Uhs Mdcat 2024 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. _words spoken in earnest will convince him

• A. A few✓
• B. The few
• C. Few
• D. Fewer

Explanation: A is the correct option. This phrase indicates some words that are spoken seriously, which fits well in the context of the sentence, suggesting that certain words can convince him.

Q2. Choose the correct sentence.

• A. It was greatly good by you to proposed day's picnic at murree.
• B. It was awfully good by you to proposed a day's picnic in Murree.
• C. It was awfully good of you to propose a day's picnic at Murree.✓
• D. It was very good off you too propose days picnic in Murree.

Explanation: Option C is correct. This option is correct. This is the correct option. It uses the right phrases and punctuation, and both "a day's picnic" and "at Murree" are properly used.

Q3. Choose the correct sentence

• A. The first space traveller was Dennis Tito from the United States.✓
• B. The First Space Traveller Was Dennis Tito, from, the United states
• C. The first space traveller was Dennis Tito-from united State
• D. The first space travaler was Dennis Tito, from the United States

Explanation: A is the correct option. This option is correct. This is the correct option. It uses proper capitalization of proper nouns, punctuation, and structure.

Q4. Choose the correct sentence

• A. You have often heard of me speeking of my friend Wahaj waheed a barrister here
• B. You have often heard me speak of my friend, Wahaj Waheed, who is a barrister here.✓
• C. You have often heard me. Speak off my friend, wahaj waheed who is a Barrister here
• D. you have often heard me speak about my friend ; wahaj waheed-a barrister hear

Explanation: B is the correct option. This option is correct. This is the correct option. It properly uses "speak," includes the correct capitalization for "Wahaj Waheed," and has appropriate commas to set off the name and the relative clause.

Q5. Choose the correct sentence

• A. “The unexamined life,” said Socrates, “is unfit to be lived by man.”✓
• B. The inexamined life, said Socrates, is unfit to be lived by man”
• C. “The unexamined life said Socrates” is disfit to be lived by man.
• D. The disexamined life” said Socrates is unfit to be lived by man.

Explanation: A is the correct answer Because it has Correct sentence structure, proper punctuation, and the correct wording of Socrates’ famous quote.

Q6. Choose the correct sentence.

• A. Gulliver travels was writen to swift.
• B. Gulliver travels was writen at swift.
• C. Gulliver's Travels was written by Swift.✓
• D. Gulliver's travel was written by swift.

Explanation: This option is correct because all the punctuation marks are used according to punctuation rules

Q7. Choose the correct sentence:

• A. There's mr. hashim whome they say is the best portrait painter in the town.
• B. There's Mr. Hashim, who they say is the best portrait painter in the town.✓
• C. Theres’ Mr. Hashim which they say is the portrait painter in the town.
• D. There's Mr. Hashim who they say is best portrait painter in the town.

Explanation: B is the correct option. This is the correct option. It uses the proper capitalization for "Mr. Hashim" and correctly employs "who" to introduce the relative clause. The comma before "who" is also appropriately placed.

Q8. Fill in the blank with appropriate preposition.He takes _ his father.

• A. Up
• B. Down
• C. After✓
• D. In

Explanation: C is the correct option. This is the correct choice. "Takes after" means to resemble or have similar characteristics to someone, usually a parent.

Q9. Choose the correct option according to the subject verb agreement sentence.

• A. In 1838 schleiden suggested that all plants were made of cells✓
• B. In 1838 schleiden suggest that all plants were made of cells
• C. In 1838 schleiden suggested that all plants were make of cells.
• D. In 1838 schleiden suggested to all plants were made of cells

Explanation: Correct grammar and structure tense "suggested" matches the past tense of 1838.

Q10. Choose the correct sentence.

• A. She has beauty brains and wealth- a rare combination.
• B. She has beauty, brains, and wealth- a rare combination.✓
• C. She has beauty, brains and wealth- a rare combination.
• D. She has beauty, brains, and wealth: a rare combination.

Explanation: The correct answer is Option B: She has beauty, brains, and wealth- a rare combination. This sentence uses the Oxford comma correctly, enhancing clarity in a list. However, a space is required before the dash to fully adhere to punctuation rules. The other options either omit necessary punctuation marks (like the Oxford comma) or incorrectly use punctuation marks (like a colon instead of a dash).

Q11. Choose the correct spellings;

• A. Pharaoh✓
• B. Pharoah
• C. Pheroh
• D. Pheraoh

Explanation: 'Pharaoh" is correct spellings. It refers to the title given to the ancient Kings of Egypt. Hence, option A is correct.

Q12. Choose the sentence that is punctuated correctly :

• A. He said to his disciples “Watch and pray. ”
• B. He said to his disciples, “Watch and pray.”✓
• C. He said to his disciples, “watch and, pray”
• D. He said to his disciples’ “ watch and pray. ”

Explanation: This option has correct Grammer and Punctuations. The direct speech “Watch and pray.” is correctly enclosed in quotation marks.

Q13. I……….. him for a long time.

• A. Have never known✓
• B. Had never knew
• C. Had never been known
• D. Would never knew

Explanation: Option A is the correct choice. It uses the present perfect tense to indicate that up until now, the speaker has not known him for a long time.

Q14. The soup _ good

• A. Taste
• B. Tastes✓
• C. Is tasting
• D. Has taste

Explanation: The correct answer is 'Tastes.' In the sentence 'The soup tastes good,' 'tastes' is the present simple form of the verb, which is used to describe a general truth or characteristic. The subject 'soup' is singular, so the verb must also be in a singular form. The other options are incorrect for the following reasons: 'Taste' does not agree with the singular subject, 'Is tasting' suggests a temporary action rather than a general quality, and 'Has taste' is awkward in this context and not commonly used to describe food.

Q15. Pick the correct option.

• A. The supervisor has nor will ever compromise.
• B. The supervisor have nor will ever compromise.
• C. The supervisor has not compromised nor will ever compromise.✓
• D. The supervisor has nor will ever compromised.

Explanation: This is the correct option. It uses the appropriate verb form and structure to convey the intended meaning.

Q16. What does the word "SPILL" mean?

• A. Coil
• B. Deliver
• C. Spoil
• D. Spread✓

Explanation: The word 'spill' refers to the act of causing a liquid or substance to flow over the edges of its container, which inherently means to spread it out over a surface. Therefore, the most accurate synonym is 'spread'.

Q17. What does the word "ANCESTOR" mean?

• A. Collection of stars
• B. Branch of astrology
• C. Forefathers✓
• D. Type of receptors

Explanation: A person who was in someone's family in past times. Therefore, "forefathers" is the most suitable option.

Q18. Which of the following neurotransmitters is lying outside the central nervous system?

• A. Acetylcholine✓
• B. Endorphins
• C. Gamma-aminobutyric acid
• D. Dopamine

Explanation: Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter involved in both the central and peripheral nervous systems. It plays a key role in muscle contraction, memory, learning, and attention. In the central nervous system, acetylcholine is important for cognitive functions, while in the peripheral nervous system, it enables communication between nerves and muscles. Low levels of acetylcholine are associated with conditions like Alzheimer's disease.

Q19. Depolarization during conduction of nerve impulse is due to:

• A. Inward movement of Na+✓
• B. Inward movement of K+
• C. Outward movement of K+
• D. Outward movement of Na+

Explanation: The inward movement of Na+ (sodium ions) occurs during the depolarization phase of a nerve impulse. When a neuron is stimulated, voltage-gated sodium channels open, allowing Na+ to rush into the cell. This influx of positively charged sodium ions causes the inside of the neuron to become less negative (or more positive), leading to the generation of an action potential. This rapid change in membrane potential is what propagates the nerve impulse along the axon.

Q20. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the autonomic nervous system?

• A. Regulate response of visceral organs
• B. Regulate response of skeletal muscles✓
• C. Regulate response of glands
• D. Regulate response of smooth muscles

Explanation: The autonomic nervous system (ANS) does not directly regulate the response of skeletal muscles. Skeletal muscles are controlled by the somatic nervous system, which governs voluntary movements. However, the ANS can indirectly affect skeletal muscles by regulating blood flow, oxygen delivery, and metabolic processes during physical activity, especially through the sympathetic division during "fight or flight" responses.

Q21. Taste receptor is an example of:

• A. Mechanoreceptors
• B. Nociceptors
• C. Photoreceptors
• D. Chemoreceptors✓

Explanation: Chemoreceptors are specialized sensory receptors that detect changes in the chemical composition of the environment. They respond to specific chemical stimuli, such as the levels of oxygen (O₂), carbon dioxide (CO₂), and pH in the blood or other body fluids. Chemoreceptors play a critical role in regulating respiratory and cardiovascular functions by signaling the nervous system to adjust breathing rate, heart rate, and blood pressure based on changes in blood gas levels. They are primarily located in the carotid bodies, aortic bodies, and the medulla of the brainstem.

Q22. Mesosomes are the invaginations of which bacterial cell structure?

• A. Cell Wall
• B. Cell Membrane✓
• C. Plasmid
• D. Cysts

Explanation: Mesosomes were once thought to be infoldings of the plasma membrane found in some bacteria, particularly Gram-positive species, and were believed to play roles in cell division, respiration, DNA replication, and nutrient absorption by increasing the surface area of the cell membrane. They were hypothesized to help anchor the cell division machinery, contain respiratory enzymes, and assist in organizing the bacterial chromosome during replication. However, subsequent research has demonstrated that mesosomes are artifacts resulting from chemical fixation techniques used during electron microscopy sample preparation. Therefore, they are not considered part of the natural structure of bacterial cells.

Q23. Which of the following belongs to chordates?

• A. Spider
• B. Earthworm
• C. Trout Fish✓
• D. Star Fish

Explanation: Trout fish belong to the phylum Chordata, which is characterized by animals that possess a notochord at some stage of development, a dorsal nerve cord, pharyngeal slits, and a post-anal tail. Trout specifically belong to the class Actinopterygii (ray-finned fishes) and the order Salmoniformes. They are typically found in freshwater habitats like rivers and lakes and are known for their streamlined bodies and gills for respiration. Trout are popular among anglers and play a significant role in freshwater ecosystems as both predators and prey.

Q24. What is true about enzymes?

• A. Fibrous proteins
• B. No effect on end product✓
• C. Consumed in reaction
• D. Non-specific

Explanation: The Enzymes do not change the end product of a reaction; they only speed up the process without being consumed.

Q25. Induced fit model of enzyme activity suggests that enzyme:

• A. Cannot modify its active sites
• B. Can bind to a single substrate
• C. Can catalyze related reaction✓
• D. Usually belongs to non-regulatory enzyme

Explanation: The flexibility in the induced fit model allows some enzymes to catalyze related reactions, particularly when similar substrates can fit into the active site after the enzyme undergoes a conformational change.

