Federal Mdcat Mock Paper 4 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Identify the word or phrase that needs to be changed for the sentence to be correct: The stories that she makes out for her children ought to be written down and published.

• A. That
• B. Makes out✓
• C. Ought to
• D. Written down
• E. No error

Explanation: The correct statement should be, with the correct preposition: The stories that she makes “for”.

Q2. Identify the word or phrase that needs to be changed for the sentence to be correct. You cannot leave now. The lions and tigers will appear in a minute.

• A. You
• B. The lions
• C. Tigers
• D. Appear
• E. No error✓

Explanation: In questions where you have to find the errors, read the given sentence at least twice. Then focus on the underlined parts to see which part has error in it. In the given sentence there is no error.

Q3. Choose the correct sentence from the following options:

• A. The government should accrue taxes for strengthen the economy of the country.
• B. The government should accrue taxes in strengthen the economy of the country
• C. The government should accrue taxes to strengthen the economy of the country.✓
• D. The government should accrue taxes by strengthen the economy of the country.

Explanation: By comparing all four sentences ,you notice there is only one difference i.e. PREPOSITION and for fact the best suited is 'to strengthen'.

Q4. In each of the following questions, four alternative sentences are given.Choose the CORRECT option.

• A. Norma had put the button unit besides her on the couch.
• B. Norma put an button unit besides her on the couch.
• C. Norma put the button unit besides hers on the couch.
• D. Norma put the button unit beside her on the couch.✓

Explanation: The phrase "beside her" is used in the sentence to indicate the location of the button unit in relation to Norma. "Beside" means next to or by the side of someone or something. In this case, it suggests that Norma placed the button unit in close proximity to herself, likely on the couch within reach. The phrase provides spatial information and helps to specify the position of the button unit in relation to Norma.

Q5. Each sentence below has a blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word that best fits in with the meaning of the sentence as a whole.The provost was utterly _ about having the students keep their books tidily in their lockers, yet her desk was very _.

• A. Apathetic ...comfortable
• B. Bewildered ... bizarre
• C. Determined ...disorderly✓
• D. Considerate...modern

Explanation: The words that best fit the sentence are Determined ... disorderly.Determined fits because it describes someone who is firm or resolute about having students keep their books tidily.Disorderly fits because it describes the messy state of the provost's desk, contrasting with her expectations for tidiness from others.In this sentence, the provost is portrayed as having a strong expectation or insistence (determined) that students keep their books tidy. However, the state of her desk is described as disorderly, which contrasts sharply with her expectations. This choice accurately reflects the intended meaning of the sentence, highlighting the irony or contrast between her expectations and her own desk's state.

Q6. Each sentence below has a blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word that best fits in with the meaning of the sentence as a whole.The air in a room that contains several houseplants can be more _ oxygen than in a room that contains no plants.

• A. Complicated by
• B. Exhausted with
• C. Obscured by
• D. Saturated with✓

Explanation: The word that best fits the sentence is Saturated with.Saturated with accurately describes a room where the air contains a higher concentration of oxygen, enhanced by the presence of several houseplants.In this sentence, "saturated with" effectively communicates that the air in a room with houseplants has a higher concentration of oxygen. Houseplants release oxygen as a byproduct of photosynthesis, thereby increasing oxygen levels in indoor environments. This choice accurately reflects the intended meaning of the sentence, emphasizing the beneficial effect of houseplants on indoor air quality.

Q7. In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative, out of the four as your answer. Ravens appear to behave _, actively helping one another to find food.

• A. mysteriously
• B. warily
• C. aggressively
• D. defensively✓

Explanation: Option D is the correct answer because this sentence asks you to look for a word that describes how the ravens behave. The information after the comma restates and defines the meaning of the missing word.

Q8. Select the option which fits appropriately in the blank: My father often _ here.

• A. Come
• B. Came
• C. Comes✓
• D. Coming

Explanation: 'Comes' is the singular present tense of the word 'come' so it will be used here as the father is coming to the location presently.

Q9. Select the option which fits appropriately in the blank: I am in London this Summer, I _ English.

• A. Learn
• B. Learns
• C. Am learning✓
• D. Learning

Explanation: Since the sentence is in continuous and present tense, the verb will have '-ing' added so it will end up as 'am learning'.

Q10. Select the option which fits appropriately in the blank: A really sophisticated person would never be _ enough, to think that he is always right.

• A. Reverent
• B. Naive✓
• C. Articulate
• D. Humble

Explanation: If someone always thinks they’re right, that is foolish on their behalf, therefore it would be 'naive' for a sophisticated person.

Q11. Select the option which fits appropriately in the blank: Everyone _ done his or her homework.

• A. Has✓
• B. Have
• C. Had
• D. Non

Explanation: The indefinite pronouns anyone, everyone, someone, no one, nobody are always singular and, therefore, require 'singular verbs'. Everyone has done his or her homework.

Q12. Jack is six years old, but he _ French and Spanish.

• A. Speaking
• B. Is speaking
• C. Speaks✓
• D. Speak

Explanation: Correct answer is C Option C is correct because the given sentence is in the present simple tense, and "speaks" is the correct verb form for the third-person singular subject

Q13. Select the most suitable synonym for the given word:FECKLESS:

• A. Useless
• B. Careless✓
• C. Dauntless
• D. Fearless

Explanation: Feckless means to be careless

Q14. Select the most suitable synonym for the given word:JUXTAPOSE:

• A. Justify
• B. Compare✓
• C. Expos
• D. Jettison

Explanation: Juxtapose means to compare two contrasting things/traits.

Q15. Which one is grammatically correct? Read carefully.

• A. Both are correct
• B. Speak up! I can't hear you because your dog is making too much noise.✓
• C. Both are wrong
• D. Speak up! I can't hear you because your dog is making much too noise.

Explanation: Too much is used as a determiner with singular (uncountable) nouns while much too is used with comparatives and adjectives. As noise is a noun, therefore too much noise is grammatically correct.

Q16. Choose the related word for Rat on the analogy of Elephant : Stride.

• A. Scamper✓
• B. Loiter
• C. Whimper
• D. Gallop

Explanation: small animal running with quick light steps

Q17. A person who leaves his country and settles in another country is called:

• A. Emigrant✓
• B. Immigrant
• C. Migrant
• D. Aborigine

Explanation: immigrant is used in reference to the country moved to, and emigrant is used in reference to the country moved from

Q18. Choose the correct spelling of the word:

• A. Something✓
• B. Somthing
• C. Sumthing
• D. Sumthin

Explanation: The correct spelling is 'something'.

Q19. Detoxification of drugs is the function of _ in a cell.

• A. R.E.R
• B. S.E.R✓
• C. Liver cells
• D. Lysosome

Explanation: The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is a part of the endoplasmic reticulum which does not possess ribosomes studded on its membrane. It is involved in the detoxification of many poisons and drugs such as lipid soluble drugs, aspirin, insecticides (DDT), petroleum products and pollutants and converting them to safer water-soluble products.

Q20. Holoenzyme is?

• A. Protein moiety of enzyme
• B. Non-protein moiety of enzyme
• C. Complete enzyme✓
• D. Inactive enzyme

Explanation: Holoenzyme is a complete, functional enzyme, which is catalytically active. It consists of an Apoenzyme and a Cofactor. In order to be functional, an apoenzyme(inactive enzyme) needs to become a holoenzyme(active enzyme). FTB page# 62

Q21. A non­-proteinaceous enzyme is:

• A. Lysozyme
• B. Ribozyme✓
• C. Ligase
• D. Deoxyribonuclease

Explanation: A ribozyme is a ribonucleic acid (RNA) enzyme that catalyzes a chemical reaction similarly to that of a protein enzyme. These are found in ribosomes and are also called catalytic RNAs.

Q22. Which of the following is the least likely to be involved in stabilizing the three­ dimensional folding of most proteins?

• A. Hydrogen Bonds
• B. Electrostatic Interaction
• C. Hydrophobic Interaction
• D. Ester Bonds✓

Explanation: Protein folding is the process by which a protein structure assumes its functional shape or conformation by allowing interaction between amino acids by various bond formations. All protein molecules are heterogeneous unbranched chains of amino acids. Different types of weak interactions hold the interacting segments together in protein. Hydrophobic interaction, H bonds, and electrostatic interactions are the weak ones and stabilize the tertiary structure of proteins, while ester bonds are covalent bonds and are least likely to be involved in stabilizing the three-dimensional folding of most proteins.

Q23. In which type of cells, cell wall is not present?

• A. Plant cells
• B. Fungal cells
• C. Bacterial cells
• D. Liver cells✓

Explanation: A cell wall is a structural layer surrounding some types of cells, just outside the cell membrane. It can be tough, flexible, and sometimes rigid. It provides the cell with both structural support and protection, and also acts as a filtering mechanism. No cells in the human body have a cell wall, hence liver cells will not have one either. Plant cell walls are primarily made of cellulose, which is the most abundant macromolecule on Earth. The cell wall is a characteristic structure of fungi and is composed mainly of glucans, chitin, and glycoproteins. The bacterial cell wall consists of peptidoglycan, an essential protective barrier for bacterial cells that encapsulates the cytoplasmic membrane

Q24. The diagram is taken from an electron of a cell, name the organelle labeled D:

• A. Nucleus
• B. Lysosomes
• C. Golgi complex
• D. Mitochondria✓
• E. Endoplasmic reticulum

Explanation: Mitochondria are bean- shaped membrane bounded organelles. Cristae is the fold in the inner membrane of mitochondria which is visible in the picture.

Q25. In which of the following is the organic compound COOH (carboxyl) group found? (I) Carbohydrate (II) Lipid (III) Protein

• A. I only
• B. II only
• C. I and II only
• D. II and III only✓
• E. I , II and III

Explanation: Carboxyl groups are commonly found in amino acids, fatty acids, and other biomolecules. Whereas carbohydrates only contain atoms of carbon hydrogen and oxygen they don't have any functional group.

Q26. Suggest which among the following is not a function attributed to endoplasmic reticulum?

• A. Detoxification of poisons and drugs
• B. Digestion/egestion of foreign materials outside the cell✓
• C. Manufacture of fat and lipid molecules
• D. Biogenesis of membrane proteins

Explanation: The endoplasmic reticulum is involved in the detoxification of the poisons and the drugs. This is the main function of the endoplasmic reticulum in the liver. The manufacturing of the lipids and fat molecules take place in the smooth ER. The membrane proteins are synthesised on the ribosomes which are present on the surface of the ER. The digestion and egestion of the foreign materials which enter the cells take place in the lysosomes. Thus, the correct answer is option B.

Q27. Which property of water helps to maintain the integrity of lipid-containing membranes?

• A. Specific Heat Capacity
• B. Hydrogen Bonding
• C. Cohesion and Adhesion
• D. Hydrophobic exclusion✓

Explanation: If you place a few drops of oil on the surface of a water solution, the oil drops will tend to coalesce (to unite into one whole) into a single drop. Biologically, hydrophobic exclusion plays a key role in maintaining the integrity of lipid bilayer membranes due to the hydrophobic tails of the phospholipid molecules. Tails of two layers of phospholipids interact to form a hydrophobic internal center of cell membranes while the phospholipid heads interact with the hydrophilic water medium externally. This is shown below.

Q28. Which of the following is correct for the given structure?

• A. These are small structures which work like oars
• B. It is covered with plasma membrane
• C. It's core is called axoneme
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: Cilia and flagella are hair-like outgrowths of the cell membrane. Cilia are small structures working like oars, causing the movement of either the cell or the surrounding fluid. Flagella, in comparison, is longer and is responsible for cell movement. Both cilium and flagellum are covered with plasma membrane. Their core, called axoneme, possesses a number of microtubules running parallel to the long axis. So, the correct answer is 'All of the above'.

