Federal Mdcat Mock Paper 1 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Identify the word or phrase that needs to be changed for the sentence to be correct: Children depend on their parents for food and clothing.

• A. Depend
• B. Their
• C. For
• D. And
• E. No error✓

Explanation: There is no error in the sentence above.

Q2. Demonstrate the correct use of subject-verb agreement: A lot of houses _ collapsed due to the storm.

• A. Has
• B. Are
• C. Have✓
• D. Were

Explanation: Option A: Has is used as a singular verb and the subject is plural hence this is incorrect Option B: it would be incorrect to use are before collapsed Option C: have is a plural verb hence it can be used for this subject thus this option is correct Option D: it would be incorrect to use were for something that has already happened

Q3. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word:DIASPORA

• A. Gathering
• B. Dispersion✓
• C. Alliance
• D. Animosity

Explanation: A diaspora is a scattered population whose origin lies in a separate geographic locale.Dispersed population is also used to describe such a population.

Q4. Select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word:TRANSIENT

• A. Permanent
• B. Temporary✓
• C. Long
• D. Good

Explanation: Transient means something that ends after a a certain time/fades away, which is synonymous to “temporary”.

Q5. Which one is correct? Read all options carefully.

• A. Nimra picked the package up, unlock the door, and went into the apartment.
• B. Nimra picked the package up, unlocked the door, and went into the apartment.✓
• C. Both are correct.
• D. Both are wrong.

Explanation: The sentence should have a parallel structure. Since the main verb is in past tense i.e picked, all other verbs should be in past tense as well.

Q6. Choose the correct spelling of the word:

• A. Something✓
• B. Somthing
• C. Sumthing
• D. Sumthin

Explanation: The correct spelling is 'something'.

Q7. Choose the incorrect word Shark differ from other fish in that Their skeleton are made of cartilage instead bone

• A. differ from
• B. other fish
• C. are made✓
• D. instead

Explanation: Skeleton is the body's central framework, used in a singular form, which is why it should be “skeleton is made of”

Q8. Fill in the blank The new teacher showed no _ about hitting the students.

• A. Quakes
• B. Qualms✓
• C. Quarrel
• D. Quotation

Explanation: an uneasy feeling of doubt, worry, or fear, especially about one's own conduct; a misgiving. Phrase: "military regimes generally have no qualms about controlling the press" “Some people have no qualms about correcting other people's grammar."

Q9. Read the passage to answer the question:To inquire about the meaning or object of one's own existence or of creation generally has always seemed to me absurd from an objective point of view. And yet everybody has certain ideals that determine the direction of his endeavors and his judgments. In this sense, I have never looked upon ease and happiness as ends in themselves-such an ethical basis I call more proper for a herd of swine. The ideals which have lighted me on my way and time after time given me new courage to face life cheerfully, have been Truth, Goodness, and Beauty. Without the sense of fellowship with men of like mind, of preoccupation with the objective, the eternally unattainable in the field of art and scientific research, life would have seemed to me empty. The ordinary objects of human endeavor property, outward success, luxury-have always seemed to me contemptible. The author of the passage followed which of the following objectives? I.Truth II. Goodness III. Beauty IV. Saints

• A. I only
• B. II only
• C. I and II only
• D. I, II and III only✓
• E. I, II, III and IV

Explanation: I, II, AND III are clearly mentioned as the objectives in line 6. This question can be answered by directly inferring from the passage.

Q10. Questions 9-10 are based on the following passage. However, it must be recognized that science has its limitations. Its methods apply only to those things which can be observed, measured, and treated mathematically. It has nothing to do with values- save those of truth and accuracy. It has nothing to do with happiness, goodness, beauty, courage, adventure, justice, altruism, friendship, love of family, love of country. Yet all these values enter into a man's conception of what is the good personal life within a good society. It is possible for honest and intelligent men to differ profoundly on the nature of these values and their respective degrees of importance. Hence the contrast between the modern world's command of material things and its tragic failure to organize a harmonious world society. It can be inferred from the passage that the author thinks:

• A. science to be the necessary element of a good personal life
• B. science brings happiness, goodness, beauty, courage adventure,justice, altruism, friendship, love of family and love of country to a man's life
• C. science has successfully brought a balance between the modern world's command of material things and a harmonious world society
• D. a good personal life can be achieved by recognizing the nature of values and their degree of importance✓
• E. the limitations of science are negligible

Explanation: It can be inferred from the passage that a good personal life can be achieved by recognizing the nature of values and their degrees of importance.(Lines 5-7).