Q26. Female reproductive system consists all of the following except:

• A. Ovaries
• B. Oviduct
• C. Cervix
• D. Seminiferous tubules✓

Explanation: Seminiferous tubules are coiled structures located within the testes and are the site of sperm production (spermatogenesis) in males. Each testis contains several hundred meters of these tubules, which are lined with germinal epithelium consisting of spermatogenic cells that develop into spermatozoa.

Q27. Chromosomal abnormality in Turner syndrome is represented by?

• A. XXX
• B. XYY
• C. XO✓
• D. XXY

Explanation: XO refers to a specific chromosomal condition known as Turner syndrome, which occurs in females. This condition is characterized by the complete or partial absence of one of the two X chromosomes, leading to a total of 45 chromosomes instead of the typical 46 (XX).

Q28. Which one of the following hormones is responsible for the labor pains in a human female at the time of the birth of a baby?

• A. Estrogen
• B. Progesterone
• C. Oxytocin✓
• D. Corticosteroid

Explanation: During labor, oxytocin stimulates contractions of the uterine muscles, facilitating childbirth. It is sometimes administered artificially to induce or strengthen labor.

Q29. The change in frequency of alleles at a locus that occurs by chance is known as:

• A. Mutation
• B. Genetic Drift✓
• C. Non-Random mating
• D. Speciation

Explanation: Genetic drift is a mechanism of evolution that refers to random changes in allele frequencies within a population, especially in small populations. Unlike natural selection, which involves traits being favored due to survival or reproductive advantages, genetic drift occurs by chance. Over time, it can lead to the loss of genetic variation, fixation of certain alleles, or even the divergence of populations. Events like the bottleneck effect (drastic population size reduction) or the founder effect (a new population started by a small group) are examples where genetic drift can have a strong impact.

Q30. Fluid secreted by Sertoli cells provides a liquid medium, protection, and nourishment to:

• A. Oocyte
• B. Sperms✓
• C. Polar body
• D. Spermatogonia

Explanation: Sertoli cells secrete testicular fluid into the seminiferous tubules, providing a liquid medium that supports sperm development. This fluid nourishes and protects sperm cells, facilitating their maturation and transport within the male reproductive system. Additionally, Sertoli cells form the blood-testis barrier, shielding developing sperm from harmful substances and immune responses.

Q31. Identify the correct pair of vestigial organs:

• A. Ear Muscles & Vermiform appendix✓
• B. Heart and Liver
• C. Ear Muscles & Liver
• D. Vermiform appendix & Heart

Explanation: The ear muscles, which assist in the movement of the outer ear, are considered vestigial in humans. While they allow for minor ear movement, their function has diminished over time, reflecting an evolutionary past when they may have played a more significant role in sound localization. In contrast, the vermiform appendix is also regarded as a vestigial organ. It is thought to be a remnant of a larger cecum used by herbivorous ancestors for digesting cellulose. Although it has some potential immune functions related to gut flora, its digestive role in humans is minimal, underscoring its vestigial status.

Q32. Which of the following increases genetic variation the most?

• A. Cloning
• B. Self-pollination
• C. Crossing over✓
• D. Asexual reproduction

Explanation: Crossing over produces new allele combinations during meiosis, greatly enhancing variation. Asexual methods do not increase variation.

Q33. Corpus luteum during female reproductive cycle produces:

• A. Testosterone
• B. Follicle stimulating hormone
• C. Luteinizing hormone
• D. Progesterone✓

Explanation: Progesterone is a steroid hormone produced primarily by the corpus luteum in the ovaries after ovulation and, during pregnancy, by the placenta. Its production begins with the conversion of cholesterol into pregnenolone through a series of enzymatic steps. Pregnenolone is then converted into progesterone via enzymes such as 3β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase. This hormone plays a key role in regulating the menstrual cycle, preparing the uterus for pregnancy, and maintaining pregnancy if fertilization occurs. Additionally, small amounts of progesterone are produced by the adrenal glands in both sexes.

Q34. Which of the following statements about natural selection is not true?

• A. It affects variations that are heritable
• B. It is selected by a breeder✓
• C. It can improve the adaptation of species
• D. It is regional in nature

Explanation: When traits are selected by a breeder, this process is known as artificial selection, not natural selection. In artificial selection, breeders choose individuals with specific desirable traits—such as size, color, or temperament—to reproduce, thereby directly influencing which traits are passed on to the next generation. This is different from natural selection, where environmental pressures determine which traits are advantageous, and there is no human intervention. While both processes involve the passing of favorable traits to future generations, artificial selection is driven by human preferences, whereas natural selection is governed by the natural environment

Q35. The formula calculating the frequency of genotypes and alleles in a population gene pool is known as:

• A. Hardy-Weinberg Equation✓
• B. Lamarck Equation
• C. Darwin Equation
• D. James Hutton Equation

Explanation: The Hardy-Weinberg equation is a mathematical model used in population genetics to describe the genetic equilibrium within a population. It predicts how gene frequencies will behave under ideal conditions, assuming no evolution is occurring.

Q36. Due to the process of follicle atresia:

• A. Follicles reach maximum size
• B. Follicle degenerates✓
• C. Graafian follicle ovulates
• D. The follicle starts to mature

Explanation: The follicle that is not selected for ovulation begins to break down. The oocyte and surrounding granulosa cells undergo apoptosis (programmed cell death).

Q37. The idea of inheritance of acquired characteristics was presented by:

• A. Jean Baptist Lamarck✓
• B. Charles Darwin
• C. Thomas Malthus
• D. Alfred Wallace

Explanation: Jean-Baptiste Lamarck (1744–1829) was a French naturalist known for his early ideas on evolution, articulated in Philosophie Zoologique (1809). He proposed that organisms adapt to their environments through the use or disuse of traits, a concept summarized as the "inheritance of acquired characteristics." For instance, he suggested that giraffes developed long necks because their ancestors stretched to reach higher leaves. Although his theories were later discredited in favor of Darwin's natural selection, Lamarck's work was significant in the history of evolutionary thought, introducing the idea that species can change over time.

Q38. Main function of the epididymis is to:

• A. Transport sperms✓
• B. Connect with urethra
• C. Produce semen
• D. Hold the process of spermatogenesis

Explanation: During ejaculation, sperms are transported from the epididymis through the vas deferens and into the urethra for expulsion.

Q39. According to endosymbiosis theory, flagella may have been derived by the ingestion of prokaryotes similar to:

• A. Amoeboid prokaryote
• B. Aerobic bacterium
• C. Spirochete✓
• D. Spirillum

Explanation: In the context of the endosymbiotic theory, spirochetes are interesting because some scientists hypothesize that certain spirochetes may have played a role in the evolution of eukaryotic cells. This theory suggests that early eukaryotic ancestors may have engulfed spirochete-like bacteria, leading to the development of complex cellular structures. This relationship could have contributed to the evolution of unique cellular processes seen in modern eukaryotes, illustrating the potential impact of these prokaryotic organisms on the evolution of life.

Q40. Immediate next stage of spermatogonia differentiation is:

• A. Secondary spermatocyte
• B. Spermatids
• C. Primary spermatocytes✓
• D. Sperms

Explanation: Primary spermatocytes are diploid cells in the testes formed from spermatogonia. They undergo meiosis I to produce two haploid secondary spermatocytes. Primary spermatocytes are located in the seminiferous tubules and are essential for sperm production.

Q41. Insulin converts glucose into:

• A. Vitamins
• B. Minerals
• C. Lipids✓
• D. Cortisone

Explanation: Lipids are organic compounds that include fats, oils, and waxes. They are key for energy storage, forming cell membranes, and insulating the body.

Q42. Which of the following is included in paired cranial bones?

• A. Temporal✓
• B. Occipital
• C. Frontal
• D. Vomer

Explanation: The temporal bones are located on the sides and base of the skull, near the ears.

Q43. About 70% of the carbon dioxide is carried in blood as:

• A. Carbonate
• B. Bicarbonate✓
• C. Tricarbonate
• D. Carbonic anhydrase

Explanation: About 70 percent of CO2 is transported in the form of Bicarbonate ions.

Q44. Which of the following skeletal disorders is an example of an autoimmune disorder?

• A. Sciatica
• B. Spondylosis
• C. Rheumatoid arthritis✓
• D. Rickets

Explanation: Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is an autoimmune disorder that causes chronic inflammation of the joints. It occurs when the immune system mistakenly attacks the synovium (the lining of the joints), leading to pain, swelling, stiffness, and eventual joint damage. RA can also affect other organs in the body. Treatment includes medications to reduce inflammation, manage pain, and slow joint damage, as well as physical therapy.

Q45. Range of normal total lung capacity in humans is:

• A. 5-6 liter.✓
• B. 8-9 liter
• C. 10-11 liter
• D. 12-13 liter

Explanation: The normal lung capacity of an average adult human is about 5 to 6 liters. This total lung capacity (TLC) includes various volumes, such as tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, expiratory reserve volume, and residual volume. However, individual capacities can vary based on factors like age, gender, and fitness level.

Q46. Which feature is possessed by smooth muscles?

• A. Voluntary
• B. Branched
• C. Uninucleate✓
• D. Striated appearance

Explanation: Muscles that are uni-nucleate, meaning they contain a single nucleus per cell, primarily include cardiac muscle and smooth muscle. Cardiac muscle cells, or cardiomyocytes, are typically uninucleate, although some may have two nuclei. These involuntary muscles are found in the heart and are responsible for pumping blood, with their uni-nucleate structure aiding in the coordinated contraction through intercalated discs. Similarly, smooth muscle fibers are also uninucleate and are located in the walls of hollow organs, such as the intestines and blood vessels. Smooth muscles are involuntary as well, regulating essential functions like peristalsis in the digestive tract and controlling blood flow. Together, cardiac and smooth muscles play crucial roles in various physiological processes due to their uninucleate characteristics.

Q47. Respiration in Pseudomonas bacteria is:

• A. Aerobic✓
• B. Anaerobic
• C. Facultative
• D. Microaerophill

Explanation: Aerobic organisms are microorganisms and other living beings that require oxygen for their survival and growth. They use oxygen in the process of aerobic respiration, a metabolic pathway that generates energy efficiently by oxidizing organic substrates.

Q48. The accumulation of ‘lactic acid’ in the muscles results in:

• A. Extreme fatigue✓
• B. Muscle contraction
• C. Paralysis
• D. Convulsion

Explanation: Extreme fatigue, or severe tiredness, is an overwhelming sense of exhaustion that isn't relieved by rest. It can be caused by various factors, including physical exertion, stress, sleep disorders, medical conditions (like anemia or thyroid issues), or mental health disorders (like depression). It may impact daily activities and overall quality of life.

