.

Q139. The essential property of a fertilizer is that is should be:

• A. Immiscible
• B. Highly soluble✓
• C. Insoluble
• D. Partially soluble

Explanation: There are three essential plant nutrients for healthy growth: nitrogen (N), phosphorous (P), potassium (K). Fertilisers contain one or more of these nutrients and different crops require different proportions of each of the three. For the fertiliser to be effective, it must be soluble so that it can reach the plant’s roots.

Q140. Which option shows all the molecules with bond angle 109.5 degrees:

• A. CH4 , NH4+ , PH3
• B. SiCl4 , H2O , BeCl2
• C. SiCl4 , NH4+ , CH4✓
• D. CH4 , CCl4 , NH3

Explanation: Since all molecules stated in option C are tetrahedral in shape, where a central atom is located at the center with four substituents that are located at the corners of a tetrahedron. Hence they all have bond angles that are 109.5 degrees.

Q141. Down the group acid-base behaviour of metallic oxides of group 2 elements changes to:

• A. More basic✓
• B. No change
• C. Less basic
• D. More acidic

Explanation: Group II metal oxides become more basic as you go down the column. As the electronegativities of the metals decrease down the group, hence the change in electronegativity difference between the metal and oxygen increases down the group. The greater the difference in electronegativity the more ionic the metal-oxygen bond becomes. The more ionic the metal-oxygen bond the more basic the oxide is.

Q142. Butane molecules can have a maximum number of isomers.

• A. 5
• B. 3
• C. 4
• D. 2✓

Explanation: Butane is an alkane with four carbon atoms so the molecular formula is C4H10. It has two isomers; n-butane and isobutane.

Q143. Select one which is alcohol.

• A. CH3 - CH2 - Br
• B. CH3 - O - CH3
• C. CH3COOH
• D. CH3 - CH2 - OH✓

Explanation: An alcohol is an organic compound that carries at least one hydroxyl functional group (−OH) bound to a saturated carbon atom, hence CH3-CH2-OH is an alcohol. CH3-CH2-Br is an example of an alkyl halide (also known as haloalkanes) which are compounds in which one or more hydrogen atoms in an alkane have been replaced by halogen atoms (fluorine, chlorine, bromine or iodine). Ethers are a class of organic compounds that contain an ether group—an oxygen atom connected to two alkyl or aryl groups. They have the general formula R–O–R′, where R and R′ represent the alkyl or aryl groups. Therefore CH3-O-CH3 is an ether. CH3COOH is a carboxylic acid that is an organic acid which contains a carboxyl group (C(=O)OH) attached to an R-group. The general formula of a carboxylic acid is R–COOH, with R referring to the alkyl, alkenyl, aryl, or other group.

Q144. Which is the correct electronic configuration of Chromium (24Cr)?

• A. 1s2, 2s2, 3s2, 2p6, 3p6, 4s2, 3d6
• B. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s2, 3d4
• C. 1s1, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d6
• D. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s1, 3d5✓

Explanation: The atomic number of chromium = 24. Cr (Z = 24) = 1s2, 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d5

Q145. Which one of the following is the structure of Teflon?

• A. (-CF2-CF2-)n✓
• B. (-CF2-CCl2-)n
• C. (-CH2-CH2-)n
• D. (-CF2-CH2-)n

Explanation: Teflon is a synthetic polymer containing carbon and fluorine called polytetrafluoroethylene. Its formula is (C2F4)n.

Q146. Which one of the following enthalpy changes is always exothermic?

• A. Enthalpy of combustion✓
• B. Enthalpy of formation
• C. Enthalpy of atomization
• D. Enthalpy of solution

Explanation: Combustion is an oxidation reaction that produces heat, and it is therefore always exothermic. Since these reactions are exothermic so the value for the enthalpy change (ΔH) is always negative

Q147. While finding the relative atomic mass, which of the following standard is used to compare the atomic mass of chlorine (35.5 amu):

• A. Carbon - 13
• B. Neon - 20
• C. Carbon - 12✓
• D. Nucleon number

Explanation: By international agreement in 1961 for determining atomic masses, carbon-12 a distinct atom of carbon was chosen as standard with its atomic mass 12.00 atomic mass unit. It is defined as 1/12 the mass of an atom of carbon-12. Masses of all other atoms are determined relative to the mass of an atom of carbon 12. Relative atomic mass equals the average mass of all the atoms in an element compared to 1/12 the ​ mass of a carbon-12. Carbon-12 is the standard while measuring the atomic masses. Because no other nuclides other than carbon-12 have exactly whole-number masses in this scale.

Q148. Which compound is obtained by the elimination of bromopropane?

• A. Propene✓
• B. Ether
• C. Aldehyde
• D. Ester

Explanation: In the elimination reaction involving 2-bromopropane and hydroxide ions. 2-bromopropane is heated under reflux with a concentrated solution of sodium or potassium hydroxide in ethanol. The resulting re-arrangement of the electrons expels the bromine as a bromide ion and produces propene.