Q29. HIV is also known as:

• A. AIDS✓
• B. HAV
• C. HTLV
• D. HBV

Explanation: AIDS is merely an advanced form of HIV.

Q30. Tay Sach's disease is caused by absence of enzyme required to breakdown _.

• A. Lipids✓
• B. Glycogen
• C. Glucose
• D. Proteins

Explanation: Tay-Sachs disease is a inherited disorder that progressively destroys nerve cells (neurons) in the brain and spinal cord. It is caused due to the mutation in the gene which is responsible for producing enzyme involved break down of fatty substance.

Q31. A combination of alpha interferon and ribavirin is used for the treatment of hepatitis:

• A. Hepatitis B
• B. Hepatitis A
• C. Hepatitis D
• D. Hepatitis C✓

Explanation: The combination of alpha interferon and ribavirin has been used in the treatment of hepatitis, particularly in the context of hepatitis C. Both alpha interferon and ribavirin have antiviral properties, and their combination was historically a standard treatment for chronic hepatitis C infection. Here's a brief overview of each component: Alpha Interferon: interferons are proteins that the body naturally produces in response to viral infections. They have antiviral properties and can modulate the immune response. Alpha interferon is a specific type of interferon that has been used as part of antiviral therapy. It was administered as an injection. Ribavirin: Ribavirin is an antiviral medication that inhibits the replication of viruses. It is a nucleoside analog and can interfere with the synthesis of viral genetic material. Ribavirin was often administered orally as part of the treatment regimen.

Q32. Which type of chlorophyll is found in all types of algae?

• A. Chlorophyll a✓
• B. Chlorophyll b
• C. Chlorophyll c
• D. Chlorophyll d

Explanation: Yes, chlorophyll a is found in all types of algae. Chlorophyll a is a primary photosynthetic pigment that plays a central role in capturing light energy during the process of photosynthesis. Algae, which are a diverse group of photosynthetic organisms, utilize chlorophyll a along with other pigments for harvesting light energy and converting it into chemical energy.

Q33. Oxygen, released into the atmosphere, comes from:

• A. CO2
• B. H2O✓
• C. C6H12O6
• D. CO2 and H2O

Explanation: Oxygen released into the atmosphere during photosynthesis comes from the splitting of water molecules. The oxygen-evolving complex in the thylakoid membrane of chloroplasts is responsible for catalyzing the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, where water molecules are split into oxygen, protons (H⁺ ions), and electrons.

Q34. First infectious disease against which effective method of prevention developed was a _:

• A. Bacterial disease
• B. Viral disease✓
• C. Protozoan disease
• D. Viroid disease

Explanation: a. Bacterial disease: Bacterial diseases were among the first for which effective prevention methods were developed. Vaccination, such as the smallpox vaccine developed by Edward Jenner, is a notable example. b. Viral disease: This option is correct. The smallpox vaccine, developed in the late 18th century by Edward Jenner, is a landmark achievement in the prevention of viral diseases. It played a crucial role in the eventual global eradication of smallpox. c. Protozoan disease: Protozoan diseases are caused by single-celled organisms (protozoa). Prevention methods for these diseases often involve medications (antiprotozoal drugs) rather than vaccines. Malaria, caused by the Plasmodium protozoan, is an example of a protozoan disease with preventive measures like antimalarial drugs and bed nets. d. Viroid disease: Viroids are infectious agents consisting of small, circular RNA molecules. They cause diseases in plants. Preventive methods for viroid diseases typically involve plant hygiene and control measures, as there are no widely recognized vaccines for viroids. Correct Answer: b. Viral disease Explanation: The smallpox vaccine is a historic example of the first effective prevention method developed against a viral disease, marking a significant milestone in the history of infectious disease control. Summary: The correct answer is b. Viral disease. The smallpox vaccine, developed for the prevention of smallpox caused by the variola virus, is a groundbreaking achievement in the history of infectious disease prevention. While bacterial diseases also saw early success with vaccination, the smallpox vaccine stood out as a pivotal moment in addressing viral infections and contributed to the eventual global eradication of smallpox.

Q35. The Porifera are pore - bearing animals, commonly called:

• A. Corals
• B. Sponges✓
• C. Hydras
• D. Anemones

Explanation: Factual recall. Sponges have numerous pores called ostia and hence are known as porifera. Option A is scientifically referred to as the class anthozoa within the phylum cnidaria. Option C is scientifically referred to as the phylum Coelenterata. Option D is scientifically referred to be within the phylum Cnidaria.

Q36. The number of spinal nerves along the spinal cord is:

• A. 16 pairs
• B. 20 pairs
• C. 31 pairs✓
• D. 33 pairs

Explanation: There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves in the human body. These nerves emerge from the spinal cord and pass through openings between adjacent vertebrae, distributing to various regions of the body.

Q37. The brain is protected by:

• A. Sacrum
• B. Cranium✓
• C. Humerus
• D. Scapula

Explanation: The brain is produced by the "b) Cranium," which forms the protective bony enclosure for this vital organ.The cranium, also known as the skull, is the bony structure that forms the protective enclosure for the brain. It is a complex structure made up of several bones that fuse together during development to provide a solid and robust casing for the brain. The cranium not only safeguards the brain from external injuries but also provides support and structure to the head.The brain is a vital organ of the central nervous system, responsible for controlling various bodily functions, cognitive processes, emotions, and voluntary and involuntary actions. It is encased within the cranium to shield it from mechanical damage and to maintain a stable and protective environment.

Q38. Venous blood en route from the kidneys to the heart must pass through the:

• A. Iliac vein
• B. Inferior vena cava✓
• C. Liver
• D. Hepatic vein
• E. Pulmonary vein

Explanation: The kidneys receive unfiltered blood directly from the heart through the abdominal aorta which then branches to the left and right renal arteries. Filtered blood then returns by the left and right renal veins to the inferior vena cava and then the heart.

Q39. Premature birth or miscarriage is usually caused by the disturbance in secretion of which of the following hormone?

• A. Estrogen
• B. Progesterone✓
• C. Lactogen
• D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

Explanation: Progesterone is one of the sex hormones closely associated with pregnancy and the menstrual cycle. It can also play a role in recurrent miscarriages or premature birth.

Q40. Enzymes that are functioning within the cell are called:

• A. Endoenzymes✓
• B. Exoenzymes
• C. Holoenzymes
• D. Both A & C

Explanation: Endoenzymes are enzymes that act within the cell, and their catalytic activity is confined to the interior of the cell. They are involved in intracellular processes, catalyzing reactions within the cell's cytoplasm or organelles. Enzymes involved in glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, or other metabolic pathways taking place inside the cell are considered endoenzymes.

Q41. Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as:

• A. Tetany✓
• B. Arthritis
• C. Spasm
• D. Fatigue

Explanation: Tetany refers to a condition in which the nerves innervating a particular muscle become overstimulated and cause involuntary contractions of muscles called as spasms. Tetany is also referred to as tetanic seizures. B. This is inflammation of joints. C. Spasm are painful contraction and tightening of muscles. D. Fatigue is when muscles lose ability to contract. This conditon is temporary and lasts for a short time . FTB page# 53

Q42. Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia?

• A. Chromosomal disorder
• B. Dominant gene disorder
• C. Recessive gene disorder
• D. X-­linked recessive gene disorder✓

Explanation: Haemophilia is a sex-­linked disease. It occurs due to the presence of a recessive sex linked gene h, which is carried by the X-chromosome.

Q43. Chlorophyll molecule resemble the haem group of hemoglobin, the main difference between these two molecule is that chlorophyll has _ ion.

• A. Fe2+
• B. Mg2+✓
• C. Mn2+
• D. Ca2+

Explanation: Chlorophyll’s porphyrin ring is built around Mg2+ whereas the porphyrin ring of hemoglobin is built around iron Fe2+.

Q44. Vaccines for all of these have been developed EXCEPT:

• A. Polio
• B. Mumps
• C. Measles
• D. Cancer✓

Explanation: Vaccine is a preparation that is used to stimulate the body's immune response against diseases

Q45. At which site does digestion of starches begin?

• A. 3✓
• B. 7
• C. 8
• D. 12
• E. 13

Explanation: In the mouth, as the chewing begins, saliva is released which has the amylase enzyme. The amylase starts breaking down starch to maltose.

Q46. The rate of photosynthesis and respiration may equal one another at what time?

• A. Dawn
• B. Noon
• C. Dusk
• D. Dawn and dusk✓

Explanation: At dawn and dusk, when light intensity is low, the rate of photosynthesis and respiration may, for a short time, equal one another. Thus the oxygen released from photosynthesis is just the amount required for cellular respiration. Also, the carbon dioxide released by respiration just equals the quantity required by photosynthesizing cells. At this moment there is no net gas exchange between the leaves and the atmosphere. This is termed as compensation point.

Q47. Which statement correctly describes the alimentary canal of hydra?

• A. The alimentary canal is formed from the endodermal cells
• B. The alimentary canal has a single opening
• C. The alimentary canal is saclike
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: In simple invertebrates, such as hydras and flatworms, the digestive system is a sac with a single opening. A hydra has a central cavity that holds prey; the cavity is lined by a layer os specializd cells that secrete digestive enzymes to break down the prey's tissues.

Q48. All of the following coelenterates show alternation of generation except?

• A. Hydra✓
• B. Obelia
• C. Aurellia
• D. All of these options are correct

Explanation: Hydra does not show alternation of generation in its life cycle. It also does not have any larval stage during its life cycle.

Q49. The animals of division Radiata are which of the following?

• A. Triploblastic
• B. Diploblastic✓
• C. Radioblast
• D. All of these

Explanation: Characteristics of the radiata is that they are diploblastic. Diploblastic organisms only have two embryonic tissues layers; endoderm and ectoderm.

Q50. A sponge of Antarctica which is more than a meter tall is known as?

• A. Euplectella
• B. Spongilla
• C. Leucosolenia
• D. Scolymastra joubini✓

Explanation: Anoxycalyx ( scolymastra) joubini is the largest and most conspicuous sponge in the Antarctica and although it has been observed as much as 1 m in height.

Q51. If lipopolysaccharides did not appear in the wall of bacteria on staining then it will be known as _.

• A. Gram negative
• B. Gram positive✓
• C. Capsule
• D. Both Gram positive & negative

Explanation: The Gram stain procedure distinguishes between Gram positive and Gram negative groups by coloring these cells red or violet. Gram positive bacteria stain violet due to the presence of a thick layer of peptidoglycan in their cell walls, which retains the crystal violet these cells are stained with. Alternatively, Gram negative bacteria stain pink, which is attributed to a thinner peptidoglycan wall, which does not retain the crystal violet during the decoloring process.Gram-positive bacteria do not contain lipopolysaccharides, but carry surface teichoic acids, lipoteichoic acids and peptidoglycan instead.The outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria contains lipopolysaccharides, proteins, and phospholipids.The bacterial capsule is a large structure of many bacteria. It is a polysaccharide layer that lies outside the cell envelope, and is thus deemed part of the outer envelope of a bacterial cell.

Q52. For respiratory metabolism, a bacterial cell membrane contains:

• A. Proteins
• B. Lipids
• C. Enzymes✓
• D. Chemicals

Explanation: Bacterial cells lack membrane-bound organelles such as mitochondria. Therefore, the enzymes needed for respiration are present in invaginations of the cell membrane, called 'Mesosomes'.

Q53. The sex pili is formed in which of the following processes?