Q49. Autotrophic mode of nutrition in an organism depends upon:

• A. Saprotrophic mode
• B. Parasitic mode
• C. Photosynthesis mode✓
• D. Obligate mode

Explanation: Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants, algae, and some bacteria convert light energy into chemical energy, using carbon dioxide and water to produce glucose and oxygen. This process is vital for life on Earth, as it provides oxygen and is the foundation of the food chain. Autotrophic mode of nutrition in an organism depends upon the photosynthetic mode.

Q50. Thick filaments in skeletal muscles are composed of:

• A. Actin
• B. Myosin✓
• C. Tropomyosin
• D. Troponin

Explanation: The thick muscle filament is primarily composed of myosin proteins. In muscle fibers, thick filaments work together with thin filaments (actin) to facilitate muscle contraction.

Q51. Prokaryotic cells lack:

• A. Mesosomes
• B. Ribosomes
• C. Storage bodies
• D. Membrane bound organelles✓

Explanation: Prokaryotic cells, such as bacteria and archaea, lack membrane-bound organelles like a nucleus, mitochondria, or endoplasmic reticulum. Their cellular processes occur directly in the cytoplasm or at the plasma membrane. However, they do have structures like ribosomes and storage bodies, which are not membrane-bound. This simplicity distinguishes them from eukaryotic cells, which contain complex organelles.

Q52. Bacterial genome becomes diploid:

• A. After fertilization of gametes
• B. Before spore formation
• C. During binary fission✓
• D. After binary fission

Explanation: The circular bacterial genome is replicated. The process begins at the origin of replication, where the DNA unwinds and new complementary strands are synthesized, resulting in two identical copies of the genome.

Q53. In the journey of electrons from photosystem II to photosystem I plastocyanin is reduced by:

• A. Plastoquinone
• B. Cytochrome complex✓
• C. P700
• D. Primary electron acceptor of PS1

Explanation: Plastocyanin is reduced when it accepts an electron from the cytochrome b6f complex, and this electron reduces the copper ion in plastocyanin from Cu²⁺ to Cu⁺. This process is essential for transferring electrons between photosystem II and photosystem I in the electron transport chain of photosynthesis.

Q54. Enzyme NADP reductase is responsible for:

• A. Reducing NADP+✓
• B. Oxidizing NADP+
• C. Reducing Ferredoxin
• D. Reducing P700

Explanation: NADP reductase is an enzyme that plays a key role in the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis. It is responsible for transferring electrons from ferredoxin to NADP+, reducing it to NADPH.

Q55. The PS II, during light reaction,s receives electrons from splitting:

• A. Water✓
• B. Plastoquinone
• C. Plastocyanin
• D. Ferredoxin

Explanation: Water is the true source of electrons for PS II, where photolysis (splitting of water) provides the electrons to start the chain.

Q56. Mono-saccharides have a general formula represented by:

• A. (CH2O)n✓
• B. C(H2O)n
• C. C2(H2O)n
• D. C2(H2O)n

Explanation: A monosaccharide is the most basic form of carbohydrates.Monosaccharides can be combined through glycosidic bonds to form larger carbohydrates, known as oligosaccharides or polysaccharides.The general formula for Mono-saccharides is (CH2O)n. Note that A and B are NOT the same. A is made up of n carbon atoms and n H₂O molecules. B is made up of 1 carbon atom and n molecules of H₂O.

Q57. What is the percentage of H₂O in bone cells?

• A. 70%
• B. 20%✓
• C. 99%
• D. 60%

Explanation: Bone cells are composed of approximately 20% water, which is essential for facilitating cellular functions and maintaining the hydration of the bone matrix. The majority of a bone's composition is mineral-based, primarily calcium phosphate, along with proteins and collagen. Option A (70%) and Option D (60%) are incorrect because they overestimate the water content. Option C (99%) is excessively high as bones are not soft tissues like muscles, which contain more water.

Q58. When glycerol reacts with fatty acid, which type of chemical bond will form?

• A. Ester bond✓
• B. Ether linkage
• C. Hydrogen bond
• D. Ionic bond

Explanation: When glycerol (a type of alcohol) reacts with fatty acids (which contain carboxyl groups), an ester bond is formed through a dehydration synthesis reaction. This is the key bond found in triglycerides, which are fats and oils.

Q59. Polysaccharides in plants are synthesized by the process of:

• A. Hydrolysis
• B. Oxidation
• C. Condensation✓
• D. Glycolysis

Explanation: Condensation is a chemical reaction in which two molecules combine to form a larger molecule, releasing a small molecule, often water, as a byproduct.

Q60. Which of the following process is involved in breakdown of protein into Amino acids?

• A. Condensation
• B. Hydrolysis✓
• C. Glycolysis
• D. Fixation

Explanation: Hydrolysis is a chemical reaction where water is used to break down a compound, resulting in the separation of the compound into its constituent parts.

Q61. Sarcomere is part of myofibril between:

• A. Two I bands
• B. Two A bands
• C. Two M lines
• D. Two Z lines✓

Explanation: A sarcomere is the basic structural and functional unit of a muscle fiber, specifically within striated muscle such as skeletal and cardiac muscle. It is defined as the segment of the myofibril that lies between two adjacent Z-discs (or Z-lines).

Q62. Chloroplast are membrane bound bodies containing:

• A. Enzymes
• B. Cisternae
• C. Pigment✓
• D. Cristae

Explanation: Chloroplasts are pigmented organelles, i.e, they contain some kind of pigment, which is chlorophyll.

Q63. Which of the following is the function of Golgi Complex?

• A. Intracellular digestion
• B. Autophagy
• C. Autolysis
• D. Processing of cell secretions✓

Explanation: The Golgi apparatus processes and packages cell secretions by receiving proteins and lipids from the endoplasmic reticulum in transport vesicles, modifying them through post-translational changes such as glycosylation, sorting them based on destination signals, and then packaging them into membrane-bound vesicles. These vesicles can become secretory vesicles for export, lysosomes for intracellular digestion, or other types. Once packaged, the vesicles bud off from the Golgi and are transported to their target locations, where they fuse with membranes to deliver their contents, playing a crucial role in the secretion and distribution of cellular molecules.

Q64. The hydrophilic end of the phospholipid molecule is polar because of the presence of:

• A. Glycerol
• B. Amine group
• C. Fatty Acid
• D. Phosphate group✓

Explanation: The phosphate group (-PO₄³⁻) in phospholipids is part of the molecule's hydrophilic head. It connects the glycerol backbone to a polar group (like choline, serine, or ethanolamine) and carries a negative charge, making it highly polar. This polarity allows the phosphate group to interact with water and other polar substances, contributing to the formation of the lipid bilayer in cell membranes. The phosphate group plays a key role in maintaining membrane structure and function.

Q65. Nissl’s granules are groups of:

• A. Mesosomes
• B. Lysosomes
• C. Ribosomes✓
• D. Chromosome

Explanation: Nissl granules are primarily made up of rough endoplasmic reticulum (rER) and ribosomes. The rough endoplasmic reticulum is involved in the synthesis of proteins, while the ribosomes are the sites of protein translation. Together, these components contribute to the production of neurotransmitters and other proteins necessary for neuronal function and maintenance. The abundance of rER and ribosomes gives Nissl granules their characteristic granular appearance when stained.

Q66. Which monosaccharide will from a gluco-pyranose ring in solution?

• A. Fructose
• B. Glucose✓
• C. Ribose
• D. Deoxyribose

Explanation: Typically, glucose forms a six-membered ring called a pyranose. This ring consists of five carbon atoms and one oxygen atom.

Q67. The nucleus takes dyes due to the presence of:

• A. Chromatin✓
• B. Lipid
• C. Metal ions
• D. Thylakoids

Explanation: This option is correct. Chromatin is composed of DNA and proteins, and it is present in the nucleus. It can take up certain dyes, especially those that bind to nucleic acids, allowing visualization of the nucleus under a microscope.

Q68. The organelles only found at seeding stage in oil seed plants are:

• A. Peroxisomes
• B. Glyoxysomes✓
• C. Microbodies
• D. Vacuoles

Explanation: Microbodies, which include organelles like peroxisomes and glyoxysomes, are present in plant cells during their normal metabolic processes, particularly in tissues involved in lipid metabolism and photosynthesis.

Q69. Posterior lobe of pituitary produce:

• A. Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)✓
• B. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
• C. Adreno Corticufrotric Hormone (ACH)
• D. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

Explanation: ADH is synthesized in the posterior side of the pituitary gland. It regulates water retention by the kidneys, promoting water reabsorption and helping maintain blood pressure.

Q70. In human myelinated fibres nerve impulse travels at _ meters per second.

• A. 100-120✓
• B. 130-150
• C. 160-180
• D. 190-210

Explanation: Option A is correct, as nerve impulses in human myelinated fibers typically travel within a 100-120 range due to saltatory conduction.

Q71. One of the following is CORRECT regarding flagella:

• A. Made up of microfilaments
• B. Contains centriole
• C. Originates from basal bodies✓
• D. They are immotile

Explanation: Flagella originate from basal bodies, which are protein structures located at the base of these appendages. Basal bodies serve as microtubule-organizing centers, anchoring and initiating the assembly of the axoneme—the core structural component of flagella. Structurally similar to centrioles, basal bodies consist of nine peripheral microtubule triplets arranged in a cylindrical pattern. In cells destined to have a single primary cilium, the mother centriole differentiates into the basal body upon entry into the G1 phase or during quiescence. In multiciliated cells, basal bodies can be generated de novo from a specialized structure called the deuterosome. This transformation is crucial for the proper formation and function of flagella, facilitating cell motility and sensory functions.

Q72. During the non-conducting state, the neuron membrane is permeable to the efflux of:

• A. K+✓
• B. Na+
• C. Ca+
• D. Cl-

Explanation: During the non-conducting state (resting state) of a neuron, the neuronal membrane is primarily permeable to the efflux of potassium ions (K⁺). This permeability is due to the presence of potassium channels that allow K⁺ to flow out of the cell, contributing to the resting membrane potential, which is typically around -70 mV. The efflux of K⁺ ions occurs because of their higher concentration inside the neuron compared to the outside, leading to a net outward movement and a negative charge inside the neuron.

