Uhs Mdcat 2024 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Which of the following neurotransmitters is lying outside the central nervous system?

• A. Acetylcholine✓
• B. Endorphins
• C. Dopamine
• D. Gamma-aminobutyric acid

Q2. Depolarization during conduction of nerve impulse is due to:

• A. Inward movement of Na+✓
• B. Inward movement of K+
• C. Outward movement of K+
• D. Outward movement of Na+

Q3. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Autonomic Nervous System?

• A. Regulate response of visceral organs
• B. Regulate response of skeletal muscles✓
• C. Regulate response of glands
• D. Regulate response of smooth muscles

Q4. The correct ideal gas equation is

• A. qV=nRt
• B. pV=nRt✓
• C. gV=nRt
• D. yV=nRt

Q5. Taste receptor is an example of:

• A. Mechanoreceptors
• B. Nociceptors
• C. Photoreceptors
• D. Chemoreceptors✓

Q6. Mesosomes are the invagination of bacterial cell structure:

• A. Cell Wall
• B. Cell Membrane✓
• C. Plasmid
• D. Cysts

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q7. Which of the following belongs to chordates?

• A. Spider
• B. Earthworm
• C. Trout Fish✓
• D. Star Fish

Q8. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding rate of enzymatic action?

• A. Increase in enzyme concentration increases the rate
• B. Increase in enzyme concentration reduces the rate✓
• C. All enzymes work at their maximum rate at optimum temperature
• D. All enzymes work at their maximum rate at optimum pH

Q9. Induced fit model of enzyme activity suggests that enzyme:

• A. Cannot modify its active sites
• B. Can bind to a single substrate
• C. Can catalyze related reaction✓
• D. Usually belongs to non-regulatory enzyme

Q10. Female reproductive system consists all of the following except:

• A. Ovaries
• B. Oviduct
• C. Cervix
• D. Seminiferous tubules✓

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q11. Chromosomal abnormality in Turner syndrome is represented by?

• A. XXX
• B. XYY
• C. XO✓
• D. XXY

Q12. The real gases show deviation from ideal behaviour at

• A. Low temperature and low pressure
• B. High temperature and high pressure
• C. Low temperature and high pressure✓
• D. High temperature and low pressure

Q13. Which one of the following hormone is responsible for the labor pains in human female at the time of birth of baby?

• A. Estrogen
• B. Progesterone
• C. Oxytocin✓
• D. Corticosteroid

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q14. The change in frequency of alleles at a locus that occurs by chance is known as:

• A. Mutation
• B. Genetic Drift✓
• C. Non Random mating
• D. Speciation

Q15. Fluid secreted by sertoli cells provides liquid medium, protection and nourishment to:

• A. Oocyte
• B. Sperms✓
• C. Polar body
• D. Spermatogonia

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q16. Identify the correct pair of vestigial organs:

• A. Ear Muscles & Vermiform appendix✓
• B. Heart and Liver
• C. Ear Muscles & Liver
• D. Vermiform appendix & Heart

Q17. Which of the following increases variation within a gene pool?

• A. Chromosome inversion
• B. Crossing over
• C. Gene mutation✓
• D. Random fusion of gametes

Q18. Corpus luteum during female reproductive cycle produces:

• A. Testosterone
• B. Follicle stimulating hormone
• C. Luteinizing hormone
• D. Progesterone✓

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q19. In order to boil water at 110℃, external pressure should be:

• A. 200-760 torr
• B. 760-1200 torr✓
• C. 665-670 torr
• D. 660-700 torr

Q20. Which of the following statements about natural selection is not true?

• A. It affects variations that are heritable
• B. It is selected by a breeder✓
• C. It can improve the adaptation of species
• D. It is regional in nature

Q21. Which of the following is not Basic in nature

• A. Aluminum oxide✓
• B. Magnesium oxide
• C. Potassium oxide
• D. Sodium oxide

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q22. The formula calculating the frequency of genotypes and alleles in a population gene pool is known as:

• A. Hardy-Weinberg Equation✓
• B. Lamarck Equation
• C. Darwin Equation
• D. James Hutton Equation

Q23. Due to the process of follicle atresia:

• A. Follicles reach maximum size
• B. Follicle degenerates✓
• C. Graafian follicle ovulates
• D. Follicle starts to mature

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q24. The solubility of sulphates of alkaline metals generally

• A. Increase down the group
• B. Decrease down the group✓
• C. Increase then decrease down the group
• D. Doesn't change down the group

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q25. Which one of the following DO NOT have a tendency to form hydrogen bonding?

• A. Ammonia
• B. Ethyl alcohol
• C. Carboxylic
• D. Hydrocarbon✓

Q26. The idea of inheritance of acquired characteristics was presented by:

• A. Jean Baptish Lamarck✓
• B. Charles Darwin
• C. Thomas Malthus
• D. Alfred Wallace

Q27. Main function of the epididymis is to:

• A. Transport sperms✓
• B. Connect with urethra
• C. Produce semen
• D. Hold the process of spermatogenesis

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q28. Which of the following is NOT an Alloy?

