Federal Mdcat 2023 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. The word 'RELUCTANT' means:

• A. Hesitant✓
• B. Current
• C. Remarkable
• D. Rude

Explanation: Meaning: not eager; unwilling; disinclined

Q2. The SYNONYM of "Apparel" is:

• A. Dubious
• B. Disguise
• C. Dress✓
• D. Apron

Explanation: Meaning: A covering designed to be worn on a person's body. verb. provide with clothes or put clothes on

Q3. The ANTONYM of " Endeavour" is:

• A. Inaction✓
• B. Inexact
• C. Effort
• D. Eat

Explanation: "Endeavour" means to make an effort or attempt to achieve something, while "Inaction" means the absence of action or effort.

Q4. What is the ANTONYM of 'zealous'?

• A. Unenthusiastic✓
• B. Religious
• C. Contagious
• D. Fanatic

Explanation: "Zealous" means showing great enthusiasm or passion for something, so the opposite would be "Unenthusiastic," which means lacking enthusiasm.

Q5. Fill in the blank with appropriate article as required.It is_honor for me to address you.

• A. A
• B. An✓
• C. The
• D. No article required

Explanation: The sentence requires the indefinite article "an" before "honor", since honor is pronounced with a vowel alphabet i.e., "o".

Q6. Fill in the blank with appropriate preposition. He was sitting next _her.

• A. With
• B. Ву
• C. To✓
• D. At

Explanation: "Next to" is the correct prepositional phrase to indicate the position of someone sitting beside another person.

Q7. Fill in the blank with appropriate preposition. Each article was sold_over a pound.

• A. Out
• B. At✓
• C. Off
• D. In

Explanation: In this context, "at" is used to indicate the price at which each article was sold, which is "over a pound."

Q8. What does the word "ANCESTOR" mean?

• A. Collection of stars
• B. Branch of astrology
• C. Forefathers✓
• D. Type of receptors

Explanation: A person who was in someone's family in past times.

Q9. The word 'BASHFUL' means:

• A. Brimful
• B. Skillful
• C. Embarrassed✓
• D. Wonderful

Explanation: often feeling uncomfortable with other people and easily embarrassed.

Q10. Pick the correct option:

• A. Seven students results are still awaited.
• B. Seven student’s results are still awaited.
• C. Seven students’ results are still awaited.✓
• D. Seven student results are still awaited.

Explanation: Plural nouns that end with 's' only, follow this rule;For example: The two cats' nails have grown long. On other hand:The thieves snatched the two women's bags.

Q11. Pick the correct option:

• A. No star is brighter than the moon.✓
• B. No star is more bright than the moon.
• C. No star is brighter then the moon
• D. No star is brighter than moon.

Explanation: More bright is wrong since, in the comparative verb form, bright becomes brighter. ”Than” should be used instead of then. Lastly, the article “the” should be used as the sentence is mentioning the moon, which is specific.

Q12. Choose the correct sentence:

• A. However, it didn't take long for others to jump on board.✓
• B. However it didn't take long for others to jump on board.
• C. However, it didn't take long for others to jump on board?
• D. However. It didn't take long for others to jump on board.

Explanation: A 'comma' is usually added after 'however' to emphasize a pause and to indicate how different ideas are being discussed.

Q13. The town_its appearance completely since 1980.

• A. Is changing
• B. Changes
• C. Has changed✓
• D. Changes

Explanation: The correct option is C. "Has changed." This option uses the present perfect tense to indicate an action that started in the past (1980) and has continued to affect the present.

Q14. By next March, we_here for four years.

• A. Would had been
• B. Would have lived
• C. Shall have been living✓
• D. Shall live

Explanation: Shall have been living" is the correct future perfect continuous tense construction for this sentence. The sentence is expressing an action that will have been ongoing (living in a place) for a specific duration (four years) by a future point in time (next March).

Q15. Fill in the blank with appropriate option: The students, accompanied by the teacher_entering the museum..

• A. Is
• B. Has
• C. Are✓
• D. Have

Explanation: In this sentence, the subject is "students," which is a plural noun. Therefore, the verb should agree with the plural subject. "Are" is the correct form of the verb for a plural subject in the present continuous tense.

Q16. She sings _ beautifully that everyone enjoys her performances.

• A. so✓
• B. Too
• C. Such
• D. Very

Explanation: After evaluating the options, we can see that the correct word is 'so,' as it is used as an intensifier before an adjective or adverb. The correct sentence then reads, 'She sings so beautifully that everyone enjoys her performances.

Q17. Fill in the blank with appropriate option: I _ before 10 p.m.

• A. Shall have sleeped
• B. Shall have slept✓
• C. Will have sleep
• D. Shall have been slept

Explanation: Shall have slept" is the correct future perfect tense construction for this sentence.

Q18. Non protein but inorganic detachable co-factor is called:

• A. Activator
• B. Prosthetic group✓
• C. Co-enzyme
• D. Apoenzyme

Explanation: Activator is non-protein, but inorganic, detachable co-factor. Activator includes metal ions such as Mg2+ and Fe2+.

Q19. Lock and Key Model for enzyme action proposed by Emil Fischer suggests that:

• A. Enzymes are unbiased for the substrate
• B. Enzymes can modify their active sites
• C. An enzyme can catalyze variety of reactions
• D. Enzymes are restricted to one reaction type✓

Explanation: According to Lock and Key model, each enzyme is can catalyze only a specific substrate. Hence, enzymes are restricted to one reaction type.

Q20. Enzymes work by lowering the _ of the reactions they catalyse:

• A. Kinetic energy
• B. Activation energy✓
• C. Heat energy
• D. Potential energy

Explanation: Activation energy: Enzymes work by lowering the activation energy of the reactions they catalyze.

Q21. The frequency of a mutant gene in a population would be likely to be increased if:

• A. The gene were selectively advantageous✓
• B. The gene were dominant
• C. The gene were sex linked
• D. The population increase

Explanation: The gene were selectively advantageous: The frequency of a mutant gene in a population would likely increase if the gene were selectively advantageous, as individuals carrying that gene would have a higher chance of survival and reproduction.

Q22. Which statement is not correct for the Darwin's theory of natural selection?

• A. Survival in the struggle for existence is random✓
• B. The fit individuals leave more off springs into their environment
• C. The unequal ability of individuals to survive and reproduce will lead to a gradual
• D. Accumulation over the generations thus leading to the evolution of a new species

Explanation: Survival in the struggle for existence is random: This statement is not correct for Darwin's theory of natural selection. Darwin's theory suggests that survival in the struggle for existence is not random but rather depends on the individuals' fitness and adaptability to their environment.

Q23. A general formula is derived by one of the following scientist for calculating the frequencies of alleles and genotypes in population at equilibrium:

• A. Linnaeus
• B. Lamarck
• C. Darwin
• D. Hardy Weinberg✓

Explanation: The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is a fundamental concept in population genetics, and it provides a formula for calculating the frequencies of alleles and genotypes in a population when certain conditions are met. It was developed by G. H. Hardy and Wilhelm Weinberg.

Q24. When humans purposefully apply selection pressure to populations, the process is known as:

• A. Natural selection
• B. Artificial selection✓
• C. Evolution
• D. Genetic drif

Explanation: When humans purposefully apply selection pressure to populations, such as in breeding programs for plants or animals, it is known as artificial selection. Humans choose which individuals to breed based on desirable traits, which can lead to changes in the population over time.

Q25. Which may NOT be a possible action of interferons?

• A. Belongs to cytokines
• B. Activate natural killer cells
• C. Activate immune cells
• D. Secrete interleukin✓

Explanation: This statement is not accurate. Interferons do not secrete interleukin. Instead, interleukins are another group of cytokines produced by various immune cells.

Q26. Which Proteolytic enzyme is NOT secreted in inactive form?

• A. Chymotrypsin
• B. Pepsin
• C. Trypsin
• D. Erypsin✓

Explanation: Pepsin is an enzyme that is secreted in an inactive form known as pepsinogen. It becomes active when exposed to the acidic environment of the stomach. Trypsin is secreted in inactive form trypsinogen and is activated by enterokinase. Chymotrypsin is secreted in inactive form chymotrypsinogen and is activated by enterokinase. However, erypsin is not secreted in inactive form.

Q27. In human heart, the left atrium receives:

• A. The Superior Vena Cava
• B. The Inferior Vena Cava
• C. The Coronary Sinus
• D. The four Pulmonary Veins✓

Explanation: In the human heart, the left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the four pulmonary veins. This oxygenated blood is then pumped into the left ventricle and eventually distributed to the rest of the body. The superior vena cava and the inferior vena cava, on the other hand, bring deoxygenated blood back to the right atrium

Q28. Choose the correct pathway for the flow of blood:

• A. Arterioles → metarterioles → capillaries → thoroughfare channels✓
• B. Arterioles → thoroughfare channel → metarterioles → capillaries
• C. Metarterioles → arterioles → thoroughfare channels → capillaries

Explanation: Explanation: Option B, C and D are incorrect because there is only one proper pathway for blood flow which is from Arterioles⇨Metarterioles⇨Capillaries. ⇨Thoroughfare channels As mentioned above, Option A is the correct answer. Diagram shown below also helps to explain this pathway. The arrows in the diagram show active blood flow.