Q11. Identify the word or phrase that needs to be changed for the sentence to be correct: The office is so busy that two extra clerks have had to be taken on.

• A. The
• B. Busy
• C. Extra
• D. Have had
• E. No error✓

Explanation: There is no error in the above sentence.

Q12. In the following question four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT option:

• A. The parent who I have offended often come around after a term of years and tell me that his son was right.
• B. The parent who I have offended often comes around after a term of years and tell me that his son was right.
• C. The parents whom I have offended often comes around after a term of years and tells that his son was right.
• D. The parent whom I have offended often comes around after a term of years and tells me that his son was right.✓

Explanation: The parent whom I have offended often comes around after a term of years and tells me that his son was right This is the correct option because it uses the correct pronoun and verb forms. The pronoun "whom" is used to refer to the object of the verb "have offended," and the verb "comes" is in the singular form. The sentence also correctly uses the possessive pronoun "his" to refer to the son of the parent.

Q13. In each of the following questions, four alternative sentences are given.Choose the CORRECT option.

• A. Norma had put the button unit besides her on the couch.
• B. Norma put an button unit besides her on the couch.
• C. Norma put the button unit besides hers on the couch.
• D. Norma put the button unit beside her on the couch.✓

Explanation: The phrase "beside her" is used in the sentence to indicate the location of the button unit in relation to Norma. "Beside" means next to or by the side of someone or something. In this case, it suggests that Norma placed the button unit in close proximity to herself, likely on the couch within reach. The phrase provides spatial information and helps to specify the position of the button unit in relation to Norma.

Q14. Each sentence below has a blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word that best fits in with the meaning of the sentence as a whole.Though the apprentice was a highly proficient IT professional, he had little or no _ in designing educational software.

• A. Creativity✓
• B. Prospect
• C. Configuration
• D. Competition

Explanation: The first word, “Though,” is an opposition indicator. The beginning of the sentence speaks positively about the IT professional. We must find a word that gives us a negative idea about him. Choice A, creativity, is the appropriate word though it is positive word but no or little makes it negative. The other choices are incorrect because their words are not appropriate to give us that opposite feeling.

Q15. There was _ article about pollution in _ paper.

• A. A..an
• B. An...the✓
• C. A...the
• D. A...a

Explanation: There was an article about pollution in the paper.Here's why each article is used:"An" before "article": The indefinite article "an" is used before "article" because "article" starts with a vowel sound."The" before "paper": The definite article "the" is used before "paper" because it refers to a specific newspaper that both the speaker and the listener are likely familiar with or have discussed previously.

Q16. Which one of the following is a non-reducing carbohydrate?

• A. Maltose
• B. Sucrose✓
• C. Lactose
• D. Ribose 5- ­phosphate

Explanation: (b) : In non­-reducing sugars, a free aldehyde or ketonic group is absent. Sucrose is a non­-reducing sugar formed by condensation of one molecule each of glucose and fructose with the release of a water molecule. A glycosidic bond is established between carbon atom 1 of glucose and carbon atom 2 of fructose.

Q17. Uridine, present only in RNA is a

• A. nucleoside✓
• B. nucleotide
• C. purine
• D. pyrimidine.