• A. Sexual reproduction
• B. Binary fission
• C. Mitosis
• D. Conjugation✓

Explanation: The following diagram shows reproduction by conjugation and it can be seen that the recipient forms a pilus at the end.

Q54. The shape of gray matter is:

• A. Spherical
• B. Butterfly✓
• C. Mosquito
• D. Rectangular

Explanation: Option A: This is not the correct shape.Option B: Shape of gray matter in the spinal cord is H or butterfly in other words thus this option is correct.Option C: Mosquito is not a shape it is an insect therefore this answer is incorrect.Option D: This is not the correct shape.

Q55. Which of the following is true in case of induced fit model?

• A. The substrate changes its shape slightly.
• B. The enzyme changes its shape slightly.✓
• C. None of them changes shape.
• D. Both changes shape.

Explanation: Correct option B Since according to the induced fit model presented by koshland the binding of substrate or other molecules to enzyme causes changes in enzyme to enhance or inhibit its activity.

Q56. The optimum pH for the functioning of enzyme pepsin is:

• A. 2✓
• B. 3
• C. 4
• D. 5

Explanation: The optimum pH for the functioning of the enzyme pepsin is 2. Pepsin is a digestive enzyme produced in the stomach It plays a crucial role in the digestion of proteins.

Q57. Bacteria that live in intestine and produce vitamin K belong to?

• A. Vibrio
• B. Cocci
• C. Spirilla
• D. Bacilli✓

Explanation: Menaquinones are the naturally occurring form of vitamin K identified in bacteria. Bacilli in intestine produce vitamin K.

Q58. Hypothalamus initiates the release of hormones, by their releasing factors, while _ is directly released by it.

• A. TSH
• B. ACTH
• C. FSH
• D. Dopamine✓

Explanation: The hormones produced in the hypothalamus are corticotropin-releasing hormone, dopamine, oxytocin, growth hormone-releasing hormone, somatostatin, gonadotropin-releasing hormone and thyrotropin-releasing hormone.

Q59. Some enzymes require the presence of a non protein molecule to behave catalytically. An enzyme devoid of this molecule is called a(n):

• A. Holoenzyme
• B. Apoenzyme✓
• C. Coenzyme
• D. Zymoenzyme

Explanation: Enzyme with a non-proteinous part is called Holoenzyme; without that non-proteinous part, it is called Apoenzyme.

Q60. An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of;

• A. Succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid✓
• B. Cytochrome oxidase by cyanide
• C. Hexokinase by glucose
• D. Carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide

Explanation: A classic example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid. Malonic acid has a structural resemblance to succinate. So, it competes with succinate for the active site on the enzyme succinate dehydrogenase. If the concentration of malonic acid is more, the rate of the enzymatic reaction will be drastically reduced.

Q61. A disease caused by an autosomal primary non-disjunction is:

• A. Klinefelter’s syndrome
• B. Turner’s syndrome
• C. Sickle cell anaemia
• D. Down’s syndrome✓

Explanation: Down's syndrome is caused due to the trisomy of 21 chromosome which is an autosome. It is mainly caused due to the non-disjunction of the chromosomes. Non-disjunction is the condition when the sister chromatids fails to seperate during the cell division.

Q62. The mechanism that causes a gene to move from one linkage group to another is called:

• A. Inversion
• B. Duplication
• C. Translocation✓
• D. Crossing­ over

Explanation: Translocation is a chromosomal abnormality caused by the rearrangement of parts between non­-homologous chromosomes. It may cause a gene to move from one linkage group to another.

Q63. In the following human pedigree, the filled symbols represent the affected individuals. Identify the type of given pedigree.

• A. Autosomal recessive✓
• B. X-­linked dominant
• C. Autosomal dominant
• D. X-­linked recessive

Explanation: Autosomal recessive traits are the traits which are caused by recessive autosomal genes when present in homozygous condition. The given pedigree can be explained as:As the trait appears only in homozygous recessive individuals (aa), therefore it is an autosomal recessive trait.

Q64. Which of the following is not the type of cells of gastric gland?

• A. Zymogenic
• B. Parietal
• C. Sinusoidal✓
• D. Mucous neck

Explanation: The gastric gland contains four types of cells: parietal cells, chief cells, mucous neck cells, and enteroendocrine cells. Sinusoidal cells are not a type of cell found in the gastric gland.

Q65. Which of the following animals can survive without drinking water?

• A. Kangaroo rat✓
• B. Pig
• C. Kangaroo
• D. Camel

Explanation: The kangaroo rat is almost perfectly adapted to life in the desert. They can survive without ever drinking any water, getting needed moisture from their seed diet.

Q66. Nutrition refers to the processes involved in:

• A. Taking in of food
• B. Utilization of food elements
• C. Growth, repair, and maintenance
• D. All of the above options are correct✓

Explanation: Nutrition is the process of taking in food and converting it into energy and other vital nutrients required for life. Nutrients are the substances which provide energy and biomolecules necessary for carrying out the various body functions. All living organisms need nutrients for proper functioning and growth.

Q67. Which of the following structures provides greater pathogenicity to the bacteria?

• A. Slime✓
• B. Cell Wall
• C. Cell Membrane
• D. Capsule

Explanation: In the question, you need to identify the structure that provides greater pathogenicity to the bacteria. While each component has some effect on bacterial pathogenicity, the slime, which is a soluble sheath of macromolecules, provides greater pathogenicity to bacteria while also protecting them from phagocytosis. Hence, Option A is the correct answer.

Q68. The area on the left hemisphere related to speech is called?

• A. Amygdala
• B. Broca's area✓
• C. Hypothalamus
• D. Occipital lobe

Explanation: Option A: The amygdala is commonly thought to form the core of a neural system for processing fearful and threatening stimuli (4), including detection of threat and activation of appropriate fear-related behaviors in response to threatening or dangerous stimuliOption B: Broca’s area is also known as the motor speech area. It is near the motor cortex and utilized in speech production, located in the inferior frontal gyrus. This area regulates breathing patterns while speaking and vocalizations required for normal speech.Option C: Hypothalamus is ,a structure deep in your brain, acts as your body's smart control coordinating center. Its main function is to keep your body in a stable state called homeostasis. It does its job by directly influencing your autonomic nervous system or by managing hormonesOption D: The occipital lobes sit at the back of the head and are responsible for visual perception, including colour, form and motion. Damage to the occipital lobe can include: Difficulty with locating objects in environment

Q69. The diencephalon comprises of:

• A. Pons and medulla
• B. Thalamus and limbic system✓
• C. Pons and medulla
• D. Hypothalamus and limbic system

Explanation: The forebrain is divided into two major regions - the upper telencephalon (cerebrum) and the lower diencephalon. The diencephalon is further subdivided into the thalamus and the limbic system.

Q70. A metal cofactor which is used in synthesis of glycolysis is?

• A. Fe3+
• B. Mn2+
• C. Co2+
• D. Mg2+✓

Explanation: "Mg2+" is an inorganic cofactor used in glycolysis to convert glucose into glucose 6-phosphate.

Q71. Lipid emulsification is done by:

• A. Pancreatic juice
• B. Bile✓
• C. Gastric juice
• D. Intestinal juice

Explanation: Lipid emulsification is done by bile. Bile is a fluid that is produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder. It is released into the small intestine during digestion, where it helps to break down fats and fat-soluble vitamins.

Q72. The primary electron acceptor in cyclic photophosphorylation is:

• A. Carbon dioxide
• B. A protein that contains iron and sulphur
• C. NADP✓
• D. FAD

Explanation: c) NADP:NADP (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate) is the correct answer. In cyclic photophosphorylation, the primary electron acceptor is a molecule of NADP+. During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, electrons are transferred from photosystem I (PSI) to the primary electron acceptor, NADP+, which is reduced to NADPH. NADPH is then utilized in the Calvin cycle for the production of carbohydrates. it is a correct option.

Q73. A woman with normal colour vision, whose father was red green colour blind, married a red green colour blind man. What is the probability of her born child being red green colour blind?

• A. 1.0
• B. 0.75
• C. 0.50✓
• D. 0.25

Explanation: Males have 1 X chromosome and 1 Y chromosome, and females have 2 X chromosomes. The genes that can give you red-green colour blindness are passed down on the X chromosome.The woman’s father is red-green colour blind. Since the woman got one of her X chromosomes from her father this means that she is a carrier. As it can be seen from the table the probability of having a colourblind child is 0.5%

Q74. Gigantism in human beings is caused due to over secretion of:

• A. Thyrotropin
• B. Corticotropin
• C. Somatotropin✓
• D. Prolactin

Explanation: Gigantism occurs when a child’s pituitary gland makes too much growth hormone, which is also known as somatotropin. Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), also called corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF), is a peptide hormone that activates the synthesis and release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the pituitary gland. In this way, CRH affects our response to stress, addiction and depression, amongst others. Prolactin is a hormone made by the pituitary gland, a small gland at the base of the brain. Prolactin causes the breasts to grow and make milk during pregnancy and after birth. Thyroid-stimulating hormone/Thyrotropin is a hormone produced by anterior pituitary gland that stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine, and then triiodothyronine which stimulates the metabolism of almost every tissue in the body. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Q75. A structure established between the uterine and foetal tissues for the exchange of oxygen, carbon dioxide, waste, nutrients and other materials is:

• A. Amnion
• B. Placenta✓
• C. Endometrium
• D. Uterus

Explanation: The placenta is defined as temporary intimate mechanical and the physiological connection between foetus and maternal tissue for the nutrition, respiration and excretion of the foetus. Human placenta consists of chorion only. The placenta is fully formed by the end of the third month and maintains pregnancy. In the placenta, the foetal blood comes very close to the maternal blood and this permits the exchange of material between the two. Food, water, mineral salt, vitamins, hormone antibodies and oxygen pass from the maternal blood into the foetal blood, and foetal metabolic waste, such as carbon dioxide, and urea, also water and hormones, pass into the maternal blood.

Q76. All of the following statements about arteries are true except:

• A. They are thick-walled
• B. They pulsate
• C. They contain much elastic fiber tissue
• D. They carry blood away from the heart
• E. They contain valves✓

Explanation: Unlike arteries, veins contain valves that ensure blood flows in only one direction. (Arteries don't require valves because pressure from the heart is so strong that blood is only able to flow in one direction.)

Q77. The rate of breathing is controlled by the:

• A. Lungs
• B. Cerebellum
• C. Pons
• D. Medulla oblongata✓
• E. Diaphragm

Explanation: The respiratory center is located in the medulla oblongata and is involved in the minute-to-minute control of breathing.

Q78. The joints that allow movement in two directions are called:

• A. Ball and Socket joint
• B. Hinge joint✓
• C. Cartilaginous joint
• D. Fibrous joint

Explanation: Hinge joints are the ones that allow the movement in only 2 directions. Elbow and knee joints are the examples of hinge joints.

Q79. _ accepts hydrogen from malate

• A. COQ
• B. FMN
• C. FAD
• D. NAD✓

Explanation: Oxidation(Dehydrogenation -IV) is one of the steps of Krebs cycle, in which Malate is oxidized by removal of hydrogen and oxalo-acetate gets regenerated. The hydrogen removed in this reaction is taken up by the coenzyme NAD to form NADH2.

Q80. The notochord is

• A. Present in adult chordates
• B. Present in all echinoderms
• C. Present in chordates during embryological developents✓
• D. Always a vestigial organ in chordates

Explanation: The notochord is the defining structure of the chordates, and has essential roles in vertebrate development. It serves as a source of midline signals that pattern surrounding tissues and as a major skeletal element of the developing embryo.