Q29. Regarding structure of the human heart, Chordae tendinae are present in:

• A. Atria
• B. Pulmonary valve
• C. Ventricles✓
• D. Aortic valve

Explanation: Chordae tendineae (or simply chordae) are fibrous cords or tendons that are present in the heart to anchor the atrioventricular (AV) valves (specifically, the tricuspid and bicuspid/mitral valves) to the papillary muscles located in the ventricles. This prevents the valves from inverting into the atria when the ventricles contract and helps in maintaining proper valve function. Therefore, the correct location for chordae tendineae is Ventricles

Q30. In human gut, chylomicrons are formed by the combination of:

• A. Proteins and carbohydrates
• B. Fats and proteins✓
• C. Fats and carbohydrates
• D. Vitamins and fats

Explanation: 'Chylomicrons' are a type of lipoprotein. As the name suggests, lipo- means lipids and proteins. Chylomicrons are large triglyceride-rich lipoproteins, produced in enterocytes, from dietary lipids—namely, fatty acids, and cholesterol. Chylomicrons are composed of a main central lipid core that consists primarily of triglycerides, however like other lipoproteins, they carry esterified cholesterol and phospholipids.

Q31. The pathways of water transport in which water moves through plasmodesmata is:

• A. Apoplast
• B. Symplast✓
• C. Vacuolar
• D. Ascent of sap

Explanation: In plant cells, water can move from one cell to another through plasmodesmata, which are microscopic channels that connect plant cells. This movement of water through plasmodesmata is part of the symplastic pathway.

Q32. In which phase of bacterial growth, they divide at exponential rate:

• A. Lag phase
• B. Log phase✓
• C. Stationary phase
• D. Decline phase

Explanation: The bacterial growth curve typically consists of four phases: lag phase, log phase, stationary phase, and decline phase. During the log phase, bacteria divide at an exponential rate, leading to a rapid increase in their population. This phase is also known as the exponential growth phase

Q33. The unique macro-molecule in the bacterial cell wall is:

• A. Polysaccharides
• B. Proteins
• C. Peptidoglycan✓
• D. Cholesterol

Explanation: Bacterial cell walls are primarily composed of peptidoglycan, which is a unique macromolecule consisting of both sugars (polysaccharides) and amino acids. This gives bacterial cell walls their rigidity and shape.

Q34. Function of pilus in bacteria is to:

• A. Increase pathogenicity
• B. Degrade host plasma membrane
• C. Degrade host enzymes
• D. Exchange genetic material✓

Explanation: Bacterial pili (plural of pilus) are involved in the exchange of genetic material during a process called conjugation. They facilitate the transfer of DNA between bacterial cells

Q35. Which of the following is absent from membrane of prokaryotes?

• A. Glycolipid
• B. Cholesterol✓
• C. Glycoprotein
• D. Phospholipid

Explanation: Cholesterol is a component of eukaryotic cell membranes and is typically absent in prokaryotic cell membranes, such as those of bacteria.

Q36. Which of the following is NOT the function of lysosomes?

• A. Intracellular digestion
• B. Autophagy
• C. Autolysis
• D. Processing of cell secretions✓

Explanation: Lysosomes are primarily responsible for intracellular digestion, autophagy (breaking down cellular components), and autolysis (self-destruction of damaged cells). They are not involved in processing cell secretions.

Q37. Peripheral parts of cell are often like a:

• A. Sol
• B. Gel✓
• C. Colloidal
• D. True solution

Explanation: The peripheral parts of a cell are often like gel.

Q38. The membrane separating the vacuole from cytoplasm is called:

• A. Cristae
• B. Tonoplast✓
• C. Cisternae
• D. Vacuolar membrane

Explanation: Tonoplast is the membrane that separates vacuole from the cytoplasm.

Q39. Which part of plasma membrane controls the fluidity of the membrane:

• A. Glycoprotein
• B. Carrier protein
• C. Lipid✓
• D. Carbohydrates

Explanation: The fluidity of the plasma membrane is primarily controlled by the composition and arrangement of lipids, specifically phospholipids. The lipid bilayer forms the basic structure of the membrane and determines its fluidity.

Q40. The junction between the axon ending of a neuron and the dendrites of another neuron is called:

• A. Synapse✓
• B. Nissl's body
• C. Neuroglia
• D. Myelin sheath

Explanation: The junction between the axon terminal of one neuron and the dendrites of another neuron is known as a synapse. It is where the transmission of signals (neurotransmission) occurs

Q41. Which body function is controlled through positive feed-back mechanism?

• A. Labor pains✓
• B. Body temperature
• C. Insulin production
• D. Thyroxin release

Explanation: Labor pains are an example of a physiological process controlled through positive feedback, where the response reinforces and amplifies the initial stimulus until a specific endpoint is reached

Q42. Hormone released during child birth and in nursing women is:

• A. Estrogen
• B. Progesterone
• C. Calcitonin
• D. Oxytocin✓

Explanation: Oxytocin is the hormone released during childbirth and lactation (nursing). It plays a crucial role in uterine contractions during labor and milk ejection during breastfeeding.

Q43. During non-conducting state, the neuron membrane is permeable to efflux of:

• A. K+✓
• B. Na+
• C. Ca*
• D. Cl-

Explanation: During the non-conducting state of a neuron, the neuron membrane is permeable to the efflux of potassium ions (K+). This is because the resting membrane potential is primarily determined by the potassium leak channels that allow potassium ions to move out of the cell

Q44. GABA is an example of:

• A. Enzyme
• B. Inhibitory neurotransmitter✓
• C. Excitatory neurotransmitter
• D. Hormone

Explanation: GABA (Gamma-Aminobutyric Acid) is an inhibitory neurotransmitter. It functions to inhibit or reduce the activity of neurons, helping to control and balance neural excitability in the brain and nervous system.

Q45. What is the fate of neurotransmitters after provoking impulse in postsynaptic membrane?

• A. Stay in synaptic cleft indefinitely
• B. Recycled in synaptic cleft
• C. Degraded by enzyme✓
• D. Taken up by postsynaptic membrane

Explanation: After transmitting the nerve impulse, the neurotrasmitters are degraded by enzymes. For example, acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.

Q46. Negative feedback mechanism is the characteristics of which class?

• A. Class Fish
• B. Class Amphibian
• C. Class Reptilia
• D. Class Mammalia✓

Explanation: Negative feedback mechanisms are a characteristic of Class Mammalia. This is a regulatory mechanism commonly found in mammals to maintain homeostasis by counteracting deviations from a set point.

Q47. Which of the following is true about Amoebae?

• A. They have flagella
• B. They are multicellular
• C. They do not cause any disease in humans
• D. They move by forming specialized cytoplasmic projections called pseudopodia✓

Explanation: Amoebae move by forming specialized cytoplasmic projections called pseudopodia. These extensions of the cell membrane allow amoebae to change shape and move in the direction of their prey or nutrients.

Q48. Select an anamniote from the following

• A. Snake
• B. Parrot
• C. Frog✓
• D. Crocodile

Explanation: Frogs belong to the class of animals known as anamniotes. Anamniotes are characterized by their lack of an amniotic egg, which distinguishes them from amniotes (like reptiles, birds, and mammals).

Q49. Multicellular, heterotrophic nutrition, cell walls are never present in their cells, which kingdom do these organisms belong to?

• A. Kingdom Protoctista
• B. Kingdom Fungi
• C. Kingdom Plantae
• D. Kingdom Animalia✓

Explanation: Organisms with multicellular structures, heterotrophic nutrition, and the absence of cell walls in their cells belong to the Kingdom Animalia.

Q50. Select a regulatory enzyme:

• A. Urease
• B. Hexokinase✓
• C. Maltase
• D. Sucrase

Explanation: Hexokinase is a regulatory enzyme in various metabolic pathways, including glycolysis. It helps regulate glucose metabolism by catalyzing the phosphorylation of glucose.

Q51. Many enzymes are secreted in inactive form to protect:

• A. Mitochondria
• B. Cell DNA
• C. Cell membrane✓
• D. Vacuole

Explanation: Enzymes are often secreted in an inactive form to protect the cell membrane from premature enzyme activity, preventing damage to the cell or surrounding tissues.

Q52. Mesosomes are the invagination of which bacterial cell structure?