Q149. Which product is formed by the reaction of carboxylic acid with alcohol?

• A. Alkane
• B. Ether
• C. Aldehyde
• D. Ester✓

Explanation: When primary alcohol is treated with a carboxylic acid in the presence of sulphuric acid a compound is formed. This compound has a sweet smell. The compound obtained is called ester. The chemical reaction occurring in the formation of the ester is known as esterification reaction.

Q150. In an aqueous solution, amino acids exist in an ionic form as shown below. This ionic form of amino acid is known as:

• A. Zwitter ion✓
• B. Amphoteric ion
• C. Cation
• D. Anion

Explanation: A zwitter ion is a compound with no overall electrical charge, but which contains separate parts which are positively and negatively charged. In an aqueous solution, the carboxyl group can lose a proton (becomes a basic group) and the amino group can accept a proton (becomes acidic) giving rise to the dipolar ion known as zwitter ion. An amphoteric compound is a molecule or ion that can react both as an acid and as a base.

Q151. Reaction mechanism of alkanes with halogens is known as;

• A. Propagation
• B. Free radical substitution✓
• C. Addition
• D. Elimination

Explanation: Halogenation of alkanes means the substitution of a halogen atom(s) by the removal of one or more hydrogen atoms in the alkane. The mechanism of halogenations occurs in three steps: chain initiation, chain propagation, and chain termination.The order of reactivity of the halogens towards the halogenations reaction of alkanes as follows: F2> Cl2> Br2> I2.The iodination reaction is reversible as follows:CH4+I2⇌CH3−I+HI.

Q152. Why is it necessary to distill aldehyde formed from oxidation of primary alcohol through acidified potassium dichromate (VI) solution or acidified sodium dichromate (VI) solution?

• A. Aldehyde formed may be oxidized further to carboxylic acid concerned✓
• B. Aldehyde formed is unstable and decompose back to original precursor i.e. primary alcohol
• C. Aldehyde may be oxidised further to a ketone
• D. Aldehyde formed may react with primary alcohol, the original reactant.

Explanation: Aldehyde formed may be oxidized further to carboxylic acid Primary alcohols oxidized with acidified K2 Cr2O7/Na2Cr2O7 can form aldehydes. Aldehydes are easily further oxidized to carboxylic acids in the same reaction mixture. Distillation removes the aldehyde immediately, preventing over- oxidation.

Q153. Electron affinity of the atom is the energy released when:

• A. Covalent bond of molecule is broken.
• B. Electron is added to gaseous atom.✓
• C. Electron is removed from gaseous atom.
• D. Covalent bond is formed between the atoms.

Explanation: The electron affinity (Eea) of an atom or molecule is defined as the amount of energy released when an electron is attached to a neutral atom or molecule in the gaseous state to form a negative ion.

Q154. Which mechanism of reactions is shown by carbonyl compounds?

• A. Electrophilic addition
• B. Electrophilic substitution
• C. Free radical substitution
• D. Nucleophilic addition✓

Explanation: The main reactions of the carbonyl group are nucleophilic additions to the carbon‐oxygen double bond. This addition consists of adding a nucleophile and a hydrogen across the carbon‐oxygen double bond. An electrophilic addition reaction is an addition reaction where, in a chemical compound, a π bond is broken and two new σ bonds are formed. The substrate of an electrophilic addition reaction must have a double bond or triple bond. Electrophilic substitution reactions are chemical reactions in which an electrophile displaces a functional group in a compound. Free radicals are atoms or groups of atoms which have a single unpaired electron. A free radical substitution reaction is one involving these radicals. Free radicals are formed if a bond splits evenly - each atom getting one of the two electrons. The name given to this is homolytic fission.

Q155. Which of the following compounds is solid at room temperature?

• A. Ethanol
• B. Butane
• C. Methanol
• D. Phenol✓

Explanation: Phenols occur as white solids at room temperature and may be highly toxic and caustic.

Q156. Halogens are being used as fire extinguishers, mild antiseptic CFCs and many other organic chemicals, Which of the following halogen is used to kill the bacteria in drinking water.

• A. Bromine
• B. Fluorine
• C. Chlorine✓
• D. Iodine

Explanation: One of the easiest and cost effective way to clean water is to add some amount of chlorine into it. But if chlorine is added in excess then the water becomes unfit for consumption. So, when chlorinated water from treatment plants is disposed into rivers etc then it becomes harmful for aquatic species as excess of chlorinated water can lead to death of living beings. Hence, chlorine must be removed from water before releasing the water from water treatment plants into rivers, lakes or oceans.

Q157. Which of the following acts as an electrophile in the electrophilic substitution of benzene with bromine?

• A. Br+✓
• B. FeCl4+
• C. Fe2+
• D. Fe3+

Explanation: Benzene reacts with bromine in an electrophilic substitution reaction, but only in the presence of a catalyst to yield bromobenzene. As a bromine molecule approaches the benzene ring, the delocalised electrons in the ring repel electrons in the bromine-bromine bond. It is the slightly positive end of the bromine molecule which acts as the electrophile. The presence of the aluminium chloride helps this polarisation.