Q73. Medulla Oblongata is a part of:

• A. Forebrain
• B. Mid brain
• C. Hind brain✓
• D. Hippocampus

Explanation: The hindbrain is the posterior part of the brain that plays a vital role in controlling essential bodily functions and motor activities. It consists of three main components: the medulla oblongata, which regulates autonomic functions such as heart rate, breathing, and reflexes; the pons, which serves as a bridge between different parts of the brain and is involved in regulating sleep and respiration; and the cerebellum, which coordinates voluntary movements, balance, and motor learning. Together, these structures ensure smooth and precise motor control while maintaining critical life-sustaining functions, making the hindbrain essential for overall health and functionality.

Q74. Which option is CORRECT about endospore?

• A. Has a short dormant period
• B. Contains moisture for survival
• C. Metabolically active
• D. Endures extreme condition✓

Explanation: Endospores are incredibly resilient to extreme environmental conditions, including high temperatures, desiccation, radiation, and chemical disinfectants. This resistance is due to their tough outer layers.

Q75. Which of the following is NOT a bone of upper limb?

• A. Humerus
• B. Ulna
• C. Femur✓
• D. Radius

Explanation: The femur extends from the hip joint to the knee joint, forming the upper leg. It connects the pelvis to the tibia (shinbone).

Q76. Bacteria divide at exponential rate during which growth phase!

• A. Lag
• B. Log✓
• C. Stationary
• D. Decline

Explanation: In this phase, bacteria divide rapidly by binary fission, where each cell splits into two identical daughter cells. The population grows exponentially, doubling at a constant rate. This is the period of maximum growth and optimal conditions for cell division.

Q77. Bone forming cells are:

• A. Osteoblasts✓
• B. Osteocytes
• C. Osteoclasts
• D. Osteons

Explanation: Osteoblasts are cells responsible for bone formation. They synthesize and secrete the bone matrix, which is primarily composed of collagen and other proteins. Once the matrix mineralizes and the osteoblasts become trapped within it, they differentiate into osteocytes. Osteoblasts are crucial for bone growth and repair.

Q78. Example of viruses having a polyhedral capsid that is with 252 capsomeres is:

• A. Adenovirus✓
• B. Tobacco Mosaic Virus
• C. Influenza virus
• D. Bacteriophage

Explanation: The capsid of adenovirus typically contains 52 capsomeres. This includes 240 hexon capsomeres and 12 penton capsomeres at the vertices.

Q79. The chromosomes was first observed by:

• A. T. H Morgan
• B. Griffith
• C. Walther✓
• D. Mendel

Explanation: Walther Flemming first observed chromosomes in 1879 during his studies on cell division (mitosis) using a light microscope.

Q80. The complete, mature & infectious particle of virus is known as:

• A. Genome
• B. Capsomere
• C. Virion✓
• D. Envelope

Explanation: A virion is the fully assembled, infectious form of a virus when it’s outside a host cell. It includes the genetic material along with its protective protein coat, and sometimes an envelope, allowing it to survive in the environment and infect new cells.

Q81. The causative organism of measles is:

• A. Poxivirus
• B. Paporivirus
• C. Picornovirus
• D. Paramyxovirus✓

Explanation: Measles is caused by the measles virus, which is an RNA virus belonging to the Morbillivirus genus within the Paramyxoviridae family. The virus primarily infects the respiratory tract and can spread throughout the body, leading to the characteristic symptoms of measles, including fever, cough, runny nose, conjunctivitis, and the distinctive rash.

Q82. In the life cycle of a bacteriophage, the lysozymes are required in which of the following steps of the infection process?

• A. Genome injection
• B. Penetration✓
• C. Replication
• D. Adsorption

Explanation: Penetration in the context of bacteriophages refers to the process by which the phage injects its genetic material into a bacterial host cell after successfully adsorbing to the bacterial surface. This step is critical for the viral life cycle as it enables the phage to hijack the host's cellular machinery to replicate and produce new phage particles. L ysozyme hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan layer in bacterial cell walls, leading to cell lysis and death

Q83. _ is transmitted through infected blood and hypodermic syringes.

• A. HIV✓
• B. Influenza virus
• C. Morbilli virus (Measles)
• D. Vibrio Cholerae (Cholera)

Explanation: HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) is primarily transmitted through several key routes. The most common mode of transmission is through unprotected sexual contact with an infected individual, where the virus can enter the body through mucous membranes. Additionally, sharing needles or syringes among intravenous drug users poses a significant risk, as it allows for direct blood-to-blood contact. HIV can also be transmitted from an infected mother to her child during childbirth or breastfeeding, highlighting the importance of preventive measures for pregnant women living with HIV. Lastly, although less common, transmission can occur through blood transfusions or organ transplants from an infected donor, particularly in areas where blood screening is inadequate. Understanding these transmission routes is crucial for implementing effective prevention strategies to reduce the spread of HIV.

Q84. In the Calvin cycle, CO2 reacts with RuBP to produce _.

• A. 3-PGA
• B. G3P
• C. 6-Carbon unstable intermediate✓
• D. 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate

Explanation: The reaction in the Calvin cycle where CO₂ reacts with RuBP produces a 6-carbon unstable intermediate because of the way carbon fixation occurs during the process.

Q85. Which option is correct about a chlorophyll a molecule?

• A. Chemical formula C55H70O6N4Mg
• B. Porphyrin ring with nitrogen in centre
• C. Methyl group on second pyrrole ring✓
• D. Aldehyde group on second pyrrole ring

Explanation: The statement "Methyl group on the second pyrrole ring" in the context of chlorophyll a is correct.The presence of a methyl group on the second pyrrole ring is a correct part of the chlorophyll structure and plays a role in its overall function in photosynthesis.

Q86. Which of the following alcohol can give a lodoform reaction?

• A. Methanol
• B. 1-Butanol
• C. 1-Propanol
• D. Ethanol✓

Explanation: The iodoform reaction occurs with compounds that have a methyl group attached to a carbon bearing a hydroxyl group (-OH) or a carbonyl group (-C=O). Ethanol (CH₃CH₂OH) meets this requirement because it can be oxidized to acetaldehyde (CH₃CHO), which has the necessary structure for the iodoform reaction.

Q87. Which of the following is the correct Arrhenius equation?

• A. K-Ae^-Ea/QT
• B. K=Ae^-Ea/RT✓
• C. K=Ae^-Ea/ST
• D. K=Ae^-Ea/UT

Explanation: Option B is the correct Arrhenius equation, where A is the pre-exponential factor, Ea is the activation energy, R is the gas constant, and T is the temperature.

Q88. Which of the following electronic configurations is correct for carbon?

• A. 1s2, 2s2, 2p3
• B. 1s2, 2s2, 2P4
• C. 1s2, 2s2, 2p2✓
• D. 1s2, 2s2, 2p1

Explanation: This option is correct. This is the correct configuration for carbon.

Q89. Common name of 2-hydroxy propanoic acid is

• A. Tartaric acid
• B. Lactic acid✓
• C. Phthalic acid
• D. Formic acid

Explanation: 2-hydroxypropanoic acid is commonly known as lactic acid. It has a hydroxy group (-OH) attached to the second carbon of propanoic acid, giving it the name 2-hydroxypropanoic acid.

Q90. In endothermic reaction,the heat content of the:

• A. Reactants and products is equal
• B. Reactants is more than that of products
• C. Products is more than that of reactants✓
• D. Reactants & Products will not change

Explanation: This is the correct statement. In endothermic reactions, the products have greater energy (or heat content) than the reactants because heat is absorbed during the reaction.

Q91. Intermolecular forces between molecules of ideal gas are:

• A. Strong
• B. Moderate
• C. Weak
• D. Absent✓

Explanation: In an ideal gas, it is assumed that the intermolecular forces between gas molecules are absent. This is a key assumption in the ideal gas law (PV = nRT).

Q92. Which of the following is correct regarding phenol?

• A. Phenol and water are equally acidic
• B. Phenol is less acidic than carboxylicacid✓
• C. Phenol is less acidic than water
• D. Phenol is less acidic than ethanol

Explanation: Because the conjugate base of a carboxylic acid is more stable than that of phenol, carboxylic acids are stronger acids than phenols, meaning phenol is less acidic than carboxylic acids.

Q93. The correct ideal gas equation is

• A. qV=nRt
• B. pV=nRt✓
• C. gV=nRt
• D. yV=nRt

Explanation: PV=nRTP = Pressure of the gasV = Volume of the gasn = Number of moles of gasR = Universal gas constant (8.314 J/mol·K)T = Temperature in KelvinThis equation describes the relationship between pressure, volume, and temperature for an ideal gas.

Q94. The real gases show deviation from ideal behaviour at:

• A. Low temperature and low pressure
• B. High temperature and high pressure
• C. Low temperature and high pressure✓
• D. High temperature and low pressure

Explanation: Deviation from ideal gas behavior occurs primarily under high pressure and low temperature conditions. At high pressures, gas molecules are forced closer together, making the volume of the gas significantly less than predicted by the ideal gas law due to the finite volume of the molecules and intermolecular interactions. Conversely, at low temperatures, the kinetic energy of gas molecules decreases, enhancing the influence of intermolecular forces, which can lead to condensation into liquids. These factors highlight that real gases do not always follow the ideal gas law, especially near their boiling points or under conditions close to liquefaction, necessitating more complex equations of state, such as the van der Waals equation, to better describe their behavior.

Q95. To boil water at 110℃, external pressure should be:

• A. 200-760 torr
• B. 760-1200 torr✓
• C. 665-670 torr
• D. 660-700 torr

Explanation: To boil water at 110 °C, the external pressure should be approximately 1.4 atm, which is equivalent to 1,064 torr.

Q96. Which of the following is not basic in nature

• A. Aluminum oxide✓
• B. Magnesium oxide
• C. Potassium oxide
• D. Sodium oxide

Explanation: Aluminum oxide (Al₂O₃) is amphoteric, meaning it can exhibit both acidic and basic properties depending on the environment. It can react with acids, forming aluminum salts and water, and it can also react with strong bases to form aluminate ions. This dual behavior makes aluminum oxide versatile in various chemical reactions and applications, including catalysts and adsorbents.

Q97. The solubility of sulphates of alkaline earth metals generally

• A. Increase down the group
• B. Decrease down the group✓
• C. Increase then decrease down the group
• D. Doesn't change down the group

Explanation: The solubility of alkaline earth metal sulfates varies down the group and generally decreases as you move from beryllium to barium.

Q98. The atomic masses of elements depend upon:

• A. Atomic number
• B. Number of electrons
• C. Number of isotopes & their abundance✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Atomic mass depends on the number of isotopes and their abundance because:Isotopes of an element have the same atomic number but different masses due to varying numbers of neutrons.The atomic mass is an average of the masses of all isotopes weighted by their natural abundance.Variations in isotopic abundance lead to different average atomic masses for elements.