• A. steel
• B. brass
• C. bronze
• D. graphite✓

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q29. According to endosymbiosis theory, flagella may have derived by the ingestion of prokaryotes similar to:

• A. Amoeboid prokaryote
• B. Aerobic bacterium
• C. Spirochete✓
• D. Spirillum

Q30. Immediate next stage of spermatogonia differentiation is:

• A. Secondary spermatocyte
• B. Spermatids
• C. Primary spermatocytes✓
• D. Sperms

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q31. Electronic configuration of chromium (Proton number 24) is

• A. (Ar) 3d4, 4S2
• B. (Ar) 3d5, 4S2
• C. (Ar) 3d5, 4S1✓
• D. [Ar] 3d6, 4s2

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q32. Insulin converts glucose into:

• A. Vitamins
• B. Minerals
• C. Lipids✓
• D. Cortisone

Q33. Boiling point of a liquid is a temperature at which:

• A. Surface tension is greater than the atmospheric pressure
• B. Viscosity is less than the atmospheric pressure
• C. Vapour pressure equals the atmospheric pressure✓
• D. Viscosity equals the atmospheric pressure

Q34. Which of the following is included in paired cranial bones?

• A. Temporal✓
• B. Occipital
• C. Frontal
• D. Vomer

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q35. About 70% of the carbon dioxide is carried in blood as:

• A. Carbonate
• B. Bicarbonate✓
• C. Tricarbonate
• D. Carbonic anhydrase

Q36. Which of the following skeletal disorder is an example of autoimmune disorder?

• A. Sciatica
• B. Spondylosis
• C. Rheumatoid arthritis✓
• D. Rickets

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q37. Which of the following is NOT a property of transition elements?

• A. High melting points
• B. Good conductors of electricity
• C. Hard metals
• D. Ions and compounds are colorless✓

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q38. Range of normal total lung capacity in humans is:

• A. 5-6 liter✓
• B. 8-9 liter
• C. 10-11 liter
• D. 12-13 liter

Q39. Which feature is possessed by smooth muscles?

• A. Voluntary
• B. Branched
• C. Uni-nucleate✓
• D. Striated appearance

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q40. 1-Butene and two Butene are showing which type of isomerism?

• A. functional group
• B. position✓
• C. metamerism
• D. chain

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q41. Respiration in Pseudomonas bacteria is:

• A. Aerobic✓
• B. Anaerobic
• C. Facultative
• D. Microaerophill

Q42. The accumulation of ‘lactic acid’ in the muscles results in:

• A. Extreme fatigue✓
• B. Muscle contraction
• C. Paralysis
• D. Convulsion

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q43. Autotrophic mode of nutrition in organism depends upon:

• A. Saprotrophic mode
• B. Parasitic mode
• C. Photosynthesis mode✓
• D. Obligate mode

Q44. Which type of isomerism is displayed by compounds having same structural formula but different position of atoms on both sides of carbon bond?

• A. chain
• B. metamerism
• C. geometric✓
• D. tautomerism

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q45. Thick filaments in skeletal muscles are composed of:

• A. Actin
• B. Myosin✓
• C. Tropomyosin
• D. Troponin

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q46. Prokaryotic cells lack:

• A. Mesosomes
• B. Ribosomes
• C. Storage bodies
• D. Membrane bound organelles✓

Q47. Whenever the crystalline solids are broken they do so along definite planes known as:

• A. Cleavage planes✓
• B. Refractory planes
• C. Sagittal planes
• D. Coronal planes

Q48. Homocyclic organic compounds are sub divided into two types namely:

• A. Alicyclic and Aromatic✓
• B. Alkenes & Alkynes
• C. Aromatic and Non aromatic
• D. Saturated & Unsaturated

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q49. Bacterial genome becomes diploid:

• A. After fertilization of gametes
• B. Before spore formation
• C. During binary fission✓
• D. After binary fission

Q50. Sarcomere is part of myofibril between:

• A. Two I bands
• B. Two A bands
• C. Two M lines
• D. Two Z lines✓

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q51. Which of the following is an example of substituent group which release electrons tobenzene ring

• A. -CN
• B. -NR3+
• C. -NH2✓
• D. -NO2

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q52. One of the following is CORRECT regarding flagella:

• A. Made up of microfilaments
• B. Contains centriole
• C. Originates from basal bodies✓
• D. They are immotile

Q53. One of the following is NOT an example of amorphous solids

• A. Plastic
• B. Glass
• C. Glucose✓
• D. Rubber

Q54. Medulla Oblongata is a part of:

• A. Forebrain
• B. Mid brain
• C. Hind brain✓
• D. Hippocampus

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q55. Which option is CORRECT about endospore?