Q158. According to Lowry - Bronsted Acid & Base Concept, H2O is:

• A. An acid
• B. A base
• C. An amphoteric species✓
• D. A salt

Explanation: Water is an example of an amphiprotic substance. This means it is able to donate a proton or accept a proton. The Bronsted/Lowry theory defines an acid or base by how they behave in a chemical reaction. Depending on what water reacts with it can act as an acid (proton donor) or a base (proton acceptor).

Q159. Which one of the following compounds is known as tertiary alcohol?

• A. 1 - Propanol
• B. 2- methyl - 2- propanol✓
• C. 2- methyl - 1- propanol
• D. 2 - propanol

Explanation: 2-methyl-2-propanol / tert-Butyl alcohol, also called tert-butanol or t-butanol, is the simplest tertiary alcohol, with a formula of (CH₃)₃COH.

Q160. Which of the following molecules has the largest number of shared pairs of electrons?

• A. C2H4✓
• B. N2
• C. CO2
• D. NH3

Explanation: C2H4 has the largest number of shared electrons as it has 12 valence electrons in total which are all part of a shared pair (4 electrons between the two central carbons and 2 electrons each between 4 carbon-Hydrogen bonds).N2 has 3 shared pairs of electron (6 electrons in total)CO2 has 4 shared pairs of electrons (8 electrons in total).NH3 has 3 shared pairs of electrons. (6 electrons in total)

Q161. Which of the following gas, when ignited, burns with a blue flame and is not very soluble in water?

• A. O2
• B. CO2
• C. N2✓
• D. He

Explanation: Firstly we should be clear that each gas has a specific type of flame depending on the nature of combustion and the products formed and so does all these gases which are given in the option. Nitrogen when ignited in the presence of oxygen it forms various oxides of nitrogen like NO, NO2 and burns with a blue flame.

Q162. The dilute solution of _ is called vinegar.

• A. Formic acid
• B. Oxalic acid
• C. Benzoic acid
• D. Acetic acid✓

Explanation: A dilute (approximately 5 percent by volume) solution of acetic acid produced by fermentation and oxidation of natural carbohydrates is called vinegar.

Q163. Percentage of nitrogen by volume in air is:

• A. 78%✓
• B. 50%
• C. 20%
• D. 98%

Explanation: By volume, the dry air in Earth's atmosphere is about 78.08 percent nitrogen, 20.95 percent oxygen, and 0.93 percent argon. A brew of trace gases accounts for the other approximately 0.04 percent, including the greenhouse gases carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide and ozone.

Q164. Bromination of alkene is shown in the following reaction. This reaction is used for:

• A. Detection of ketones
• B. Detection of double bond✓
• C. Identification of Primary and Secondary alcohols
• D. Detection of Aldehydes

Explanation: The electrophilic addition of bromine to Alkenes in the cold with pure liquid bromine, or with a solution of bromine in an organic solvent like tetrachloromethane allows for a testing of double bonds. Presence of double bonds causes the bromine to turn from red to colourless.

Q165. The correct order of increasing reactivity of the following alkyl halides, (I) CH3​CH2​CH2​Cl(II) CH3​CH2​CH2​CH2​Br(III) (CH3​)2​C(Cl)CH2​CH3​(IV) CH3​CH2​CH(Br)CH3​Towards SN​2 displacement is:

• A. I < II < III < IV
• B. III < I < IV < II✓
• C. III < I < II < IV
• D. II < IV < I < III
• E. I < III < II < IV

Explanation: The reactivity of alkyl halides towards SN2 depends on:(i) Degree of C-atoms Reactivity Order:1°>2°>3°(ii)More good the leaving group more will be reactivity of alkyl halide in SN2 since order of leaving group is I>Br>Cl>F Hence, correct order is: III<I<IV<||. Hence option B is correct.

Q166. Which of the following would react with ozone in the atmosphere?

• A. F*
• B. O2
• C. O*
• D. Cl*✓

Explanation: Chlorine and bromine atoms are also known as free radicals. Other free radicals in the stratosphere can also remove ozone. The chlorine atoms react with ozone to produce chlorine oxide and O2 molecules. The chlorine oxide molecule is also very reactive and can react with oxygen atoms to regenerate the chlorine atom, hence catalysing the destruction of the ozone layer.

Q167. A 5 watt LED bulb converts 80% of the power into light photons wavelength 660 nm. What is the number of photons emitted from the bulb in one second.

• A. 5.8 x 1034
• B. 7.5 x 1018
• C. 6.6 x 107
• D. 1.3 x 1019✓

Explanation: Photon energy formula: E=hc/λ , where h is planck's constantλ =660nmc= 3*108 m/sh= 6.626 × 10-34 JsE=6.626*10-34 * 3*108 / 660*10-9 (Js*m/s/m = J)E=3.01*10-19J(per photon)Total energy= 1sec*5watt*80/100(efficiency) = 4 ws = 4JNo. of photons = Total energy/E = 4J/3.01*10-19J = 1.3*1019

Q168. If Cv = 5/2 R, Cp will be:

• A. 2 / 5 R
• B. 2 / 7 R
• C. 5 / 2 R
• D. 7 / 2 R✓

Explanation: Since Cp - Cv = Rhence , X - 5/2 R = RX = 7/2 R

Q169. The rate at which work is being done is called:

• A. Power✓
• B. Energy
• C. Density
• D. Force

Explanation: The rate at which work is done is called power. It is expressed as the amount of work per unit of time.

Q170. What is the instantaneous power dissipated through a resistor of resistance 10 ohm if it is connected to an AC source of frequency 15 Hz at 1/180 sec if peak value is 20 V?

• A. 10 W✓
• B. 100 W
• C. 40 W
• D. Cannot be determined

Explanation: UsingVo = V sin(2𝜋ft) = 20 x sin (2𝜋 x 15 x 1/180) = 10 VUsingP = v2/ R = 102 / 10 = 10 W

Q171. A signal of -80 mV is applied to the inverting terminal of the amplifier while the non-inverting terminal is grounded. The gain of the amplifier is 25 using Rin(R1) equal to 3 ohms and Rf(R2) equal to 75 Ohms. What would be the value of the output signal?

• A. 200 mV
• B. -3 V
• C. 2 V✓
• D. 3 V

Explanation: Since Gain = 25Vout = Vin * Gain = -80mv * 25 = -2000 mv = -2V = 2V**** since a positive-going voltage at the inverting terminal gives a negative-going output voltage, hence the answer is positive 2V.

Q172. When the frequency of the applied force becomes equal to one of natural frequencies of body then the body oscillates with maximum displacement this phenomenon is called:

• A. Heating
• B. Resonance✓
• C. Reverberation
• D. Damping

Explanation: Resonance describes the phenomenon of increased amplitude that occurs when the frequency of a periodically applied force is equal or close to a natural frequency of the system on which it acts.

Q173. Force is a derived quantity, its derived unit can be expressed in terms of the base units as:

• A. Kgms-2✓
• B. Kgcms-2
• C. Kgm2s2
• D. Kgms2

Explanation: The following is the solution:Since F=ma ,where m: mass in kg,a: acceleration in m/s²,F = Kgms-2 = Newton

Q174. E/m of an electron is given by the relationship.

• A. e/m2(VB2r2)
• B. e/m=(V/Br)2
• C. e/m=V.r/B
• D. e/m=2V/B2r2✓

Explanation: The E/m (charge-to-mass ratio) of an electron is given by the formula:em=2V/B2r2​where:e = charge of electronm = mass of electronV = accelerating potential (voltage)B = magnetic field strengthr = radius of the circular path of the electron👉 This relationship comes from balancing the centripetal force and magnetic force on an electron moving in a circular path.

Q175. Lenz’s law in electromagnetic induction is the direct consequence of the principle of conservation of:

• A. Energy✓
• B. Charge
• C. Momentum
• D. Mass

Explanation: Lenz’s law is used to determine the direction of the induced current by a change in magnetic field. This direction of the induced current always opposes the direction of the magnetic field which produced it.Complete step by step answer:Lenz’s law states that the direction of an induced current by a changing magnetic field is such that the magnetic field created by the induced current opposes that change responsible for its production. This means, a change in magnetic field (B1) produces an induced current and the induce current also generates some magnetic field (B2) which is different from the initial magnetic field (B1). Now, the generated magnetic field (B2) by the induced current opposes the initial changing magnetic field (B1). Consider a magnet and a coil, such that the magnet is approaching towards the coil. When the north pole of a magnet is moved towards a coil, the face of the coil near to the magnet behaves like a north pole and tries to repel the approaching North Pole. To do this, the coil generates an anticlockwise current in itself. Here, we can see that electrical energy is not generated just by moving the magnet towards the coil. There is an opposite for the change in flux. Hence we can say that Lenz’s law is a consequence of conservation of energy. Thus, the right answer is Option A; Lenz’s law is a consequence of law of conservation of energy.

Q176. Which material will follow the below stress-strain curve?

• A. Copper
• B. Iron
• C. Lead
• D. Glass✓

Explanation: A stress-strain curve is a graphical way to show the reaction of a material when a load is applied. It shows a comparison between stress and strain.Brittle materials, which comprise cast iron, glass, and stone, are characterized by the fact that rupture occurs without any noticeable prior change in the rate of elongation. Thus, for brittle materials, there is no difference between the ultimate strength and the breaking strength.

Q177. A wheel starts rotating from the result with an angular acceleration of 2 rads-2 till its angular speed becomes 6 rad/s. The angular displacement of the wheel will be equal to:

• A. 4 rad
• B. 9 rad✓
• C. 12 rad
• D. 7 rad

Explanation: V = u + at6 = 0 + 2tt = 3 secondsØ = ut + 1/2at2Ø = 0 + 1/2 • 2 • 3²Ø = 9 radian.