Q81. The absorption and use of calcium are regulated by

• A. Parathormone✓
• B. Adrenaline
• C. Thyroxin
• D. Thiamin
• E. Prolactin

Explanation: Circulating parathyroid hormone targets the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct, directly increasing calcium reabsorption.

Q82. Irreversible modifications require the synthesis of which of the following?

• A. enzymes
• B. carbohydrates
• C. vitamins
• D. proteins✓

Explanation: Irreversible modifications require the synthesis of proteins as it produces inactive form of enzymes called Pro enzymes. Pro enzymes require a biochemical change to become an active enzymes.

Q83. The oxygen and carbon dioxide crosses the plasma membrane by the process of:

• A. Active diffusion
• B. Facilitated diffusion
• C. Passive diffusion✓
• D. Random diffusion

Explanation: Passive diffusion, also known as simple diffusion, is a process by which molecules move across a membrane from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. This process is responsible for the movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide across the Plasma membrane.

Q84. Which one forms the raw material for coenzymes:

• A. Vitamins✓
• B. Carbohydrates
• C. Lipids
• D. Proteins

Explanation: Most coenzymes are vitamins or are derived from vitamins. Vitamins are organic compounds that are essential in very small (trace) amounts for the maintenance of normal metabolism.

Q85. Which of the following is an exception to cell theory?:

• A. Bacteria
• B. Viruses✓
• C. Protists
• D. Protozoans

Explanation: Viruses are an exception to cell theory since they are within the boundary of living and non-living. Non-living characteristics include the fact that they are not cells, have no cytoplasm or cellular organelles, and carry out no metabolism on their own; therefore, must replicate using the host cell's metabolic machinery which is against cell theory. Living characteristics included the presence of genome and protein.

Q86. Which of the following is the first group of invertebrates which have developed a closed circulatory system?

• A. Nematodes
• B. Arthropods
• C. Annelids✓
• D. Molluscs

Explanation: Annelids are the first and the only non-chordates to have a closed circulatory system.

Q87. At equilibrium, which of the following reactions is not affected by pressure?

• A. ½ N2(g) + ½ O2 (g) ⇌ NO(g)✓
• B. PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
• C. 2NO2 (g) ⇌ N2O4(g)
• D. SO2Cl2(g) ⇌ SO2(g) + Cl2(g)

Explanation: Increasing pressure affects the side that has less number of moles but if the number of moles on both sides of the equation are equal then change in pressure has no effect on the equilibrium of the equation.

Q88. Which carbon of amino acids bond to nitrogen of another in peptide linkage

• A. α-Carbon
• B. ẞ-Carbon
• C. Side chain carbon
• D. Carbonyl carbon✓

Explanation: Peptide linkage is between —COOH and —NH2 groups.

Q89. 1 liter of a gas weighs 2 g at 300 K and 1 atm pressure. If the pressure is made 0.75 atm, at which of the following temperatures will 1 L of the same gas weigh 1 g?

• A. 450 K✓
• B. 800 K
• C. 600 K
• D. 900 K

Explanation: So we know that, P₁V₁ / P₂V₂ = W₁T₁ / W₂T₂ Substituting in the above formula we get, => 1 × 1 / 0.75 × 1 = 2 × 300 / 1 × T₂ => 1 / 0.75 = 600 / T₂ Cross Multiplying we get, => T₂ × 1 = 600 × 0.75 => T₂ = 450 K

Q90. The shape of SnCl2 is:

• A. Linear
• B. Tetrahedral
• C. Angular✓
• D. Trigonal Planar

Explanation: Steric number 3 no of lone pairs 1 once distribution of electron pairs is trigonal planar. And the shape of the molecule is bent or V - shaped or angular.Difference between bent and angular? Both shapes are considered bent. The angle will be slightly different (<120 degrees versus <109.5 degrees), but the name for both shapes is still bent (or angular). They are the same, the terms are interchangeable.

Q91. The nitrides of alkaline earth metals hydrolyse with water to form:

• A. NH3✓
• B. H2
• C. N2
• D. NO

Explanation: When alkaline earth metal nitride reacts with water, ammonia (NH3) is produced. The reaction of alkaline earth metal nitrides with water is as follows: M3N2 + 6 H2O → 3 M(OH)2+ 2 NH3, where M is an alkaline earth metal.

Q92. One Calorie is equivalent to:

• A. 0.4184J
• B. 41.84 J
• C. 4.184 J✓
• D. 418.4 J

Explanation: There are 4.184 joules in 1 calorie.

Q93. Grignard reagent when reacts with CO₂, it forms:

• A. Carboxylic acid✓
• B. Aldehyde
• C. Alkyl Halide
• D. Ketone

Explanation: When Grignard reagent reacts with CO2 it forms Carboxylic salt which undergoes protonation by aqueous acid to form a carboxylic acid.

Q94. Which order reaction obey the expression t1/2 = 1/Ka

• A. First
• B. Second✓
• C. Third
• D. Zero

Explanation: For a second order reaction, the half life is inversely proportional to initiate concentration of the reaction , Hence the correct answer is B. For option A, Half life of first order reaction is inversely proportional to the concentration of reactant. For option C , Half life of a third order reaction is inversely proportional to the square of initial concentration of the reactant. Thus, it is incorrect. For Option D , Half life is directly proportional to the initial concentration of reactants.

Q95. In which of the following situations is it impossible to predict how the pressure will change for a gas sample?

• A. The gas is cooled at a constant volume.
• B. The gas is heated at a constant volume
• C. The gas is heated, and the volume is simultaenously increased✓
• D. The gas is cooled, and the volume is simultaneously increased.

Explanation: Choice (C), on the other hand, presents too vague a scenario for us to predict definitively the change in pressure. Heating the gas would amplify the pressure, while increasing the volume would decrease it. Without knowing the magnitude of each influence, it's impossible to say whether the pressure would increase, decrease, or stay the same.

Q96. The crystals formed as a result of Van der waals interactions are:

• A. Molecular crystals✓
• B. Covalent crystals
• C. Metallic crystals
• D. Ionic crystals

Explanation: Van der Waals forces are responsible for the formation of molecular crystals

Q97. Which of the following processes is endothermic?

• A. The condensation of steam
• B. The electrolysis of water✓
• C. The freezing of the water
• D. 𝐶𝑎(𝑠)+ 2𝐻2O (I) 𝐶𝑎2 (aq)+ 𝐻2 (g)
• E. 𝐻+ (aq) + OH (aq) 𝐻2O (I)

Explanation: During electrolysis, heat is given to the water which gets absorbed by water to give oxygen and hydrogen and so the reaction is an endothermic reaction.

Q98. When N2+ is form N2 bond-order ......... and when O2+ is formed from O2 bond-order.

• A. Increases increases
• B. Decreases decreases
• C. Increases decreases
• D. Decrease increase✓

Explanation: Molecular orbital configuration of N2 is 1s2 2s2 2p3 molecular orbital configuration of O2 is 1s2 2s2 2p4. when n2+ is formed from n2 electron is removed from sigma- bonding and hence boiling point decreases while o2+ is formed from o2, electron is removed from pie bonding and boiling point increases.

Q99. FIX THIS: One of the isomers of C6 H12 (A) has chiral carbon but on hydrogenation it losses is chirality. A is

• A. 2- methyl -2- pentene
• B. 2,3-Dimethyl -2-butene
• C. 3-methyl-1-pentene✓
• D. 3,3 Di methyl-1- butene

Explanation: The explanation for this question has been added.

Q100. Which one of the following phenol is more soluble in aq: NaCHO3

• A. 2,4-Dihydrox acetophenone✓
• B. 2,4,6-Tricyano phenol
• C. 3,4- Dicyano phenol
• D. P-Cyano phenol

Explanation: Option A, 2,4-Dihydroxy acetophenone, is more soluble in aqueous NaCHO3. The hydroxyl groups in this compound form hydrogen bonds with NaCHO3, increasing its solubility. In contrast, options B, C, and D lack such polar functional groups to facilitate significant solubility.

Q101. A water soluble compound of molecular formula C3H6O gives yellow crystalline solid on heating with I and Na2CO3 , the compound is

• A. CH3CH2 CHO
• B. CH2 OCH = CH2
• C. CH3 COCH3✓
• D. CH2 =CHCH2 OH

Explanation: When the conditions are alkaline,ketones containing methyl group (CH3CO−) give yellow crystalline solid with I2 And Na2CO3. This is known as the Iodoform reaction.

Q102. Buffer solutions resist change in their _ ?

• A. Temperature
• B. Solubility
• C. Volatility
• D. pH✓

Explanation: Option A: Buffer solutions are designed to resist changes in pH, not temperature. They are typically used to maintain a constant pH even when there are temperature fluctuations. Option B: Buffer solutions are not specifically designed to resist changes in solubility. Solubility refers to the ability of a substance to dissolve in a solvent, and buffer solutions are primarily used to control and maintain a specific pH value. Option C: Buffer solutions are not designed to resist changes in volatility. Volatility refers to the tendency of a substance to evaporate or vaporize. Buffer solutions are primarily focused on maintaining a stable pH, rather than controlling volatility.Option D: Buffer solutions are specifically designed to resist changes in pH. They consist of a weak acid and its conjugate base (or a weak base and its conjugate acid) that work together to minimize changes in pH when an acid or base is added to the solution. This makes them useful in various applications where a stable pH environment is required, such as in biological and chemical processes.

Q103. Which class of halogenoalkane can react with alkali by an SN2 mechanism?

• A. Primary and secondary✓
• B. Secondary and tertiary
• C. Primary and tertiary
• D. Primary, secondary and tertiary

Explanation: a) Primary and secondary:This option suggests that both primary and secondary halogenoalkanes can react with alkali by an SN2 (substitution nucleophilic bimolecular) mechanism. In SN2 reactions, the nucleophile attacks the carbon atom bearing the leaving group, resulting in a simultaneous substitution of the leaving group and the nucleophile. Primary and secondary halogenoalkanes are suitable for SN2 reactions because they have a less hindered carbon center, allowing the nucleophile to approach and substitute the leaving group more easily.

Q104. How many atoms of carbon are present in 18 g of glucose, 𝐶6 𝐻12 𝑂6?

• A. 6.0 x 1022
• B. 3.6 x 1023✓
• C. 6.0 x 1023
• D. 3.6 x 1024
• E. 6.0 x 1024

Explanation: •18g of glucose =0 1 mol •No of moles of C in = 6mol 1mol of glucose •moles of C in 0.1 =0.6mol Mol of glucose •no.of atoms of C = 0.6×6.02×10²³=3.6×10²³ In 0.1 mol of Glucose ACCORDING TO ABOVE CALCULATION OPTION B is only correct

Q105. Regular coiling or zigzagging of polypeptide through hydrogen bonding is its.

• A. Quaternary structure
• B. Secondary structure✓
• C. Tertiary structure
• D. Primary structure

Explanation: The secondary structure of a protein is a regular coiling or zigzagging of polypepticle chains caused by hydrogen bonding between NH and C = 0 groups of amino acids near each other in the chains.

Q106. For a given mass of gas, if the pressure is reduced to half and its temperature is doubled, then volume V will become?

• A. 4V✓
• B. 2V2
• C. V/4
• D. 8V

Explanation: According to the formula PV=nRT, The pressure becomes p/2 and the temperature becomes 2T. Therefore the increase in volume will be 4V.

Q107. The RMS speed at NTP of a gas can be calculated from the expression:

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D
• E. Option A, B and C✓
• F. Option D, B, and C

Explanation: Correct option is E

Q108. Which statement is true about electron affinity?