Q99. Which one of the following DO NOT have a tendency to form hydrogen bonding?

• A. Ammonia
• B. Ethyl alcohol
• C. Carboxylic acids
• D. Hydrocarbon✓

Explanation: Hydrocarbons, which include alkanes, alkenes, and alkynes, do not form hydrogen bonds because they consist solely of carbon and hydrogen atoms without any highly electronegative elements like nitrogen, oxygen, or fluorine. The C–H bonds in hydrocarbons are relatively nonpolar, meaning there is no significant dipole moment to facilitate hydrogen bonding. As a result, the predominant intermolecular forces in hydrocarbons are van der Waals forces (London dispersion forces), which are much weaker than hydrogen bonds. This leads to lower boiling and melting points compared to substances capable of hydrogen bonding.

Q100. Which of the following is an example of substituent group which release electrons to benzene ring

• A. -CN
• B. -NR3+
• C. -NH2✓
• D. -NO2

Explanation: This group is an electron-donating group due to its ability to donate a lone pair of electrons to the benzene ring, increasing the electron density of the ring and activating it toward electrophilic substitution reactions.

Q101. Which type of isomerism is displayed by compounds having the same structural formula but different positions of atoms on both sides of the carbon bond?

• A. Chain
• B. Metamerism
• C. Geometric✓
• D. Tautomerism

Explanation: Geometric isomerism, also known as cis-trans isomerism, is a form of stereoisomerism where molecules have the same molecular formula but differ in the spatial arrangement of atoms or groups around a rigid structure, such as a double bond or a ring.In the official UHS 2024 paper, option C was marked as correct. Therefore, we will retain option C here to maintain alignment with the original key for authenticity.

Q102. Which of the following is NOT an Alloy?

• A. steel
• B. brass
• C. bronze
• D. graphite✓

Explanation: Graphite is not an alloy. It is pure carbon. It is an allotrope.

Q103. Electronic configuration of chromium (proton number 24) is:

• A. [Ar] 3d4 4s2
• B. [Ar] 3d2 4s2
• C. [Ar] 3d5 4s1✓
• D. [Ar] 3d5 4s2

Explanation: Chromium(Cr) and Copper(Cu) are two special cases in which electron from 4s orbital jumps to 3d so 4s orbital has only a single electron in it. In options there is only one option that has a single electron in 4s orbital which is C. A is a wrong form to write Cr electronic configuration because technically when 3d has 4 electrons a single electron will jump from 4s to 3d to make it 5 in 3d, as it is a more stable state. B and D cannot be right because they correspond to electronic configuration of atoms having a proton number 25.

Q104. Which step is irrelevant concerning the balancing of redox equations by the oxidation number method?

• A. Split the reaction into two half reactions.✓
• B. Assign an oxidation number to all the atoms involved in the equation.
• C. Identify the element changing oxidation number
• D. Equalize the number of electrons lost and gained

Explanation: Option A is correct. That step belongs to the ion–electron (half-reaction) method, not the oxidation number method.In the oxidation number method, you:Assign oxidation numbers.Identify atoms changing oxidation state.Equalize the total increase and decrease in oxidation number.Balance the remaining atoms and charges.So, splitting into half-reactions is not required here.

Q105. Which of the following is NOT a correct feature of electrolytic cells?

• A. Reduction occurs at cathode
• B. Oxidation occurs at anode
• C. Alternating current source is connected to electrodes✓
• D. Electrochemical reaction takes place

Explanation: This is an Incorrect feature of an electrolytic cell because electrolytic cells use direct current (DC), not alternating current (AC).

Q106. Which of the following has a coordinate bond?

• A. NaCl
• B. CaO
• C. NH3BF3✓
• D. H2O

Explanation: The nitrogen atom in NH₃ donates its lone pair to the boron atom in BF₃, forming a coordinate covalent bond where both electrons in the bond come from nitrogen. This bond stabilizes BF₃ by completing its octet.

Q107. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion theory?

• A. It determines the shape of molecule
• B. Pairs of electrons repel each other.
• C. It helps in understanding the interaction of medicinal drug molecules.
• D. Only lone pairs participate in determining geometry of molecules.✓

Explanation: No, both bonding pairs and lone pairs of electrons contribute to determining the geometry of molecules. According to the Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) theory, electron pairs—whether bonding or lone—repel each other and try to maximize their distance apart. This influences the molecular geometry.

Q108. The range of projectile will be maximum if the factor sin20 becomes

• A. Zero
• B. 1✓
• C. -1
• D. 2

Explanation: The range of a projectile is maximized when sin(2θ)=1. This occurs at an angle θ=45.

Q109. Which of the following has smallest atomic radius:

• A. Mg
• B. S✓
• C. P
• D. Na

Explanation: S will have the smallest atomic radius because it lies at the end among the mentioned elements. Across the period, the atomic radius decreases.

Q110. The difference of lithium from the other alkali metals is mainly because of:

• A. Large radius and low charge density
• B. Small radius and low charge density
• C. Large radius and high charge density
• D. Small radius and high charge density✓

Explanation: Correct, as lithium has the smallest atomic size in the alkali metal group, leading to high charge density, which makes it behave differently from other alkali metals (e.g., stronger covalent character in compounds and diagonal relationship with magnesium).

Q111. Boiling point of a liquid is a temperature at which:

• A. Surface tension is greater than the atmospheric pressure
• B. Viscosity is less than the atmospheric pressure
• C. Vapor pressure equals the atmospheric pressure✓
• D. Viscosity equals the atmospheric pressure

Explanation: The temperature at which vapor pressure becomes equal to atmospheric pressure is called the boiling point.

Q112. Which of the following is NOT a property of transition elements?

• A. High melting points
• B. Good conductors of electricity
• C. Hard metals
• D. Ions and compounds are colorless✓

Explanation: Transition elements form colored complexes due to d-d transitions except Zn²⁺, Sc³⁺, and Cu⁺.

Q113. 1-Butene and two Butene are showing which type of isomerism?

• A. functional group
• B. positional✓
• C. metamerism
• D. chain

Explanation: Position isomerism is a type of structural isomerism where compounds have the same molecular formula and the same functional group but differ in the position of that functional group or substituent on the carbon chain. This can occur with various functional groups, such as alcohols, amines, and halides.

Q114. Whenever the crystalline solids are broken they do so along definite planes known as:

• A. Cleavage planes✓
• B. Refractory planes
• C. Sagittal planes
• D. Coronal planes

Explanation: In the context of crystalline solids, cleavage planes refer to specific planes along which a crystal can break or split easily. These planes are determined by the arrangement of atoms within the crystal lattice and reflect the internal structure of the crystal.

Q115. Homocyclic organic compounds are subdivided into two types namely:

• A. Alicyclic and Aromatic✓
• B. Alkenes and alkynes
• C. Aromatic and Non aromatic
• D. Saturated and Unsaturated

Explanation: Alicyclic and aromatic compounds are both types of cyclic hydrocarbons but differ significantly in structure and properties. Alicyclic compounds consist of one or more carbon rings that do not have delocalized pi electrons, making them non-aromatic; they can be saturated or unsaturated, with examples like cyclohexane and cyclopentene. In contrast, aromatic compounds feature a cyclic structure with a conjugated system of alternating double bonds that follows Huckel's rule (4n+2 pi electrons), resulting in enhanced stability and distinct reactivity, such as undergoing electrophilic substitution; benzene is the most famous example. Thus, while both are cyclic, their electronic characteristics lead to different chemical behaviors and applications.

Q116. One of the following is NOT an example of amorphous solids

• A. Plastic
• B. Glass
• C. Glucose✓
• D. Rubber

Explanation: Glucose is a molecular solid.

Q117. In graphite the carbon atoms are arranged in which of the following structure?

• A. Rhombic
• B. Hexagonal✓
• C. Tetragonal
• D. Trigonal

Explanation: Graphite is hexagonal because its carbon atoms form hexagonal rings in flat layers, with each atom sp² hybridized and bonded to three neighbors in a trigonal planar arrangement. The layers stack in an ABAB pattern, characteristic of the hexagonal crystal system.

Q118. The principle that states that if a stress is applied to a system at equilibrium, the system nullifies the effect of stress as far as possible is:

• A. Haber's
• B. Le-Chatelier✓
• C. Boyle's
• D. Charles'

Explanation: The principle is Le Chatelier's Principle. It states that if a stress is applied to a system at equilibrium, the system will adjust to counteract the effect of the stress, shifting the equilibrium to minimize the disturbance.

Q119. In Friedel Craft acylation an acyl group is introduced in benzene ring in the presence of catalyst:

• A. AICl3✓
• B. H2SO4
• C. Sunlight
• D. V2O5

Explanation: The catalyst used in Friedel-Crafts acylation is typically Aluminum chloride (AlCl₃). It acts as a Lewis acid, helping to generate the acylium ion from the acyl chloride or anhydride, which then reacts with the aromatic ring to form the acylated product.

Q120. Identify the CORRECT option required for the maximum yield of ammonia by Haber's Process:

• A. High pressure, low temperature, continual removal of ammonia✓
• B. Low pressure, low temperature, continual removal of ammonia
• C. High pressure, high temperature, continual removal of ammonia
• D. High pressure, low temperature, continual addition of ammonia

Explanation: The maximum yield of ammonia in the Haber process is theoretically limited to about 15% under typical conditions of high temperature (around 400-500°C) and high pressure (150-300 atmospheres). However, in practice, the yield is often lower due to factors like equilibrium constraints and reaction kinetics. To increase the yield, unreacted gases can be recycled back into the reactor, making the process more efficient.

Q121. Which one of the following represents nitration of benzene correctly?

• A.
• B. ✓
• C.
• D.

Explanation: Benzene reacts with concentrated nitric acid (HNO₃) in the presence of concentrated sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄) at 50–55°C. Sulfuric acid acts as a catalyst and generates the electrophile (NO₂⁺, nitronium ion), which attacks the benzene ring via electrophilic aromatic substitution, forming nitrobenzene and water as a by-product.

Q122. The number of moles in an element is directly proportional to:

• A. Mass of an element✓
• B. Empirical formula mass
• C. Molar mass of an element
• D. Formula mass

Explanation: ​Since molar mass is constant for a given element, increasing the mass increases the number of moles proportionally. For example, doubling the mass of an element doubles the number of moles, making them directly proportional.