Q178. Coulomb's law is given by the formula:F=kq1 q2 / r2The magnitude of k having the unit of Nm2 C-2 for free space is equal to:

• A. 9 x 107
• B. 6 x 107
• C. 10 x 109
• D. 9 x 109✓

Explanation: The Coulomb constant, the electric force constant, or the electrostatic constant (denoted ke, k or K) is a proportionality constant in electrostatics equations. In SI units it is equal to 8.9875517923(14)×109 (9*109)kg⋅m3⋅s−2⋅C−2

Q179. Simple Harmonic Motion of a body is described by which statements mentioned below:K: K.E is maximum when displacement x = 0L: P.E is maximum when x = 0M: P.E is maximum when x = ± x0

• A. K and L
• B. K and M✓
• C. K, L and M
• D. L and M

Explanation: Option B is the correct choice because it accurately describes the energy conditions in simple harmonic motion. Kinetic energy (K.E) reaches its maximum when the displacement is zero (x = 0), as the body is moving fastest through the equilibrium position. Potential energy (P.E), on the other hand, is maximum at the extreme positions (x = ± x0) because these are the points of maximum displacement from the equilibrium position. Option A is incorrect because it incorrectly states that potential energy is maximum at x = 0. Option C includes the same incorrect statement as Option A. Option D is incorrect for the same reason as it includes the incorrect statement that potential energy is maximum at x = 0.

Q180. Which of the following gives the relationship between linear velocity and angular velocity?

• A. v = rω✓
• B. v = rθ
• C. v=sω
• D. v=sθ

Explanation: The greater the rotation angle in a given amount of time, the greater the angular velocity. Angular velocity (ω) is analogous to linear velocity (v). We can write the relationship between linear velocity and angular velocity in two different ways: v=rω or ω=v/r.

Q181. A torch is rated 2.2 V 0.25 A. Calculate the charge passing through the bulb in one second and energy transferred by the passage of each coulomb of charge.

• A. 2.5 C and 0.55 J
• B. 0.25 C and 0.55 J✓
• C. 0.25 C and 2.2 V
• D. 2.25 V and 0.55 J

Explanation: Q= I*t = 0.25*1 = 0.25 CV = U/q U= V*q = 2.2V*0.25C = 0.55J

Q182. Energy consumed by 60 watt bulb in 2 minutes is equal to:

• A. 7.2 kilo joules✓
• B. 720 joules
• C. 120 joules
• D. 72000 joules

Explanation: Power=Energy/time Energy=power ×time 60 watt×120 sec =7200 J =7.2 kilo J.

Q183. If one mole of an ideal gas is heated at constant pressure, then the first law of thermodynamics can be written as:

• A. CpΔT = CvΔT + PΔV✓
• B. CvΔT = CpΔT + PΔV
• C. CpΔT = CvΔT + VΔP
• D. ΔCpT = ΔCvT + PΔV

Explanation: Heat supplied to the gas at constant pressure isΔQ=nCPΔTChange in internal energy,ΔU=nCVΔTChange in work done,ΔW = PΔVAccording to the first law of thermodynamicsΔQ=ΔU+ΔWnCPΔT= nCVΔT + PΔV

Q184. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron travelling with a speed of 1.0 x 107m/s is equal to, (h=6.6 x 10-34 Js and me= 9.1 x 10-31 kg)

• A. 7.3 x 1011 m
• B. 7.3 x 108 m
• C. 7.3 x 10-11 m✓
• D. 7.3 x 10-13 m

Explanation: De broglie wavelength of any particle: λ = h/p and p = mv ∴λ = h/mvλ = 6.6* 10-34 / (9.1*10-31*1.0*107)λ= 7.2527473e-11m

Q185. Find the mean translational kinetic energy of ideal hydrogen gas at 17 degrees Celsius.

• A. 6.21 x 10-21 J
• B. 5 x 10-21 J
• C. 6.21 x 10-12 J
• D. 6 x 10-21 J✓

Explanation: The mean translational kinetic energy of an ideal gas is calculated using the formula: K.E. = (3/2)kT, where k is Boltzmann's constant (approximately 1.38 x 10-23 J/K) and T is the absolute temperature in Kelvin. First, convert 17 degrees Celsius to Kelvin: T = 17 + 273.15 = 290.15 K. Plugging in the values:K.E. = (3/2)(1.38 x 10-23 J/K)(290.15 K) ≈ 6 x 10-21 J.This is the correct answer. The other options provide either significantly lower or higher values, indicating calculation errors or incorrect applications of the kinetic theory principles.

Q186. Calculate the activity (decaying atom per unit time) of radioactive strontium - 90 having 6.7 x 1021 atoms at t = 0. Decay constant of strontium - 90 is 8.3 x 10-10 s-1

• A. 8.01 x 1010 Bq
• B. 5.6 x 1011 s-1
• C. 5.6 x 1012 Bq✓
• D. 12 x 1011 Bq

Explanation: A=λN0e(-λt)where λ = decay constantA= (8.3*10-10)* (6.7*1021) * (e) (-8.3 x 10-10*0) = 5.561 *1012

Q187. If the time period of the oscillation is 20 micro-sec, then what will be the frequency of that oscillating body?

• A. 5000 Hz
• B. 50000 Hz✓
• C. 20000 Hz
• D. 1000 Hz

Explanation: T=1/FT=1/20×10-6F = 50000 Hz.

Q188. In photo-emission from a metal, if light of λ is replaced by light of wavelength λ / 4 , the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons.

• A. Decreases by an amount equal to half of an incident photon of wavelength λ
• B. Increases by an amount equal to four times energy of an incident photon of wavelength λ✓
• C. Increases by an amount equal to the work function of the metal
• D. Decreases by an amount equal to the energy of an incident photon of wavelength λ

Explanation: The maximum kinetic energy KEe of ejected electrons (photoelectrons) is given by KEe=hf−BE , where hf is the photon energy and BE is the binding energy (or work function) of the electron to the particular material.Since f = v/ λ when λ is replaced by λ/4 , f increases by 4 times and hence the energy of incident photons increases by 4 times.

Q189. A cyclist is travelling at 15 ms-1, she applies brakes so that she doesn't collide with the wall in front of her at a distance of 18 m. Calculate the magnitude of deceleration.

• A. 6.3 ms-2✓
• B. 5.3 ms-1
• C. 13 ms-1
• D. 12.5 ms-1

Explanation: Initial velocity, u=15m/sFinal velocity, v=0m/sDistance, s=18mAcceleration, a=?Using relation, v2 −u2 =2as02 −(15)2 =2a×18−225=36aa= 36 −225 ​ =−6.25m/s2So, deceleration is 6.25m/s2 which is equal 6.3m/s2

Q190. In a practical transformer mutual induction between primary and secondary coils takes place. In such transformer what can be deduced about the power.

• A. Power output = Power input
• B. Power output > Power input
• C. Power output ≥ Power input
• D. Power output < Power input✓

Explanation: The output power in a transformer is always less than the input power because of the different losses in a transformer. The losses may be Iron loss or core loss, hysteresis loss, eddy current loss, copper loss etc.

Q191. If slope of velocity time graph is not constant at different points then body is moving with:

• A. Uniform velocity
• B. changing acceleration✓
• C. Average acceleration
• D. Constant acceleration

Explanation: Since the slope of the velocity time graph represents the acceleration of the body, hence a changing slope of the graph means that the acceleration is also changing.

Q192. Electric potential due to 2uC charge at distance of one meter is equal to:

• A. 18 x 104 volt
• B. 1.8 x 106 volt
• C. 1.8 x 109 volt
• D. 1.8 x 104 volt✓

Explanation: V=KQ/r where K= coulomb's constantV=(9*109)*(2*10-6)/1 = 18000 volts = 1.8*104

Q193. Kirchhoff's first law is manifestation of:

• A. Law of conservation of momentum
• B. Law of conservation mass
• C. Law of conservation of energy
• D. Law of conservation of charge✓

Explanation: Kirchhoff's first law states that the algebraic sum of current flowing into a junction is zero. This rule corresponds to conservation of charge which states that total charge in a closed system remains constant because current is the rate of flow of charge.

Q194. Light photons, each of energy 3.5 x 10-19J falls on the cathode of a photocell. The current through the cell is reduced to zero by taking the cathode to a potential +0.25 V relative to anode. The work function of the cathode is:

• A. 3.35 x 10-19 J
• B. 3.5 x 10-19 J
• C. 3.25 x 10-19 J
• D. 3.1 x 10-19 J✓

Explanation: Explanation is given below.

Q195. A diffraction grating has 500 lines per mm, its grating element d is equal to:

• A. 2 x 10-6 meter✓
• B. 2 x 10-2 meter
• C. 2 x 10-2 cm
• D. 2 x 10-6 cm

Explanation: The explanation is given below.Grating element = 1/N = 1/500 = 0.2 * 10-2 mm = 2 * 10-3 mm = 2 * 10-6 meter.

Q196. In the case of linear deformation, the ratio of tensile stress to tensile strain is called:

• A. Energy stored in a stretched wire
• B. Young’s double slit phenomenon
• C. Bulk Modulus
• D. Young’s Modulus✓

Explanation: The Young's modulus (E) is a property of the material that tells us how easily it can stretch and deform and is defined as the ratio of tensile stress (σ) to tensile strain (ε). Where stress is the amount of force applied per unit area (σ = F/A) and strain is extension per unit length (ε = dl/l).

Q197. What is the name of the energy which is released when an atom is formed from its constituent particles?