• A. The value of electron affinity is always positive
• B. The value of electron affinity is always negative
• C. The value of first electron affinity is always positive
• D. The value of first electron affinity is always negative✓

Explanation: Whenever an electron is added to a neutral atom, energy is released out so the first electron affinity is always negative. However, when we add an electron to a negatively charged ion, due to the repulsive force between the negative ion and the negative electron, some energy is needed to overcome this repulsion. The energy which is provided is always greater than the energy released hence the second electron affinity is always positive because, ultimately, energy is provided to the system.

Q109. When the number of moles of reactants and products are equal in reversible reactions which parameter would not affect at equilibrium?

• A. Temperature
• B. Pressure
• C. Volume
• D. Catalyst✓

Explanation: The addition of catalysts does not alter the equilibrium. Catalysts only help in achieving the equilibrium quicker. Option B and C would be correct only if all the products and reactants were gases, however the question does not specify that, hence option D is the best to choose. For change in temperature, the equilibrium remains in its new position, favoring the endothermic reaction if the surrounding temperature is high or favoring the exothermic reaction if the surrounding temperature is low.

Q110. Conversion of Electrical energy into chemical energy is

• A. Mechanical Energy
• B. Electromechanical Energy
• C. Electrochemistry✓
• D. Chemical Energy

Explanation: The conversion of electrical to chemical energy is called electrochemistry. Electrochemistry is the branch of physical chemistry concerned with the relationship between electrical potential difference, as a measurable and quantitative phenomenon, and identifiable chemical change, with the potential difference as an outcome of a particular chemical change, or vice versa.

Q111. Which of the following method is used to prepare acetic acid?

• A. Distillation
• B. Fermentation✓
• C. Dehydration
• D. Ozonolysis

Explanation: Production of acetic acid can be carried out by aerobic and anaerobic fermentation. The fermentation is usually initiated by yeasts which break down glucose into ethyl alcohol with the liberation of carbon dioxide gas. Following on from the yeasts, bacteria (acetobacter aceti) oxidize the alcohol to acetic acid and water. Usually, ozonolysis followed by hydrolysis of alkynes also yields in the formation of carboxylic acids but in the case of ethyne, instead of acetic acid, glyoxal is formed. Hence, the best suited option here is B. Production of acetic acid can be carried out by aerobic and anaerobic fermentation. The fermentation is usually initiated by yeasts which break down glucose into ethyl alcohol with the liberation of carbon dioxide gas. Following on from the yeasts, bacteria (acetobacter aceti) oxidize the alcohol to acetic acid and water.Usually, ozonolysis followed by hydrolysis of alkynes also yields in the formation of carboxylic acids but in the case of ethyne, instead of acetic acid, glyoxal is formed. Hence, the best suited option here is B. Usually, ozonolysis followed by hydrolysis of alkynes also yields in the formation of carboxylic acids but in the case of ethyne, instead of acetic acid, glyoxal is formed. Hence, the best suited option here is B.Usually, ozonolysis followed by hydrolysis of alkynes also yields in the formation of carboxylic acids but in the case of ethyne, instead of acetic acid, glyoxal is formed. Usually, ozonolysis followed by hydrolysis of alkynes also yields in the formation of carboxylic acids but in the case of ethyne, instead of acetic acid, glyoxal is formed. Hence, the best suited option here is B.

Q112. In an Irreversible reaction the tendency of it to go in reverse direction is

• A. High
• B. Low
• C. Negligible✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: In an irreversible reaction, the tendency of the reaction to go in the reverse direction is very low or negligible. Irreversible reactions proceed in one direction only, from reactants to products, without significant backward conversion. This can be due to various factors such as a large energy barrier or the removal of products from the reaction environment. Irreversible reactions often involve the formation of stable or less reactive products, making the reverse reaction unlikely to occur under normal conditions.

Q113. The test used to distinguish among Primary, Secondary and Tertiary alcohols.

• A. 2, 4 - DNPH test
• B. Tollen’s test
• C. Lucas test✓
• D. Fehling’s solution test

Explanation: The "Lucas test" uses Lucas Reagent, which is a solution of Anhydrous zinc in concentrated H2SO4. The test determines whether alcohol is primary, secondary, or tertiary based on how readily the alcohol gives hydroxyl ions to replace the Chloride in Zinc Chloride. Primary alcohols show the least turbidity (haziness of the liquid's surface indicating that a reaction took place), meaning that it does not react quickly with Lucas Reagent at room temperature. Secondary alcohols show medium turbidity, while tertiary alcohols show the most, meaning that they react readily with Lucas Reagent.

Q114. Which one of the following organic compound has the least carbon - carbon bond length?

• A. Ethene
• B. Ethane
• C. Ethyne✓
• D. Methane

Explanation: Option A is incorrect as Alkanes have highest bond length (of about 1.54 Angstrom) Option B is incorrect as Alkenes have lower bond length (of about 1.34 Angstrom) Option C is correct as Alkynes have the lowest bond length (of about 1.20 Angstrom) Option D is incorrect due to similar reasons as stated for Alkanes in option A. Note : The unsaturated compounds have lower bond lengths due high e- density.

Q115. A catalyst is a substance which:

• A. Stops the reaction
• B. Decreases the rate of reaction
• C. Alters the rate of reaction
• D. Increases the rate of reaction✓

Explanation: Option D is correct as a catalyst is a substance that speeds up a chemical reaction, or lowers the temperature or pressure needed to start one, without itself being consumed during the reaction. Catalysis is the process of adding a catalyst to facilitate a reaction. Hence , Option A , B and C are incorrect.

Q116. In addition to water, which of the following could be found during the incomplete combustion of a hydrocarbon?

• A. Carbon, carbon monoxide and hydrogen
• B. Carbon and oxygen
• C. Carbon monoxide and hydrogen
• D. Carbon and carbon monoxide and water✓

Explanation: By the complete combustion of hydrocarbons, we get carbon dioxide and water. Eg; C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O For the complete combustion, we need 5 moles of O2 as per the balanced chemical equation, in order to gain water and carbon dioxide. An incomplete combustion, however, occurs when oxygen is the limiting reagant, therefore its products formed are different than those of a complete combustion. C3H8 + 4O2 → 2CO + CO2 + 4H2O Thus producing carbon monoxide. If the oxygen supply is even more limited, then it will produce Carbon soot as a product.

Q117. Which reagent gives a colorless homogeneous solution when added tp phenol?

• A. Aqueous bromine
• B. Aqueous sodium carbonate
• C. Aqueous sodium hydroxide✓
• D. Aqueous sodium hydroxide and benzoyl chloride

Explanation: Phenol reacts with sodium hydroxide solution to give a colourless solution containing sodium phenoxide. In this reaction, the hydrogen ion has been removed by the strongly basic hydroxide ion in the sodium hydroxide solution

Q118. Secondary structure of protein includes

• A. α-helix
• B. Both A. and C.✓
• C. β-sheets
• D. 3-dimensioal folding

Explanation: The explanation is given in image.

Q119. Which of the following statements about the reaction given below are correct. IO3-(aq) + 2I-(aq) + 6H+(aq) + 6Cl-(aq) -> 3ICl2-(aq) + 3H2O(l)

• A. The oxidation number of iodine in the iodate ion,IO3-(aq), changes from +5 to +1✓
• B. The oxidation number of iodine in the iodide ion I-, changes from -1 to +2
• C. The oxidation number of chlorine in the iodide ion I- , changes from -1 to -2
• D. Iodate ions are oxidized

Explanation: In IO3-, iodine has the oxidation number of +5 which we can calculate from the oxidation number of oxygen which is -2 and the collective oxidative number of the iodate ion which is -1. On the other hand, we have ICl2- ion in which iodine has the oxidative number of +1 which we can find from the same method but in this case, we have chlorine having the oxidation state of -1. This reduction in the oxidation state of iodide from +5 to +1 is true thus the answer is A.

Q120. As compared to K, Na has.

• A. Larger atomic radius
• B. Higher ionization potential✓
• C. Lower melting point
• D. Lower electronegativity

Explanation: The ionization potential or ionization energy decreases down a group due to an increase in atomic radius, which binds the electron less tightly to the nucleus, hence it is easier to remove. So Na has a higher ionization potential than K.Na has a higher melting point because of less distance between nuclei and electrons, which makes stronger metallic bonds.Na has 3 shells (K, L, M) while K has 4 shells (K, L, M, N), so the atomic radius of Na is smaller than that of K.Na and K are metals and have the property of electropositivity instead of electronegativity.

Q121. Beryllium(Be) shows the diagonal relationship with:

• A. Al✓
• B. B
• C. Mg
• D. Na

Explanation: The elements of the 2nd period, show resemblance in properties with elements of the 3rd period, placed diagonally. This is called the diagonal relationship. Beryllium (Be) shows a diagonal relationship with aluminum (Al).

Q122. The relation between first and second ionization potentials of a given atom is:

• A. I1 < I2✓
• B. I1 > I2
• C. I1 = I2
• D. None of these options

Explanation: Option A is correct as Successive ionization energy increases due to increasing Z. Effective which decreases the size of the electron cloud. This causes an increase in the requirement of energy given for another electron to be ejected. Thus, all other options are rendered as incorrect.

Q123. A crystal system having all sides (a, b and c) unequal and angles α = β = γ = 90 is:

• A. Cubic
• B. Rhombohedral
• C. Orthorhombic✓
• D. Hexagonal

Explanation: This is the following solution.

Q124. Which of the following contains the coordinate covalent bond?

• A. N2H5+✓
• B. BaCl2
• C. HCl
• D. H2O

Explanation: This is the following solution.

Q125. Upon which factor is vapour pressure not dependent:

• A. Temperature
• B. Intermolecular forces
• C. Density of liquid
• D. Surface area of liquid✓

Explanation: The surface area of liquid or solid in contact has no effect on vapor pressure. Other factors do have an impact on vapour pressure. Higher density decreases vapour pressure, higher temperature increases vapour pressure and higher intermolecular forces also increase the vapour pressure.

Q126. The process of depositing a thin layer of expensive metals on ordinary or inexpensive metals is called:

• A. Electroplating✓
• B. Conductivity
• C. Galvanizing
• D. Metallurgy

Explanation: In electroplating, we have the object replacing the cathode and the metal, the anode. As the electric current is allowed to flow, the metal ions are formed at the anode, and then they discharge at the cathode which is the object.

Q127. The shape of CO2 molecule is similar to:

• A. H2S
• B. SO2
• C. SnCl2
• D. BeF2✓

Explanation: CO2 is sp hybridised, has a linear structure and a bond angle of 180°. BeF2 is also sp hybridised and has the same structure and bond angles as CO2, since the central atom Be, like carbon, bonds with two other atoms and has no lone pairs. Therefore option D is the correct answer.

Q128. In the electrolysis of molten ZnCl2 , how much Zn can be deposited at the cathode by the passage of 0.01 ampere for one hour?

• A. 0.002 g
• B. 0.123 g
• C. 0.012 g✓
• D. 0.004 g

Explanation: In this scenario, we first find the total number of charges flown through the apparatus. The formula that we are going to be using is Charge= Ampere x Time. 1 mole of Zn is formed when we have two moles of electrons being added to 1 mole of Zn2+. 1 mole of electrons carries a charge of 96500 coulombs. So, 2 moles of electrons would have a charge of 193000C. To find the moles of Zn deposited, we have the charge passed divided by the charge required to form 1 mole of Zn. Once we have the moles, we multiply them by the molar mass. For a better understanding, please see the attached solution.

Q129. Metallic character depends on _ ?

• A. Electron Affinity
• B. Ionization energy
• C. Electronegativity
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: Metallic character depends on all of the options. Metallic character is basically defined as the ability of a metal to share/donate electrons. It decreases from left to right.This ability is directly affected by all the given options. Hence, option D is correct.

Q130. The value of surface tension of isopropyl alcohol is:

• A. Less than water✓
• B. Less than ethylene glycol
• C. Less than methyl alcohol
• D. Same as ethyl alcohol

Explanation: Surface tension is the tendency of liquid surfaces at rest to shrink into the minimum surface area possible.The SI unit of Surface Tension is Newton per Meter or N/m. Isopropyl Alcohol has a surface tension of value of (at 20°C) = 23.0 mN/m. Option A is correct as the surface tension of water is about 72 mN/m at room temperature which is one of the highest surface tension for liquid. Option B is incorrect as Ethylene Glycol has a surface tension of 47.3mN/m. Option C is incorrect as Methanol has a surface tension of 22.5mN/m. Option D is incorrect as Ethanol has a surface tension of 22.39mN/m.

Q131. Maleic acid and fumaric acid are:

• A. Cis Trans isomers✓
• B. Chain isomers
• C. Position isomers
• D. Metamers

Explanation: Option A is correct as when the substituent groups are oriented in the same direction, the diastereomer is referred to as cis, whereas, when the substituents are oriented in opposing directions, the diastereomer is referred to as trans. Maleic and fumaric acids are given below. Option B is incorrect as chain isomers are compounds which have the same molecular formula but the carbon skeleton of the chain is different. Example: n-pentane and 2-methyl butane Option C is incorrect as positional isomers are constitutional isomers with the same carbon skeleton and will have the same functional group. Example: 2-iodopentane and 3-iodopentane. Option D is incorrect as metamers are the isomers having the same molecular formula but different alkyl groups on two sides of functional groups. Example: Pentan -2- one and Pentan-3-one.

Q132. All of the following react with KMNO4 but:

• A. Ethane✓
• B. Ethyne
• C. Ethyl benzene
• D. Ethene

Explanation: Option A is correct as Alkanes are generally unreactive towards Oxidizing reagents. Whereas Option B , C and D are incorrect as all of them react with KMnO4 due to unsaturation of bond ( for B and D) whereas ethyl benzene just has its outer alkyl chain oxidized to give benzoic acid as a product.

Q133. Which is not a meta directing group:

• A. -NO2
• B. -COOH
• C. -NH2✓
• D. -COR

Explanation: Ortho and para-directing groups are electron-donating groups; meta-directing groups are electron-withdrawing groups. The halide ions, which are electron-withdrawing but ortho, and para-directing, are the exception. Generally, in the case of ortho-para directing groups a more electronegative element is directly attached to the ring. While for meta directors, a less electronegative remains attached directly to the ring. For example, -NH2, -CH3 and -OCH3 are ortho-para directors. For example, NO2, -CN, -CF3, -COR, and -COOH are meta directors.

Q134. Which class of the compounds is represented by the type formula ROR’?

• A. Esters
• B. Ethers✓
• C. Aldehydes
• D. Ketones

Explanation: A. "Esters" have the general formula R-COO-R'. B. "Ethers" have the general formula R-O-R' where R is the Alkyl group that is variant. C. "Aldehydes" have the general formula R-COH. D. "Ketones" have the general formula R-CO-R.

Q135. Which of the following represents the equation for the reaction between ethane and chlorine in the presence of UV radiation?

• A. C2H4 + Cl2 -> C2H2Cl2 + H2
• B. C2H4 + Cl2 -> C2H3Cl + HCl✓
• C. C2H4 + Cl2 -> 2CH3Cl
• D. C2H4 + O2 -> 2CH2Cl + 2HCl

Explanation: The question will be explained later

Q136. Chlorine in Vinyl chloride is not very reactive because

• A. C−Cl bond develops partial double bonds
• B. Of resonance✓
• C. Sp2 hybridized carbon has more acidic character than sp3 hybridized carbon
• D. All of the above

Explanation: The chlorine in vinyl chloride is not very reactive because the C−Cl bond develops partial double bonds due to the pi bond formed between the sp2 hybridized carbon and the chlorine atom. This partial double bond character reduces the reactivity of the C−Cl bond.

Q137. Anything under study during a chemical reaction in thermodynamics is called _.

• A. Analyte
• B. System✓
• C. Surrounding
• D. Boundary

Explanation: In thermodynamics, a system refers to the part of the universe that is being studied or analyzed. It can be any portion of the universe that is being studied, such as a chemical reaction, a physical process, or a living organism.

Q138. The smallest part of a crystal lattice showing all the properties of a crystal is called a _.

• A. Crystallite
• B. Unit cell✓
• C. Unit crystal
• D. Monomer

Explanation: A unit cell is the smallest unit of any crystal lattice. Unit cells keep repeating and making a whole lattice by generating repeatedly in different directions. So, the answer is B.

Q139. In IUPAC naming, alcohols are named as _.

• A. Alkanal
• B. Alkyl alcohols
• C. Alkanol✓
• D. Alkenol

Explanation: IUPAC names alcohols as alkanols and they are represented in any reaction through the general formula R-OH.

Q140. The reactant which is consumed completely in a reaction is known as a _ reactant.

• A. Fractional
• B. Initial
• C. Limiting✓
• D. Minor

Explanation: A limiting reactant is a reactant that is present in the smallest amount in a reaction and therefore limits the amount of product that can be formed. It is called the "limiting" reactant because it determines the extent of the reaction.

Q141. If a wheel of radius r turns through an angle of 30°, then the distance through which any point on its rim moves is?

• A. r(π/3)
• B. r(π/6)✓
• C. r(π/30)
• D. r(π/180)

Explanation: The dispance through which any point on the rim moves is equal to the the distance the rim has rolled, S. S = rθ where θ is angle in radians Convert 30° to radians 30 x π/180 = π/6 S = r(π/6)

Q142. For static electric field

• A. Δx E=0✓
• B. Δ.E=0
• C. (ΔxE)xE=0
• D. Δ.I E I^2

Explanation: Option A is correct since under static conditions, the tangential component of the electric field is always zero on the surface and the normal component is equal to surface charge density on the conductor divided by the permittivity of space. The symbol flipped triangle represents small lengths d/dt. So the cross product of small lengths and E gives you the tangential component of electric field strength. So that must be zero Option B is incorrect since it does not give the correct formula Option C is incorrect since it does not give the correct formula Option D is incorrect since it does not give the correct formula

Q143. If the number of turns of a solenoid circular coil is doubled, but the current in the coil and radius of the coil remains the same, then what will be the magnetic flux density produced by the coil?

• A. Magnetic flux density will be halved
• B. Magnetic flux density increases by different amount at different points
• C. Magnetic flux density remains unchanged
• D. Magnetic flux density will be doubled✓

Explanation: According to formula B=µ0 nI, if n is doubled then magnetic flux density (B) would also be doubled

Q144. What happens to the pressure of a sample of helium gas if the temperature is increased from 200 K to 800 K with no change volume?

• A. Pressure increases by a factor of 4✓
• B. Pressure decreases by a factor of 4
• C. Pressure decreases by a factor of 2
• D. Pressure increases by a factor of 2
• E. No change in pressure

Explanation: According to combined gas law, P1V1/T1 = P2V2/T2, The volume is constant so we can say that pressure and temperature are directly propotional. From 200K to 800K, the temperature increases four times (200x4=800) and since the pressure and temperature are directly propotional to eachother, the pressure also increases by a factor of 4.

Q145. Power developed by a person on eating 100g of ice per minute is (Latent heat of ice is 80 cal/g):

• A. 130 W
• B. 560 cal/sec
• C. 560 J/sec✓
• D. none of these

Explanation: A mass of ice eaten by the man per second. m =100/60=5/3 g/s Latent heat of ice, L = 80 cal/g. Therefore, energy required per second by the man in eating the ice, i.e., power developed by the man. = mL =5/3 x 80 cal/s 3 =5x80/3x4.2J/s=560W

Q146. A particle having the charge of 20 electrons on its falls through a potential difference of 100 volts.Calculate the energy acquired by it in electron volt (eV).

• A. 2.0 x 10^-2 eV
• B. 2.0 x 10^-3 eV
• C. 2.0 x 10^2 eV
• D. = 3.2 x 10-16 coulombs✓

Explanation: The possibility of predicting things in the subatomic particle is less than 1 due to the probabilistic nature of quantum mechanics. The behavior of subatomic particles cannot be predicted with complete accuracy, but rather with a certain probability. This means that the outcome of a subatomic particle experiment can only be predicted with a certain probability, rather than with complete certainty.

Q147. The magnetic lines of force are directed in a manner that they:

• A. Originate at south pole and terminate at north pole
• B. Pass through the magnet
• C. Originate at north pole and terminate at south pole✓
• D. Go away from both the poles

Explanation: Option A: This is incorrect. The magnetic lines of force originate at the north pole and terminate at the south pole. Option B: This is correct. The magnetic lines of force are continuous, so they must pass through the magnet. They do not pass through the magnet in a straight line, but rather they form loops that go around the magnet. Option C: The magnetic lines of force are directed in a manner that they originate at the north pole and terminate at the south pole. This is because the north pole of a magnet is a region where the magnetic field lines are pointing outwards, and the south pole of a magnet is a region where the magnetic field lines are pointing inwards. The magnetic lines of force are continuous, so they must pass through the magnet. They do not pass through the magnet in a straight line, but rather they form loops that go around the magnet. The magnetic lines of force do not go away from both the poles. If they did, then the magnetic field would be zero everywhere outside the magnet. However, the magnetic field is not zero outside the magnet. It is strongest near the poles of the magnet, and it decreases as you move away from the poles. Option D: This is incorrect. The magnetic lines of force do not go away from both the poles. If they did, then the magnetic field would be zero everywhere outside the magnet. However, the magnetic field is not zero outside the magnet. It is strongest near the poles of the magnet, and it decreases as you move away from the poles.

Q148. A car is moving in a circular track of radius 20m at a constant speed of 20m/sec. Find the centripetal acceleration?

• A. 20 m/s2✓
• B. 40 m/s2
• C. 30 m/s2
• D. 10 m/s2

Explanation: The formula for centripetal acceleration =v2/r, hence, 202/20=20m/s2

Q149. If the engine power is 3.3kW and it is 60% efficient, how much water will it pump in 5s from a height of 10m?

• A. 60kg
• B. 100kg✓
• C. 75kg
• D. 80kg

Explanation: To calculate the amount of water pumped in 5 seconds from a height of 10 meters, we can use the principle of work and energy. First, let's determine the potential energy of the water at a height of 10 meters. Potential energy (PE) = mass (m) * gravitational acceleration (g) * height (h) where: g ≈ 9.81 m/s² (gravitational acceleration) Given that the potential energy is transferred into the water by the engine, and the engine is 60% efficient, we can calculate the work done by the engine (W_engine) as follows: W_engine = PEPE/efficiency , work done by the engine is also equal to the power (P) of the engine multiplied by time (t): W_engine = P * t We are given that the engine power (P) is 3.3 kW, and the time (t) is 5 seconds. Now we can set up the equation: 3.3 kW * 5 s = PE / 0.60 Solving for PE: PE = 3.3 kW * 5 s * 0.60 ≈ 9.9 kJ Now, we can find the mass of the water (m) using the potential energy (PE): PE = m * g * h 9.9 kJ = m * 9.81 m/s² * 10 m Solving for m: m = 9.9 kJ / (9.81 m/s² * 10 m) ≈ 0.101 kg ≈ 100 g

Q150. An automobile is moving forwards with uniform velocity due to the force exerted by its engine. If the force is doubled with the velocity remaining constant what happens to its total power?