• A. Cell wall
• B. Plasma membrane✓
• C. Plasmid
• D. Cysts

Explanation: Mesosomes are invaginations of the plasma membrane in bacterial cells. They are involved in various functions, including cell division and respiration.

Q53. Follicle Stimulating hormones (FSH) is secreted by:

• A. Ovary
• B. Pituitary gland✓
• C. Adrenal gland
• D. Testes

Explanation: Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH) is secreted by the pituitary gland. It plays a crucial role in the regulation of the reproductive system, stimulating the development of ovarian follicles in females and sperm production in males.

Q54. Which is NOT a function of testosterone?

• A. Inhibition of LH
• B. Sperm production
• C. Inhibition of FSH
• D. Limit spermatogenesis✓

Explanation: Testosterone's primary functions include the promotion of sperm production and the inhibition of FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone) secretion. It does not limit spermatogenesis but rather plays a key role in it.

Q55. In human males, inhibin hormone is produced by:

• A. Leyding cells
• B. Hensen's node cells
• C. Sertoli cells✓
• D. Interstitial cells

Explanation: Inhibin hormone is produced by Sertoli cells in human males. Inhibin inhibits the secretion of FSH from the pituitary gland, helping to regulate sperm production.

Q56. Which function is NOT directly performed by ovaries?

• A. Progesterone production
• B. Estrogen production
• C. Ovulation
• D. HCG production✓

Explanation: Ovaries do not directly produce HCG (Human Chorionic Gonadotropin). HCG is produced by the placenta during pregnancy. Ovaries primarily produce estrogen and progesterone.

Q57. During menstrual cycle, after the female gamete is released from the ovary at ovulation, the remains of the follicle (Corpus Luteum) secretes:

• A. Progesterone✓
• B. FSH
• C. LH
• D. Testosterone

Explanation: The Corpus Luteum is responsible for producing and secreting progesterone, which helps prepare the uterine lining for potential implantation of a fertilized egg.

Q58. A condition in which a joint becomes swollen painful and immoveable is called:

• A. Spondylosis
• B. Arthritis✓
• C. Sciatica
• D. Rickets

Explanation: A condition in which a joint becomes swollen painful and immovable is called Arthritis Explanation: Arthritis is a medical condition characterized by joint inflammation, pain, and limited mobility.

Q59. Which feature is possessed by smooth muscles?

• A. Multinucleate cells
• B. Contractile sarcomeres
• C. Uninucleate cells✓
• D. Striated appearance

Explanation: Smooth muscle cells typically have a single nucleus and lack the striated appearance seen in skeletal muscle.

Q60. Mature bone cells are called:

• A. Osteoblasts
• B. Osteocytes✓
• C. Osteoclasts
• D. Chondrocytes

Explanation: Osteocytes are mature bone cells responsible for maintaining the bone tissue.

Q61. What do we call the cell surface membrane of a muscle fibre?

• A. Sarcolemma✓
• B. Plasma membrane
• C. Sarcoplasm
• D. Myofibrils

Explanation: The cell surface membrane of a muscle fiber is called the sarcolemma.

Q62. It is an event that Occurs during meiosis-1, when chromatids of two chromosomes break and rejoin so that a part of one chromatid swaps places with the same part of the other:

• A. Crossing over✓
• B. Autosomal linkage
• C. Chiasmata
• D. Gene mutation

Explanation: Crossing over is the process during meiosis I where genetic material is exchanged between homologous chromosomes.

Q63. A change in the structure of a DNA molecule, producing a different allele of a gene, is a:

• A. Chromosome mutation
• B. Gene mutation✓
• C. Chromosomal aberrations
• D. Recombination

Explanation: A gene mutation involves alterations in the DNA sequence, leading to changes in the gene's expression.

Q64. Which of the following example of human inheritance is explained by multiple alleles on an autosomal chromosome?

• A. The ABO blood group system✓
• B. Cystic firbrosis
• C. Down's syndrome
• D. Haemophilia

Explanation: The ABO blood group system is controlled by multiple alleles on autosomal chromosomes, resulting in different blood types.

Q65. Phenotype is:

• A. The genetic complement 1.e the genes in an individual for a particular trait
• B. Partner of gene pair
• C. The form of appearance of a trait✓
• D. The position of a gene on the chromosome

Explanation: Phenotype refers to the observable physical characteristics or traits of an organism.

Q66. When a haemophilic carrier woman marries a haemophilic man, who among her offspring's may be affected?

• A. All her children
• B. All her daughters
• C. Half of her daughters and all sons
• D. Half of her sons and half of her daughters✓

Explanation: Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder, so half of her sons and half of her daughters may be affected or carriers.

Q67. The particular array of chromosomes that an individual possesses is called its

• A. Genotype
• B. Phenotype
• C. Karyotype✓
• D. Allele

Explanation: Genotype refers to the specific genetic makeup of an individual, including the combination of alleles on their chromosomes.

Q68. Which of the following is 'NOT RELATED' to enveloped virus?

• A. They survive for a short time
• B. Their envelope is sensitive to sun light
• C. They are tolerant to antibiotic l✓
• D. Envelop is derived from host

Q69. Choose the organism which requires a single cellular gene to encode the protein making up the organism:

• A. Viroid
• B. Prions✓
• C. Virus
• D. Virion

Explanation: Prions are infectious proteins that do not have genetic material and are composed of a misfolded host protein.

Q70. _ is transmitted through infected blood and hypodermic syringes:

• A. HIV✓
• B. Influenza Virus
• C. Morbilli Virus (Measles)
• D. Vibrio Cholerae (Cholera)

Explanation: HIV is primarily transmitted through contact with infected blood, including sharing hypodermic needles.

Q71. _ infection is caused by a viroid:

• A. Hepatitis A
• B. Hepatitis D✓
• C. Mad Cow disease
• D. Mysterious brain infection

Explanation: Hepatitis D is caused by a viroid-like agent known as a delta agent.

Q72. The final acceptor of both electrons & protons during light reactions of photosynthesis is:

• A. PQ
• B. PC
• C. Fd
• D. NADP+✓

Explanation: NADP+ (Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate) is the final electron and proton acceptor during the light reactions of photosynthesis.

Q73. The final acceptor of both electrons & protons during light reactions of photosynthesis is:

• A. Plastoquinone
• B. Plastocynin
• C. Ferridoxin
• D. NADP+✓

Explanation: The final electron acceptor is NADP+, which is reduced to NADPH. NADPH generated from light reactions is used in sugar synthesis in dark reactions. Light reactions also generate a proton motive force across the thylakoid membrane, and the proton gradient is used to synthesize ATP.

Q74. The end product of glycolysis in anaerobic respiration is:

• A. Ethanol and Carbon dioxide
• B. Lactate
• C. Pyruvate✓
• D. Acetyl CoA

Explanation: Glycolysis is a step that occurs in both aerobic and anaerobic processes. So the end product of glycolysis is Pyruvate. After glycolysis pyruvate undergoes aerobic or anaerobic processes depending on the availability of oxygen.

Q75. End product of Calvin cycle is:

• A. 3 phosphoglycerate
• B. 1-3 biphosphoglycerate
• C. Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate✓
• D. Glucose

Explanation: The Calvin cycle, also known as the dark reactions of photosynthesis, has multiple products:G3PGlyceraldehyde 3-phosphate is the final product of the Calvin cycle. Six G3P molecules are produced from three carbon dioxide molecules using ATP and NADPH. One G3P molecule is used to create other carbohydrates, like glucose or fructose, while the other five are used to regenerate RuBP, which allows the cycle to continue

Q76. Second most abundant bio element in human body is:

• A. Oxygen
• B. Carbon✓
• C. Hydrogen
• D. Nitrogen

Explanation: Carbon is the second most abundant element in the human body after oxygen.

Q77. The basic structural framework of all types of membranes are:

• A. Phospholipids
• B. Glycoproteins
• C. Lipoproteins✓
• D. Nucleoproteins

Explanation: Lipoproteins formed by the combination of lipids and proteins serve as the basic structural framework of all types of membranes in the cells.

Q78. Three hydrophobic fatty acid tails and a glycerol molecule join to form a:

• A. Monoglyceride
• B. Diglyceride
• C. Triglyceride✓
• D. Phospholipid

Explanation: Triglycerides are composed of three fatty acid tails and a glycerol molecule.

Q79. The sugar which is part of ribonucleic acid is:

• A. Ribulose
• B. Ribose✓
• C. Deoxyribulose
• D. Deoxyribose

Explanation: Ribonucleic acid (RNA) contains ribose sugar in its structure.

Q80. Which of the following process involve in decomposition of protein into Amino acids?

• A. Condensation
• B. Hydrolysis✓
• C. Glycolysis
• D. Fixation

Explanation: Hydrolysis is the process of breaking down proteins into their constituent amino acids through the addition of water.