Q123. Identify the correct ascending order of reactivity of alkyl halides:

• A. Cl, Br, I, F
• B. F, CI, Br, I✓
• C. Br, I, F, CI
• D. I, F, Cl, Br

Explanation: The correct reactivity order of alkyl halides is R-F < R-Cl < R-Br < R-I because the C-F bond is the strongest (making fluorine the least reactive), and the C-I bond is the weakest (making iodine the most reactive).The order F, Cl, Br, I is correct because reactivity increases as bond strength decreases, meaning fluorine is the least reactive, and iodine is the most reactive due to its weak C-I bond and excellent leaving group ability.

Q124. Consider the following reaction in equilibrium and tell addition of which chemical will turn the cloudy solution into clear solution?BiCl3+H2O…>BiOCl+2HCl

• A. BiCL3
• B. H2O
• C. BiOCI
• D. HCl✓

Explanation: If you want to turn the cloudy solution (which indicates the presence of BiOCl) into a clear solution, you can add an excess of HCl. This addition will cause the equilibrium to shift to the right, reducing the amount of BiOCl and potentially dissolving it, thereby clarifying the solution.

Q125. The type and relative amount of each isotope in an element can be found by:

• A. R spectroscopy
• B. U.V spectroscopy
• C. Mass Spectrometry✓
• D. N.M.R

Explanation: Mass Spectrometry (MS) is an analytical technique used to measure the mass-to-charge ratio of ions. It provides detailed information about the molecular weight and structure of compounds

Q126. Identify the correct statement related to substitution and elimination of alkyt halides:

• A. Strong bases causes substitution in preference to elimination
• B. Role of leaving groups in elimination is simitar to substitution✓
• C. Substitution is favored more than elimination by decreasing solvent polarity
• D. Decrease in temperature will favor elimination more than substitution

Explanation: This statement is correct. In both substitution and elimination reactions, the effectiveness of the leaving group plays a crucial role; a better leaving group facilitates both types of reactions.

Q127. Identify the correct formula to calculate the rate of reaction.

• A. Change in concentration of substance/Time taken for the change✓
• B. Time taken for the change+ Change in concentration of substance
• C. Time taken for the change+ Change in concentration of substance x 100
• D. Time taken for the change x Change in concentration of substance

Explanation: The rate measures how fast a reaction occurs, which means we need to determine how much the concentration of a reactant or product changes per unit of time.Dividing the change in concentration by time gives the rate in correct units (e.g., mol/L·s), showing how quickly reactants are consumed or products are formed.

Q128. Alkyl Halides involving -C-X bond breakage and- C-Nu bond formation simultaneously.

• A. SN1
• B. SN2✓
• C. E1
• D. E2

Explanation: In organic chemistry, the reaction involving the simultaneous breaking of a carbon-halogen bond (-C-X) and the formation of a carbon-nucleophile bond (-C-Nu) is characteristic of nucleophilic substitution reactions, particularly the S_N2 (bimolecular nucleophilic substitution) mechanism.

Q129. CnH2nO is the general formula of:

• A. Option A: Ether
• B. Option B: Carboxylic acid
• C. Option C: Ketones✓
• D. Option D: Carbolic acid

Explanation: The correct answer is ketones, which have the general formula R2C=O. In this case, 'Rn' represents hydrocarbon groups that can vary in size but always adhere to the formula CnH2nO. In contrast, ethers and carboxylic acids do not match the formula due to their distinct structures and functional groups. Ethers (R-O-R') have a different connectivity, and carboxylic acids (RCOOH) incorporate both a carbonyl and a hydroxyl group, leading to a different ratio of hydrogens. Carbolic acid, or phenol, contains a hydroxyl group bonded to a benzene ring (C6H5OH), which deviates from the given formula.

Q130. Consider the hypothetical equation aA+bB…>cC+Dd: Which of the following represents the correct rate equation?

• A. Rate=k[A](B)
• B. Rate= k[A]^a[B]^b,✓
• C. Rate=k[A]a
• D. Rate=k[B]b

Explanation: Option B is correct.Reaction orders (a and b) are determined experimentally and do not necessarily match the stoichiometric coefficients a and b.Rate laws depend on the reaction mechanism, specifically the slowest (rate-determining) step, not just the overall equation.k is the rate constant, and [A] and [B] represent the reactant concentrations raised to their respective experimentally determined exponents.Thus, the correct rate law follows Rate = k[A]^a[B]^b, where a and b must be determined through experiments.

Q131. The blue color of Fehling solution is changed to red when warmed with an aldehyde due to the formation of which of the following?

• A. CO2
• B. Cu2O✓
• C. AgO
• D. SO2

Explanation: The blue color of Fehling's solution changes to red when warmed with an aldehyde due to the formation of Cu₂O (copper(I) oxide) because of the reduction of Cu²⁺ ions present in the solution.

Q132. If a reaction rate does not change with concentration, then it is

• A. 3rd order
• B. 2nd order
• C. Ist order
• D. Zero order✓

Explanation: The rate of a zero-order reaction is constant and does not depend on the concentration of the reactants. Thus, changing the concentration will not affect the rate of reaction.

Q133. The reaction of formaldehyde with HCN is:

• A. Nucleophilic substitution
• B. Nucleophilic addition✓
• C. Electrophilic substitution
• D. Free radical addition

Explanation: The reaction of formaldehyde (HCHO) with hydrogen cyanide (HCN) involves a nucleophilic addition rather than a nucleophilic substitution.In a nucleophilic addition reaction, a nucleophile adds to a molecule, typically at a carbon-carbon double bond (as in alkenes and carbonyl compounds), resulting in the formation of a new compound.In the case of formaldehyde and HCN, the oxygen atom of formaldehyde's carbonyl group (C=O) acts as the electrophilic site, while the cyanide ion (CN⁻) acts as the nucleophile. The CN⁻ attacks the carbon atom of the carbonyl group, and the reaction results in the formation of a hydroxynitrile compound (a cyanohydrin). This addition reaction leads to the creation of a new carbon-carbon bond and the replacement of the oxygen atom with the cyanide group.Nucleophilic substitution reactions, on the other hand, involve the replacement of a leaving group in a molecule by a nucleophile. In the case of formaldehyde and HCN, no leaving group is being substituted by the cyanide ion, so it is not a nucleophilic substitution reaction.In summary, the reaction of formaldehyde with HCN is an example of nucleophilic addition.

Q134. No individual atom in the sample of 1 mole of Neon has a mass of 20.18 a.m.u. Because it is:

• A. Overall mass of an isobar
• B. It is a fractional mass.
• C. It is molar mass of Ne
• D. The average atomic mass of Ne✓

Explanation: The atomic mass of an element like Neon (Ne) is typically expressed as an average atomic mass because neon exists as a mixture of isotopes, each with its mass. The atomic mass of 20.18 amu represents the weighted average of the masses of these isotopes, not the mass of a single atom.

Q135. The p orbital has:

• A. 2 lobes✓
• B. 3 lobes
• C. 4 lobes
• D. 5 lobes

Explanation: The p orbital has 2 lobes because its wavefunction solution to the Schrödinger equation has a single node at the nucleus, leading to two regions of high electron probability on opposite sides of the nucleus. This shape corresponds to l = 1, the quantum number for p orbitals.

Q136. All of the following steps are used to calculate the lattice energy in the Born-Haber cycle EXCEPT:

• A. Atomizing the metal
• B. lonizing the metal
• C. Deionize the metal✓
• D. lonize non metal

Explanation: Deionizing metal is not part of the Born-Haber cycle. It would involve turning ions back into atoms, which is not necessary for calculating lattice energy.

Q137. The enthalpy change when 1 Mole of water is formed by the reaction of acid with an alkali under standard conditions is known as:

• A. Enthalpy of formation
• B. Enthalpy of reaction
• C. Enthalpy of combustion
• D. Enthalpy of neutralization✓

Explanation: The enthalpy of neutralization is the specific enthalpy change when one mole of water is formed from the reaction of an acid and a base (alkali) under standard conditions.

Q138. When carboxylic acid is heated with alcohol in the presence of sulphuric acid, one of the following is formed.

• A. Amides
• B. Acyl chloride
• C. Esters✓
• D. Acid anhydride

Explanation: When a carboxylic acid reacts with an alcohol in the presence of sulfuric acid, an ester is formed through a process called esterification. Sulfuric acid acts as a catalyst to speed up the reaction.

Q139. The oxidation number of 'Mn' in KMnO4, is

• A. 0
• B. +1
• C. -7
• D. +7✓

Explanation: In KMnO₄, Mn has an oxidation number of +7. This is determined by balancing the oxidation states of the other elements (K and O) in the compound, and it is one of the highest oxidation states Mn can achieve in compounds.

Q140. Which one of the following is not an amino acid

• A. Folic acid✓
• B. Glutamic acid
• C. Glycine
• D. Lysine

Explanation: Folic acid is a B vitamin (B9) crucial for DNA synthesis, repair, and cell division and is essential during pregnancy for fetal development.

Q141. In an elastic collision, the total kinetic energy

• A. Dissipates after collision
• B. Increases after the collision
• C. Reduces after the collision
• D. Before and after collision remains the same✓

Explanation: In an elastic collision, the total kinetic energy before the collision is equal to the total kinetic energy after the collision, meaning that kinetic energy is conserved throughout the process.

Q142. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of electric forces?

• A. They act on charges
• B. They act on masses✓
• C. They can be attractive.
• D. They can be repulsive

Explanation: Option B is Incorrect because electric forces act on charge, not mass (gravitational forces act on mass). And it is not a feature of electric forces.

Q143. The two-dimensional motion under constant acceleration due to gravity is called:

• A. Circular motion
• B. Rotational motion
• C. Projectile motion✓
• D. Vibratory motion

Explanation: Projectile motion is a specific example of two-dimensional (2D) motion. In projectile motion, an object is launched into the air and moves under the influence of gravity, following a curved trajectory known as a parabola.

Q144. A charge of 90 C passes through a wire for 30 seconds. Then the current in the wire will be:

• A. З А✓
• B. 0.3 A
• C. 3 mA
• D. 0.3 mA

Explanation: Explanation is given as an image.

Q145. The magnitude of the current in metals is proportional to the potential difference across it as long as the temperature of the conductor is kept constant is known as:

• A. Joule's Law
• B. Gauss Law
• C. Ohm's Law✓
• D. Ampere's Law

Explanation: The current (I) flowing through a conductor between two points is directly proportional to the voltage (V) across the two points and inversely proportional to the resistance (R) of the conductor.

Q146. In a velocity-time graph, the area under the graph is equal to the

• A. Speed of an object
• B. Velocity of an object
• C. Distance covered by object✓
• D. Acceleration of an object

Explanation: The distance covered by an object is given by the area under the v-t graph.

Q147. When length of copper wire is doubled then resistivity becomes:

• A. Double
• B. Half
• C. Remains same✓
• D. Four times

Explanation: Resistivity of wire remains constant. As the length of wire gets doubled, the cross-sectional area will become half of its previous value because volume of wire remains constant

Q148. The resistance of semi-conductor with rise in temperature:

• A. Increases
• B. Decreases✓
• C. Remain same
• D. Infinite

Explanation: The electrons get excited and jump from the valance band into the conduction band and thereby increases conductance resulting in the decrease of resistance

Q149. Volt × Ampere is the measure of:

• A. Current
• B. Volt
• C. Resistance
• D. Power✓

Explanation: Current is measured in Amperes (A), representing the flow of electric charge.Volt is a measure of electric potential difference.Resistance is measured in Ohms and is the opposition to the flow of current.Power is measured in Watts (W) and is calculated as the product of voltage (Volts) and current (Amperes).Thus, the correct answer is that Volt × Ampere measures Power.

Q150. According to Newton's Law of Motion, the mass of the object is a quantitative measure of its.

• A. Weight
• B. Inertia✓
• C. Speed
• D. Acceleration

Explanation: According to Newton's second law the mass of a body is the quantitative measure of its inertia.

Q151. The formula Φ = B.A represents:

• A. Electric flux
• B. Magnetic flux✓
• C. Electric flux density
• D. Gravitational flux

Explanation: Magnetic flux is a measure of the total magnetic field passing through a given area. It quantifies how many magnetic field lines penetrate a surface. The concept is crucial in electromagnetism, especially in understanding electromagnetic induction. Mathematically, magnetic flux (Φ𝐵) through a surface can be expressed as:Φ𝐵=∫𝐵𝑑𝐴.

Q152. 1KWh= _ J?

• A. 3.6J
• B. 3.6KJ
• C. 3.6MJ✓
• D. 3.6 GJ

Explanation: C is the correct option since 1 MJ = 10⁶ J, and we calculated 1 kWh = 3.6 × 10⁶ J = 3.6 MJ.

Q153. Which of the following statement is incorrect for any magnetic field lines?

• A. Lines start at north pole and ends at south pole
• B. Lines never touch or cross each other
• C. The lines are curved
• D. The magnetic field is strongest when the lines are farthest.✓

Explanation: Option D is Incorrect because the magnetic field is strongest where the lines are closest together, indicating a higher field strength. The following statement is incorrect for any magnetic field lines.

Q154. The unit of magnetic flux density is;

• A. Wbm⁻¹
• B. Wbm
• C. Wbm-2✓
• D. Wb

Explanation: Option C is Correct, as it correctly represents Weber per square meter (Wb/m² or Tesla, T).

Q155. Which of the following is a non-conservative force?

• A. Frictional force✓
• B. Effort + distance
• C. Effort-distance
• D. Effort +distance

Explanation: Frictional force is a non-conservative force.due to its energy-dissipating nature and the path-dependent work it entails. This contrasts with conservative forces like gravity and spring force, which store energy and have potential energy associated with them.

Q156. The induced current flow in such a direction so as to oppose the cause that produces it. The statement is:

• A. Ampere’s Law
• B. Faraday’s Law
• C. Lenz’s Law✓
• D. Joule’s Law

Explanation: Lenz's law, in electromagnetism, states that an induced electric current flows in a direction such that the current opposes the change that induced it.

Q157. In an AC generator the emf will be maximum when factor sinωt is equal to:

• A. Zero
• B. 2
• C. 1✓
• D. 1/2

Explanation: B is the correct option. This option is correct. The emf will be maximum when the value of the sine function is at its maximum. The sine function sin⁡(θ) reaches its maximum value of 1.

Q158. When a force of 1N displaces its point of application by 1m in the direction of the force, the work done is

• A. 1J✓
• B. 10J
• C. 0J
• D. 100J

Explanation: The formula for work done (W) is:W=F×d×cos⁡θW = F \times d \times \cos\thetaW=F×d×cosθWhere:W = Work done (in Joules)F = Force (in Newtons)d = Displacement (in meters)θ\thetaθ = Angle between force and displacementGiven:Force = 1NDisplacement = 1mDirection of force = direction of displacement, so θ=0∘\theta = 0^\circθ=0∘ and cos(0) = 1W=1×1×1=1JW = 1 \times 1 \times 1 = 1JW=1×1×1=1J

Q159. Electric generators and transformers are based on the principles of:

• A. Coulomb's law
• B. Faraday's Law✓
• C. Ampere's law
• D. Hook's law

Explanation: Transformers and generators work on the principle of Faraday s Law.

Q160. An electric motor is used to lift the weight of 2.0N through a vertical distance of 100 cm in 4 sec. What is the power output of the motor?

• A. 25 W
• B. 0.5 W✓
• C. 0.75 W
• D. 1 W

Explanation: W=2.0N×1.0m=2.0JNext, the time taken to lift the weight is 4 seconds. Now we can find the power:P =work/time=2/4=0.5Watt

Q161. In an ideal transformer:

• A. Power input is equal to Power output.✓
• B. Power input is less than half of the power output.
• C. Power input is greater than Power output
• D. Power input is more than half of the power output.

Explanation: A is Correct, as an ideal transformer operates with 100% efficiency, meaning no energy is lost

Q162. The conversion of A.C into D.C is called rectification and circuit is called rectifier, Which component of electronics acts as a rectifier?

• A. Diode✓
• B. Transistor
• C. Transformer
• D. Inductor

Explanation: A diode is a semiconductor device that allows current to flow in one direction while blocking it in the opposite direction. This unidirectional behavior is essential in various applications, such as rectification, signal modulation, and voltage regulation.

Q163. The centripetal acceleration of an object moving along a circle of radius 'r' with an angular speed 'w' is given by the formula:

• A. a= r W2✓
• B. a= r W
• C. a = r² W
• D. a= r² W²

Explanation: Centripetal acceleration increases with radius and is also affected more significantly when angular speed increases, as it is squared.

Q164. Full wave rectification is given by:

• A. One diode connected in bridge-type arrangements
• B. Two diodes connected in bridge-type arrangements
• C. Three diodes connected in bridge type arrangements
• D. Four diodes connected in a bridge type arrangement✓

Explanation: For a full wave rectification, four diodes connected in a bridge type arrangement are needed.

Q165. A diode characteristic curve is a plot between:

• A. Current and time
• B. Voltage and time
• C. Voltage and current✓
• D. Reverse voltage forward voltage

Explanation: B is the correct option. A diode characteristic curve, also known as the I-V (current-voltage) curve, illustrates the relationship between the current flowing through the diode and the voltage across it.This curve helps in understanding the behavior of the diode in different operating conditions, including forward bias (where current flows) and reverse bias (where very little current flows).Thus, the correct answer is that a diode characteristic curve is a plot between Voltage and current.

Q166. An air craft makes a turn in a horizontal circle of radius100m. It is travelling with a velocity of 250m/sec. The angular velocity of the air craft will be:

• A. 1.5 rad/sec
• B. 2.5 rad/sec✓
• C. 3 rad/sec
• D. 3.5 rad/sec

Explanation: ω=v/r=250m/s/10m=2.5rad/s

Q167. The value of Planck constant is:

• A. 6.63×10⁻³⁴ Js✓
• B. 6.63×10³⁴ Js
• C. 6.63×10-36 Js
• D. 6.63×10³⁴ Js⁻¹

Explanation: . 6.63×10−34js ✅ – Correct, as this is the well-known value of Planck’s constant, used in quantum mechanics to relate energy and frequency

Q168. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a particle moving at 10⁶ m/s and having mass 10⁻³⁰ kg:

• A. 6.6 X 10-10 m✓
• B. 1.5×10⁶ m
• C. 1.9×10⁻⁵ m
• D. 7.2×10⁻⁸ m

Explanation: Step 1: Calculate the momentum (p)p=mv=10-24kgm/sStep 2: Calculate the de Broglie wavelengthNow, substitute p into the de Broglie wavelength formula:λ=hp=6.626×10−34 Js10−24 kg m/s=6.6x10-10m

Q169. Light propagates through space as a wave is evident by all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. Interference
• B. Photoelectric effect✓
• C. Diffraction
• D. Polarization

Explanation: The photoelectric effect is a phenomenon in physics where electrons are emitted from a material (usually a metal) when it absorbs light or electromagnetic radiation of sufficient energy. This effect was crucial in the development of quantum mechanics and provided evidence for the particle-like properties of light.

Q170. A particle of mass 'm' is moving on a circular path of radius 'r' with velocity 'v', then centripetal force acting on it is F. if the velocity of particle increases by 2 times and radius of circular path increases by 4 times then new centripetal force F' will be;

• A. F' = 2F
• B. F’ = 1/2 * F
• C. F’ = 4F
• D. F’ = F✓

Explanation: Despite both the velocity and the radius changing, the net effect on the centripetal force remains the same. The increase in velocity and the increase in radius cancel each other out in such a way that the force does not change.

Q171. Which series falls in ultra violet region?

• A. Lyman✓
• B. Brackett
• C. Pfund
• D. Paschen

Explanation: Lymann series falls in the UV region.

Q172. The potential through which an electron should be accelerated, so that, on collision it can lift the electron in the atom from its ground state to some higher state is known as:

• A. Ionization potential
• B. Excitation potential✓
• C. String potential
• D. Acceleration potential

Explanation: Excitation potential refers to the minimum energy required to excite an atom or molecule from its ground state to a higher energy state, typically an excited state. This concept is crucial in fields like atomic physics, quantum mechanics, and spectroscopy.

Q173. A roller coaster is moving with 30m * s ^ - 1 on a circular track of radius 30m. the net mass of coaster + passengers is 'm' the centripetal force acting on it is;

• A. 900m
• B. 10 m
• C. 450m
• D. 30m✓

Explanation: Fc= mv2/r=m(30)2/r=30m

Q174. Which of the following regarding X Rays is INCORRECT:

• A. Have higher wavelength than visible light✓
• B. They are part of electromagnetic spectrum
• C. They are highly penetrating in soft body tissues
• D. They are high energy photons

Explanation: This statement is incorrect. X-rays have a shorter wavelength than visible light, typically in the range of 0.01 to 10 nanometers, while visible light wavelengths range from about 400 to 700 nanometers.

Q175. The unit of decay constant is;

• A. m
• B. s
• C. s-1✓
• D. m-¹

Explanation: The unit of decay constant is per second.

Q176. Amplitude in the following figure is given as:

• A. 2m
• B. 1/2m
• C. 4 m
• D. 1m✓

Explanation: In the figure, the wave reaches a maximum displacement of 1 meter above and below the equilibrium line. Amplitude is defined as the maximum displacement from the mean (equilibrium) position, so: Amplitude = 1 m

Q177. An artificial radioactive element can be made by bombarding.