• A. It is squared
• B. It is halved
• C. It is doubled✓
• D. It does not change

Explanation: Power = force * velocityWith velocity kept constant, Power is directly proportional to force. Therefore, doubling force would double power.

Q151. An object is moving along a circular path of radius 4m. What will be its angular displacement if it moves 14 m on this circular path?

• A. 5.0 radians
• B. 3.5 radians✓
• C. 4.5 radians
• D. 5.5 radians

Explanation: Arc length = Radius x Angular displacementKeeping Arc length as 14m and radius as 4m we get angular displacement

Q152. The half-life of radium is about 1600 years. Of 100 g of radium existing now, 25 g will remain unchanged after _.

• A. 2400 years
• B. 3200 years✓
• C. 6400 years
• D. 4800 years

Explanation: Two half lives later, 100g of gamma rays will be reduced to 25g. 100/2² = 25 The half life of Radium = 1600 yearsTime taken = 2×1600 = 3200 years

Q153. If a photon is absorbed by a nucleus, the energy of nucleus _.

• A. Remains same
• B. Increase slightly✓
• C. Decreases slightly
• D. It will pass the nucleus

Explanation: Correct option:BThis option is correct because when a nucleus absorbs a photon its energy is increased and becomes excited.As there are energy levels inside the nucleus.When the nucleons get energy they become excited as their energy increases.

Q154. The diagram shows a small magnet hanging on a thread near the end of a solenoid carrying a steady current ‘I’. What happens to the magnet as the iron core is inserted into the solenoid?

• A. It moves towards solenoid and rotates through 180˚
• B. It moves towards the solenoid✓
• C. It moves away from solenoid
• D. It moves away from solenoid and rotates through 180˚

Explanation: According to the right-hand grip rule, a north pole is induced at the end of the solenoid which faces the south pole of the magnet. Since opposite poles attract, the magnet will move towards the solenoid.

Q155. A solenoid is cut into two halves. Magnetic induction due to same current in each half will be:

• A. Half of the original
• B. Double of the original
• C. Same as original✓
• D. Four times of the original

Explanation: Magnetic field due to a solenoid, B=μo nI. Where n= l/N. So, if the length and number of turns become half for a solenoid, n remains the same, and thus magnetic field remains the same.

Q156. A solenoid 15 cm long has 300 turns of wire. A current of 5 A flows through it.What is the magnitude of the magnetic field inside the solenoid?

• A. 75 x 107 T
• B. 60 x 10+3 T
• C. 4π x 10-3✓
• D. 750π x 10+3

Explanation: Given that, • Length of solenoid (I) = 15 cm • Number of turns (N) = 300 • Current (I)=5 Amp We know that the magnetic field inside a solenoid is given by Where, B = magnetic field N = No. of turns per unit length I= Current Thus, As it is a numerical, it can have only one possible answer.

Q157. Magnetic force on a charged particle is:

• A. QvBl
• B. None of these
• C. QvB cosθ
• D. QvB sinθ✓

Explanation: When a charge moves through a magnetic field, a force is applied on it which is given by:F = QvB sinθQvBl is the motional EMF produced when a conductor moves through a static magnetic field.

Q158. Alpha rays are nuclear radiations. They are in fact same as the _ nuclei.

• A. Hydrogen
• B. Deuterium
• C. Tritium
• D. Helium✓
• E. Lithium

Explanation: Alpha particle has charge of +2e and mass no 4Hydrogen has a charge of +e and mass no 1Deutrium has charge of +e and mass no 2Tritrium has charge of +e and mass no 3Helium has charge of +2e and mass no 4 Lithium has charge of +3e and mass no 7This confirms that alpha rays are same as the Helium Nuclei.

Q159. The magnetic field, B, produced in a solenoid depends on:

• A. its length
• B. its length and current in it
• C. Its length and number of turns in it
• D. Its length, number of turns and current in it✓

Explanation: Inside a solenoid, B=U0IN/L where I is the current, N is the no. of turns L is length Therefore, magnetic feild inside a solenoid depends on all these factors.

Q160. The path difference for the constructive interference is:

• A. (n-1)λ
• B. (n+1)λ
• C. n λ / 2
• D. 2n λ
• E. n λ✓

Explanation: Option A: (n-1)λ: This is the path difference for destructive interference. When the path difference is one wavelength less than a whole number of wavelengths, the waves will be out of phase and will cancel each other out. Option B: (n+1)λ: This is also the path difference for destructive interference. When the path difference is one wavelength more than a whole number of wavelengths, the waves will be out of phase and will cancel each other out. Option C: nλ/2: This is the path difference for a node. A node is a point where the waves cancel each other out completely. Option D: 2nλ: This is not possible, as the path difference cannot be greater than the wavelength of the wave. Option E: The path difference for constructive interference is nλ, where n is any integer. This means that the difference in the distance traveled by two waves must be a whole number of wavelengths. When this happens, the waves will be in phase and will add together to create a larger wave.

Q161. Which row describes the oscillations of two moving particles in a stationary wave that are separated by a distance of half a wavelength?

• A. A
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D✓

Explanation: 1 full wavelength is 2π or 360°, so half wavelength will have a 180° difference or π. Amplitude will be the same as it is the same particle, unless told otherwise. Hence, option D.

Q162. The kinetic energy of a projectile at the highest point is half of its kinetic energy. The angle of projection is

• A. 00
• B. 300
• C. 600
• D. 450✓
• E. 900

Explanation: Let K.Ei and K.Eh be the initial kinetic energy and kinetic energy at the highest point respectively.Let v be the initial velocity of the projectile. At highest point, the velocity of projectile =vcosθ According to question(KE)h=1/2(KE)i =>1/2mv2 cos2θ = ½(½ mv^) =>cos2θ=1/2 =>cos θ=1/√2 =>θ =45°.

Q163. A small and a large raindrops are falling through air

• A. The small drop will evaporate
• B. The large drop moves faster✓
• C. The small drop moves faster
• D. Both move with the same speed
• E. No conclusion can be drawn unless the exact sizes of the drops are known

Explanation: vt=2r2ρg/9η Where ρ is the density of water and η the viscosity of air. As the terminal velocity of the sphere is directly proportional to the square of radius. So a larger drop will have larger terminal velocity and hence will move faster.

Q164. A body of mass 1 kg is rotated in a horizontal circle of radius 1 m and moves with a velocity of 2m/s. The work done in 10 revolutions is:

• A. 40 J
• B. 20 J
• C. 4x2π (10)J
• D. zero✓

Explanation: Option D is correct as there is no change in P.E. as well as in the K.E. therefore work done is zero. Work done in circular motion is zero, as distance covered by object is zero.

Q165. Light of wavelength 400 nm is incident continuously on a cesium ball (work function 1.9 eV). The maximum potential to which the ball will be charged is:

• A. 3.1 V
• B. 1.2 V✓
• C. Zero
• D. Infinite

Explanation: This is the following solution:

Q166. If K.E of free electron is doubled its de broglie wavelength becomes?

• A. 1/√8
• B. √2
• C. 1/√2✓
• D. 2

Explanation: Since λ=h /√2m KE hence λ is directly proportional to 1/√KE

Q167. Angle between radius vector and centripetal acceleration is

• A. 0°
• B. π✓
• C. 2π
• D. none of these

Explanation: Consider a particle P is moving along a circle with centre as origin as shown in figure .For any position of P in the path the radius vector lies along OP and directed towards the particle. So the centripetal acceleration and radius vector are exactly directed opposite to each other at any position of the particle along the path. So the angle between centripetal acceleration and radius vector is 180 degrees which is equal to in radians.

Q168. The length and radius of an electric resistance of a certain wire are doubled simultaneously, then the:

• A. Resistance will be doubled and specific resistance will be halved
• B. Resistance will be halved and specific resistance will remain uncharged✓
• C. Resistance will be halved and specific resistance will be doubled
• D. Resistance and specific resistance will both remain uncharged

Explanation: Correct option is B The formula for resistance of wire is given by: ρ = RA/l. In Specific resistance there will be no Change . Specific resistance will remain the same as it is a material property but a point to be remembered is that it depends upon temperature.

Q169. An ambulance siren emits a sound of frequency 1800 Hz. The speed of sound in air is 330 m/s. The ambulance moves towards a stationary observer at a constant speed of 50 m/s. What is the frequency heard by the observer?

• A. (1800 * 290)/ 330
• B. (1800 * 330) / 370
• C. (1800 * 330) / 280✓
• D. (1800 * 330) / 380

Explanation: Doppler’s formula fo=v+vo/v+vs x fs fo= 330x1800/330-50 fo=330x1800/280

Q170. Consider two capacitors with capacitance 2yF and 4yF. With which type of connection will the 4yF capacitor have a greater amount of stored energy than the 2yF capacitor?

• A. Series
• B. Parallel✓
• C. Either series or parallel
• D. Neither series nor parallel

Explanation: Option B is correct since in a parallel combination both the 4 microfarads and 2 microfarads capacitors will get the same voltage. But since the capacitance of the 4 microfarads capacitor is greater, according to 1/2CV^2, the 4 microfarads capacitor will have a greater amount of stored energy. Option A is incorrect since, in a series combination, the 4 microfarads capacitor will get the lower voltage as C is inversely proportional to voltage when the charge is the same. Therefore, it will have lower energy. Option C is incorrect since it states that both options are correct which is not the case. Option D is incorrect since it states that none of the options are correct which is not the case.

Q171. A first harmonic stationary sound wave is produced in the air of the cylinder, which is half filled with water. More water is added to the cylinder, now first harmonic stationary wave is produced with a different frequency. What is the change in frequency and the nature of displacement in air at the water surface?

• A. nature of displacement= antinode change in frequency= decrease
• B. nature of displacement= antinode change in frequency= increase
• C. nature of displacement= node change in frequency= increase✓
• D. nature of displacement= node change in frequency = decrease

Explanation: As more water is added so the nature of displacement and node change in frequency increases.

Q172. The voltage that is applied across X-plates is provided by a circuit callee

• A. Audio generator
• B. Time base generator✓
• C. Signal generator
• D. Linear generator

Explanation: X plates are used to move the beam of electrons across the x-axis on the cathode screen. The corresponding values for the voltage determine the time period for the wave that is generated on the screen. Therefore, a larger voltage would show a larger time period as shown in the diagram below.

Q173. Astronomers calculate the speed of distant stars moving away from us using:

• A. Beats
• B. Interference
• C. Superposition principle
• D. Doppler effect✓

Explanation: If a star is moving toward us, its light wavelength get shorter, producing a blueshift. If a star is moving away, its light waves get stretched out to longer, redder, wavelengths, producing a redshift. The faster the star, the greater this shift, so observers can measure the line-of-sight speed from the Doppler shift.

Q174. Alpha, Beta and Gamma radiations are emitted from a radioactive substance:

• A. When it is heated.
• B. When it is subjected to high pressure.
• C. When it interacts with another particle.
• D. Spontaneously.✓

Explanation: Alpha and beta particles consist of matter, and gamma rays are bursts of energy. The type of radiatíon emitted depends on the radioactive substance. An alpha particle is made up of two protons and two neutrons bound together. Beta particles are high-energy electrons. Gamma rays are waves of electromagnetic energy or photons. From this, it is clear that these three radiations come out of a radioactive substance spontaneously.

Q175. Dark plastic handlers often used on kitchen utensils because:

• A. The balc material is good in radiation
• B. The plastic is good insulator✓
• C. The plastic is a good conductor
• D. The plastic soften gradually with excessive heat

Explanation: Cooking pots are provided with wooden or plastic handles because they are bad conductors of heat. This prevents the heat from the pan to transfer to our hand

Q176. The diameter of a nucleus is:

• A. 10^-12 m
• B. 10^-20 m
• C. 10^-10 m
• D. 10^-15 m✓

Explanation: The diameter of a nucleus is about 2 × 10^-15m and the diameter of an atom is 1 × 10^-10m.

Q177. The necessary centripetal force to the moving around a copper track is provided by:

• A. Centrifugal force
• B. Gravitational force
• C. Coulumbs force
• D. Frictional force✓

Explanation: An object moving in circular motion around a copper track has centripetal force provided by the force of friction acting upon it.

Q178. Instantaneous acceleration of system executing SHM is directed:

• A. Towards the mean position✓
• B. Away from the mean position
• C. Perpendicular to the mean position upward
• D. Perpendicular to the mean position downward

Explanation: As the acceleration in SHM is always in the opposite phase to that of displacement. The displacement of the particle in SHM at an instant is directed away from the mean position. Then acceleration at that instant is directed towards the mean position.

Q179. In the direction indicated by an electric field line:

• A. The electric field strength must increase
• B. The electric field strength must decrease
• C. The potential must decrease✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: c) The potential must decrease:This option suggests that in the direction indicated by an electric field line, the electric potential must decrease. This is generally true. Electric field lines point in the direction of decreasing electric potential. Therefore, when following the direction of an electric field line, you are moving from a region of higher potential to a region of lower potential.

Q180. A container is divided into two equal portions. One portion contains an ideal gas at pressure P and temperature T while the other portion is a perfect vacuum. If a hole is opened between the two portions

• A. There will be a change in internal energy
• B. There will be a change in temperature
• C. There will be no change in internal energy✓
• D. The external pressure will increase
• E. The external pressure will decrease

Explanation: The explanation is given as an image.

Q181. A force of 20 N acts on a body through a distance of 10m. What must be the angle between force and displacement such that work comes out to be 100 J?

• A. 90°
• B. 0°
• C. 30°
• D. 60°✓

Explanation: Solution:- Use relation; W= Fd cosθ If θ is 60 degrees, cos(60°) = 1/2 = 0.5. In this case, the work done would be 20 N * 10 m * 0.5 = 100 J.

Q182. The dual nature of light is exhibited by:

• A. diffraction and photoelectric effect✓
• B. diffraction and reflection
• C. diffraction and interference
• D. photoelectric effect

Explanation: Diffraction exhibits wave nature of light and photoelectric effect exhibits quantum nature of light. Therefore, diffraction and photoelectric effect exhibit the dual nature of light.

Q183. Four wires of same material, the same cross-sectional area and the same length when connected in parallel give a resistance of 0.25 ohms. If the same four wires are connected is series the effective resistance will be?

• A. 1 ohm
• B. 2 ohm
• C. 3 ohm
• D. 4 ohm✓

Explanation: For wires in Parallel 1/Rtotal = 1/R + 1/R + 1/R + 1/R 1/0.25 = 4/R 4 = 4/R R = 4/4 R = 1Ω So, the resistance of each resistor is 1Ω For 4 resistors in Series Rtotal = R+R+R+R = 1+1+1+1 = 4Ω

Q184. A particle carrying a charge of 3e, accelerates through a potential difference of 2V. The energy acquired by it is:

• A. 1.6 X 10-19 J
• B. 9.6 X 10-19 J✓
• C. 9.6 X 10-18 J
• D. 1.6 X 10-18 J

Explanation: Energy acquired = 3e x 2V = 6eV = 6 x 1.6 x 10-19 = 9.6 x 10-19

Q185. The resistivity of a wire is _ohm-m if 0.75 A current flows through it by applying a 1.5 V potential difference. Take length and cross-section as 5m and 2.5 X 10-7 m2.

• A. 1 X 10-7✓
• B. 2.63 x 10-8
• C. 19 X 10-8
• D. 7.85 X 10-8

Explanation: The resistivity (ρ) of the wire can be calculated using the formula: ρ = (RA) / L where R is the resistance of the wire, A is its cross-sectional area, and L is its length. The resistance can be calculated using Ohm's Law: R = V / I where V is the potential difference and I is the current. Given that the potential difference is 1.5 V and the current is 0.75 A, we can calculate the resistance of the wire as: R = V / I = 1.5 / 0.75 = 2 ohms Using the given values for length and cross-sectional area, we can calculate the resistivity as: ρ = (RA) / L = (2 * 2.5 x 10-7) / 5 = 1 x 10-7 ohm-m.

Q186. The phase angle between two points is 3 pi. The distance between these points is 15 cm. What is the wavelength of the wave?

• A. 10.5
• B. 3cm
• C. 13cm
• D. 10cm✓

Explanation: We know, wavelength is the minimum separation between two successive crests or troughs of a wave. relation between phase difference, path difference and wavelength is given by, ΔФ = 2π/λ Δx where, ΔΦ is the phase difference (phase angle between two points) Δx is path difference ( distance between two points on wave) and λ is wavelength of the wave. here, ΔΦ = 3π , Δx = 15 cm ⇒ 3π = 2π/λ × 15 cm ⇒ λ = 10 cm As this is a numerical so only one option is correct

Q187. Newton's first law falsified:

• A. Theory of relativity
• B. Aristotle's theory✓
• C. Einstein's theory
• D. Maxwell's theory

Explanation: Newton's First Law: Inertia Newton's first law states that every object will remain at rest or in uniform motion in a straight line unless compelled to change its state by the action of an external force.

Q188. What is true about acceleration of an object undergoing simple harmonic motion?

• A. Acceleration is minimum when velocity is maximum✓
• B. acceleration is proportional to the frequency of oscillation
• C. acceleration is in opposite direction to its velocity
• D. acceleration is minimum when potential energy is maximum

Explanation: The acceleration of a body is maximum at extreme position (a∝-x) whereas the velocity is minmum i.e 0 (v∝1/x). This shows that the relation between acceleration and velocity in SHM is inverse according to which option A is correct.

Q189. The direction of the restoring force is always towards _.

• A. Right hand
• B. Upwards
• C. Rest or mean position✓
• D. Extreme position

Explanation: The restoring force is a force that acts to bring a body to its equilibrium position. It is always directed back toward the equilibrium position of the system.An example is the action of a spring The rest options aren’t mean forces hence they’re incorrect

Q190. Ten complete waves passes through a point in 2 seconds. If the wavelength is 20 cm, what is the speed of the wave?

• A. 1 m/s✓
• B. 10 cm/s
• C. 2 m/s
• D. 40 cm/s

Explanation: The speed of a wave is given by the product of its frequency and wavelength. In this case, we are given the wavelength of the wave, which is 20 cm. We are also told that 10 complete waves pass through a point in 2 seconds. The number of complete waves that pass through a point in one second is called the frequency of the wave. So, we can find the frequency of the wave by dividing the number of complete waves that pass through a point in 2 seconds (which is 10) by the time it takes for them to pass (which is 2 seconds): frequency = 10 / 2 = 5 Hz. Now that we know the frequency of the wave and its wavelength, we can find its speed by multiplying the frequency by the wavelength: speed = frequency × wavelength = 5 Hz × 20 cm = 100 cm/s. However, the question asks for the speed of the wave in m/s, so we need to convert the answer to meters per second. We know that 1 meter is equal to 100 centimeters, so we can convert the speed from centimeters per second to meters per second by dividing it by 100: speed = 100 cm/s / 100 = 1 m/s. Therefore, the speed of the wave is 1 m/s.

Q191. What should be the ratio of kinetic energy to total energy for simple harmonicoscillator?

• A. 1 − (x 2 / xo 2 )✓
• B. 1
• C. (xo 2 − x 2 )
• D. ½ (x 2

Explanation: 𝐾𝐸 = 1 2 𝑚ω 2 (𝑥 0 2 − 𝑥 2 ) 𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝐸𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦 = 1 2 𝑚ω 2 𝑥 0 2 Dividing the two terms gives us the ratio and the solution to the equation KE/E = 1 - (x^2/xo^2)Where x is the displacement from the equilibrium position and xo is the amplitude of the oscillation.This means that the ratio of kinetic energy to total energy is given by 1 minus the square of the displacement divided by the square of the amplitude.Therefore, the correct answer is:1 - (x^2/xo^2)

Q192. A metallic circular ring is suspended by a string and is kept in a vertical plane. When a magnet is approached towards the ring, then it will:

• A. Remain stationary
• B. Get displaced away from the magnet✓
• C. Get displaced towards the magnet
• D. Nothing can be said

Explanation: When the magnet is brought closer, the magnetic flux through the ring changes and according to Lenz’s law current is induced in the ring that will produce its own magnetic field which is opposes change in flux through the ring.Therefore, the induced magnetic field of the ring will oppose the field of magnet(as according to Lenz law it opposes the change that induced it in first place).Due to the repulsion the ring moves away from the approaching field as shown below.

Q193. Newton's third law is derived from:

• A. Newton's first law
• B. Both of these
• C. None of these
• D. Newton's second law✓

Explanation: Newton's second law tells us that Fnet = 0 and Newton's third law states that to every action, there is always an equal and opposite reaction. Mathematically, FAB = -FBA. When both forces, acting opposite, will be equal then the net force will be zero as implied by the second law.The diagram below simplifies Newton's third law of motion;

Q194. Which of the following is a unit of impulse?

• A. Nm/s
• B. Kgm/s✓
• C. N/s
• D. N/m

Explanation: Impulse refers to the force acting on an object for a short period of time. Its units include Ns (newton-second) and kgm/s (kilogram metre per second). It can be calculated by this formula: ΔP = ΔF x t

Q195. 8, 10, 14, 18, _ , 34, 50 , 66:

• A. 24
• B. 25
• C. 26✓
• D. 27

Explanation: The increasing order is +2,+4, +4, +8, +16, +16 8 + 2= 10 10 + 4= 14 14 + 4 = 8 18 + 8= 26

Q196. Analogies: Measure is to caliper as direction is to

• A. Speed
• B. Hiking
• C. Needle
• D. Compass✓

Explanation: the instrument to measure something is a caliper so we need to find the instrument to find a direction which is the compass.

Q197. Making Judgements: Arrange the following words in a meaningful sequence. 1.lnfection 2.Consultation 3.Doctor 4.Treatment 5.Recovery

• A. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
• B. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5✓
• C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
• D. 2, 3, 5, 1, 4

Explanation: Infection occurs first, then one visits a doctor, and after consultation, the doctor starts the treatment which is followed by recovery.

Q198. Statement I: There is unprecedented increase in the number of young unemployed in comparison to the previous year. Statement II: A large number of candidates submitted applications against an advertisement for the post of manager issued by a bank.

• A. Statement I is the cause and statement 2 is its effect✓
• B. Statement Il is the cause and statement I is its effect
• C. Both statements I and Il are independent causes
• D. Both statements I and II are effects of independent causes

Explanation: Option A is correct since an increase in the number of unemployed means that more people will be submitting job applications for a particular post. Option B is incorrect since it states the opposite of the correct answer. Option C is incorrect since it states that both the statements are not linked which is not the case. Option D is correct since it states that both statements are effects of independent causes, which is not the case.

Q199. Verbal ClassificationWhat will the area of a triangle will be when a = lm, b = 2m, c = 3m, a, b, c being lengths of respective sides?

• A. 0 sq m✓
• B. 3 sq m
• C. 2 sq m
• D. Both A and B

Explanation: Putting in values in given formulas, we will get 0 sq m.