• A. Has a short dormant period
• B. Contains moisture for survival
• C. Metabolically active
• D. Endures extreme condition✓

Q56. Which of the following is NOT a bone of upper limb?

• A. Humerus
• B. Ulna
• C. Femur✓
• D. Radius

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q57. In graphite the carbon atoms are arranged in which of the following structure?

• A. Rhombic
• B. Hexagonal✓
• C. Tetragonal
• D. Trigonal

Q58. Bacteria divide at exponential rate during which growth phase!

• A. Lag
• B. Log✓
• C. Stationary
• D. Decline

Q59. Which one of the following represents nitration of benzene correctly?

• A.
• B. ✓
• C.
• D.

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q60. The principle that states that if a stress is applied to a system at equilibrium the system nullify the effect of stress as far as possible is:

• A. Haber's
• B. Le-Chatelier✓
• C. Boyle's
• D. Charles'

Q61. Bone forming cells are:

• A. Osteoblasts✓
• B. Osteocytes
• C. Osteoclasts
• D. Osteons

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q62. Example of viruses having a polyhedral capsid that is with 252 capsomeres is:

• A. Adenovirus✓
• B. Tobacco Mosaic Virus
• C. Influenza virus
• D. Bacteriophage

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon

Q63. The chromosomes was first observed by:

• A. T. H Morgan
• B. Griffith
• C. Walther✓
• D. Mendel

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q64. In Friedel Craft acylation an acyl group is introduced in benzene ring in the presence of catalyst:

• A. AICl3✓
• B. H2SO4
• C. Sunlight
• D. V2O5

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q65. Identify the CORRECT option required for the maximum yield of ammonia by Haber's Process:

• A. High pressure, low temperature, continual removal of ammonia✓
• B. Low pressure, low temperature, continual removal of ammonia
• C. High pressure, high temperature, continual removal of ammonia
• D. High pressure, low temperature, continual addition of ammonia

Q66. Number of moles in an element is directly proportional to:

• A. Mass of an element✓
• B. Empirical formula mass
• C. Molar mass of an element
• D. Formula mass

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q67. Identify correct ascending order of reactivity of alkyt halides:

• A. Cl, Br, I, F
• B. F, CI, Br, I✓
• C. Br, I, F, CI
• D. I, F, Cl, Br

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q68. The complete, mature & infectious particle of virus is known as:

• A. Genome
• B. Capsomere
• C.
• D. Envelope✓

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon

Q69. Consider the following reaction in equilibrium and tell addition of which chemical will turn the cloudy solution into clear solution?BiCl3+H2O…>BiOCl+2HCl

• A. BiCL3
• B. H2O
• C. BiOCI
• D. HCl✓

Q70. The type and relative amount of each isotope in an element can be found by:

• A. R spectroscopy
• B. U.V spectroscopy
• C. Mass Spectrometry✓
• D. N.M.R

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q71. Identify the correct statement related to substitution and elimination of alkyt halides:

• A. Strong bases causes substitution in preference to elimination
• B. Role of leaving groups in elimination is simitar to substitution✓
• C. Substitution is favored more than elimination by decreasing solvent polarity
• D. Decrease in temperature will favor elimination more than substitution

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q72. The causative organism of measles is:

• A. Poxivirus
• B. Paporivirus
• C. Picornovirus
• D. Paramyxovirus✓

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon

Q73. Identify the correct formula to calculate rate of reaction:

• A. Change in concentration of substance+Time taken for the change✓
• B. Time taken for the change+ Change in concentration of substance
• C. Time taken for the change+ Change in concentration of substance x 100
• D. Time taken for the change x Change in concentration of substance

Q74. Alkyl Halides involving -C-X bond breakage and-C-Nu bond formation simultaneousiy

• A. SN1
• B. SN2✓
• C. E1
• D. E2

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q75. CnH2nO is the general formula of:

• A. Ether
• B. carboxylic acid
• C. ketones✓
• D. carbolic acid

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q76. In the life cycle of a bacteriophage, the lysozymes are required in which of the following steps of infection process?

• A. Genome injection
• B. Penetration✓
• C. Replication
• D. Adsorption

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon

Q77. Consider the hypothetical equation aA+bB…>cC+Dd:Which of the following represents correct rate equation?

• A. Rate=k[A](B)
• B. Rate=k[A]a(B]b
• C. Rate=k[A]a
• D. Rate=k[B]b✓

Q78. An artificial radioactive element can be made by bombarding

• A. High energy particles on unstable elements
• B. Low energy particles on unstable elements
• C. High energy particles on stable elements✓
• D. Low energy particles on stable elements

Q79. The atomic masses of element depend upon:

• A. Atomic number
• B. Number of electrons
• C. Number of isotopes & their abundance✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q80. The blue color of Fehling solution is changed to red when warmed with an aldehyde due to formation of which of the following?

• A. NO2
• B. Cu2O✓
• C. AgO
• D. SO2

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q81. _ is transmitted through infected blood and hypodermic syringes:

• A. HIV✓
• B. Influenza virus
• C. Morbilli virus (Measles)
• D. Vibrio Cholerae (Cholera)

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon

Q82. If a reaction rate does not change with concentration, then it is

• A. 3rd order
• B. 2nd order
• C. Ist order
• D. Zero order✓

Q83. Reaction of HCN with formaldehyde is a:

• A. Nucleophilic addition reaction✓
• B. Nucleophilic substitution reaction
• C. Electrophilic addition reaction
• D. Electrophilic substitution reaction

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q84. No individual atom in the sample of 1 mole of Neon has a mass of 20.18 a.m.u. because it is:

• A. Overall mass of an isobar
• B. It is a fractional mass
• C. It is molar mass of Ne
• D. Average atomic mass of Ne✓

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q85. In Calvin cycle, CO2 reacts with RuBP to produce _.

• A. 3-PGA
• B. G3P
• C. 6-Carbon unstable intermediate✓
• D. 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon

Q86. An artificial radioactive element can be made by bombarding

• A. A excess✓
• B. In mathematical term
• C. Within reach
• D. Salutation

Q87. The p orbital has:

• A. 2 lobes✓
• B. 3 lobes
• C. 4 lobes
• D. 5 lobes

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q88. Which option is correct about a chlorophyll molecule?

• A. Chemical formula C55H70O6N4Mg
• B. Porphyrin ring with nitrogen in centre
• C. Methyl group on second pyrrole ring✓
• D. Aldehyde group on second pyrrole ring

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon

Q89. Which of the following alcohol can give lodoform reaction?

• A. Methanol
• B. 1-Butanol
• C. 1-Propanol
• D. Ethanol✓

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q90. What does the word “ANCESTOR” mean?

• A. Collection of star
• B. Branch of astrology
• C. Forefathers✓
• D. Type of receptors

Q91. Which of the following is CORRECT Arrhenius equation?

• A. K-Ae^-Ea/QT
• B. K=Ae^-Ea/Rt✓
• C. K=Ae^-Ea/ST
• D. K=Ae^-Ea/UT

Q92. Which of the following electronic configurations is correct for carbon?

• A. 1s2, 2s2, 2p3
• B. 1s2, 2s2, 2P4
• C. 1s2, 2s2, 2p2✓
• D. 1s2, 2s2, 2p1

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q93. What does the word “SPILL” mean?

• A. Coil
• B. Deliver
• C. Spoil
• D. Spread✓

Q94. In the journey of electrons from photosystem II to photosystem I plastocyanin is reduced by:

• A. Plastoquinone
• B. Cytochrome complex✓
• C. P700
• D. Primary electron acceptor of PS1

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon

Q95. Common name of 2-hydroxy propanoic acid is

• A. tartaric acid
• B. lactic acid✓
• C. phthalic acid
• D. formic acid

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q96. Pick the Correct option :

• A. The supervisor has nor will ever compromise
• B. The supervisor have nor will ever compromise
• C. The supervisor has not compromised nor will ever compromise✓
• D. The supervisor has nor will ever compromised

Q97. Enzyme NADP reductase is responsible for:

• A. Reducing NADP+✓
• B. Oxidizing NADP+
• C. Reducing Ferredoxin
• D. Reducing P700

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon

Q98. In endothermic reaction,the heat content of the:

• A. Reactants and products is equal
• B. Reactants is more than that of products
• C. Products is more than that of reactants✓
• D. Reactants & Products will not change

Q99. Intermolecular forces between molecules of ideal gas are:

• A. Strong
• B. Moderate
• C. Weak
• D. Absent✓

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon.

Q100. Which of the following is correct regarding phenol

• A. Phenol and water are equally acidic
• B. Phenol is less acidic than carboxylicacid✓
• C. Phenol is less acidic than water
• D. Phenol is less acidic than ethanol

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q101. The soap……… Good.

• A. Taste
• B. Tastes✓
• C. Is tasting
• D. Has taste

Q102. The PS II during light reactions receives electrons from splitting:

• A. Water✓
• B. Plastoquinone
• C. Plastocyanin
• D. Ferredoxin

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon

Q103. All of the following steps are used to calculate the lattice energy in Born-Haber cycle EXCEPT:

• A. Atomizing the metal
• B. lonizing the metal
• C. Deionize the metal✓
• D. lonize non metal

Q104. I……….. him for a long time.

• A. Have never known✓
• B. Had never knew
• C. Had never been known
• D. Would never knew

Q105. Mono-saccharides have a general formula represented by:

• A. Cn(H2O)n✓
• B. C(H2O)n
• C. C2(H2O)n
• D. Cn(H2O)n

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon

Q106. The enthalpy change when 1 Mole of water is formed by the reaction of acid with an alkali under standard conditions is known as:

• A. Enthalpy of formation
• B. enthalpy of reaction
• C. Enthalpy of combustion
• D. Enthalpy of neutralization✓

Q107. Choose the sentence that is punctuated correctly :

• A. He said to his disciples “Watch and pray. ”
• B. He said to his disciples, “ Watch and pray. ”✓
• C. He said to his disciples, “watch and, pray”
• D. He said to his disciples’ “ watch and pray. ”

Q108. What is the percentage of H2O in bone cells?

• A. 70%
• B. 20%✓
• C. 99%
• D. 60%

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon

Q109. When carboxylic acid are heated with alcohol in the presence of sulphuric acid one ofthe following is formed

• A. amides
• B. acyl chloride
• C. esters✓
• D. acid anhydride

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q110. Choose the correct spellings.

• A. Pharaoh✓
• B. Pharoah
• C. Pheroh
• D. Pheraoh

Q111. Oxidation number of 'Mn' in KMnO4, is

• A. 0
• B. +1
• C. -7
• D. +7✓

Q112. When glycerol reacts with fatty acid, which type of chemical bond will form?

• A. Ester Bond✓
• B. Ether Linkage
• C. Hydrogen Bond
• D. Ionic Bond

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon

Q113. Choose the correct sentence

• A. She has beauty, brains and wealth-a rare combination.
• B. She has beauty, brains, and wealth-a rare combination.✓
• C. She has beauty, brains, and wealth;a rare combination.
• D. She has beauty, brains, and wealth:a rare combination.

Q114. Which one of the following is not an amino acid

• A. folic acid✓
• B. glutamic acid
• C. glycine
• D. lysine

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q115. Polysaccharides in plants are synthesized by the process of:

• A. Hydrolysis
• B. Oxidation
• C. Condensation✓
• D. Glycolysis

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon

Q116. Which step is irrelevant with respect to balancing of redox equations by oxidation number method?

• A. Split the reaction into two half reactions✓
• B. Assign oxidation number to all the atoms involved in the equation
• C. Identify the element undergoing a change in oxidation number
• D. Equalize the number of electrons lost and gained

Q117. Choose the correct sentence

• A. In 1838 schleiden suggested that all plants were made of cells’✓
• B. In 1838 schleiden suggest that all plants were made of cells
• C. In 1838 schleiden suggested that all plants were made of cells
• D. In 1838 schleiden suggested to all plants were made of cells

Q118. In an elastic collision the total kinetic energy

• A. Dissipates after collision
• B. Increases after the collision
• C. Reduces after the collision
• D. Before and after collision remains the same✓

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q119. Which of the following process is involved in breakdown of protein into Amino acids?

• A. Condensation
• B. Hydrolysis✓
• C. Glycolysis
• D. Fixation

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q120. ………… words spoken in earnest will convince him

• A. A few✓
• B. The few
• C. Few
• D. Fewer

Q121. Which of the following is NOT a correct feature of electrolytic cells?

• A. Reduction occurs at cathode
• B. Oxidation occurs at anode
• C. Alternating current source is connected to electrodes✓
• D. Electrochemical reaction takes place

Q122. He takes……… His father. Fill in the blank with appropriate preposition.

• A. Up
• B. Down
• C. After✓
• D. In

Q123. The hydrophilic end of phospholipid molecule is polar because of the presence of:

• A. Glycerol
• B. Amine group
• C. Fatty Acid
• D. Phosphate group✓

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q124. Which of the following has a coordinate bond?

• A. NaCl
• B. CaO
• C. NH3BF3✓
• D. H2O

Q125. Choose the correct sentence

• A. There's mr. hashim whome they say is the best portrait painter in the town.
• B. There's Mr. Hashim, whi they say is the best portrait painter in the town.✓
• C. Theres’ Mr. Hashim which they say is the portrait painter in the town.
• D. There's Mr. Hashim who they say is best portrait painter in the town.

Q126. Choose the correct sentence

• A. Gulliver travels was writen to swift.
• B. Gulliver travels was writen at swift.
• C. Gulliver's Travels was written by swift.✓
• D. Gulliver's travel was written by swift.

Q127. Which monosaccharide will from a gluco-pyranose ring in solution?

• A. Fructose
• B. Glucose✓
• C. Ribose
• D. Deoxyribose

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q128. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion theory?

• A. It determines the shape of molecule
• B. Pairs of electrons repel each other
• C. It helps in understanding interaction of medicinal drug molecules
• D. Only lone pairs participate in determining geometry of molecules✓

Q129. The instantaneous velocity along the curved path is;

• A. Along the tangent✓
• B. Perpendicular to the slope
• C. Parallel to the radius
• D. Anti-parallel to the radius

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q130. Choose the correct sentence

• A. “The unexamined life”, said Socrates, “is unfit to be lived by man.”✓
• B. The inexamined life, said Socrates, is unfit to be lived by man”
• C. “The unexamined life said Socrates” is disfit to be lived by man.
• D. The disexamined life” said Socrates is unfit to be lived by man.

Q131. The range of projectile will be maximum if the factor sin20 becomes

• A. zero
• B. 1✓
• C. -1
• D. 2

Explanation: explanation will be added soon

Q132. Which of the following has smallest atomic radius:

• A. Mg
• B. S✓
• C. P
• D. Na

Q133. Choose the correct sentence

• A. You have often heard of me speeking of my friend Wahaj waheed a barrister here
• B. You have often heard me speak of my friend, Wahaj Waheed, who is a barrister here.✓
• C. You have often heard me. Speak off my friend, wahaj waheed who is a Barrister here
• D. you have often heard me speak about my friend ; wahaj waheed-a barrister hear

Q134. Chloroplast are membrane bound bodies containing:

• A. Enzymes
• B. Cisternae
• C. Pigment✓
• D. Cristae

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q135. Choose the correct sentence

• A. The first space traveller was Dennis Tito from the United States.✓
• B. The First Space Traveller Was Dennis Tito, from, the United states
• C. The first space traveller was Dennis Tito-from united State
• D. The first space travaler was Dennis Tito, from the United States

Q136. The difference of lithium from the other alkali metals is mainly because of:

• A. Large radius and low charge density
• B. Small radius and low charge density
• C. Large radius and high charge density
• D. Small radius and high charge density✓

Q137. Choose the correct sentence

• A. Is was greatly good by you to proposed day's picnic at murree
• B. Is was awfully good by you to proposed a day's picnic in Murree.
• C. Is was awfully good of you to propose a day's picnic at Murree.✓
• D. It was very good off you too propose days picnic in Murree

Q138. Which of the following is the function of Golgi Complex?

• A. Intracellular digestion
• B. Autophagy
• C. Autolysis
• D. Processing of cell secretions✓

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q139. The nucleus takes dyes due to the presence of:

• A. Chromatin✓
• B. Lipid
• C. Metal ions
• D. Thylakoids

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q140. The government has increased the taxes on all businesses in Pakistan. ii. Many small businesses will have to close their operations in Pakistan.

• A. Statement i is the cause and statement ii is its effect✓
• B. Statement ii is the cause and i is its effect
• C. Both the statements i and ii are independent causes.
• D. Both the statements i and ii are effects of independent causes

Q141. The organelles only found at seeding stage in oil seed plants are:

• A. Peroxisomes
• B. Glyoxysomes✓
• C. Microbodies
• D. Vacuoles

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q142. Read the passage and the following statements below. Then choose the correct option,basing your answer only on the information provided. Pakistan is rich in wildlife and culture. It is home to many sorts of wildlife,from the Ibex to the Indus River Dolphin ;and people from most countries in the world have made their home here. Statements :i. Pakistan is rich country ii. People from all nationalities of the world live in Pakistan. iii. Pakistan is home to at least one dolphin species.

• A. Only iii statement is correct✓
• B. Only i and ii are correct
• C. Only i and iii are correct
• D. Only ii and iii are correct

Q143. Posterior lobe of pituitary produce:

• A. Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)✓
• B. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
• C. Adreno Corticufrotric Hormone (ACH)
• D. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q144. Observe the pattern and select the next term,in the sequence : JEQ, HEO, FEM

• A. GFN
• B. DEK✓
• C. GEL
• D. DFK.

Q145. In human myelinated fibres nerve impulse travels at _ meters per second.

• A. 100-120✓
• B. 130-150
• C. 160-180
• D. 190-210

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q146. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of electric forces?

• A. They act on charges
• B. They act on masses✓
• C. They can be attractive
• D. They can be repulsive

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q147. Read the following and choose the correct answer : “X, Y and Z are the three whole numbers less than 24 but greater than 11. X is the smallest prime number. Y is the larger number divisible by 3. Z is the smallest number divisible by 11?

• A. X is 13, y is 24, z is 11
• B. X is 13, y is 21,z is 22✓
• C. X is 11, y is 21, z is 11
• D. X is 11,y is 24, z is 22

Q148. The two-dimensional motion under constant acceleration due to gravity is called:

• A. Circular motion
• B. Rotational motion
• C. Projectile motion✓
• D. Vibratory motion

Q149. Nissl’s granules are groups of:

• A. Mesosomes
• B. Lysosomes
• C. Ribosomes✓
• D. Chromosome

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q150. Read the following and choose the correct answer : “ P, Q and R are one-digit, non-negative numbers. P is the smallest even number. Q is the largest odd number. R is 5.”

• A. P+Q+R= 16✓
• B. P+Q +R =12
• C. (Q+R) ×P= 30
• D. (Q+R) ×P= 8

Q151. During non-conducting state, the neuron membrane is permeable to efflux of:

• A. K+✓
• B. Na+
• C. Ca+
• D. Cl-

Explanation: Explanations will be added soon

Q152. All hammers are tools. Some tools are useless things. All useless things are trash. Which of the following conclusions is NECESSARILY TRUE given only the information above? CONCLUSIONS: i. Some hammers are trash. ii. Some tools are trash. iii. All useless things are tools.

• A. i
• B. ii✓
• C. iii
• D. i and iii

Q153. A charge of 90 C passes through a wire for 30 seconds. Then the current in the wire will be:

• A. 3A✓
• B. 0.3 A
• C. 3 mA
• D. 0.3 mA

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q154. The magnitude of the current in metals is proportional to the potential difference across it as long as the temperature of the conductor is kept constant is known as:

• A. Joule's Law
• B. Gauss Law
• C. Ohm's Law✓
• D. Ampere's Law

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q155. In velocity time graph the area under the graph is equal to the

• A. Speed of an object
• B. Velocity of an object
• C. Distance covered by object✓
• D. Acceleration of an object

Q156. When length of copper wire is doubled then resistivity becomes:

• A. Double
• B. Half
• C. Remains same✓
• D. Four times

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q157. The resistance of semi-conductor with rise in temperature:

• A. Increases
• B. Decreases✓
• C. Remain same
• D. Infinite

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q158. Volt × Ampere is the measure of:

• A. Current
• B. Volt
• C. Resistance
• D. Power✓

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q159. According to Newton's Law of Motion, the mass of the object is a quantitative measure of its

• A. Weight
• B. Inertia✓
• C. Speed
• D. Acceleration

Q160. The formula Φ = B.A represents:

• A. Electric flux
• B. Magnetic flux✓
• C. Electric flux density
• D. Gravitational flux

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q161. 1KWh= _ J?

• A. 3.6J
• B. 3.6KJ
• C. 3.6 MJ✓
• D. 3.6 GJ

Q162. Which of the following statement is incorrect for any magnetic field lines?

• A. Lines start at north pole and ends at south pole
• B. Lines never touch or cross each other
• C. The lines are curved
• D. ✓

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q163. The unit of magnetic flux density is;

• A. Wbm⁻¹
• B. Wbm
• C. Wbm⁻²✓
• D. Wb

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q164. Which of the following is a non-conservative force?

• A. Frictional force✓
• B. Effort + distance
• C. Effort-distance
• D. Effort +distance

Q165. The induced current will flow in such a direction so as to oppose the cause that produces it is statement of:

• A. Ampere's Law
• B. Faraday's Law
• C. Lenz's Law✓
• D. Joule's Law

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q166. In an AC generator the emf will be maximum when factor sinωt is equal to:

• A. Zero
• B. 2✓
• C. 1
• D. 1/2

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q167. When a force of 1N displaces its point of application by 1m in the direction of force, the work done is

• A. 1J✓
• B. 10J
• C. 0J
• D. J

Q168. Electric generators and transformers are based on the principles of:

• A. Coulomb's law
• B. Faraday's law✓
• C. Ampere's law
• D. Hook's law

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q169. An electric motor is used to lift the weight of 2.0N through a vertical distance of 100 cm in 4 sec. What is the power output of the motor?

• A. 25 W
• B. 0.5 W✓
• C. 0.75 W
• D. 1 W

Q170. In an ideal transformer:

• A. Power input is equal to Power output✓
• B. Power input is less than half of the power output
• C. Power input is greater than Power output
• D. Power input is more than half of the power output

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q171. The conversion of A.C into D.C is called rectification and circuit is called rectifier, Which component of electronics acts as a rectifier?

• A. Diode✓
• B. Transistor
• C. Transformer
• D. Inductor

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q172. The centripetal acceleration of an object moving along a circle of radius 'r' with an angular speed 'w' is given by the formula:

• A. a= r W✓
• B. a= r W
• C. a = r² W
• D. a= r² W²

Q173. Full wave rectification is given by:

• A. One diode connected in bridge type arrangements
• B. Two diodes connected in bridge type arrangements
• C. Three diodes connected in bridge type arrangements
• D. Four diodes connected in bridge type arrangements✓

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q174. A diode characteristic curve is a plot between:

• A. Current and time
• B. Voltage time✓
• C. Voltage and current
• D. Reverse voltage forward voltage

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q175. An air craft makes a turn in a horizontal circle of radius100m. It is travelling with a velocity of 250m/sec. The angular velocity of the air craft will be:

• A. 1.5 rad/sec
• B. 2.5 rad/sec✓
• C. 3 rad/sec
• D. 3.5 rad/sec

Q176. The value of Planck constant is:

• A. 6.63×10⁻³⁴ Js✓
• B. 6.63×10³⁴ Js
• C. 6.63×10-³⁴ Js⁻¹
• D. 6.63×10³⁴ Js⁻¹

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q177. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a particle moving at 10⁶ m/s and having mass 10⁻³⁰ kg:

• A. 6.6×10⁻¹⁰ m✓
• B. 1.5×10⁶ m
• C. 1.9×10⁻⁵ m
• D. 7.2×10⁻⁸ m

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q178. Light propagates through space as a wave is evident by all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. Interference
• B. Photoelectric effect✓
• C. Diffraction
• D. Polarization

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q179. A particle of mass 'm' is moving on a circular path of radius 'r' with velocity 'v', then centripetal force acting on it is F. if the velocity of particle increases by 2 times and radius of circular path increases by 4 times then new centripetal force F' will be;

• A. F' = 2F
• B. F’ = 1/2 * F
• C. F’ = 4F
• D. F’ = 4F✓

Q180. Which series falls in ultra violet region?

• A. Lyman✓
• B. Brackett
• C. Pfund
• D. Paschen

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q181. The potential through which an electron should be accelerated, so that, on collision it can lift the electron in the atom from its ground state to some higher state is known as:

• A. Ionization potential
• B. Excitation potential✓
• C. String potential
• D. Acceleration potential

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q182. A roller coaster is moving with 30m * s ^ - 1 on a circular track of radius 30m. the net mass of coaster + passengers is 'm' the centripetal force acting on it is;

• A. 900m
• B. m
• C. 450m
• D. 30m✓

Q183. Which of the following regarding X Rays is INCORRECT:

• A. Have higher wavelength than visible light✓
• B. They are part of electromagnetic spectrum
• C. They are highly penetrating in soft body tissues
• D. They are high energy photons

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q184. The unit of decay constant is;

• A. m
• B. s
• C. s⁻¹✓
• D. m-¹

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q185. Amplitude in the following figure is given as:

• A. 2m
• B. 1/2m
• C. 4 m
• D. 1m✓

Q186. If we have "N₀" number of any radioactive element then after a period of "n" half-lives the number of atoms left behind is:

• A. 2ⁿN₀
• B. (1/2)ⁿN₀✓
• C. (½ N₀)ⁿ
• D. (2N₀)ⁿ

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q187. Which of the following is NOT the Somatic biological effect of radiation?

• A. Skin burn
• B. Loss of hair
• C. Induction of cancer
• D. Genes mutation✓

Explanation: Explanation will be added soon!

Q188. Which one of the following is INCORRECT about the nodes when the string is plucked?

• A. Amplitude of vibration is zero
• B. Do not move along the string
• C. Produced at the fixed ends of strings
• D. Distance between consecutive nodes is 1 wavelength✓

Q189. In transverse waves the portion above the mean level is called:

• A. Wave front
• B. Wave crest✓
• C. Wave trough
• D. Wavelength

Q190. Which one of the following does not cause stationary waves?

• A. Two waves of equal frequency
• B. Two waves of same speed
• C. Two waves of unequal amplitude✓
• D. Two waves travelling in opposite directions

Q191. Select the appropriate Doppler equation when source is approaching the stationary observer where f₀ is the observed frequency, fₛ is frequency of source, v is the speed of sound, vₛ is the speed of source relative to observer:

• A. f₀ = fₛ (v + vₛ)/v✓
• B. f₀ = fₛ v/(v + vₛ)
• C. f₀ = fₛ v/(v - vₛ)
• D. f₀ = fₛ (v + vₛ)/(v - vₛ)

Q192. The distance between two successive particles which are exactly in the same state of vibration is called:

• A. Frequency
• B. Amplitude
• C. Wavelength✓
• D. Time period

Q193. During the isothermal process, the temperature:

• A. remains constant during the initial phase of the process
• B. remains constant throughout the process✓
• C. alters throughout the process
• D. increases throughout the process

Q194. What is the value of heat energy (Q) in an adiabatic process?

• A. 1
• B. 0
• C. -1✓
• D. 2

Q195. The Coulomb's law states:

• A. Force between two point charges is inversely proportional to the product of the charges and directly proportional to the square of the distance between them
• B. Force between two point charges is directly proportional to the product of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them✓
• C. Force between two point charges is directly proportional to the sum of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them
• D. Force between two point charges is directly proportional to the product of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them

Q196. The formula V = W / q₀ represents:

• A. Electric intensity
• B. Electric power
• C. Electric potential✓
• D. Electric field gradient

Q197. The S.I unit of capacitance of a capacitor is:

• A. Coulomb
• B. Volt
• C. Farad✓
• D. Ampere

Q198. Electric intensity between two oppositely charge plates in the middle region is:

• A. Non-uniform
• B. Uniform✓
• C. Cannot be predicted
• D. Variable

Q199. Find potential difference in moving 2 C charge which requires 600J of work between two points

• A. 1200V
• B. 300V✓
• C. 150V
• D. 2400V

Q200. Work-done is equal to:

• A. Effort x distance✓
• B. Effort + distance
• C. Effort - distance
• D. Effort + distance