• A. Atomic Energy
• B. Radioactive Energy
• C. Nuclear Energy
• D. Binding Energy✓

Explanation: Binding energy, amount of energy required to separate a particle from a system of particles or to disperse all the particles of the system. Binding energy is especially applicable to subatomic particles in atomic nuclei, to electrons bound to nuclei in atoms, and to atoms and ions bound together in crystals.

Q198. Calculate the half life of Bismuth-214 which has a decay constant of 4.3 x 10-4 s-1:

• A. 2.9 x 10-3 s
• B. 1.6 x 10^3 s✓
• C. 3.9 x 103 s
• D. 2.9 x 103 s

Explanation: T1/2 = ln 2/𝞴 = 0.693/ 4.3 x 10-4 = 1.6 x 103 where 𝞴 = decay constant.

Q199. What is the main feature required by the optical fiber for the propagation of light in an optical fiber?

• A. Optical glass should be cleaned
• B. Light should be totally confined within the fiber✓
• C. They are cheaper than copper wire
• D. LED light must be used

Explanation: Optical fibers typically include a core surrounded by a transparent cladding material with a lower index of refraction. Light is kept in the core by the phenomenon of total internal reflection which causes the fiber to act as a waveguide. To ensure proper transmission light should be confined within the fiber.

Q200. Two long, parallel conductors which are free to move are arranged 1.0 cm apart. A steady current of 20 A flows in each of the conductors in the same direction. The conductors:

• A. Remains stationary
• B. Move towards each other✓
• C. Move away from each other
• D. Move at right angles to each other

Explanation: When two parallel wires carry current in the same direction, they exert equal and opposite attractive forces on each other. This causes them to move towards one another.

Q201. A stone of mass 2.0 kg is dropped from a rest position 5.0 m above the ground. What is its velocity at a height of 3.0 m above the ground?

• A. 12.5 m/s
• B. 6.3m/s✓
• C. 9.3 m/s
• D. 16.0 m/s

Explanation: Refer to following explanation

Q202. In case of half wave rectification the resistance of diode during negative half of A.C is:

• A. Very high✓
• B. Very low
• C. A few ohms
• D. Negative

Explanation: A half-wave rectifier converts an AC signal to DC by passing either the negative or positive half-cycle of the waveform and blocking the other. Half-wave rectifiers can be easily constructed using only one diode, but are less efficient than full-wave rectifiers. During negative half of half wave rectifier, the diode is reverse biased i.e the current of few ohms and hence very high resistance.

Q203. Newton first law of motion is also known as:

• A. Law of inertia✓
• B. Law of electromagnetism
• C. Law of universal gravity
• D. Law of conservation of momentum

Explanation: The property of a body to remain at rest or to remain in motion with constant velocity is called inertia. Newton's first law is often called the law of inertia.

Q204. When a potential difference is applied across the ends of a uniform wire of length l and radius r, a current I flows in the wire. If same potential difference is applied to the ends of another wire of the same material but of length 2l and radius 2r, the current in the wire is:

• A. I/4
• B. 2I✓
• C. I
• D. I/2

Explanation: R=ρl/AWhen radius is doubled : Area=2*pi*(2r) = 2*pi*4rHence the area has increased by 4 times.New resistance : Rx = ρ*2l/4A = ½ RV=IR where V remains same and R becomes halfI = V / ½RI become equal to 2I.

Q205. A shock wave is produced due to an earthquake which makes the buildings move in the direction of the shock wave. Which progressive wave would this be?

• A. Longitudinal wave✓
• B. Transverse wave
• C. Material wave
• D. Particle wave

Explanation: The correct answer is Longitudinal wave because shock waves, such as those produced during an earthquake, cause the particles in the medium (like the ground) to oscillate in the same direction as the wave travels. This parallel movement of particles is characteristic of longitudinal waves. In contrast, Transverse waves have particle motion perpendicular to the wave direction, which does not apply to shock waves in this context. The term Material wave is too vague and does not specifically describe seismic waves, while Particle wave is not a recognized category in wave physics and does not provide a meaningful description of any wave type.

Q206. A neutron having mass equal to a proton (mp = 1.6 x 10-27 kg) is moving in a magnetic field of intensity 1.20 x 10-3 T with a speed of 2.0 x 107 ms-1 . What is the maximum force experienced by the neutron?

• A. 3.84 x 10-15 N
• B. 0✓
• C. 3.84 x 10-12 N
• D. 38.4 x 10-15 N

Explanation: Neutrons do not experience magnetic fields because it's a neutral particle, moving charged particles only experience the magnetic force

Q207. In SHM the kinetic energy of the body is maximum when:

• A. The body is at mean position✓
• B. The body is at extreme position from the mean
• C. The body is exactly half way down between mean and extreme position
• D. The body is somewhere between mean and extreme position

Explanation: In simple harmonic motion, there is a continuous interchange of kinetic energy and potential energy. At maximum displacement from the equilibrium point, potential energy is a maximum while kinetic energy is zero. At the equilibrium point (mean position) the potential energy is zero and the kinetic energy is a maximum.