Explanation: (a) : A nucleoside is a pentose sugar and a base together, without the phosphate group. Uracil is present as uridine in RNA only. Uracil + Ribose = Uridine

Q18. About 98 percent of the mass of every living organism is composed of just six elements including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and:

• A. Calcium and phosphorus
• B. Phosphorus and sulphur✓
• C. Sulphur and magnesium
• D. Magnesium and sodium

Explanation: The plant ash reveals the presence of 40 elements but all are not essential for plant nutrition, only a few are essential for growth and development of plants. These are called as the essential elements. The essential elements may be grouped as major elements or macronutrients and trace elements or micronutrients, based on their requirement by plants. The macronutrient elements are required in large amounts and form the plant constituents. The major elements are otherwise also known as macronutrients. These include carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, calcium, magnesium and sulphur. Of these approximately ninety percent of plant body is made of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, Sulphur and phosphorous.So, the correct answer is 'Sulphur and phosphorus'

Q19. The primary electron acceptor in cyclic photophosphorylation is:

• A. Carbon dioxide
• B. A protein that contains iron and sulphur✓
• C. NADP
• D. FAD

Explanation: The electron released by P700 in the presence of light is passed to the primary acceptor, ferredoxin, then plastoquinone, cytochrome complex, plastocyanin, and finally back to P700. Ferredoxins are small proteins containing iron and sulphur atoms organised as iron–sulphur clusters. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Q20. A group of cells performing same function are known as:

• A. Organelles
• B. Tissues✓
• C. A system
• D. Both A and B

Explanation: The group of cells that perform the same function is called tissue (OPTION B). Many different tissues combine to form organs, that can perform multiple functions. Different organs combine to form a system. An organelle is a subcellular structure that performs specific functions.

Q21. The cells are held together by a Ca-pectate layer are called as:

• A. Primary cell wall
• B. Secondary cell wall
• C. Middle lamella✓
• D. Tertiary cell wall

Explanation: The plant cell is surrounded by cellulosic cell walls. The cell walls of two adjacent cells are separated by middle lamella which literally means middle plate or middle membrane. Middle lamella is actually the cementing layer between two plant cells. It is absent on the outer surface. It ruptures to create intercellular spaces wherever required. It is formed of calcium and magnesium pectate.

Q22. Pseudo coelomate animals are:

• A. Coelenterates
• B. Nematodes✓
• C. Annelids
• D. None of them

Explanation: Pseudocoelomates do not have a true coelom (i.e. a cavity that is present between the gut and body wall, and is lined by the mesoderm on both sides). Phylum Nematoda contains pseudocoelomate animals.

Q23. Flame cells are commonly found in:

• A. Platyhelminthes✓
• B. Annelida
• C. Coelenterate
• D. All of above

Explanation: A flame cell is a specialized excretory cell found in the simplest freshwater invertebrates, including Platyhelminthes. Flame cells function like a kidney and remove waste materials. Bundles of flame cells are called protonephridia. Flame cells function on the basis of filtration & resorption. So, option B is correct.

Q24. A virus has its genome which is enclosed by a protein coat, called:

• A. Spore
• B. Capsid✓
• C. Envelope
• D. Shell

Explanation: A virus is an acellular organism that has a genome(DNA or RNA) enclosed in a protein coat called a capsid.

Q25. Which structure is primarily responsible for water absorption during digestion?

• A. 5
• B. 6
• C. 7
• D. 14✓
• E. 9

Explanation: Large intestines are responsible for water absorption during digestion.

Q26. Which of the following is an acceptable nitrogen base composition for double stranded

• A. 31% A;19%T;31%C;19%G
• B. 36% A;36%U;24%C;24%G
• C. 48% A;48%T;52%C;52%G
• D. 31% A;31%T;19%C;19%G✓
• E. 24% A;24%U;36%C;19%G

Explanation: DNA base pairs are of 4 types which together gives a ladder form of structure. Adenine with Thymine and Guanine with Cytosine together pairs up with each other.Adenine is 31% then Thymine is also 31%,then Cytosine is (50-31=19%), Guanine is also 19%.

Q27. What is the role of cholesterol in the cell membrane?