Q81. Fibrous proteins 'DO NOT' take part in:

• A. Blood clotting
• B. Formation of nails
• C. Muscle contraction
• D. Oxygen transport in blood✓

Explanation: Fibrous proteins like fibrinogen are involved in blood clotting, actin and myosin are involved in muscle contraction and keratin is involved in formation of nails. However, heamoglobin, which is involved in transport of oxygen in blood, is a globular protein.

Q82. Outer membrane of mitochondria and chloroplast resembles as both are:

• A. Freely permeable to large molecules
• B. Freely permeable to small molecules✓
• C. Impermeable
• D. Semipermeable

Explanation: Both the outer membranes of mitochondria and chloroplasts are freely permeable to small molecules, allowing selective passage of molecules.

Q83. In mitochondria ATP synthase is located on its:

• A. Outer Membrane
• B. Inter membrane space
• C. Inner membrane✓
• D. Matrix

Explanation: ATP synthase is located in the inner mitochondrial membrane and plays a key role in ATP production during oxidative phosphorylation.

Q84. A metal reacts vigorously with cold water melting in to a ball of molten metal moves across the surface of water giving of Hydrogen gas and burns wni yellowish golden flame. What could be the identity of this metal?

• A. Potassium
• B. Sodium✓
• C. Lithium
• D. Calcium

Explanation: Sodium is known to react vigorously with water, producing hydrogen gas and a characteristic yellowish-golden flame.

Q85. Among alkali metals which element reacts slowly with H2O?

• A. Na
• B. K
• C. Rb
• D. Li✓

Explanation: Lithium is the alkali metal that reacts the slowest with water among the options given. It reacts less vigorously compared to sodium and potassium.

Q86. Which element has smaller shielding effect among the following?

• A. Mg✓
• B. Ca
• C. Rb
• D. Sr

Explanation: Magneisum has the smallest shielding effect in the given elements, because as you move alonga group(from top to bottom in the periodic table), the number of shells increases and effective nuclear charge decreases, leading to weaker attraction of electrons.

Q87. In transition elements number of unpaired electrons increase upto group number:

• A. III B & IV B
• B. 1 B and 2 B
• C. IV B and III B
• D. VB and VI B✓

Explanation: In the transition elements (transition metals), the number of unpaired electrons increases up to groups IB (Group 11) and IVB (Group 4). These elements have partially filled d-orbitals, allowing for the presence of unpaired electrons.

Q88. The binding energy of transitional elements weakens progressively upto group:

• A. IIIB
• B. IV B
• C. IIB✓
• D. VB

Explanation: The binding energy of transitional elements weakens progressively up to Group IIB (Group 4) in the transition metals. As you move across a period, the atomic size decreases, resulting in weaker atomic bonding and, therefore, weaker binding energy.

Q89. Metamers differ from each other due to:

• A. Functional group
• B. Position of functional group
• C. Shifting of proton
• D. Distribution of carbon atoms around the functional group✓

Explanation: Metamers are a type of structural isomerism where molecules have the same molecular formula but differ in the distribution of carbon atoms around the functional group. In other words, the arrangement of carbon atoms relative to the functional group (such as -OH, -COOH, or others) varies among metamers, leading to distinct chemical properties while sharing the same molecular formula. So, the correct answer is the distribution of carbon atoms around the functional group.

Q90. Isomerism due to shifting of proton from one atom to another in a same molecule is known as:

• A. Metamerism
• B. Tautomerism✓
• C. Position
• D. Functional

Explanation: A tautomer of a compound refers to the isomer of the compound which only differs in the position of protons and electrons so, B is correct. In the rest of the options (A, C, and D), there is a difference in the positioning of whole atoms and not just protons, which is why these options are incorrect.

Q91. The type of isomerism existing in a compound of molecular formula C2H6O is:

• A. Functional group✓
• B. Position
• C. Chain
• D. Metamerism

Explanation: In a compound with the molecular formula C2H6O, which corresponds to ethanol (CH3CH2OH) as well as dimethyl ether ( CH3-O-CH3), the type of isomerism that exists is functional group isomerism. Following groups of organic compounds are functional group isomers of each other; 1- Alcohols and ethers 2- Aldehydes and ketones 3- Carboxylic acids and esters.

Q92. Benzene is prepared in the laboratory from sodium benzoate in the presence of:

• A. Dil:NaOH
• B. Alc: KOH✓
• C. NaOH +Cao
• D. Na/Ether

Explanation: Sodium benzoate is often converted to benzene in the laboratory using alcoholic (Alc) KOH (potassium hydroxide) as a reagent. This process is known as the Kolbe-Schmitt reaction.

Q93. Which of the following will not give substitution reaction?

• A. CH3 - CH3
• B. CH2 = CH2✓
• C. CH≡CH
• D. C6H6

Explanation: Out of the given options, CH2=CH2 represents ethene, which is an alkene. Alkenes do not typically undergo substitution reactions but rather addition reactions.

Q94. If both double and triple bonds are present then ending given to the root is:

• A. enyne✓
• B. ene
• C. упе
• D. ane

Explanation: When both double and triple bonds are present in a compound, the ending "-enyne" is used. So, the compound is referred to as an enyne.

Q95. Which compound is least reactive?

• A. Ethane✓
• B. Ethene
• C. Benzene
• D. Ethyne

Explanation: Benzene is a highly stable aromatic compound and is known for its low reactivity compared to alkenes (ethene and ethyne) and alkanes (ethane). This stability is due to the resonance stabilization of the benzene ring.

Q96. The correct order of reactivity of hydrocarbons is:

• A. Alkanes > Alkynes > Alkenes
• B. Alkenes > Alkanes > Alkynes
• C. Alkynes > Alkenes > Alkanes
• D. Alkenes > Alkynes > Alkanes✓

Explanation: Alkenes are generally more reactive than alkanes, and alkynes are typically the most reactive among hydrocarbons due to the presence of double and triple bonds. The general decreasing reactivity order of alkanes, alkenes and alkynes is as follows: Alkenes > Alkynes > Alkanes

Q97. The function of NaOH in Adol condensation & Cannizaro's reaction respectively is:

• A. Nucleophile and electrophile
• B. Base and nucleophile✓
• C. Electrophile and nucleophile
• D. Nucleophile and base

Explanation: In the Aldol condensation, NaOH acts as a base by accepting a proton, and in the Cannizaro's reaction, it acts as a nucleophile by donating a pair of electrons to a carbonyl compound. So, it serves as both a base and a nucleophile in these reactions.

Q98. Which of the following is not true for increase in synthesis of ammonia by Haber's process? N2 +3H2 - 2NH3 ( Д =-92.5)

• A. Low temperature
• B. High pressure
• C. Continuous removal of NH3
• D. Continuous addition of NH3✓

Explanation: In the Haber's process, ammonia is synthesized from nitrogen and hydrogen gases. To maximize the yield of ammonia, it's important to maintain low temperature, high pressure, and continuously remove the formed ammonia (Le Chatelier's principle). Continuous addition of NH3 would counteract the process's goal, so it is not true for increasing ammonia synthesis.

Q99. What is not true about the Le -Chatelier's principle?

• A. Allow to predict the change in concentration on system at equilibrium
• B. Allow to predict the change in reaction rate on system at equilibrium✓
• C. Allow to predict the change in pressure on system at equilibrium
• D. Allow to predict the change in temperature on system at equilibrium

Explanation: Le Chatelier's principle helps predict the effect of changes in concentration, temperature, and pressure on a system at equilibrium. However, it doesn't predict the actual change in pressure itself; rather, it explains how pressure changes can affect equilibrium.

Q100. For a gaseous phase reaction, when number of moles of reactants and products are equal:

• A. The values of Kp and Kc are different
• B. The value of Kp is greater than Kc
• C. The value of Kc is greater than Kp
• D. The values of Kp and Kc are the same✓

Explanation: If the difference in n is zero, the Kp = Kc.

Q101. The rate constant "R" in the rate equation is the rate of reaction when n concentration of each of the reactant is:

• A. 1M✓
• B. 2M
• C. 3M
• D. 4M

Explanation: The rate constant "R" in a rate equation represents the rate of reaction when the concentration of each reactant is 1M (molar). It gives the specific rate of reaction at that concentration.

Q102. The rate of reaction:

• A. Increases as the reaction proceeds
• B. Decreases as the reaction proceeds✓
• C. Remains unchanged
• D. None of these

Explanation: the rate of reaction generally decreases as the reaction proceeds. This is because as the reactants are consumed and converted into products, their concentrations decrease. Since the rate of reaction is directly proportional to the concentrations of the reactants, a decrease in reactant concentration leads to a decrease in the rate of reaction.

Q103. For exothermic reactions AH°i s written as:

• A. Zero
• B. Positive
• C. Negative✓
• D. Constant

Explanation: In an exothermic reaction, heat is released, so the enthalpy change (ΔH°) is negative.

Q104. Which of the following information we obtain from the Lattice energy?

• A. It helps while explaining the structure of the ionic compound✓
• B. It explains bonding in the covalent compound
• C. It explains properties of the metallic compound
• D. It explains the structure of the molecular compound

Explanation: Lattice energy is a measure of the strength of the ionic bonds in an ionic compound's crystal lattice. It provides information about the stability and structure of the ionic compound.

Q105. In the reaction,Cr2O7 + 14 H+-> 2 Cr3++7H2OHow many electrons are gained or lost by chromium atom?

• A. +12 e
• B. +3 e-✓
• C. +6 e
• D. -6 e-

Explanation: In this reaction, each Cr atom goes from a +6 oxidation state (in Cr2O72-) to a +3 oxidation state (in Cr3+). This corresponds to a gain of 12 electrons by each Cr atom.

Q106. The oxidation number of oxygen in Na2O2 is

• A. -1✓
• B. +2
• C. -2
• D. +1

Explanation: In Na2O2 (sodium peroxide), the oxidation number of oxygen is -1. Since there are two oxygen atoms in the formula, the total oxidation number contribution from oxygen is -2. Therefore, sodium (Na) must have an oxidation state of +2 to balance the charge of the compound.

Q107. Which of the following will have positive electron affinity?

• A. Addition of electron to (CI)
• B. Addition of electron to (C|*)
• C. Addition of electron to (O)
• D. Addition of electron to (O-1)✓

Explanation: Electron affinity is the energy change associated with adding an electron to a neutral atom to form a negative ion. Oxygen (O) typically has a positive electron affinity because it releases energy when an electron is added to form an O- ion.

Q108. Which of the following molecule has sp2 hybridization?

• A. NH3
• B. BF3✓
• C. H2O
• D. BeCl2

Explanation: In BF3 Boron (B) forms three sigma bonds with three fluorine (F) atoms. It utilizes one s and two p orbitals for bonding, resulting in sp2 hybridization around boron.

Q109. Which of the following has small size?

• A. Mg
• B. S✓
• C. P
• D. Na

Explanation: Among the elements listed, phosphorus (P) is smaller in size compared to magnesium (Mg), sulfur (S), and sodium (Na). Phosphorus has fewer electron shells and a higher effective nuclear charge, making it smaller in size.

Q110. The melting point of sulphur is higher than that of phosphorous because:

• A. Sulphur has strong vander waal forces✓
• B. Sulphur has weak vander waal forces
• C. Phosphorous has strong vander waals forces
• D. Phosphorous has weak vander waals forces

Explanation: Sulfur molecules have a larger number of electrons compared to phosphorus, leading to stronger van der Waals forces, which result in a higher melting point.

Q111. Alkyl Halides involving -C-X bond breakage and -C-Nu bond formation simultaneously would follow the mechanism:

• A. SN1
• B. SN2✓
• C. E1
• D. E2

Explanation: SN2 (Substitution Nucleophilic Bimolecular) reactions involve the simultaneous breaking of the C-X bond and formation of the C-Nu bond. It's a characteristic of SN2 reactions.

Q112. 50% inversion of configuration and 50% retention of configuration observed is characteristics of mechanism:

• A. E2
• B. E1
• C. SN2
• D. SN1✓

Explanation: SN1 reactions exhibit a characteristic of 50% inversion and 50% retention of configuration due to the backside attack of the nucleophile.

Q113. The order of reactivity of alcohol when O-H bond breaks is:

• A. Primary alcohol > secondary alcohol > tertiary alcohol✓
• B. Secondary alcohol > tertiary alcohol > primary alcohol
• C. Tertiary alcohol > secondary alcohol > Primary alcohol
• D. Primary alcohol > tertiary alcohol > secondary alcohol

Explanation: Primary alcohols are more reactive in O-H bond cleavage compared to secondary and tertiary alcohols.

Q114. The following functional group is the result of oxidation of alcohol:

• A. Ketone / aldehyde✓
• B. Aldehyde / alkan
• C. Ketone / alkane
• D. Aldehyde / acid

Explanation: Oxidation of alcohols typically results in the formation of ketones or aldehydes.

Q115. The relative acidic strength of phenol, water, alcohol &carboxylic acid is:

• A. -СООН > H2O > C6H5OH > -OH
• B. -СООН >СеН5Он > H2O > -OH✓
• C. -СООН > -О Н > С6H5OH > H2O
• D. -СООН > Н2O> -ОН > C6H5OH

Explanation: Carboxylic acids are the most acidic, followed by phenols, alcohols, and water

Q116. Aldehydes cannot be easily oxidized by:

• A. K2Cr207
• B. H2SOa
• C. KMnOa
• D. HCI✓

Explanation: Aldehydes are not easily oxidized by hydrochloric acid (HCl).

Q117. Aldehydes do not give which identification test:

• A. 2.4 - DNPH test
• B. Tollen's Test
• C. Sodium Nitro Prusside Test✓
• D. Fehling's Solution

Explanation: Aldehydes typically do not react with sodium nitroprusside, which is a test for the detection of ketones.

Q118. The hydrate percentage is maximum for:

• A. Propanal
• B. Acetone
• C. Formaldehyde✓
• D. Acetaldehyde

Explanation: Formaldehyde can readily form hydrates due to its small size and ability to engage in hydrogen bonding.

Q119. When carboxylic acids are heated with alcohol in the presence of concentrated H2SO4, the conversion of functional group takes place from:

• A. Carboxyl to carbonyl group
• B. Carboxyl group to an ester group✓
• C. Carbonyl to carboxyl group
• D. Carboxyl to hydroxyl group

Explanation: This reaction is known as Fischer esterification, where the carboxyl group (-COOH) of a carboxylic acid reacts with an alcohol to form an ester (-COO-).

Q120. Thionyl chloride reacts with acetic acid resulting in transformation of Carboxylic group to:

• A. Acetamide
• B. Acid halide✓
• C. Alcohol
• D. Ester

Explanation: Thionyl chloride (SOCl2) reacts with carboxylic acids to form acid chlorides (RCOCl), also known as acid halides.

Q121. Reactivity of carboxyl group is due to presence of:

• A. Hydroxyl group
• B. Terminal hydrogen
• C. Carbonyl group✓
• D. Alkyl group

Explanation: The reactivity of carboxylic acids is primarily due to the presence of the carbonyl group (C=O) and the acidic hydrogen on the hydroxyl group (-OH).

Q122. The two functional groups present in all amino acids are:

• A. Carboxvlic acid and amino✓
• B. Amino and aldehyde
• C. Ether and carboxylic acid
• D. Aldehyde and carboxylic acid

Explanation: Amino acids always contain a carboxylic acid (-COOH) group and an amino (-NH2) group

Q123. Enzyme is a natural substance that:

• A. Increases the rate of chemical reaction✓
• B. Decreases the rate of chemical reaction
• C. Has no effect on the rate of chemical reaction
• D. Stops the chemical reaction

Explanation: Enzymes are biological catalysts that increase the rate of chemical reactions in living organisms.

Q124. Number of H2O molecules in 10 g of ice are:

• A. 3.34 x 1023✓
• B. 0.331 × 1023
• C. 33.1 x 1023
• D. 10

Explanation: This is based on the concept of Avogadro's number, which states that 1 mole of any substance contains approximately 6.02 x 1023 molecules. So, 10 g of ice (H2O) contains roughly 3.34 x 1023 molecules.

Q125. The efficiency of chemical reaction can be expressed as:

• A. Theoretical yield
• B. Actual yield
• C. Percent yield✓
• D. Maximum vield

Explanation: Percent yield is a measure of the efficiency of a chemical reaction, calculated as (actual yield / theoretical yield) x 100%

Q126. 1 mol of any substance contains particles:

• A. 6.02 x 1023✓
• B. 6.02 × 1024
• C. 6.02 x 1022
• D. 3.01 x 1023

Explanation: This is Avogadro's number, which represents the number of particles (atoms, molecules, ions) in one mole of any substance.

Q127. Which of the following orbital wil be filled first than 4p?

• A. 4s
• B. 2p
• C. 3d✓
• D. 1s

Explanation: In the Aufbau principle, electrons fill the lowest energy orbitals first. So, the 3d orbital will be filled before the 4p orbital. The energy order is ; 1s,2s,2p,3s,3p,4s,3d,4p.

Q128. If value of azimuthal quantum number is 1 then value of m will range from:

• A. -1 to 1✓
• B. -1 to 2
• C. -1 to 3
• D. -1 to 4

Explanation: When the azimuthal quantum number (l) is 1, the magnetic quantum number (m) can take on values ranging from -1 to 1. This corresponds to the three p orbitals (px, py, pz), each with its own value of m.