Q208. The different magnitudes of same physical quantities are measured by comparing them to:

• A. Available scale
• B. Standard size✓
• C. Each other
• D. Other physical quantities

Explanation: When the different magnitudes of certain physical quantities are measured then it should be measured according to a standard measure which is the same for everyone throughout the world. So that the distinguished quantities and the differences in the magnitude can be perfectly measured.

Q209. Force experienced per unit positive test charge at a point in an electric field is the definition of:

• A. Electric potential energy
• B. Electric field strength✓
• C. Electric potential
• D. Electric field

Explanation: The strength of an electric field E at any point may be defined as the electric, or Coulomb, force F exerted per unit positive electric charge q at that point, or simply E = F/q.

Q210. A metal rod of length 10.0 cm is moving at a speed of 0.5 ms-1 in a direction perpendicular to a 0.20 T magnetic field. Find the emf produced in the rod.

• A. 2.0 x 10-3 V
• B. 0.50 x 10-2 V
• C. 1.0 x 10-2 V✓
• D. 1.0 x 10-3 V

Explanation: Motional emf = Bℓv (B,ℓ, and v perpendicular)Emf = (0.20T) * (0.1m) * (0.5m/s) = 0.01 = 1 * 10-2 V

Q211. Demonstrate correct use of articles and prepositions to clarify meaning:The dog sprang _ him.

• A. On
• B. Upon✓
• C. In
• D. Over

Explanation: The sentence "The dog sprang upon him" suggests that the dog leaped or jumped aggressively towards him. The preposition "upon" is used to indicate a sudden or forceful action in this context.

Q212. I _ cricket every morning.

• A. Playing
• B. Plays
• C. Play✓
• D. Played

Explanation: When talking about a fact or a habitual activity, we use the present indefinite tense (also called the simple present tense). Hence, the correct option here would be 'play'.

Q213. Demonstrate correct use of articles and prepositions to clarify meaning:I advised her _ drink it.

• A. Don't
• B. Not to✓
• C. To not
• D. To don't

Explanation: A preposition must be placed before the adverb. Hence, the correct option is option B.

Q214. My parents _ near Lahore.

• A. Living
• B. Are living
• C. Lives
• D. Live✓

Explanation: Parents is a plural noun so the verb used should be singular.

Q215. The two machines _ considerably. One has an electric motor, and the other one runs on oil.

• A. Different
• B. Differentiate
• C. Differ✓
• D. Difference

Explanation: the verb "differ" is the correct choice to complete the sentence and describe how the two machines have considerable differences between them.

Q216. Which one has proper use of preposition?

• A. "If I am lying, the curse of Allah be on me and may I be drowned in some period. May I even be deprived from a decent burial!"
• B. "If I am lying. the curse of Allah be on me and may I be drowned in some period, May I even be deprived at a decent burial!"
• C. "If I am lying, the curse of Allah be on me and may I be drowned in some period. May I even deprived off a decent burial."
• D. "If I am lying, the curse of Allah be on me and may I be drowned in some period. May I even be deprived of a decent burial!"✓

Explanation: The preposition “of” is used to show possession or belonging. In this sentence, the speaker is saying that they may be deprived of something that they would normally have or deserve, which is a decent burial. The other options use incorrect prepositions or omit them altogether.

Q217. Which of the following sentences is grammatically incorrect?

• A. Is this your jacket?
• B. Whose jacket is this?
• C. Is this jacket yours?
• D. Who's jacket is this?✓

Explanation: Another way to ask this question is to say “To whom does this jacket belong?”, so we’re talking about possession. “Who’s” is a contraction that’s short for “who is” or "who has", and it does not show ownership. The corrected form is noted above.

Q218. Which of the following is grammatically correct?

• A. In the end, they found there money over they're by the ATM.
• B. In the end, they found they're money over their by the ATM.
• C. In the end, they found their money over there by the ATM.✓
• D. In the end, they found there money over their by the ATM.

Explanation: In this sentence, we have two homophones—their and there. In this first instance, we need to show possession, so the correct form is their. In the second instance, we need an adverb representing a place, so the correct form is there.

Q219. Pick the correct option.

• A. No star is brighter than the moon.✓
• B. No star is more bright than the moon.
• C. No star is brighter then the moon.
• D. No star is brighter than moon.

Explanation: Option A is correct because it follows proper comparative structure: "No [noun] is brighter than [another noun]." It clearly states that the moon’s brightness exceeds that of any star.

Q220. The ability to distinguish between two separate points/objects is:

• A. Magnification
• B. Fractionation
• C. Centrifugation
• D. Resolution✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Resolution. Resolution is a key concept in microscopy and imaging, as it defines the ability to distinguish between two closely positioned objects as separate entities. This clarity is essential for detailed analysis in cell biology.While Magnification increases the size of the image, it does not enhance clarity or detail necessary for resolving two close points. Fractionation and Centrifugation are techniques related to separating components of mixtures based on size or density, and do not pertain to the optical resolution of images.