• A. It functions in joining adjacent cells together.
• B. It functions in recognizing foreign cells.
• C. It increases the rate of transport of ions across the membrane.
• D. It stabilizes the cell membrane.✓

Explanation: 'Cholesterol' is interspersed between the phospholipid bilayer. In case of temperature deviation, the fatty acid tails may melt or freeze. Changing the fluidity of the membrane, that is, with an increase in temperature, the phospholipid entities tend to move away from each other, and in low temperatures, the molecules will move very close to each other, disturbing the membrane's ability to transport substances. Cholesterol is the stabilizing molecule that prevents extreme movement of phospholipids during temperature fluctuation So, the correct answer is 'It stabilizes the cell membrane.'

Q28. In cross-section each Centriole consist of nine (each in triplets) of:

• A. Microfilaments
• B. Microvilli
• C. Microtubules✓
• D. Intermediate filaments

Explanation: Typical centrioles are made of 9 triplets of microtubules organized with radial symmetry. Microfilaments, also called actin filaments, are polymers of the protein actin that are part of a cell's cytoskeleton. Microvilli are microscopic cellular membrane protrusions that increase the surface area for diffusion and minimize any increase in volume, and are involved in a wide variety of functions. Intermediate filaments are important components of the cell's cytoskeletal system. They may stabilize organelles, like the nucleus, or they may be involved in specialized junctions. They are distinguished from "thin filaments" by their size (8-10 nm) and the fact that thin filaments are motile.

Q29. Immediate source of energy for cellular respiration is:

• A. Lipids
• B. ATP✓
• C. Proteins
• D. Carbohydrates

Explanation: The immediate source of energy for cellular respiration is adenosine triphosphate, or ATP. ATP is a molecule that stores and releases energy in cells. During cellular respiration, the complex organic molecules, such as glucose, are gradually broken down in a series of enzymatic reactions. The energy released during these reactions is used to synthesize ATP from adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and inorganic phosphate (Pi).

Q30. The main process that occurs in the dark reaction in photosynthesis is:

• A. That water is split.
• B. Light energy is converted into chemical energy.
• C. That glucose is oxidized.
• D. That carbon-dioxide is fixed.✓
• E. None of the above.

Explanation: The main process that occurs in the dark reaction (also known as the Calvin Cycle) in photosynthesis is the synthesis of glucose. The dark reaction takes place in the stroma of chloroplasts and does not directly require light. It follows the light-dependent reactions (such as photosystem I and II) that capture and convert light energy into chemical energy in the form of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) and NADPH (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate). In the Calvin Cycle, the primary goal is to use the ATP and NADPH produced during the light-dependent reactions to convert carbon dioxide (CO2) into glucose. The key steps of the Calvin Cycle include carbon fixation, reduction, and regeneration of the starting molecule (RuBP, ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate). The final product is glucose, which can be used by the plant for energy and other metabolic processes.

Q31. Glenoid cavity articulates

• A. clavicle with scapula
• B. humerus with scapula✓
• C. clavicle with acromion
• D. scapula with acromion.

Explanation: The glenoid cavity articulates with the head of the bone of the upper arm, the humerous, to form the shoulder joint.

Q32. Among invertebrates, which possesses the greatest power of regeneration?

• A. Sponges✓
• B. Platyhelminthes
• C. Annelids
• D. Echinoderms

Explanation: Sponges can repair their body parts, even if a large part is lost. Sponges can regenerate the entire organism from the conglomeration of their cells. In Planaria, mainly the head or tail is regenerated in decapitated flatworms (some species).It is a fundamental concept in biology that the more complex an animal, the lesser is its power of regeneration. Therefore, echinoderms have the least power of regeneration and sponges have the greatest power of regeneration.

Q33. Which of the following is derived from Latin word VENUME which means poisonous?

• A. Bacteria
• B. Fungi
• C. Virus✓
• D. Malaria

Explanation: Virus is derived from the above given latin word and meaning. The hint lies in the first letter of each word, which is a V.

Q34. Which one of the following is NOT a mode of transmission of AIDS?

• A. Through unsterilized needles
• B. Through contact with open wounds
• C. Through blood transfusion
• D. Through holding hands✓

Explanation: AIDS is a disease that is caused by HIV that is transmitted from person to person through the mixing of body fluids between two human beings. Option D says holding hands that do not involve mixing of body fluids, unlike other options that do involve mixing of body fluids.

Q35. Where can viruses replicate?

• A. Animals
• B. Plants
• C. Bacteria
• D. All of these options are correct✓

Explanation: a. Animals: Many viruses can replicate in animals. Animal viruses infect a variety of hosts, including humans and other vertebrates. b. Plants: Plant viruses exist and can replicate within plant cells. These viruses can cause diseases in plants, impacting agriculture and plant ecosystems. c. Bacteria: Viruses that infect bacteria are called bacteriophages. Bacteriophages replicate inside bacterial cells, often causing the bacterial host to lyse (burst) and release new virus particles. d. All of these options are correct: This is the correct answer. Viruses can replicate in animals, plants, and bacteria, reflecting the broad host range exhibited by different types of viruses. Correct Answer: d. All of these options are correct Explanation: Viruses exhibit a wide range of host specificity. Some infect animals, causing diseases in humans and other vertebrates. Others infect plants, leading to various plant diseases. Bacteriophages specifically infect bacteria, playing a role in the regulation of bacterial populations. Summary: The correct answer is d. All of these options are correct. Viruses can replicate in animals, plants, and bacteria, showcasing their ability to infect a diverse range of hosts. Understanding the host range of viruses is essential for studying viral diseases, developing treatments, and implementing strategies for disease control in different ecosystems.

Q36. An involuntary and nearly instantaneous movement in response to a stimulus is called:

• A. Reflex✓
• B. Reflex arc
• C. Neuron
• D. Synapse

Explanation: Option A: A reflex action is an automatic, involuntary and rapid response to a stimulus so this is the correct answer.Option B: Reflex arc is the pathway to which a reflex travels thus this cannot be the correct answer.Option C: Neurons are cells and not movements thus this is not the correct option.Option D: Synapse is a small gap at the end of a neuron that allows a signal to pass from one neuron to the next. This is not a movement and thus not a correct option.

Q37. _ are biologically active proteins.

• A. Glycoproteins
• B. Enzymes✓
• C. Activators
• D. Inhibitors

Explanation: Biologically active refers to the substance having an effect on a living organism, tissue, or cell. Enzymes are biologically active proteins. Enzymes are specialized proteins that act as catalysts in biochemical reactions, speeding up the conversion of substrates into products. They play a crucial role in various biological processes by facilitating chemical reactions necessary for metabolism, growth, and other cellular functions. The other options, glycoproteins, activators, and inhibitors, may also be proteins, but they are not specifically defined as biologically active proteins like enzymes.

Q38. If more substrate is added to an already occurring enzymatic reaction, then more enzyme activity is seen because of which of the following?

• A. There is probably more substrate present than there is enzyme
• B. There is probably more product present than there is either substrate or enzyme
• C. The enzyme-substrate complex is probably failing to form during the reaction
• D. There is probably more enzyme available than there is substrate✓

Explanation: An increase in enzyme activity seen on adding more substrate to an ongoing reaction indicates more enzyme is present compared to substrate molecules which were free to form enzyme-substrate complexes.

Q39. Match the hormones listed in Column I with the roles given under Column II. Choose the answer which gives the correct combination of alphabets of the two columns.

• A. A= t, B = s, C = p, D = q✓
• B. A = r, B = t, C = s, D = q
• C. A = t, B = p, C = s, D = q
• D. A = q, B = s, C = p, D = r

Explanation: FSH is involved in the maturation of the Graafian follicle. LH is involved in the development of the corpus luteum. Progesterone is involved in the preparation of the endometrium for implantation. Estrogen is involved in the development of female sexual characteristics. So, A is the correct answer.

Q40. The diameter of a tree is reduced slightly during the day and increased at night . Which of the following changes in environmental condition cause the greatest reduction in diameter?

• A. Increase in wind velocity, temperature, humidity and light intensity
• B. Increases in temperature, humidity and light intensity
• C. Increases in wind velocity, humidity and light intensity
• D. Increases in wind velocity, temperature and light intensity✓
• E. