Federal Mdcat 2022 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. The word 'ritual' means _.

• A. Original
• B. Religion
• C. Routine
• D. Custom✓

Explanation: 'Ritual' means custom, tradition, ceremony, etc. Hence, option D is the correct option.

Q2. Choose the correct spelling.

• A. Modarn
• B. Moderrn
• C. Modern✓
• D. Modernn

Q3. Finally, the accused was found guilty _ his crime.

• A. From
• B. Of✓
• C. For
• D. To

Explanation: We use ‘guilty of’ in a context that implies “charges" or "crime". Hence, 'of' is the correct preposition to be used in the given sentence. Option B is the correct option.

Q4. Hundreds of years old palace could not withstand the _ of heavy rain.

• A. Aftermath
• B. Havoc✓
• C. Annoyance
• D. Massacre

Explanation: Since 'havoc' means 'destruction' or 'damage', it is the most appropriate answer.

Q5. He began to _ the heap of corns very carefully.

• A. Assess
• B. Inspect✓
• C. Analyze
• D. Evaluate

Explanation: ‘Inspect’ is the most suitable word for checking the heap of corn.

Q6. How cold the night is! Which type of sentence it is?

• A. Interrogative
• B. Declarative
• C. Exclamatory✓
• D. Imperative

Explanation: An exclamatory sentence shows sudden feelings and emotions. It also ends with an exclamatory mark. It perfectly complements the given sentence, so option C is correct.

Q7. It _ good players who bring good names to a country.

• A. Was
• B. Were
• C. Is✓
• D. Are

Explanation: This MCQ deals with subject-verb agreement. 'It' is a singular subject, and it must be followed by a singular verb of present tense. Hence, "(is)" is the most appropriate option.

Q8. I don't think I _ be able to go.

• A. Can
• B. Should
• C. Shall✓
• D. Must

Explanation: 'Shall' implies that the action will be done in the future. In the sentence, it would mean that the person does not think he would be able to go. Hence, option C is the most suitable option.

Q9. Ethics _ important for a peaceful and loving society.

• A. Have
• B. Has
• C. Are✓
• D. Is

Explanation: 'Ethics' is the plural form of 'ethic'. According to the rules of subject-verb agreement, plural subjects take plural verbs. Hence, "are" is the correct verb to use.

Q10. Engineers _ working on a new project for the last three days.

• A. Are
• B. Has been
• C. Have been✓
• D. Ought to be

Explanation: The given sentence is an example of the "present perfect continuous" tense, indicated by its structure. 'Engineers' is a plural noun, so it must also be followed by a plural verb. Hence, "have been" is the correct option.

Q11. The word CREDENTIALS mean

• A. Trust
• B. Qualification✓
• C. Credits
• D. Belief

Explanation: The most suitable meaning for the word "credentials" is 'qualification'. Hence, option B is the correct option.

Q12. Identify the error and choose the correct option.

• A. The wind blew, the rain fell, and the lightning flashed.✓
• B. The wind bleu the rain fell, and the lightning flashed
• C. The wind blew the rain fell, and the lightning flashed
• D. The wind blew, the rain fell; and the lightning flashed.

Explanation: Option A is correct because of the correct use of punctuation. In the sentence, the cumulative conjunction ‘and’ has been used to join the following sentences.1) The wind blew.2) The rain fell.3) The lightning flashed.

Q13. Identify the errors and choose the correct option.

• A. There·s mr. Hashim whom they say is the best portrait painter in the town.
• B. There's Mr. Hashim, who they say is the best portrait painter in the town.✓
• C. Theres' Mr. Hashim which they say is the portrait painter in the town.
• D. There's Mr. Hashim who they say is best portrait painter in the town.

Explanation: There's Mr. Hashim, who they say is the best portrait painter in the town.

Q14. Choose the correct option. Negotiations between the two sides have .............

• A. Broken off✓
• B. Broken down
• C. Broken up
• D. Broken in

Explanation: The phrasal verb 'broken off' refers to the termination or discontinuation of negotiations. It is the most suitable phrasal verb for the given situation, hence, option A is the correct option.

Q15. Choose the correct sentence.

• A. Does your tram leaw before eight o'clock?
• B. Does your train leave before eight clock?
• C. Does your train leave before eight o'clock?✓
• D. Do your train leave before eight o'clock?

Explanation: In this corrected sentence: "Does" is the correct auxiliary verb used with a singular subject to form a question in the present tense. "your" is the possessive pronoun, indicating that the train belongs to the person being addressed. "train" is the noun representing the mode of transportation. "leave" is the main verb, representing the action of the train departing or starting its journey. "before eight o'clock" is a prepositional phrase indicating the time when the action (leaving) is happening. With the "Does" correction, the sentence now asks whether the person's train departs or starts its journey before 8 o'clock. It is grammatically correct and properly formed.

Q16. Identify the error in the sentence and choose the correct answer.

• A. Tennis gives you plenty of exercise, it develops quickness of eyes and calls your brain, your thinking power into action.
• B. Tennis gives you plenti off exercise, it develops quickness of eyes and limb your brain, your thinking power into action.
• C. Tennis gives you plenti off exercise, it develops quickness of eyes and limb upon your brane, your thinking power over action.
• D. Tennis gives you plenty of exercise; it develops quickness of eyes and calls your brain, your thinking power into action.✓

Explanation: As there are no grammatical errors in the option D, it is the correct option.

Q17. Each grana consist of _ thylakoids.

• A. 40 to 60
• B. 25 to 50✓
• C. 50 to 70
• D. 100 to 200

Explanation: Each granum consists of 25-50 thylakoids in it. Hence, option B is the correct option.

Q18. The terminal ends of chromosomes are called _.

• A. Satellites
• B. Kinetochores
• C. Nuclear organisation
• D. Telomeres✓

Explanation: The terminal ends of a chromosome are called telomeres. Hence, option D is the correct option.

Q19. Which organelle is more abundant in secretory cells than other cells?

• A. Lysosomes
• B. Golgi vesicles✓
• C. Vacuoles
• D. Centrioles

Explanation: Golgi complex is involved in processing secretions. Therefore, it is abundant in secretory cells. Option B is the correct option.

Q20. The structure which disappears during cell division is _.

• A. Vacuoles
• B. Lysosomes
• C. Nucleolus✓
• D. Endoplasmic reticulum

Explanation: Among the given options, the nucleolus is the only structure that disappears during cell division. Option C is the correct option.

Q21. The enzyme ATP synthase is located in the membrane of?

• A. Mitochondria✓
• B. Lysosomes
• C. Golgi apparatus
• D. Nucleus

Explanation: The ATP synthases comprise a very large group of highly conserved enzymes that are found in the bacterial cytoplasmic membranes, the thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts, and the inner membranes of mitochondria.

Q22. Which axon transmits the action potential more rapidly?

• A. 1mm diameter neuron, lacking myelin
• B. 1mm diameter neuron, with myelin
• C. 2mm diameter neuron, lacking myelin
• D. 2mm diameter neuron with myelin✓

Explanation: The action potential is an electric impulse, and the speed of a nerve impulse is directly related to its diameter. As the diameter is greater; 2mm, nerve impulse transmission is faster. In addition, conduction in myelinated neurons is more rapid because it jumps from node to node.Resultantly, a 2mm diameter neuron with myelin sheath will conduct impulses more quickly. Hence, option D is the correct option.

Q23. Vasopressin is an example of _.

• A. Steroid hormone
• B. Catechol amine
• C. Peptide hormone✓
• D. Glycoprotein

Explanation: Chemically, vasopressin is a peptide hormone, particularly nonapeptide (i.e. having nine amino acids). Hence, option C is the correct option.

Q24. Which function is not controlled by hypothalamus?

• A. Regulates hunger
• B. Regulate sleep
• C. Regulate water balance
• D. Store long time memory✓

Explanation: The functions of the hypothalamus are regulatory, such as regulating water retention, and temperature. It is not involved with memory storage. Hence, option D is the correct option.

Q25. Posteriot lobe of pituitary gland produces _.

• A. Oxytocin✓
• B. TSH
• C. ACTH
• D. FSH

Explanation: Options B, C, and D are all incorrect because these hormones are produced and secreted from the anterior pituitary.The posterior pituitary does not produce any hormone, but it secretes oxytocin and vasopressin. Hence Oxytocin (A) is the best option.

Q26. In neurons, the message is transmitted across synapses in the form of a chemical messenger called _.

• A. Communication
• B. Neurotransmitter✓
• C. Nerve impulse
• D. Nocireceptor

Explanation: Neurotransmitters are chemical messengers which transmit messages across synapses in neurons. Hence, option B is the correct option.

Q27. Microscopic gap between the two neurons is called _.

• A. Synapsis
• B. Synapse✓
• C. Collapse
• D. Synaptic knob

Explanation: The places where neurons connect and communicate with each other, and have microscopic gap, are called synapses. Hence, option B is the correct option.

Q28. In a reflex arc, the cell body of sensory neuron is located at _.

• A. Ventral root ganglion
• B. Grey matter of spinal cord
• C. White matter of spinal cord
• D. Dorsal root ganglion✓

Explanation: The cell body of the spinal sensory afferent is in the dorsal root ganglion (the cranial equivalent is the nucleus of the cranial nerve). This is the afferent limb of the reflex arc. Hence, option D is the correct option.

Q29. The feelings and emotions of love and hate are controlled by _.

• A. Amygdalae✓
• B. Hippocampus
• C. Thalamus
• D. Hypothalamus

Explanation: Amygdalae is the part of the brain that is involved with emotions and feelings. Hence, option A is the correct option.

Q30. Which of the following is true about amoeba?

• A. They have flagella
• B. They are multicellular
• C. They do not cause any disease in human
• D. They move by pseudopodia✓

Explanation: Amoeba belongs to the phylum Sarcodina of the kingdom Protozoa. Pseudopodia is a characteristic of their phylum. Hence, option D is the correct option.

Q31. Negative feedback mechanism is the characteristic of which class?

• A. Class Fish
• B. Class Amphibia
• C. Class Reptilia
• D. Class Mammalia✓

Explanation: Negative feedback is a type of regulation in biological systems in which the end product of a process, in turn, reduces the stimulus of that same process. Feedback, in general, is a regulatory mechanism present in many biological reactions. By allowing certain pathways to be turned off and on, the body can control various aspects of its internal environment. Examples of negative feedback include regulation of blood glucose levels and temperature regulation of the body.

Q32. The catalytic activity of enzyme is restricted to a small portion called _.

• A. Active site✓
• B. Passive site
• C. Allosteric site
• D. Regulatory site

Explanation: Enzymes have two sites, active and allosteric. The active site is the one where a substrate is attached and converted into a product. Hence, option A is the correct option.

Q33. The maximum enzymatic activity of pepsin is shown at _.

• A. pH 2✓
• B. pH 4
• C. pH 6
• D. pH8

Explanation: Pepsin shows maximum activity in a strongly acidic medium. Hence, pH 2 is the optimum pH for pepsin. Option A is the correct option.

Q34. Most enzymes have an optimum temperature of around _.

• A. 30°C
• B. 40°C✓
• C. 50°C
• D. 80°C

Explanation: Normal body temperature is 37°C, but it can rise to 40°C. So, human enzymes show maximum activity at this temperature.

Q35. Enzymes work by lowering the _ of the reaction they catalyze.

• A. Kinetic energy
• B. Activation energy✓
• C. Heat energy
• D. Potential energy

Explanation: Enzymes speed up chemical reactions by lowering their activation energy. Hence, option B is the correct option.

Q36. In terms of enzyme action, maximum temperature refers to a temperature at which _.

• A. Enzyme starts to denature✓
• B. Enzyme starts to renature
• C. Enzyme works best
• D. Enzyme is reactivated

Explanation: At higher temperatures, enzymes denature and lose their function. The maximum temperature is the most temperature enzymes can bear before they denature. Hence, option A is the correct option.

Q37. _ reduces the enzyme productivity by blocking the substrate to enter the active site due to similar shape.

• A. Competitive inhibitor✓
• B. Non-competitive inhibitor
• C. Coenzyme
• D. Activator

Explanation: Competitive inhibitors are those that cause competition between substrate and inhibitor. There is a similarity between substrate and inhibitor, due to which the inhibitor can attach to the active site and block enzymatic activity. Hence, option A is the correct option.

Q38. He presented the theory of origin of species by means of natural selection.

• A. Lamarck
• B. Linneaus
• C. Hardy- Weinberg
• D. Darwin✓

Explanation: Darwin proposed the theory of origin of species by means of natural selection. So, option D is the correct option.

Q39. Among the oldest known fossils comes the _.

• A. Prokaryotes✓
• B. Amphibians
• C. Reptiles
• D. Fishes

Explanation: Prokaryotes are the oldest known organisms. So it follows that the oldest fossils would be of prokaryotes as well. Option A is the correct option.

Q40. Which is the contribution of hormone cholecystokinin?

• A. Facilitates release of bile from the gallbladder✓
• B. Mucus release from the stomach
• C. Production of bile from the liver
• D. Gastric juice release from stomach

Explanation: The hormone cholecystokinin helps in releasing bile from the gall bladder. Hence, option A is the correct option.

Q41. Which of the following is not the component of bile?

• A. Digestive enzymes✓
• B. Salts
• C. Mucus
• D. Lecithin

Explanation: Digestive enzymes are not a part of bile composition. Hence, option A is the correct option.

Q42. The first chemical digestion of proteins takes place in _.

• A. Mouth
• B. Oesophagus
• C. Stomach✓
• D. Intestine

Explanation: Food first enters the mouth, where it is chewed up (physical digestion) and amylase is added (starch digestion). Then it goes through oesophagus to the stomach, where protein digestion occurs. So the stomach is the first site of protein digestion.

Q43. Select the duration of cardiac cycle.

• A. 0.6s
• B. 0.4s
• C. 0.8s✓
• D. 0.7s

Explanation: The cardiac cycle typically lasts for 0.8 seconds; 0.4 seconds for diastole, 0.1 seconds for atrial systole, and 0.3 seconds for ventricular systole. Option C is the correct option.

Q44. Select the hormone which increases the activity of parietal and chief cells.

• A. Cholecystokinin
• B. Secretin
• C. Gastrin✓
• D. Acetylcholine

Explanation: Gastrin is produced in the stomach and plays a role in stimulating the release of gastric acid, and pepsinogen from parietal and chief cells, respectively. Hence, option C is the correct option.

Q45. The pathway of water transportation, in which water moves through plasmodesmata is _.

• A. Apoplast
• B. Symplast✓
• C. Vaculoar
• D. Ascent of sap

Explanation: In the symplast pathway, water travels from one cell to another through plasmodesmata. Hence, option B is the correct option.

Q46. Intracellular digestion of food is done by the organelle _.

• A. Vacuoles
• B. Ribosome
• C. Golgi bodies
• D. Lysosomes✓

Explanation: Lysosomes are single-membranous structures that contain digestive enzymes for intracellular digestion.

Q47. Enzyme trypsinogen is activated by _.

• A. HCl
• B. Pepsin
• C. Enterokinase✓
• D. Eyrpsin

Explanation: The enzyme 'enterokinase' activates trypsinogen into its active form 'trypsin'. Hence, option C is the correct option.

Q48. Emulsification of large fat globules is facilitated by _.

• A. Lipase
• B. Bile salts✓
• C. Trypsin
• D. Chymotrypsin

Explanation: Emulsification of fat globules is done by bile salts present in bile juice, secreted by the gall bladder. Hence, option B is the correct option.

Q49. The area between the two lungs is called _.

• A. Periosteum
• B. Infundibulum
• C. Mediastinum✓
• D. Hilum

Explanation: The area between two lungs is called the mediastinum. The organs in this area include the heart and its large blood vessels, the trachea, the esophagus, the thymus, and lymph nodes but not the lungs.

Q50. In human heart, the left atrium receives _.

• A. Superior vena cava
• B. Inferior vena cava
• C. Coronary sinus
• D. Four pulmonary veins✓

Explanation: The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs. This blood is carried by four pulmonary veins. Hence, option D is the correct option.

Q51. All viruses are _.

• A. Autotrophs
• B. Heterotrophs
• C. Parasites✓
• D. Predators

Explanation: Parasites are organisms that use other organisms for food, shelter, etc, and in exchange, they harm them. Viruses live and multiply in different cells, and in exchange, cause diseases. Hence, they fit in the definition of a parasite.

Q52. Which of the following is transmitted through infected blood and syringes?

• A. HIV✓
• B. Influenza virus
• C. Morbili virus
• D. Vibrio cholera

Explanation: HIV is transmitted through the exchange of bodily fluids such as blood or sweat. Dirty needles may contain traces of blood and when they are used by another person particles of HIV will transfer to them and cause AIDS. Hence, option A is the correct option.

Q53. Light independent phase of photosynthesis involves _.

• A. Formation of energy rich carbohydrates✓
• B. Hydrolysis of water
• C. ATP generation
• D. Production of reducing molecule

Explanation: Hydrolysis of water, ATP generation, and production of reducing molecules are all part of the light-dependent phase of photosynthesis. Light independent phase involves the reaction of G3P to form energy-rich glucose so option A is correct

Q54. The element whose electrons are excited during light reactions of photosynthesis is _.

• A. Carbon
• B. Hydrogen
• C. Magnesium✓
• D. Nitrogen

Explanation: Magnesium has two electrons in its outer shell, so it has a tendency to lose them. When light falls on chlorophyll, the two electrons of magnesium are excited, and they jump to a higher state where the primary electron acceptor absorbs them. Hence, option C is the correct option.

Q55. Select an example of a fibrous protein.

• A. Enzymes
• B. Collagen✓
• C. Hb
• D. Hormones

Explanation: Fibrous proteins are those which have a spindle or rectangular shape. Usually, they have a secondary level of bonding and are involved in maintaining structures. Options A, C, and D are all functional, globular proteins. Collagen is the only structural, fibrous protein. Hence, option B is correct.

Q56. Which function is not performed by proteins?

• A. Providing structural support to cell
• B. Catalyzing biochemical reactions
• C. Transporting material across membrane
• D. Providing insulation against heat loss✓

Explanation: Options A, B, and C are all functions of proteins. Option D is the only one that is not performed by proteins. Instead, it is performed by lipids. Hence, option D is correct.

Q57. Three hydrophobic fatty acid tails and a glycerol molecule join to form a _.

• A. Monoglyceride
• B. Diglyceride
• C. Triglyceride✓
• D. Phospholipids

Explanation: Esterification of alcohol with fatty acid results in the formation of acylglycerol, also called glyceride.When three fatty acids are involved in forming an ester bond with glycerol, a triglyceride is formed.

Q58. Which bond is the potential source of energy for cellular activities?

• A. C=O
• B. C-H✓
• C. C-R
• D. C-N

Explanation: We know that lipids are a good energy source due to the abundance of C-H bonds, so we conclude that the C-H bond stores a large amount of energy. The energy released during the breakdown of glucose is also due to the breakdown of C-H bonds. Hence, option B is correct.

Q59. Which property of water enables it to act as a temperature stabilizer in living organisms?

• A. High polarity
• B. Being non-polar
• C. High specific heat capacity✓
• D. High heat of vaporization

Explanation: Water has a high specific heat capacity, which means that a large quantity of heat energy is required to bring a 1-degree Celsius change in temperature. So, it can absorb large amounts of heat easily. In this way, it stays cool while surrounding substances. For this reason, it is used as a temperature regulator. Hence, option C is correct.

Q60. Which molecule does not contribute in the formation of biological membrane?

• A. Glycoprotein
• B. Glycolipids
• C. Phospholipid
• D. Nucleoprotein✓

Explanation: Phospholipids are the main component of membranes, and glycolipids and glycoproteins are embedded in them. Nucleoproteins are not involved in membrane formation. Instead, they are found in chromosomes, cytoplasm, and ribosomes. Hence, option D is the correct option.

Q61. Which of the following carbohydrates are sweet among all?

• A. Monosacchrides✓
• B. Disacchrides
• C. Oligosacchride
• D. Polysacchride

Explanation: Monosaccharides are the simplest and the sweetest sugars. Option A is the correct option.

Q62. Which organelle of an animal cell is called a suicidal bag?

• A. Peroxisomes
• B. Lysosomes✓
• C. Glyoxysome
• D. Food vacuoles

Explanation: Lysosomes are called "suicide bags" of the cell because they have hydrolytic enzymes stored in them. These enzymes are used to digest complex molecules in a cell. When released into the cytoplasm, these enzymes can "digest" or destroy the cell itself. Therefore, they are called "suicide bags.

Q63. Chemically, cell wall of fungi is made up of _.

• A. Cellulose
• B. Lignin
• C. Chitin✓
• D. Murine

Explanation: Cell wall of fungi is made up of chitin.

Q64. The organelle which transmit neurotransmitters in the nervous pathway is _.

• A. Glyoxysome
• B. Peroxisomes
• C. Golgi bodies✓
• D. Endoplasmic Reticulum

Explanation: Golgi Apparatus produces secretions of various substances, so it is also involved in secreting neurotransmitters.

Q65. The inner membrane of mitochondria is folded to form a finger like _.

• A. Cisternae
• B. Cristae✓
• C. Chromatin
• D. Chloroplast

Explanation: Cristae are the folded invagination of the mitochondrial inner membrane.

Q66. Adenylyl cyclase in the cell membrane act as _.

• A. Channel protein
• B. Carrier protein
• C. Enzyme✓
• D. Receptor

Explanation: Adenylate cyclase is an enzyme involved in the conversion of ATP to cyclic AMP. In addition, enzymes can be recognized by the suffix 'ase' appearing in their name. Option C is the correct option.

Q67. Glycogen lipid droplet forms the most important _ of the cell.

• A. Cell organelle
• B. Cell inclusions✓
• C. Non-membranous organelle
• D. Cell matrix

Explanation: Cell inclusions are non-living components within a cell that are temporarily or permanently present. They are not essential but serve various functions. Glycogen lipid droplets are also included in cell inclusions, so option B is correct.

Q68. Vaccination is an example of _.

• A. Natural passive immunity
• B. Natural active immunity
• C. Acquired active immunity✓
• D. Acquired passive immunity

Explanation: Vaccines are antigens injected into the body (artificially) but our body cells are the ones producing antibodies. Hence, this is an example of acquired active immunity.

Q69. Lymphatic system contains all of the following organs except _.

• A. Lymph masses
• B. Lymph vessel
• C. Spleen
• D. Lungs✓

Explanation: All options are part of the lymphatic system, except the lungs. Option D is the correct option.

Q70. The unique macromolecule in the bacterial cell wall is _.

• A. Polysaccharide
• B. Proteins
• C. Peptidoglycan✓
• D. Cholestrol

Explanation: The bacterial cell wall contains a unique macromolecule, called murein, which is a peptidoglycan. Option C is the correct option.

Q71. Transfer of genetic material from one bacteria to another through a third party usually a bacteriophage is called?

• A. Conjugation
• B. Transformation
• C. Transduction✓
• D. Transportation

Explanation: Transduction is the process by which a virus transfers genetic material from one bacterium to another through a third party.

Q72. All of the following are the physical methods to control bacteria except _.

• A. Sterilization
• B. Boiling
• C. Radiation
• D. Antiseptics✓

Explanation: Sterilization, boiling, and radiation are physical methods to control bacteria, except antiseptics which is a chemical method.

Q73. Which of the following helps in developing immunity against germs?

• A. Radiotherapy
• B. Chemotherapy
• C. Vaccination✓
• D. Antibiotics

Explanation: Vaccination helps acquire immunity against germs.

Q74. After fertilization, the zygote takes _ for its journey from the fallopian tube toward uterus.

• A. 6-7 days✓
• B. 3-6 days
• C. 10-12 days
• D. 12-15 days

Explanation: It is a fact that after fertilization in the proximal part of the fallopian tube, the zygote takes 6-7 days till it reaches the uterus. Hence, option A is the correct option.

Q75. The best temperature for spermatogenesis is

• A. 37 °C
• B. 32°C
• C. 30°C
• D. 35°C✓

Explanation: It is a fact that 35°C is the best temperature for spermatogenesis. Option D is the correct option.

Q76. In human female, FSH stimulates

• A. Follicle development✓
• B. Ovulation
• C. Embryo implantation
• D. Menstruation

Explanation: As its name suggests, follicle-stimulating hormone stimulates and helps in the development of FOLLICLES. Hence, option A is correct.

Q77. In human female FSH stimulate

• A. Follicle development✓
• B. Ovulation
• C. Embryo implantation
• D. Menstruation

Explanation: As its name suggests, follicle-stimulating hormone stimulates and helps in the development of FOLLICLES. Hence, option A is correct.

Q78. Leydig cells in testes are responsible for

• A. Testosterone production✓
• B. FSH production
• C. Sperm production
• D. Testosterone inhibition

Explanation: Leydig cells function to stimulate the production of the hormone testosterone.

Q79. Muscle contraction involves the breakdown of cross-bridges of active myosin filaments due to the following process.

• A. ATP is oxidized
• B. ATP is reduced
• C. ATP is hydrolyzed✓
• D. ATP is synthesized

Explanation: Hydrolysis of ATP occurs during the breakdown of cross-bridges in a myofibril.

Q80. _ is the inflammation of joints.

• A. Osteoarthritis✓
• B. Osteoporosis
• C. Arteriosclerosis
• D. Osteosclerosis

Explanation: Joint inflammation is also known as osteoarthritis. The word ITIS is used to determine inflammation. Option A is the correct option.

Q81. Tetany is caused by _ in blood.

• A. Low Ca✓
• B. High Ca
• C. Low Mg
• D. High Mg

Explanation: Tetany is a calcium deficiency disease. Option A is the correct option.

Q82. What is the function of myoglobin?

• A. Store oxygen✓
• B. Store CO2
• C. Transport oxygen
• D. Transport CO2

Explanation: Myoglobin stores oxygen in muscles. Hence, option A is the correct option.

Q83. A joint in which the ends of bones are covered with hyaline cartilage and are held together by surrounding tubes like capsules of dense connective tissue is called

• A. Cartilaginous joint
• B. Synovial joint✓
• C. Fibrous joint
• D. Immovable joints

Explanation: Synovial joints are surrounded by a layer of fibrous capsules. They also have bones covered by hyaline cartilage, so option B is correct.

Q84. These are the genes which tend to be inherited together and do not assort independently.

• A. Linked genes✓
• B. Dependent genes
• C. Recombinant genes
• D. Independent genes

Explanation: Linked genes are so close to each other, that during division they are not separated, and as a result, are passed on to the next generation together.

Q85. Mendelian inheritance follows which of the following dominance relation?

• A. Complete dominance✓
• B. Incomplete dominance
• C. Co-dominance
• D. Multiple allelic dominance

Explanation: Mendel's theory discusses complete dominance. Option A is correct.

Q86. The molecules of iodine form the _.

• A. Molecular crystals✓
• B. Ionic crystals
• C. Covalent crystals
• D. Metallic crystal

Explanation: Iodine is a molecular crystal due to its non-polar nature.

Q87. When 2 ice cubes are pressed over each other they unite to form one cube due to:

• A. Dipole dipole interaction
• B. Covalent interaction
• C. Van der Waals force
• D. H bonding✓

Explanation: The ice cube units join together due to hydrogen bonding between highly positive charged hydrogen atoms and highly negative charge of oxygen atoms among water molecules. This option is the correct option.

Q88. For the chemical reaction N2(g) +3H2(g) ->2NH3(g), we can maximize the yield by

• A. By increasing temperature
• B. By decreasing pressure
• C. By increasing volume of reaction vessel
• D. By continous withdrawl of ammonia after intervals✓

Explanation: Continual withdrawal of NH3 shifts the equilibrium to the right side to balance the effect of decreasing the amount of NH3 (Le Chatelier principle). Hence, option D is correct.

Q89. High pressure of 200 atm in Haber process is used for:

• A. Better yield✓
• B. Lower yeild
• C. Lower rate
• D. Cost change

Explanation: Increasing the pressure increases the yield in Haber's process because the number of moles of products is less than the number of moles of reactants. Increasing the pressure shifts the equilibrium to the right.

Q90. By which of the following factors equilibrium state is attained earlier?

• A. Temperature
• B. Pressure
• C. Concentrations
• D. Catalysts✓

Explanation: Only using a catalyst can help attain equilibrium earlier as it speeds up the rate of both forward and backward reactions. This enhances the rate at which equilibrium is established.

Q91. Which of the following is not the use of a buffer solution?

• A. Use for calibration of pH meter
• B. Use to preserve biological specimen
• C. Maintain pH of human blood
• D. Predict the concentration of a substance✓

Explanation: Buffer solutions are not used to predict the concentration of a substance. They are primarily used to maintain a stable pH. However, buffer solutions can be employed in certain analytical techniques, such as spectrophotometry, to ensure the accurate measurement of a substance's concentration by maintaining the desired pH conditions. Nonetheless, the buffer solution itself does not directly predict the concentration of the substance being analyzed.

Q92. What is incorrect about the activated complex?

• A. It is high energy species
• B. It is a stable species✓
• C. It is an unstable specie
• D. Potential energy is maximum at activated complex stage

Explanation: The activated complex is temporary and unstable because the energy is more elevated than the products or reactants. An activated complex breaks down into reactants if there isn't sufficient energy for the complex to result in products. The products are only formed if there is sufficient energy available.

Q93. The unit of rate constant is the same as that of the rate of reaction in which of the following order of the reaction?

• A. zero✓
• B. first
• C. second
• D. third

Explanation: As the order of reaction being zero means the concentration of reactants has no effect on the rate of reaction. The rate equation becomes Rate=k[reactants]^0 → Rate=k.

Q94. If a reaction is first order with respect to a reactant then the rate will be —--- if the concentration of the reactant is doubled.

• A. Doubled✓
• B. halved
• C. One fourth
• D. quadrupled

Explanation: When a reaction is said to be first order with respect to a reactant, it means that the rate of the reaction is directly proportional to the concentration of that reactant raised to the power of one. Mathematically, if we have a first-order reaction with respect to reactant A, the rate equation would be expressed as: rate = k[A]^1 Where [A] represents the concentration of reactant A, and k is the rate constant Now, if the concentration of reactant A is doubled, the new concentration would be 2[A]. Substituting this into the rate equation: new rate = k[2A]^1 Since 2A is twice the concentration of A, we can simplify the equation as follows: new rate = 2k[A]^1 As we can see, the new rate is twice the original rate. Therefore, if the concentration of the reactant is doubled, the rate will also be doubled. This is why option A is correct.

Q95. The correct equation for the first law of thermodynamic is:

• A. E = q + w✓
• B. E = w-q
• C. E = q –PV
• D. E = q +PV

Explanation: Option A (E = q + w) is the correct equation because it accounts for both the heat added to the system (q) and the work done on or by the system (w) in determining the change in internal energy (E) according to the first law of thermodynamics.

Q96. One calorie is equal to:

• A. 4.18 KJ
• B. 4.18J✓
• C. 0.418 KJ mol-1
• D. 0.418 KJ

Explanation: 1 Calorie=4.18 joules

Q97. The thermal energy at constant pressure is called:

• A. Enthalpy✓
• B. Internal energy
• C. Heat capacity
• D. work done

Explanation: Enthalpy is defined as the sum of the internal energy of a system and the product of its pressure and volume. It is specifically used to describe the thermal energy of a system at constant pressure. Enthalpy change is related to the heat transfer occurring at constant pressure, making it the appropriate term for thermal energy under these conditions.

Q98. Which statement correctly describes the term standard electrode potential?

• A. It is the electrode potential determined at room temperature and pressure.
• B. It is the electrode potential determined under standard conditions using standard hydrogen electrode as the other electrode✓
• C. It is the electrode potential of an element and its solution compared to a standard value.
• D. It is the potential which is measured when the two half cells are connected together.

Explanation: The correct option B describes the standard electrode potential accurately. It emphasizes that the standard electrode potential is determined under specific standard conditions and involves using a standard hydrogen electrode as the reference electrode for comparison.

Q99. Oxidation number of an element in free state is:

• A. Negative
• B. positive
• C. zero✓
• D. +/-1

Explanation: In a free state, an element exists in its elemental form, meaning it consists of individual atoms of that element. In this state, the oxidation number of the element is always zero. The oxidation number, also known as the oxidation state, is a number that represents the hypothetical charge an atom would have if all its bonds were 100% ionic.

Q100. The branch of science which deals with the conversion of electrical and chemical energy and vice versa is called.

• A. Electrochemistry✓
• B. Thermochemistry
• C. Stereochemistry
• D. Biochemistry

Explanation: Electrochemistry is the branch of chemistry, which deals with the inter-conversion of electrical energy and chemical energy.

Q101. Which of the following has the greatest difference of electronegativity?

• A. HF✓
• B. HCl
• C. HBr
• D. HI

Explanation: Considering the electronegativity trends, Down the group electronegativity of elements in the periodic table decreases while the value increases along the period. If we compare using values of electronegativity. So, option A has the greatest electronegativity difference.

Q102. Ionization energy decreases down the group because:

• A. Shielding remains constant
• B. Atomic radius remains constant
• C. Proton number increases
• D. Atomic radius increase✓

Explanation: Ionization energy is the energy needed to remove an electron from its atom. Down the group, Atomic radius as well as shielding increases, as a result, the attraction forces between electrons and nucleus reduces. Hence, less energy is required for electrons surrounding the nucleus to be removed from the atom i.e. ionization energy.

Q103. Carbon atoms in ethane are —-- hybridized?

• A. sp3✓
• B. sp2
• C. sp
• D. sp3d

Explanation: The carbon atom in ethane forms 4 bonds with hydrogen atoms showing tetrahedral geometry. Hence exhibit sp3 hybridization.

Q104. The type of bonding in Zinc is:

• A. Ionic
• B. Covalent
• C. Dative
• D. Metallic✓

Explanation: Zinc is a metal. All metals exhibit metallic bonding between their atoms. Metallic bonding occurs between metal atoms and is characterized by the sharing of valence electrons among a sea of delocalized electrons. In metallic bonds, the valence electrons are not tightly held by individual atoms but are free to move throughout the entire metal structure.

Q105. Which one of the following is a semiconductor?

• A. Al
• B. Si✓
• C. P
• D. Mg

Explanation: Electricity does not conduct in this pure monocrystalline silicon, when silicon is doped with impurities it becomes conductive. But silicon does not have conductivity comparable to conductors, it is very less but much more than that of insulators which is why it is called a semiconductor.

Q106. Which of the following properties decreases in group 2 as we go down the group?

• A. Shielding
• B. Atomic number
• C. proton number
• D. Ionization energy✓

Explanation: Ionization energy always decreases down the group because atomic size increases which weakens the force of attraction between the nucleus and electrons surrounding it. So, it becomes easy to remove electrons from the atom

Q107. Which of the following alkali metals can form normal oxide as well as peroxide?

• A. Na✓
• B. K
• C. Li
• D. Cs

Explanation: Na forms normal oxide during deficiency of oxygen and peroxide when provided with excess of oxygen.

Q108. The transition element which doesn't show variable valency?

• A. Cu
• B. Sc
• C. Zn✓
• D. Cr

Explanation: The answer to the question should be option C because Zinc does not show the variable valency as elements of the d-block. After all, the d-orbital is full. Its outer electronic configuration is 3d^10 4s^2 So, they tend to lose only 2 electrons from its outermost shell. Hence, only show a valency of +2 and no variable valency.

Q109. The binding energy of transition metals increases upto group _.

• A. II B
• B. IV B
• C. III B
• D. V B✓

Explanation: The binding energy of transition metals increases up to Group V B because the binding energy of transition metals increases as we move from left to right across the transition metal series until Group V B.

Q110. Homo cyclic organic comounds are sub divided into two groups namely

• A. alicyclic and aromatic✓
• B. Open and branched chain
• C. Aromatic and non aromatic
• D. anti aromatic

Explanation: Homo cyolic organic compounds are sub divided into two types; * Alicyclic compounds.* Aromatic compounds.

Q111. The type of isomerism arising due to shifting of one atom to another in the same molecule is

• A. Chain isomerism
• B. Meta merism
• C. Tauto merism✓
• D. Position isomer

Explanation: Tautomerism occurs when the proton's movement is accompanied by a change from an open structure to a ring, such as the open chain and cyclic hemiacetal (typically pyranose or furanose forms) of many sugars.

Q112. In alkane each carbon atom has hybridization _.

• A. sp3✓
• B. sp
• C. sp2
• D. dsp

Explanation: The carbon atoms in alkanes are sp3-hybridized, and have tetrahedral shapes, with the bonded atoms at angles of 109.5° to each other. Free rotation is possible around the carbon-carbon single bonds in alkanes, making the carbon chains very flexible and "floppy" — particularly for the larger molecules.

Q113. For the reaction given below: N2+ 3H2 -------> 2NH3 How many moles of N2 are required for the synthesis of 4 moles of NH3?

• A. 4 moles of N2
• B. 2 moles of N2✓
• C. 3 moles of N2
• D. 4.5 moles

Explanation: 2 moles of N2 are required for the synthesis of 4 moles of NH3.

Q114. Al reacts with O2 according to following reaction 4Al + 3O2 ------->2Al2O3 27g of Al react with how much garms of O2?

• A. 8g
• B. 16g
• C. 24g✓
• D. 32g

Explanation: 27g of Al reacts with 24g of O2. Solution is given below

Q115. Principal quantum number is represented by which symbol?

• A. m
• B. n✓
• C. s
• D. l

Explanation: ‘n’ represents principal quantum number.

Q116. The shape of the subshell is explained by which of the following quantum number?

• A. Principal quantum number
• B. Azimuthal quantum number✓
• C. Magnetic quantum number
• D. Spin quantum number

Explanation: Shape is explained by azimuthal quantum number.

Q117. The electronic configuration for degenerated orbitals is explained by

• A. Aufbau principle
• B. N + l rule
• C. Hunds rule✓
• D. Pauli exclusion principle

Explanation: In Hund's rule, every orbital in a subshell is singly occupied with one electron before any one orbital is doubly occupied, and all electrons in singly occupied orbitals have the same spin.

Q118. One mole of the substance is the amount of substance that has the same number of particles as their are atoms exactly

• A. 1.008g of hydrogen gas H2
• B. 16g of oxygen gas O2
• C. 12g of C-12 isotope✓
• D. 12g of magnesium

Explanation: One mole is the amount of a substance that contains as many particles or entities as there are atoms in exactly 12 g of the 12C isotope.

Q119. Maximum number of electrons which can be placed in an orbital is

• A. 1
• B. 2✓
• C. 3
• D. 4

Explanation: Each orbital holds two electrons which differ in a property known as spin. In other words, an orbital is an area where the electrons live. There can be two electrons in one orbital maximum. The s sublevel has just one orbital, so can contain 2 electrons max. The p sublevel has 3 orbitals, so can contain 6 electrons max.

Q120. Air is a mixture of gases. the molecules of air do not settle down due to

• A. different molar gas
• B. non polar nature of gas
• C. presence of dirt particle in air
• D. elastic collission of gas molecules✓

Explanation: Gas molecules in air do not settle down primarily due to their elastic collisions. When gas molecules collide, they transfer energy and momentum between each other, resulting in continuous random motion. These elastic collisions prevent the gas molecules from settling and instead keep them in constant motion throughout the air.

Q121. Collision shown by gases molecules involve

• A. no energy change✓
• B. no pressure change
• C. small energy change
• D. large energy change

Explanation: When gas molecules collide with each other, the collisions are generally elastic. In an elastic collision, there is no net loss or gain of kinetic energy. The total kinetic energy of the colliding particles before the collision is equal to the total kinetic energy after the collision During an elastic collision between gas molecules, they exchange energy through the transfer of kinetic energy. However, the total amount of kinetic energy remains the same. The individual molecules may experience changes in their kinetic energy, but the overall system's energy remains constant.

Q122. According to Charles's law volume of gas reduces to zero at

• A. -12∘C
• B. -0∘C
• C. -273.15∘C✓
• D. -210∘C

Explanation: Charles's Law states that the volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature, assuming constant pressure and amount of gas. As the temperature decreases, the volume of the gas decreases as well. According to the ideal gas law and the kinetic theory of gases, the volume of a gas theoretically approaches zero as the temperature approaches absolute zero, which is equivalent to -273.15°C or 0 Kelvin (K).

Q123. The strongest hydrogen bond is present in

• A. HF✓
• B. H2O
• C. H2S
• D. NH3

Explanation: Fluorine is the most electronegative element. H−F bond has maximum bond polarity. Hence, hydrogen bonding is the maximum in HF molecules.

Q124. Which of the the following has highest surface tension?

• A. Benzene
• B. Alcohol
• C. Ether
• D. Water✓

Explanation: Water has the highest surface tension among the options listed. This is primarily because water molecules can form strong hydrogen bonds with each other. Hydrogen bonding occurs when the hydrogen atom of one water molecule is attracted to the oxygen atom of another water molecule. These hydrogen bonds contribute to the cohesive forces between water molecules and result in relatively high surface tension.

Q125. Which of the following has highest boiling point

• A. C4H10
• B. C5H14
• C. C10H22✓
• D. C2H4

Explanation: The correct option, C) C10H22 (decane), has a longer carbon chain compared to the other options. The longer carbon chain allows for more extensive London dispersion forces, resulting in stronger intermolecular forces. These stronger forces require more energy to break, resulting in a higher boiling point compared to the other options.

Q126. Ice floats on the surface of water due to

• A. Larger bond length
• B. Cubic structur of ice
• C. Weak intermolecular force
• D. empty spaces in structur eof ice✓

Explanation: ice is actually about 9% less dense than water. Since the water is heavier, it displaces the lighter ice, causing the ice to float to the top.

Q127. Which of the following is not oxidized by any oxidizing agent?

• A. Benzene✓
• B. Toulene
• C. Ethylbenzene
• D. Xylene

Explanation: Benzene (C6H6) is a stable aromatic hydrocarbon. It consists of a ring of six carbon atoms bonded together with alternating single and double bonds. Due to the presence of delocalized pi electrons in the benzene ring, it is relatively stable and resistant to oxidation. It can only be oxidized under very special conditions.

Q128. The correct order of reactivity of hydrocarbon is:

• A. Alkane > Alkynes > Alkene
• B. Alkene> Alkane > Alkyne
• C. Alkyne >Alkene> Alkane
• D. Alkene> Alkyne> Alkane✓

Explanation: Option D is correct. Alkenes, with their one pi bond, are more reactive than both alkanes and alkynes. Alkynes, with their two pi bonds, are more reactive than alkanes but less reactive than alkenes. Alkanes, lacking pi bonds, are the least reactive among the three hydrocarbon types.

Q129. Reactivity order of halogens is

• A. HF > HCL> HBr > HI
• B. HBr > HCl > HI
• C. HCl> HBr >HI > HF
• D. HI> HBr >HCl > HF✓

Explanation: The correct option is D: HI > HBr > HCl > HF. It correctly identifies iodine (I) as the most reactive halogen, followed by bromine (Br), chlorine (Cl), and fluorine (F). Iodine's large atomic size and low electronegativity make it the most reactive halogen, while fluorine, with its small atomic size and high electronegativity, is the least reactive among the halogens.

Q130. Alkyl halides are also known as halogen derivatives of

• A. Alkane✓
• B. Alkene
• C. Alkyne
• D. Alcohol

Explanation: Alkyl halides, also known as haloalkanes or halogen derivatives, are a class of organic compounds in which one or more hydrogen atoms in an alkane molecule are replaced by halogen atoms (such as fluorine, chlorine, bromine, or iodine).

Q131. Grignard reagent is formed when alkyl halide reacts with _ in the presence of anhydrous conditions.

• A. calcium
• B. potassium
• C. sodium
• D. magnesium✓

Explanation: The correct option is D) magnesium because Grignard reagents are formed when alkyl halides react with magnesium metal in the presence of anhydrous conditions.

Q132. Phenols are very reactive towards

• A. Oxidizing agent✓
• B. Reducing agent
• C. Hygroscopic agent
• D. Dehydrating agent

Explanation: Phenols are highly reactive compounds that contain a hydroxyl (-OH) group attached to an aromatic ring. This hydroxyl group makes phenols prone to various chemical reactions. One of the most significant characteristics of phenols is their reactivity toward oxidizing agents.

Q133. Both alcohol and phenol contain

• A. OH group✓
• B. COOH group
• C. CH2 group
• D. CHO group

Explanation: Alcohol and phenol are organic compounds that contain the hydroxyl functional group (OH). This group consists of an oxygen atom bonded to a hydrogen atom. It is responsible for the characteristic properties and reactivity of alcohols and phenols.

Q134. Select the correct order of the relative strength of phenol, alcohol, water, and carboxylic acid

• A. Carboxylic acid> water> phenol >alcohol
• B. Carboxylic acid> phenol > water >alcohol✓
• C. Carboxylic acid> alcohol > phenol > water
• D. Carboxylic acid> water> alcohol > phenol

Explanation: The correct order of relative strength is B: Carboxylic acid > phenol > water > alcohol. Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenols due to the resonance stabilization of the carboxylate anion. Phenols are more acidic than water because the phenoxide ion is stabilized by resonance. Water is less acidic than both carboxylic acids and phenols.

Q135. Carboxylic acid react with alcohol to form

• A. Ester✓
• B. Aldehyde
• C. Ketone
• D. Alkyl halide

Explanation: When a carboxylic acid reacts with an alcohol, it undergoes an esterification reaction. This reaction is a condensation reaction in which the carboxylic acid reacts with the alcohol, resulting in the formation of an ester and water. The reaction is typically catalyzed by an acid, such as sulfuric acid or hydrochloric acid. The esterification reaction involves the replacement of the hydroxyl group (-OH) of the carboxylic acid with an alkyl group (-OR) from the alcohol. The general reaction can be represented as follows: Carboxylic Acid + Alcohol ⟶ Ester + Water

Q136. Catalytic reduction of aldehydes and ketone form

• A. Alcohol✓
• B. Carboxylic acid
• C. Alkane
• D. Aldehyde

Explanation: When aldehydes and ketones undergo catalytic reduction, they are converted into alcohols. This is because the carbonyl group (C=O) in aldehydes and ketones is reduced to a hydroxyl group (-OH), resulting in the formation of alcohol.

Q137. When aldehyde reacts with 50 % NaOH this reaction is called _.

• A. 2.4-NDPH reaction
• B. Aldol condensation reaction
• C. Clemmenson reaction
• D. Cannizaro reaction✓

Explanation: The Cannizzaro reaction is a disproportionation reaction of an aldehyde in the presence of a strong base, such as 50% NaOH. It involves the simultaneous oxidation of one molecule of aldehyde to the corresponding carboxylic acid and the reduction of another molecule of aldehyde to the corresponding alcohol. This reaction is named after the Italian chemist Stanislao Cannizzaro who discovered it.

Q138. Based upon function thyroxine can be classified as

• A. Hormonal protein✓
• B. Structural protein
• C. Transport protein
• D. Genetic protein

Explanation: Thyroxine, also known as T4, is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland. It acts as a regulator of metabolism in the body and plays a vital role in controlling various functions such as growth, development, and temperature regulation. Therefore, thyroxine is classified as a hormonal protein.

Q139. Enzyme is a natural substance that

• A. Increase rate of chemical reaction✓
• B. decrease rate of chemical reaction
• C. has no effect on chemical reaction
• D. Stops chemical reaction

Explanation: Enzyme increases the rate of a chemical reaction by decreasing activation energy of reaction.

Q140. The unit of kinetic energy is the same as

• A. work✓
• B. power/ time
• C. time/ power
• D. work/ time

Explanation: The unit of kinetic energy is the same as the unit of work, which is joules (J).

Q141. Which one of the following provides centripetal force in a circular motion of a body?

• A. vertical component of weight
• B. horizontal component of weight
• C. weight of body
• D. Force of friction✓

Q142. How many radians are in one degree

• A. 0.0174rad✓
• B. 0.174 rad
• C. 1.745 rad
• D. 0.00174 rad

Explanation: Conversion of 1 degree to radians using the formula: (1 degree / 360) * 2π ≈ 0.0174 rad. Hence, option A is correct.

Q143. Which of the following is the angular velocity of an electric motor if it is 400 RPM?

• A. 51.2 rad/s
• B. 41.9 rad/s✓
• C. 45.2 rad/s
• D. 38.5 rad/s

Explanation: RPM to Angular Velocity Formula To convert the angular velocity from revolutions per minute (rpm) to radians per second (rad/s), you can use the following conversion factor: 1 rpm = (2π/60) rad/s Using this conversion factor, we can calculate the angular velocity: Angular velocity = (400 rpm) * (2π/60) rad/s Angular velocity ≈ 41.89 rad/s Therefore, the angular velocity of the electric motor is approximately 41.89 rad/s.After putting the given values in the formula the correct answer will be Option B.

Q144. The tension in the string at the top of the vertical circle is

• A. zero✓
• B. mg
• C. 2mg
• D. 4mg

Explanation: The correct option is A) zero because the tension in the string at the top of the vertical circle can be zero when the object is in free fall and experiences no contact forces.

Q145. The centripetal force in terms of angular velocity is

• A. Fc= mrw
• B. Fc= mrw2✓
• C. Fc= mra2
• D. Fc= mra

Explanation: Fc=mac By using the expressions for centripetal acceleration ac from a=v2/r; ac=rω2, we get two expressions for the centripetal force Fc in terms of mass, velocity, angular velocity, and radius of curvature: Fc=mv2/r; Fc=mrω2. The solution is given below:

Q146. Which of the following is the angular speed in radians per hour of the daily rotation of our earth?

• A. 2pi
• B. 4pi
• C. pi/6
• D. pi/12✓

Explanation: The Earth completes one full rotation around its axis in approximately 24 hours, which we define as a day. We can calculate the angular speed by dividing the total angle covered by the Earth in one day by the time taken. The total angle covered by the Earth in one full rotation is 2π radians (a full circle). The time taken for one rotation is 24 hours. Therefore, the angular speed can be calculated as: Angular Speed = Total Angle / Time Angular Speed = 2π radians / 24 hours Simplifying, we get: Angular Speed = π/12 radians per hour Therefore, the correct answer is option D) π/12.

Q147. Wavelength of wave is defined as

• A. distance between two consecutive crests✓
• B. distance between two alternate crest
• C. distance between two alternate rough
• D. distance between two crest and two trough

Explanation: Distance between two consecutive crests (or troughs) is the definition of wavelength.

Q148. Which of the following factor does not affect the speed of sound in air?

• A. pressure✓
• B. density
• C. temperature
• D. medium

Explanation: Pressure has no effect on speed of sound in air.

Q149. Maximum displacement of particles from its mean position is called

• A. frequency
• B. amplitude✓
• C. wavelength
• D. crest

Explanation: The statement is the definition of amplitude.

Q150. The ultrasonic waves have frequency higher than

• A. 20 hz
• B. 20k Hz✓
• C. 200 k Hz
• D. 2000 kHz

Explanation: Ultrasonic refers to sound having a frequency higher than the upper audible limit of human hearing. It has a frequency above 20,000 Hz.

Q151. The increase in the speed of sound for each degree rise above 0 degree is

• A. 0.61 m/s✓
• B. 0.51 m/s
• C. 0.41 m/s
• D. 0.31 m/s

Explanation: According to the formula, Vt= V0+0.61*t The value 0.61 is constantly increased with each degree increase in temperature.

Q152. Continuous regular and rhythmic disturbance in a medium resulting in periodic vibration of a source causes _ in a medium.

• A. complex wave
• B. stationary wave
• C. electromagnetic wave
• D. periodic waves✓

Explanation: Wave is in the form of a pulse which is set up by a single disturbance in a medium like the snapping of one end of a rope or a coil spring. Continuous, regular, and rhythmic disturbances in a medium result from periodic vibrations of a source which cause periodic waves in that medium

Q153. The thermodynamic process during which volume of the system remain constant is called

• A. isothermal
• B. isobaric
• C. isochoric✓
• D. adiabatic

Explanation: This refers to a thermodynamic process in which the volume of the system remains constant. During an isochoric process, the system cannot exchange heat or do work by changing its volume. The term "isochoric" comes from the Greek words "iso" meaning "same" and "choric" meaning "volume."

Q154. The conditions for the application of Boyle's law hold good in

• A. adiabatic
• B. isothermal✓
• C. isobaric
• D. isochoric

Explanation: The correct option is B) isothermal, as Boyle's law holds good when the temperature remains constant. In an isothermal process, where the temperature is held constant, Boyle's law accurately describes the relationship between pressure and volume for a given amount of gas.

Q155. The internal energy of a system during isothermal process

• A. decrease
• B. increase
• C. become zero
• D. remain constant✓

Explanation: During an isothermal process, the temperature of the system remains constant. This means that there is no change in the average kinetic energy of the particles in the system. The internal energy of a system is directly related to the average kinetic energy of its particles. Hence, option D is correct.

Q156. Electric intensity due to charge distribution is calculated using which of the following?

• A. Ohm's law
• B. Faraday's Law
• C. Gauss’s law✓
• D. Ampere's Law

Explanation: Gauss's law allows us to calculate the electric field or electric intensity due to a given charge distribution.

Q157. The capacitance of a capacitor does not depend upon

• A. Area of plates
• B. Medium
• C. Distance between plates
• D. Thickness✓

Explanation: The thickness of the plates does not affect the capacitance. The capacitance depends on the area of the plates, but not on their thickness. The thickness only affects other properties such as the mechanical strength or resistance to heat, but not the ability to store electric charge.

Q158. The SI unit of potential difference is

• A. volt✓
• B. Coloumb
• C. watt
• D. eV

Explanation: The "volt" is the SI unit of potential difference, also known as voltage.

Q159. Electric potential is defined as

• A. work per unit charge✓
• B. force per unit charge
• C. power per unit charge
• D. force

Explanation: Electric potential is a measure of the electric potential energy per unit charge at a point in an electric field. It represents the amount of work done in bringing a unit positive charge from infinity to that point in the electric field.

Q160. Ohm-meter is the unit of

• A. resistance
• B. resistivity✓
• C. conductance
• D. conductivity

Explanation: Resistivity is a property of a material and is measured in ohm-meters (Ω·m).

Q161. 1eV is equal to

• A. 1.602 x 10^-19 J✓
• B. 16.20 x 10^-19 J
• C. 1620 J
• D. 162.0 x10^-19 J

Explanation: The conversion factor between electronvolts (eV) and joules (J) is given as: 1 eV = 1.602 x 10^-19 J This means that one electronvolt is equal to 1.602 x 10^-19 joules.

Q162. The total resistance of wire is inversely proportional to

• A. length
• B. area✓
• C. temperature
• D. time

Explanation: he resistance of a wire is inversely proportional to its cross-sectional area. This means that as the area of the wire increases, the resistance decreases. This relationship is described by the formula R = ρ(L/A), where R is the resistance, ρ is the resistivity of the material, L is the length of the wire, and A is the cross-sectional area of the wire. As A increases, R decreases, so it is correct to say that resistance is inversely proportional to area.

Q163. Kilowatt-hour is the unit of

• A. energy✓
• B. energy x time
• C. power
• D. power x energy

Explanation: A kilowatt-hour (kWh) is a unit of energy. It represents the amount of energy consumed or produced by a device with a power of one kilowatt (1 kW) over a period of one hour.

Q164. The force exerted on the charged particle will be maximum when it enters the magnetic field at

• A. 60°
• B. 90°✓
• C. 0°
• D. 45°

Explanation: Force on moving charge will be maximum if the direction of the velocity of charge is perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field (when θ=90∘).

Q165. When a charged particle enter the magnetic field parallel then it will

• A. deflect towards north
• B. deflect towards south
• C. move straight✓
• D. move in circular path

Explanation: Due to a charged particle entering the magnetic field parallel to its direction, the magnetic force will become zero. In the absence of force, no deflection takes place and the particle keeps moving straight without any deflection.

Q166. The SI unit for magnetic induction (B) is tesla and tesla is equal to

• A. NA-1 m-1✓
• B. NmA-1
• C. N-1mA
• D. NmA

Explanation: SI unit of tesla is NA-1 m-1.

Q167. Two balls collide with each other it has been observed that the collision is elastic which statement advocates the information

• A. KE before collision = KE after collision✓
• B. momentum before collision is not equal to momentum after collision
• C. KE before the collision is not equal to KE after collision
• D. momentum before collision not equal to KE after collision

Explanation: In an elastic collision, kinetic energy as well as momentum is conserved. This means that the total kinetic energy of the system before the collision is equal to the total kinetic energy of the system after the collision.

Q168. The gradient of velocity time graph is equal to

• A. Distance
• B. Force
• C. Acceleration✓
• D. Speed

Explanation: The gradient of velocity with respect to time represents the rate of change of velocity over time, which is defined as acceleration. Acceleration is the measure of how quickly an object's velocity is changing, whether it's speeding up, slowing down, or changing direction.

Q169. At what pair of angles for a projectile the ranges are equal?

• A. 20, 60
• B. 60, 30✓
• C. 40, 60
• D. 25, 55

Explanation: The range of a projectile depends on its initial velocity and launch angle. The formula to calculate the range (R) of a projectile is given by: R = (v^2 * sin(2θ)) / g For angles 60 and 30 degrees, the ranges will be equal. This is because the sine of twice the angle is the same for 60 and 30 degrees. Therefore, the ranges will be equal for these angles.

Q170. Two cars travelling on straight road in opposite direction with speed 70km/hr, 60km/hr their relative velocity will be

• A. 10km/h
• B. 130km/h✓
• C. 65 km/h
• D. 5km/h

Explanation: When two objects are moving in opposite directions, their relative velocity is the sum of their individual velocities. In this case, one car is traveling at 70 km/hr and the other at 60 km/hr. To find the relative velocity, we add the two velocities together: Relative velocity = Velocity of car 1 + Velocity of car 2 Relative velocity = 70 km/hr + 60 km/hr Relative velocity = 130 km/hr

Q171. Two bodies having same mass undergo elastic collision then their velocities after collision will be

• A. vi = 0, v2 = vi
• B. vi = v2, v2 = 0
• C. vi = vi, v2 =v2
• D. vi = v2, v2 = vi✓

Explanation: The correct option is D: vi = v2, v2 = vi, where both bodies have their velocities exchanged after the collision while conserving momentum and kinetic energy.

Q172. The angle of a projection at which it’s maximum height and horizontal range are equal is:

• A. 86°
• B. 46°
• C. 66°
• D. 76°✓

Explanation: In projectile thrown at angle θ Range R and maximum height H are given as : Range, R= u2 (sin2θ)/g = u2 2sinθcosθ/g Maximum Height, H= u2sin2 θ/2g Given: H=R u2(2sinθcosθ)/g = u2sin2θ/2g 4cosθ=sinθ tanθ=4 θ=76∘

Q173. Slope of distance time graph can never be:

• A. positive
• B. negative✓
• C. zero
• D. constant

Explanation: The slope of a distance-time graph cannot be negative. This is because distance is a scalar quantity and cannot have a negative value. Distance represents the magnitude of displacement and is always positive or zero. Therefore, a negative slope on a distance-time graph would not have any physical meaning. So, option B is the correct option.

Q174. What is the velocity of a projectile at the highest point?

• A. vx= 0, vy=0
• B. vx= 0, vy constant
• C. vx= constant, vy= constant
• D. vx= constant, vy=0✓

Explanation: Vx/ horizontal component of velocity is always constant in absence of air resistance, as in absence of air friction we consider ax=0 and no other force acts in that direction. (FACT) While, for the Vy/ vertical component of velocity at highest point of projectile motion is zero because ay=g, the object experiences constant acceleration due to gravity. Hence, it has zero velocity.

Q175. The unit of power in British engineering system is:

• A. Horse power✓
• B. watt
• C. j/s
• D. Js

Explanation: The unit of power in the British engineering system is the horsepower (hp). It is a unit of measurement for power, and it is commonly used to measure the power output of engines and motors. One horsepower is equal to 550 foot-pounds per second or approximately 745.7 watts.

Q176. Work done will be negative if the angle between force and displacement is:

• A. 0°
• B. 45°
• C. 60°
• D. 180°✓

Explanation: When the angle between the force and displacement is 180°, cos(180°) = -1. The work done will be negative because the force and displacement vectors have opposite directions. In this case, the work done is considered negative because the force acts against the displacement.

Q177. 1 Nms-1= —

• A. 1kwh
• B. Js
• C. 1 watt✓
• D. js-2

Explanation: Nms-1 means F.d/t as W=F.d. Hence, it becomes W/t=P. Power is equal to work done over time taken. The unit of Power is Watt. 1Nms-1= 1 Watt

Q178. In inter-conversion of energy, the work done against the friction is:

• A. f+h
• B. f-h
• C. fh✓
• D. f/h

Explanation: Work done is always equal to the distance moved in the direction of force taken as the product of force and distance. Hence W=fh.

Q179. A car of mass 800kg accelerates from 20ms-1 to 30ms-1. The increase in kinetic energy will be

• A. 2J
• B. 200kJ✓
• C. 200J
• D. 2kJ

Explanation: Use formula K.E= 1/2mv^2 for both speeds separately, 1/2 mv^2½ (800)(30)^2=360000---- 1/2mv^2½ (800)(20)^2= 160000Change in K.E= 360000-160000=200000 or 200kJ

Q180. In fleming’s right hand rule the middle finger indicates:

• A. force
• B. magnetic field
• C. induced current✓
• D. volt

Explanation: In Fleming’s right hand, the thumb represents "magnetic force". The pointing finger represents Magnetic field and the middle finger represents Induced current.

Q181. Transformer works on the principle of:

• A. Lenz's law
• B. Faraday's law
• C. Magnetic induction✓
• D. Ampere's law

Explanation: Magnetic induction, also known as electromagnetic induction, is the fundamental principle behind the operation of transformers. According to this principle, when the current in the primary coil of a transformer changes, it creates a changing magnetic field. This changing magnetic field induces a voltage in the secondary coil of the transformer, which results in the transfer of electrical energy between the primary and secondary coils.

Q182. The efficiency of the transformer is:

• A. 60
• B. 70
• C. 80
• D. 90✓

Explanation: The efficiency of the transformer is 100%. This theoretical efficiency cannot be obtained in practice, although the transformer is a very good machine with efficiency in the region of 90%.

Q183. Lenz’s law is also a state of the law of conservation of

• A. Charge
• B. Energy✓
• C. momentum
• D. mass

Explanation: Lenz's law is based on the principle of conservation of energy. When a changing magnetic field induces an emf in a conductor, the induced current that opposes the change in magnetic field requires the expenditure of energy. By opposing the change, energy is conserved because the work done by the induced current is equal to the work done on the system by the changing magnetic field. In other words, energy is neither created nor destroyed but is transformed from one form to another.

Q184. A process in which only one half of the alternating current is converted into direct current such process is called

• A. Full wave rectification
• B. Amplification
• C. Half wave rectification✓
• D. Magnification

Explanation: Half wave rectification is a process in which only one half of the alternating current (AC) waveform is converted into direct current (DC). It involves using a diode to block or eliminate the negative half cycles of the AC waveform, allowing only the positive half cycles to pass through and convert into DC. The result is an output waveform that consists of a series of positive pulses or half cycles.

Q185. The efficiency of a full wave rectifier circuit is almost —----- than half wave rectifier circuit.

• A. Four times
• B. same as
• C. Sixteen times
• D. double✓

Explanation: Efficiency (η) = DC Power Output / AC power input Therefore, the efficiency of a full wave rectifier (ηf) is 81.2% (calculated) And, the efficiency of a half-wave rectifier (ηh) is 40.6% (calculated) ηh/ηf=40.6/81.2 = 1/2 ∴ηf=2ηh Hence, the efficiency of a full-wave rectifier is double of half wave-rectifier.

Q186. The conversion of alternating current into direct current is called rectification and circuit is called rectifier. Which component of electronics act as a rectifier?

• A. Diode✓
• B. Transistor
• C. Transformer
• D. Inductor

Explanation: A rectifier used a diode in its circuit, the diode allows one-directional flow of current in the circuit hence converting AC to DC.

Q187. Red light is used in photographic dark room because of:

• A. More frequency, less wavelength
• B. Less frequency, less wavelenght
• C. Less frequency, more wavelenght✓
• D. More frequency, more wavelength

Explanation: A fact that red light has a greater wavelength while wavelength and frequency are inversely proportional to each other hence, red light has a lesser frequency compared to other colors in the visible spectrum, making it suitable for use in a photographic darkroom.

Q188. Which photons carry the most energy?

• A. Blue
• B. Violet✓
• C. Red
• D. Green

Explanation: Violet light has the highest frequency among the options provided (higher than blue, red, and green), making it the photon with the most energy (frequency is proportional to energy). Hence, option B is correct.

Q189. Which one of the following series lies in the ultraviolet region?

• A. Balmer
• B. Paschan
• C. Lyman✓
• D. Bracket

Explanation: Provided the figure 19.2 in pg#344 in FTB, Lyman series are the only series that lies in the Ultraviolet region of the line spectrum. While Balmar lies in the visible region of the line spectrum. Paschen,Brackett and Pfund lies in the Infrared region of the line spectrum.

Q190. Which X-ray photon will have the longest wavelength?

• A. K alpha✓
• B. K beta
• C. K gamma
• D. M

Explanation: Alpha rays have the least energy compared to Beta, gamma rays, and electron beams. As the wavelength is inversely proportional to energy, alpha rays have the longest wavelength among all the options.

Q191. The half-life of Iodine-31 is

• A. 10 days
• B. 8 days✓
• C. 45 days
• D. 60 days

Explanation: Mentioned in the textbook (half-life of iodine-31)= 8 days.

Q192. The half-life of caron is 5730 years. How much carbon will be left after 22920 years?

• A. 1/32
• B. 1/16✓
• C. 1/64
• D. 1/4

Explanation: Amount of Carbon decayed= 22920/5730=4 half lifes passed. The half lifes left are ½ *½ * ½* ½ = 1/16th.

Q193. Skin burns, loss of hair, drop in white blood cells, etc are examples of:

• A. somatic effect✓
• B. genetic effect
• C. metbolism effect
• D. mutation effect

Explanation: Somatic effects refer to the immediate and direct effects of radiation exposure on the body's tissues and organs. Skin burns, loss of hair, and a drop in white blood cells are examples of somatic effects.

Q194. All hammers are tools. Some tools are useless things. All useless things are trash. Which of the following is NECESSARILY TRUE given only the information above? Conclusions I. Some hammers are trash. II. Some tools are trash. III. All useless things are tools.

• A. I and III
• B. I and II
• C. II and III
• D. II✓

Explanation: Now look at the conclusions provided, For I, if we look at the diagram some hammers are not trash hence I is wrong. For II, Some tools are trash as indicated in the yellow-shaded region hence II is correct. For III, Not ALL useless things are tools rather some useless things are tools so III is also wrong. The only option correct according to the above analyses is D ( only conclusion II).

Q195. Read the following statement, assuming everything in it to be true. Then consider which one of the given suggested courses of action logically follow and are pursuing.Statement:My laptop's battery is low and needs to be charged. Course of actionI. Stop using the laptop to save power.II. Get a new fully charged battery and replace it with an old one.

• A. I✓
• B. II
• C. Both I and II
• D. Neither I NOR II

Explanation: So, the correct course of action that logically follows from the statement is I. Stop using the laptop to save power

Q196. The government has increased the taxes on all businesses in Pakistan. Many small businesses will have to close their operation in Pakistan.

• A. Statement I is the cause and Statement II is the effect.✓
• B. Statement II is the cause and Statement I is the effect.
• C. Both statements I and II are independent causes.
• D. Both the statement I and II are the effects of independent causes.

Explanation: Here by reading out the two statements, it’s clear that because the government has increased taxes on all businesses in Pakistan (1), as a result, many small businesses will have to close their operation. Majorly because small businesses do not have capital large enough to pay increased taxes. Hence, Statement 2 here is the effect of Statement 1 i.e. the cause.

Q197. Read the following and choose the correct answer. X, Y and Z are three whole numbers less than 24 but greater than 11. X is the smallest prime number. Y is the largest number divisible by 3. Z is the smallest number divisible by 11.

• A. X is 13, Y is 24, Z is 11
• B. X is 13, Y is 21, Z is 22✓
• C. X is 11, Y is 21, Z is 11
• D. X is 11, Y is 24, Z is 22

Explanation: As the question states, the whole number is less than 24, hence options A and D are eliminated. Let's list the numbers in question, 12,13,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22,23. X is the smallest prime number. Among the numbers listed 13 is the smallest prime number so X is 13. Y is the biggest number divisible by 3. 21 is the largest number among these but it is divisible by 3. So Y is 21. Z is the number divisible by 11. Amongst all these numbers only 22 is divisible by 11. This is what makes option B the most appropriate choice.

Q198. Read the passage and the following statements below. then choose the option basing your answer only on the option provided. The early Mediaeval period ( 642-1219 CE) witnessed the spread of Islam in regions which is now known as Pakistan. During this period Sufi missionaries played a pivotal rule in converting a majority of the regional Buddhist and population to islam. I. Islam was spread in Pakistan region during early Mediaeval period. II. Sufi missionaries converted alot of people to islam during this time. III. It can be said that the Sufis were responsible for Pakistan ultimately by an Islamic country.

• A. Only I is correct.
• B. Only I and II are correct.✓
• C. I, II and III all are correct.
• D. Only I and III are correct.

Explanation: Based on the information provided in the passage, the correct statements are: I. Islam was spread in Pakistan region during early Mediaeval period. II. Sufi missionaries converted a lot of people to Islam during this time. Therefore, the correct option is: Option B: Statements I and II are correct.

Q199. Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals?

• A. Viviparity✓
• B. Warm blooded nature
• C. Ossified endoskeleton
• D. Breathing using lungs

Explanation: All birds are oviparous while all mammals except Ornithorhyncus (duck billed platypus) and Echidna or Tachyglossus (spiny anteater) are viviparous.

Q200. Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of animals?

• A. Possess a mouth with an upper and a lower jaw - Chordata
• B. 3–chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle - Reptilia
• C. Cartilaginous endoskeleton - Chondrichthyes✓
• D. Viviparous - Mammalia

Explanation: Chondrichthyes, a class of fish that includes sharks, rays, and chimaeras, have a cartilaginous endoskeleton. This means their internal skeletal structure is made of cartilage rather than bone, providing flexibility and reduced weight for life in the water. Phylum Chordata includes both jawless vertebrates (Agnatha) and jawed vertebrates (Gnathostomata). Reptilia have a four chambered heart with two auricles and two ventricles. Duck billed platypus and spiny anteater are oviparous mammals.