• A. High-energy particles on unstable elements
• B. Low-energy particles on unstable elements
• C. High-energy particles on stable elements✓
• D. Low-energy particles on stable elements

Explanation: Artificial radioactive elements are created by bombarding high-energy particles (neutrons, protons, α-particles) on stable elements. These particles penetrate the nucleus, causing nuclear reactions that form new radioactive isotopes. Stable elements do not decay naturally, so high-energy bombardment is needed to induce artificial radioactivity, as seen in nuclear reactors and particle accelerators.

Q178. If we have "N₀" number of any radioactive element then after a period of "n" half-lives the number of atoms left behind is:

• A. 2ⁿN₀
• B. (1/2)nN0✓
• C. (½ N₀)ⁿ
• D. (2N₀)ⁿ

Explanation: A half-life is the time it takes for half of the radioactive substance to decay.After one half-life, half of the original quantity remains, so there will be N0\​​.2After two half-lives, half of the remaining half will decay, leaving N0\4Continuing this process, after "n" half-lives, the remaining quantity can be expressed as:N=N0(1/2)nThis means that the number of atoms left after "n" half-lives is (1/2)nN0

Q179. Which of the following is NOT the Somatic biological effect of radiation?

• A. Skin burn
• B. Loss of hair
• C. Induction of cancer
• D. Gene Mutation✓

Explanation: Gene mutation – NOT a somatic effect, as it affects reproductive (germ) cells and can be passed to offspring.

Q180. Which one of the following is INCORRECT about the nodes when the string is plucked?

• A. Amplitude of vibration is zero.
• B. Do not move along the string.
• C. Produced at the fixed ends of strings
• D. The distance between consecutive nodes is 1 wavelength.✓

Explanation: Incorrect, the distance between consecutive nodes is half a wavelength (λ/2), not a full wavelength.

Q181. In transverse waves the portion above the mean level is called:

• A. Wave front
• B. Wave crest✓
• C. Wave trough
• D. Wavelength

Explanation: A wave crest is the highest point of a wave. In ocean waves, it's where the water rises before it breaks and crashes back down. In a more general context, it can refer to the peak of any wave-like phenomenon, such as sound waves or electromagnetic waves.

Q182. Which one of the following does not cause stationary waves?

• A. Two waves of equal frequency
• B. Two waves of the same speed
• C. Two waves of unequal amplitude✓
• D. Two waves travelling in opposite directions

Explanation: When waves have unequal amplitudes, they do not form stationary waves.

Q183. Select the appropriate Doppler equation when source is approaching the stationary observer where f₀ is the observed frequency, fₛ is frequency of source, v is the speed of sound, vₛ is the speed of source relative to observer:

• A. f₀ = fₛ (v + vₛ)/v
• B. f₀ = fₛ v/(v + vₛ)
• C. f₀ = fₛ v/(v - vₛ)✓
• D. f₀ = fₛ (v + vₛ)/(v - vₛ)

Explanation: Correct. This equation applies when the source is moving toward a stationary observer, causing the observed frequency to increase.

Q184. The distance between two successive particles which are exactly in the same state of vibration is called:

• A. Frequency
• B. Amplitude
• C. Wavelength✓
• D. Time period

Explanation: Wavelength is the distance between successive crests (or troughs) of a wave.

Q185. During the isothermal process, the temperature:

• A. Remains constant during the initial phase of the process
• B. Remains constant throughout the process✓
• C. Alters throughout the process
• D. Increases throughout the process

Explanation: In an isothermal process, the temperature of the system remains constant. For an ideal gas, this means that any heat added to the system is used to do work, rather than changing the internal energy.

Q186. What is the value of heat energy (Q) in an adiabatic process?

• A. 1
• B. 0✓
• C. -1
• D. 2

Explanation: In an adiabatic process, the value of heat energy (\(Q\)) is zero. This is because, by definition, an adiabatic process is one in which no heat is exchanged between the system and its surroundings, meaning the system is perfectly insulated. Therefore, \(Q = 0\) in an adiabatic process, and any changes in internal energy are due solely to work done by or on the system.

Q187. The instantaneous velocity along the curved path is;

• A. Along the tangent✓
• B. Perpendicular to the slope
• C. Parallel to the radius
• D. Anti-parallel to the radius

Explanation: The instantaneous velocity of an object moving in a circle is directed along the tangent to the circle at the object's position. This tangential velocity indicates the direction in which the object would move if it were to continue in a straight line at that instant, following the path of the tangent.

Q188. An artificial radioactive element can be made by bombarding.

• A. Neutron✓
• B. Electron
• C. Proton
• D. Anti-neutrino

Explanation: Neutrons are used to create artificial radioactive elements because of their unique properties that make them highly effective at interacting with atomic nuclei.

Q189. The Coulomb's law states:

• A. Force between two point charges is inversely proportional to the product of the charges and directly proportional to the square of the distance between them.
• B. Force between two point charges is directly proportional to the product of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.✓
• C. Force between two point charges is directly proportional to the sum of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
• D. Force between two point charges is directly proportional to the product of the charges and to the square of the distance between them.

Explanation: Coulomb's law describes the electrostatic interaction between charged particles. It states that the force (F) between two point charges (q1 and 𝑞2) is directly proportional to the product of the magnitudes of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance (r) between them

Q190. The formula V = W / q₀ represents:

• A. Electric intensity
• B. Electric power
• C. Electric potential✓
• D. Electric field gradient

Explanation: V=W/q is the formula of electric potential.

Q191. The S.I unit of capacitance of a capacitor is:

• A. A: Coulomb
• B. B: Volt
• C. C: Farad✓
• D. D: Ampere

Explanation: The S.I unit of capacitance is the Farad (F). This unit quantifies how much electric charge a capacitor can store per volt applied across its plates. One Farad is equivalent to one coulomb of charge stored per one volt of potential difference. The other options represent different electrical units: Coulomb measures charge, Volt measures potential difference, and Ampere measures current. None of these units relate directly to the ability of a capacitor to store charge, making Farad the correct choice.

Q192. Electric intensity between two oppositely charge plates in the middle region is:

• A. Non-uniform
• B. Uniform✓
• C. Cannot be predicted
• D. Variable

Explanation: The electric intensity (or electric field strength) between two oppositely charged plates, such as in a parallel plate capacitor, is uniform.

Q193. Find the potential difference in moving a 2 C charge, which requires 600 J of work between two points.

• A. 1200V
• B. 300V✓
• C. 150V
• D. 2400V

Explanation: The potential difference V can be found using the formula = W/q=600/2=300 V

Q194. Work-done is equal to:

• A. Effort x distance✓
• B. Effort + distance
• C. Effort - distance
• D. Effort + distance

Explanation: Since work done is the product of force and distance, and effort is also a force,o effort X force gives work done.

Q195. Read the following and choose the correct answer : “ P, Q and R are one-digit, non-negative numbers. P is the smallest even number. Q is the largest odd number. R is 5.”

• A. P+Q+R= 16✓
• B. P+Q +R =12
• C. (Q+R) ×P= 30
• D. (Q+R) ×P= 8

Explanation: Let's determine the values of P, Q, and R first:P is the smallest even number → P = 2Q is the largest odd number → Q = 9R is given as 5So adding them makes 16

Q196. The government has increased the taxes on all businesses in Pakistan.Many small businesses will have to close their operation in Pakistan.

• A. Statement I is the cause and Statement II is the effect.✓
• B. Statement II is the cause and Statement I is the effect.
• C. Both statements I and II are independent causes.
• D. Both the statement I and II are the effects of independent causes.

Explanation: Here by reading out the two statements, it’s clear that because the government has increased taxes on all businesses in Pakistan (1), as a result, many small businesses will have to close their operation. Majorly because small businesses do not have capital large enough to pay increased taxes. Hence, Statement 2 here is the effect of Statement 1 i.e. the cause.

Q197. Read the passage and the following statements below. Then choose the correct option,basing your answer only on the information provided. Pakistan is rich in wildlife and culture. It is home to many sorts of wildlife,from the Ibex to the Indus River Dolphin ;and people from most countries in the world have made their home here. Statements :i. Pakistan is rich countryii. People from all nationalities of the world live in Pakistan.iii. Pakistan is home to at least one dolphin species.

• A. Only iii statement is correct✓
• B. Only i and ii are correct
• C. Only i and iii are correct
• D. Only ii and iii are correct

Explanation: Let's evaluate each statement based only on the passage:Statement i: "Pakistan is rich country" Incorrect. The passage says "Pakistan is rich in wildlife and culture", not in terms of wealth.Statement ii: "People from all nationalities of the world live in Pakistan." Incorrect. The passage says "people from most countries", not all nationalities.Statement iii: "Pakistan is home to at least one dolphin species." Correct. The passage specifically mentions the Indus River Dolphin, confirming this.Correct answer: Only statement iii is correct.

Q198. Observe the pattern and select the next term, in the sequence: JEQ, HEO, FEM.

• A. GFN
• B. DEK✓
• C. GEL
• D. DFK

Explanation: The pattern follows (-2, 0, -2) for the first, second, and third letters respectively, so the next term is DEK.

Q199. Read the following and choose the correct answer.X, Y and Z are three whole numbers less than 24 but greater than 11. X is the smallest prime number. Y is the largest number divisible by 3. Z is the smallest number divisible by 11.

• A. X is 13, Y is 24, Z is 11
• B. X is 13, Y is 21, Z is 22✓
• C. X is 11, Y is 21, Z is 11
• D. X is 11, Y is 24, Z is 22

Explanation: As the question states, the whole number is less than 24, hence options A and D are eliminated. Let's list the numbers in question, 12,13,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22,23. X is the smallest prime number. Among the numbers listed 13 is the smallest prime number so X is 13. Y is the biggest number divisible by 3. 21 is the largest number among these but it is divisible by 3. So Y is 21. Z is the number divisible by 11. Amongst all these numbers only 22 is divisible by 11. This is what makes option B the most appropriate choice.

Q200. All hammers are tools. Some tools are useless things. All useless things are trash. Which of the following is NECESSARILY TRUE given only the information above?ConclusionsI. Some hammers are trash. II. Some tools are trash.III. All useless things are tools.

• A. I and III
• B. I and II
• C. II and III
• D. II✓

Explanation: Now look at the conclusions provided, For I, if we look at the diagram some hammers are not trash hence I is wrong. For II, Some tools are trash as indicated in the yellow-shaded region hence II is correct. For III, Not ALL useless things are tools rather some useless things are tools so III is also wrong. The only option correct according to the above analyses is D ( only conclusion II).