Q129. 10 pascal is equal to:

• A. 0.000098 atm✓
• B. 1.98 atm
• C. 10.019 koa
• D. 4.014 psi

Explanation: 1 Pascal (Pa) is approximately equal to 0.00000987 atmospheres (atm).

Q130. The dumbbell like orbitals can move in how many directions?

• A. 7
• B. 5
• C. 1
• D. 3✓

Explanation: Dumbbell-like orbitals, such as p orbitals, can move in three directions corresponding to the x, y, and z axes.

Q131. The relationship between quantum number n and I is :

• A. n=L1
• B. I=n-2
• C. I= n-1✓
• D. n = 1-2

Explanation: The relationship between the principal quantum number (n) and the azimuthal quantum number (l) is l = n - 1.

Q132. Intermolecular forces between molecules of ideal g a s are:

• A. Very strong
• B. Very weak
• C. Zero✓
• D. Moderately strong

Explanation: Ideal gases are assumed to have no intermolecular forces between their molecules.

Q133. The real gases show deviation from ideal behaviour at:

• A. Low temperature and low pressure
• B. High temperature and high pressure
• C. Low temperature and high pressure✓
• D. High temperature and low pressure

Explanation: Real gases deviate from ideal behavior at conditions of low temperature and high pressure when the volume of the gas particles becomes significant compared to the volume of the container and intermolecular forces become significant.

Q134. Which of the following has the lowest vapour pressure at 20 °C?

• A. Diethyl ether
• B. Chloroform
• C. Carbon tetrachloride
• D. Water✓

Explanation: Water has the lowest vapor pressure at 20°C among the options provided. This is because water typically has lower vapor pressures compared to organic solvents like diethyl ether, chloroform, and carbon tetrachloride at the same temperature.

Q135. The force of attraction among H2 molecules in solid H2 are:

• A. Hydrogen bonds
• B. Covalent bonds
• C. Co-ordinate covalent bonds
• D. Van Der Waal's Force✓

Explanation: In solid H2, the force of attraction among H2 molecules is primarily due to Van der Waals forces.

Q136. Which of the following molecules are soft and have weak intermolecular forces?

• A. H2O
• B. I2✓
• C. Sugar
• D. Graphite

Explanation: I2 (diiodine) is a molecular solid that is soft and has weak intermolecular forces. It exists as discrete I2 molecules held together by relatively weak Van der Waals forces.

Q137. Which of the following solids have strong metallic bond?

• A. Potassium
• B. Phosphorus
• C. Calcium✓
• D. Sulphur

Explanation: Calcium (Ca) is a metal and forms a metallic solid. Metallic solids have strong metallic bonds, which involve the sharing of electrons among the atoms in the crystal lattice.

Q138. The relative permittivity of air (1 atm) is:

• A. 1
• B. 1.0006✓
• C. 22-25
• D. 2.284

Explanation: As air is a gas with a very low number of molecules that will be in between the plates of the capacitor. The relative permittivity for air is 1.0006. This is very low and can be rounded off to 1 for all practical purposes.

Q139. Equivalent capacitance is less than least value of capacitance in a combination in:

• A. Series✓
• B. Parallel
• C. Closed circuit
• D. Open circuit

Explanation: When capacitors are connected in series, the total capacitance is less than any one of the series capacitors' individual capacitances.

Q140. The magnitude of the force between two point charges is directly proportional to:

• A. Distance between point charges
• B. Square of distance between point charges
• C. Cube of distance between point charges
• D. Product of magnitude of charges✓

Explanation: According to Coulomb's law, the force of attraction or repulsion between two charged bodies is directly proportional to the product of their charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. It acts along the line joining the two charges considered to be point charges.

Q141. When dielectric is placed between the plates of a capacitor then capacitance will:

• A. Decrease
• B. Increase✓
• C. Becomes half
• D. Remains same

Explanation: If the total charge on the plates is kept constant, then the potential difference is reduced across the capacitor plates

Q142. A charge of 90 C passes through a wire for 30 seconds. Then the current in the wire will be:

• A. З А✓
• B. 0.3 A
• C. 3 mA
• D. 0.3 mA

Explanation: Explanation is given as an image.

Q143. The magnitude of the current in metals is proportional to the applied voltage as long as temperature of conductor is kept constant. It is statement of:

• A. Joule's Law
• B. Gauss Law
• C. Ohm's Law✓
• D. Ampere's Law

Explanation: The reason why temperature is kept constant in Ohm's law is that the resistance of a conductor changes with temperature.

Q144. When length of copper wire is doubled then resistivity becomes:

• A. Double
• B. Half
• C. Remains same✓
• D. Four times

Explanation: Resistivity of wire remains constant. As the length of wire gets doubled, the cross-sectional area will become half of its previous value because volume of wire remains constant

Q145. The resistance of semi-conductor with rise in temperature:

• A. Increases
• B. Decreases✓
• C. Remain same
• D. Infinite

Explanation: The electrons get excited and jump from the valance band into the conduction band and thereby increases conductance resulting in the decrease of resistance

Q146. A heating coil has a resistance of 10 ohm. It is designed to operate on 20V. What electric energy is supplied to heater in 10s?

• A. 100J
• B. 200J
• C. 300J
• D. 400J✓

Explanation: Explanation is given as an image.

Q147. The unit of resistivity is:

• A. ohm
• B. ohm-meter✓
• C. ohm / meter
• D. meter / ohm

Explanation: Resistivity is commonly represented by the Greek letter ρ (rho). The SI unit of electrical resistivity is the ohm-metre (Ω⋅m).

Q148. The unit of magnetic flux is:

• A. Tesla
• B. Weber✓
• C. Gauss
• D. Henry

Explanation: The unit of magnetic flux is the Weber (Wb).

Q149. Magnetic flux is the dot product of:

• A. Magnetic field and scalar area
• B. Magnetic field and vector area✓
• C. Magnetic field per unit scalar area
• D. Magnetic field per unit vector area

Explanation: The physical description of magnetic flux through a surface is the surface integral of the scalar product (dot product) of the magnetic field vector (B) and elementary area vector (dA).

Q150. The dimension of magnetic field is same as that of:

• A. Magnetic flux density✓
• B. Magnetic flux
• C. Magnetic force
• D. Work done

Explanation: The dimension of magnetic field (B) is the same as that of magnetic flux density (A) because both are measured in the unit Tesla (T) in the SI system. So, the answer is A. Magnetic flux density.

Q151. At what angle the curved path should be banked if a car is moving with a speed of 12 m/s at a radius 36m?

• A. 100
• B. 15°
• C. 20°
• D. 22°✓

Explanation: Explanation is given as an image.

Q152. A wave generator produces 500 pulses in 50s. Its frequency will be:

• A. 10 s1✓
• B. 0.1 s1
• C. 500 s1
• D. 50 g

Explanation: Explanation is given as an image.

Q153. Amplitude in the following figure is given as:

• A. 1 m✓
• B. 2m
• C. 1/2 m
• D. 1/4 m

Explanation: Amplitude is maximum distance from mean position. In the given figure, the maximum position above the mean position is 1 m which is the amplitude.

Q154. Which is the correct 'ascending order' in which the following photons are arranged according to their energy?

• A. Microwaves, Ultraviolet rays, Gamma rays✓
• B. Gamma rays, Ultraviolet rays, Microwaves
• C. Gamma rays, Microwaves, Ultraviolet rays
• D. Ultraviolet rays, Gamma rays, Microwaves

Explanation: Gamma rays have the highest energy among these options. They are associated with extremely high-frequency electromagnetic waves and are produced by nuclear reactions and radioactive decay.Microwaves have lower energy than both gamma rays and microwaves. They are a type of radio wave with longer wavelengths and lower energy than gamma rays.Ultraviolet rays have intermediate energy. They are part of the electromagnetic spectrum with shorter wavelengths than visible light and are often associated with effects like sunburn.So, the correct order from lowest to highest energy is Micowaves, Ultraviolet rays, Gamma rays (option A).

Q155. The Speed of sound in air is 332 ms* at 0°C. What will be its value at 10°C?

• A. 332 ms-1
• B. 338.1 ms-1✓
• C. 332.61 ms-1
• D. 33.4 ms-1

Explanation: Explanation is given as an image.

Q156. The number of revolutions per second of a body is known as:

• A. Linear frequency
• B. Angular frequency✓
• C. Time period
• D. Amplitude.

Explanation: Angular velocity ω=dθ/dt. Angular frequency, often known as radial or circular frequency, is a unit of time that measures angular displacement.

Q157. Which of the following factors does not affect the speed of sound in air?

• A. Density of gas
• B. Moisture in air
• C. Temperature
• D. Pressure of gas✓

Explanation: Since, pressure is proportional to density. Change in pressure will not affect the speed of sound.

Q158. Time period of a vibrating body is independent of:

• A. Frequency
• B. Amplitude✓
• C. Wavelength
• D. Value of 'g'

Explanation: One characteristic of SHM is that the period of the vibration is independent of its amplitude

Q159. The relation between Cp and Cv is given as:

• A. Cp - Cv= R✓
• B. Cp+ Cv= R
• C. Cy -Cp= R
• D. R- Cv= Cp

Explanation: Taking into consideration a substance's ideal gas behaviour, the following link can be established: R is equal to CP – CV. In this equation, r denotes the universal gas constant. The ratio between CP and CV is the specific heat ratio, γ.

Q160. The equation of 1st Law of thermodynamics is:

• A. Q= ∆U+W
• B. ΔU= Q-W
• C. W= Q+ ∆U
• D. Q= W
• E. B and A✓

Explanation: The first law of thermodynamics is given as ΔU = Q – W or Q = ΔU + W, where ΔU is the change in internal energy of a system, Q is the net heat transfer (the sum of all heat transfer into and out of the system), and W is the net work done (the sum of all work done on or by the system).

Q161. The thermodynamics process during which the pressure is kept constant is called:

• A. Isochoric process
• B. Adiabatic process
• C. Isobaric process✓
• D. Isothermal process

Explanation: An isobaric process is a thermodynamic process in which pressure stays constant i.e ΔP=0. An isochoric process is a thermodynamic process during which the volume of the closed system undergoing such a process remains constant. An isothermal process is a change of a system, in which the temperature remains constant i.e. ΔT=0.

Q162. A one micro fared capacitor of a TV is subjected to 4000 V potential difference. The energy stored in capacitor is:

• A. 16
• B. 4x10-3 J
• C. 2×10-3 J
• D. 8 J✓

Explanation: Explanation is given as an image.

Q163. A particle carrying a charge 2 e falls through a P.D of 3 V. The energy acquired by it will be:

• A. 6 ev✓
• B. Tev
• C. 1.5 ev
• D. 5 ev

Explanation: Explanation is given as an image.

Q164. Due to polarization process of dielectric, the electric intensity:

• A. Increases
• B. Decreases✓
• C. Remains same
• D. Becomes zero

Explanation: The positive charges within the dielectric are displaced minutely in the direction of the electric field, and the negative charges are displaced minutely in the direction opposite to the electric field. This slight separation of charge, or polarization, reduces the electric field within the dielectric

Q165. The phenomenon in which a changing current in one coil induces an emf in another coil is:

• A. Self-induction
• B. Mutual induction✓
• C. Eddy current
• D. Choke

Explanation: When an emf is produced in a coil because of the change in current in a coupled coil, the effect is called mutual inductance

Q166. The induced current will flow in such a direction so as to oppose the cause that produces it. It is the statement of:

• A. Ampere's Law
• B. Faraday's Law
• C. Lenz's Law✓
• D. Joule's Law

Explanation: Lenz's law states that the direction of the electric current induced in a conductor by a changing magnetic field is such that the magnetic field created by the induced current opposes changes in the initial magnetic field

Q167. The transformer depends on the use of:

• A. Direct current
• B. Alternating current✓
• C. Direct and alternating current
• D. Direct and alternating voltage

Explanation: Transformers only work for alternating current, because you need a changing magnetic field. The size of the induced voltage depends on the number of turns on each coil – if there are less in the secondary coil, the voltage falls, and if there are more in the secondary coil, the voltage rises.

Q168. The domestic electricity supply in Pakistan has a frequency of:

• A. 70 Hz
• B. 50 Hz✓
• C. 100 Hz
• D. 30 Hz

Explanation: Pakistan operates on a 230V supply voltage and 50Hz.

Q169. Transformer works on the principle of:

• A. Lenz's law
• B. Faraday's law
• C. Magnetic induction✓
• D. Ampere's law

Explanation: Magnetic induction, also known as electromagnetic induction, is the fundamental principle behind the operation of transformers. According to this principle, when the current in the primary coil of a transformer changes, it creates a changing magnetic field. This changing magnetic field induces a voltage in the secondary coil of the transformer, which results in the transfer of electrical energy between the primary and secondary coils.

Q170. The conversion of A.C into D.C is called rectification and circuit is called rectifier. Which component of electronics acts as a rectifier?

• A. Diode✓
• B. Transistor
• C. Transformer
• D. Inductor

Explanation: A rectifier is an electronic device that converts an alternating current into a direct current by using one or more P-N junction diodes. A diode behaves as a one-way valve that allows current to flow in a single direction. This process is known as rectification.

Q171. The wavelength associated with an electron is of the order of:

• A. Visible light
• B. X-rays✓
• C. Radio waves
• D. Infrared

Explanation: X-ray is a part of an electromagnetic wave whose wavelength is of an order of 1 Angstrom (Å).

Q172. Red light is used in photographic dark room because of:

• A. More frequency, less wavelength
• B. Less frequency, less wavelenght
• C. Less frequency, more wavelenght✓
• D. More frequency, more wavelength

Explanation: A fact that red light has a greater wavelength while wavelength and frequency are inversely proportional to each other hence, red light has a lesser frequency compared to other colors in the visible spectrum, making it suitable for use in a photographic darkroom.

Q173. The unit of radio activity is curie which is equal to:

• A. 3.7 x 1010 disintegration / s✓
• B. 3.7 disintegration / s
• C. 7.3 disintegration / S
• D. None

Explanation: As such, 1 Ci is equal to 37 billion (3.7 x 1010) disintegrations per second, so 1 Ci also equals 37 billion (3.7 x 1010) Bequerels (Bq). A curie is also a quantity of any radionuclide that decays at a rate of 37 billion disintegrations per second (1 gram of radium, for example).

Q174. Which X-ray photon will have longest wavelength?

• A. Kα
• B. Kβ
• C. Kɣ
• D. Mα✓

Explanation: This question will be explained soon.

Q175. Which of following series lies in infra-red region?

• A. Lyman and Balmer
• B. Balmer and Paschen
• C. Paschen and Brakett✓
• D. Brackett and Pfund

Explanation: This question will be explained soon.

Q176. The rate of radioactive decay is directly proportional to the stability of the:

• A. Medium
• B. Atmosphere
• C. Isotope✓
• D. Half life

Explanation: For a given number of atoms, isotopes with shorter half-lives decay more rapidly, undergoing a greater number of radioactive decays per unit time than do isotopes with longer half-lives

Q177. Skin burn, loss of hair, drop in white blood cell and induction of cancer are example of _ of radiation:

• A. Zener effect
• B. Biological effect
• C. Somatic effect✓
• D. Genetic effect

Explanation: These effects such as skin burn, loss of hair, drop in white blood cells, and induction of cancer are examples of the somatic effects of radiation. These effects are related to the impact of ionizing radiation on living tissues and organisms.

Q178. The car is speeding up along negative y axis then acceleration will be along:

• A. Positive x Axis
• B. Negative x Axis
• C. Positive y Axis
• D. Negative y Axis✓

Explanation: When the object is moving in the negative direction (i.e., has a negative velocity) and is speeding up, then this object has a negative acceleration. The acceleration is in the opposite direction as the velocity. (We can call this as deceleration since the object is slowing down)

Q179. Momentum is product of mass and velocity, then momentum and velocity are:

• A. Parallel✓
• B. Perpendicular
• C. Antiparallel
• D. Independent.

Explanation: Momentum is the product of mass and velocity. When momentum and velocity are antiparallel, it means they have opposite directions. If velocity is positive in one direction, momentum is negative in the opposite direction.

Q180. Which of the pair of two projectiles projected at different angles have same ranges?

• A. (30°, 709)
• B. (40°, 50°)✓
• C. (35°, 40°)
• D. (45°, 40°)

Explanation: A. (30°, 70°) - Not complementary angles. B. (40°, 50°) - These angles are complementa C. (35°, 40°) - Not complementary angles. D. (45°, 40°) - Not complementary angles.

Q181. The slope of velocity-time graph gives us:

• A. Speed
• B. Velocity
• C. Acceleration✓
• D. Distance

Explanation: Thus, in a velocity-time graph, the slope would be slope = ∆ v ∆ t where is the change in velocity and is the change in time. We know that acceleration = change in velocity change in time = ∆ v ∆ t , which is the slope of a velocity-time graph.

Q182. The time rate of change of linear momentum of a body is equal to:

• A. Force✓
• B. Momentum
• C. Power
• D. Acceleration

Explanation: The force is defined as the rate of change of momentum which, if simplified, can be written as F=ma.

Q183. At what angle of projection of a projectile the range becomes half of its maximum value?

• A. 15✓
• B. 20
• C. 30
• D. 40

Explanation: R=Vi2(sin 2θ)/gAt given condition:Maximum range= Rmax= vi2θ/g. For the maximum range, sin2θ=1 which is possible if we put the angle as 45 degrees but to get half of the maximum range we should take θ such that sin2θ is equal to 0.5. It is known that sin 30=0.5 so if we put θ as 15 we will get sin2(15)=sin 30=0.5.

Q184. According to work energy principle in linear motion, the work done on the body is equal to:

• A. Change in P. E
• B. Sum of P. E + K. E
• C. Change in K. E✓
• D. Zero

Explanation: According to the work-energy theorem, the work done on a system is equal to the change in kinetic energy of that body. That means, the amount of energy spent by the external agency is converted into the kinetic energy of that body. Therefore, it supports the law of conservation of energy

Q185. If a body of mass 'm' is accelerated on a smooth horizontal surface 'S' by a force 'F'. The work done F x S is converted into:

• A. Heat energy
• B. Kinetic energy✓
• C. Potential energy
• D. Electromagnetic energy

Explanation: When a force (F) is applied to a body of mass (m) on a smooth horizontal surface (S), the work done (F × S) is primarily converted into kinetic energy. This is because the work-energy theorem states that work done on an object is equal to the change in its kinetic energy. So, the correct answer is B. Kinetic energy.

Q186. One megawatt hour is equal to:

• A. 3.6 x 107 J
• B. 3.6 x 109 J✓
• C. 3.6 x 1012 J
• D. 3.6 x 1018 J

Explanation: Energy = Power x time = MWhr 1 MW = 1 x 106 W 1 hr = 3600 seconds = 36 x 102 s 1 MWhr = 1 x 106 x 36 x 102 1 MWhr = 36 x 108 J 1 MWhr = 3.6 x 109 J

Q187. A motor boat is moving with velocity 4 ms. The net force acting on it is 4000 N. What will be the power of the engine of boat?

• A. 1000 W
• B. 160 W
• C. 16 KW D.
• D. 16000 W✓

Explanation: Explanation is given as an image.

Q188. In angular motion, in one rotation there are:

• A. π radians
• B. 2πradians✓
• C. π/2 radians
• D. π/ 4 radians

Explanation: Explanation for this question will be added soon.

Q189. If a stone of mass 1 Kg is whirled in a horizontal circle (radius = 1 m ) with vei m/s, then the period is:

• A. πradians
• B. 2π radians✓
• C. π/2 radians
• D. π/4 radians

Explanation: Explanation for this question will be added soon.

Q190. The relation between linear and angular acceleration is:

• A. a = ra✓
• B. a=r/a
• C. a = r²a
• D. A= ra²

Explanation: a = r * α Where: a is the linear acceleration (tangential acceleration) of a point on a rotating object. r is the radius from the axis of rotation to the point where the acceleration is measured. α is the angular acceleration, which represents how fast the angular velocity of the object is changing. So, the correct relation is A. a = ra.

Q191. Which photons carries the most energy?

• A. Blue
• B. Violet✓
• C. Red
• D. Green

Explanation: Violet light has the shortest wavelength, and so it has the highest level of energy of visible light. The trend of energy goes like this; Red<Orange<Yellow<Green<Blue<Indigo<Violet. The reverse is the order for wavelength.

Q192. Observe the pattern and select the next term in sequence:

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C✓
• D. Option D

Explanation: Explanation for this questions will be added soon.

Q193. Read the following and choose the correct answer:A man enters a room and finds a mirror. He looks at his shirt in the mirror and finds the following: ≤ WOIHA ≥. Another man enters the room and observes this man's shirt directly. Which of the following does he observe?

• A. ≥ WOIHA ≤
• B. ≤ AHIOW ≥
• C. ≤ WOIHA ≥✓
• D. ≥ AHIOW ≤

Explanation: When you observe an object in a mirror, it appears reversed. So, if the shirt in the mirror reads ≤ WOIHA ≥, when observed directly, it would read the same way, without reversal.Therefore, the correct answer is:C. ≤ WOIHA ≥To solve this problem, we need to understand how the reflection in a mirror works. When we look at a mirror, the text appears reversed. So, if the first man sees ≤ WOIHA ≥ in the mirror, the correct answer for what the second man would observe directly is C. ≤WOIHA≥

Q194. Read the passage and the following statements below. Then choose the correct option, basing your answer only on the information provided. Pakistan is rich in wildlife and culture. It is home to many sorts of wildlife, from the Ibex to the Indus River Dolphin; and people from most countries in the world have made their home Here. Statements: I. Pakistan is a rich country. II. People from all nationalities of the world live in Pakistan. III. Pakistan is home to at least one dolphin species.

• A. Only III is correct✓
• B. Only I and II are correct
• C. Only I and III are correct
• D. Only II and III are correct

Explanation: According to given passage, only statement III is correct, because in the passage, it is mentioned; "Pakistan is home to many sorts of wildlife, from the Ibex to the Indus River Dolphin. "

Q195. A ball is a sphere. All spheres are round. Some round things are mesmerizing. Which of the following conclusions is NECESSARILY TRUE? Conclusions: I. All balls are mesmerizing. II. All round things are spheres. III. Some mesmerizing things are spheres.

• A. III✓
• B. I and II
• C. Il and III
• D. I and III

Explanation: I. "All balls are mesmerizing" is not necessarily true. The statements provided do not establish a direct connection between all balls and being mesmerizing. So, this conclusion cannot be necessarily true. II. "All round things are spheres" is not necessarily true either. While it is true that all spheres are round, the statements do not provide enough information to conclude that all round things are spheres. There can be other objects that are round but not spherical. III. "Some mesmerizing things are spheres" is necessarily true. The statements establish that "Some round things are mesmerizing," and since all spheres are round (as stated in the first premise), it is necessarily true that some mesmerizing things are spheres. So, the correct conclusion is III, making option A the correct choice.

Q196. I. There is sharp decline in the production of oil seeds this year. Il. The Government has decided to increase the import quantum of edible oil.

• A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect✓
• B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
• C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes
• D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes

Explanation: The decline in the production of oil seeds (Statement I) is the cause, and as a result of this decline, the government has decided to increase the import quantum of edible oil (Statement II). In this cause-and-effect relationship, Statement II (increasing import of edible oil) is a direct consequence of Statement I (sharp decline in oil seeds production).

Q197. "Read the following statement, assuming everything in it to be true. Then decide which of the given suggested courses of action logically follow and are worth pursuing.Statement: Employees are arriving to work more than 5 minutes late every day.Courses of Action:I. Impose a strict penalty of half a day's pay every time someone is late.II. Apply a 15 minutes' buffer. Anyone who is late more than 2 times a month after this buffer period gets docked one day's pay."

• A. I
• B. II
• C. Both I and II✓
• D. Neither I nor Il

Explanation: Both courses of action can be logically pursued to address the issue of employees arriving late to work. I. Imposing a strict penalty of half a day's pay for each instance of being late may incentivize employees to be punctual. II. Applying a 15-minute buffer and docking a day's pay for those who are consistently late after this buffer period provides a grace period and then a more severe consequence for repeated lateness, which can also encourage punctuality. Therefore, both courses of action can help address the issue of employees arriving late to work, making option C the correct choice.

Q198. A container with a porous wall has a mixture of H2, He, N2 and O2. Which of these gases will take maximum time in getting out of the container?

• A. H2
• B. He
• C. N2
• D. O2✓

Explanation: The rate of effusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molar mass, according to Graham's law of effusion. The formula for Graham's law is:So, the gas with the lowest molar mass will effuse the fastest. Let's compare the molar masses of the gases mentioned: H2: ~2 g/mol He: ~4 g/mol N2: ~28 g/mol O2: ~32 g/molSince O2 has the highest molar mass among the options, it will take the maximum time to effuse through the porous wall.

Q199. The value of for an unknown gas PV/nRT is equal to

• A. 0.082 L.atm.mol-1.K✓
• B. 0.082 L.atm.mol-1.K-1
• C. 0.82 L.atm.mol.K-1
• D. 0.82 L.atm.mol.K

Explanation: The ideal gas law is represented by the equation PV=nRT, where:P is the pressure of the gas,V is the volume of the gas,n is the number of moles of the gas,R is the ideal gas constant, andT is the temperature of the gas in Kelvin.The value of the ideal gas constant (R) depends on the units used for pressure, volume, and temperature. The correct value with units commonly used is 0.0821 L.atm.mol−1.K−1Therefore, the correct option is a.0.082L.atm.mol−1.K−1.

Q200. Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks a cell wall?

• A. Cyanobacteria
• B. Sea fan (Gorgonia)✓
• C. Saccharomyces
• D. Blue green algae

Explanation: Gorgonia (sea fan) is an animal belonging to phylum Coelenterata. All animals lack a cell wall.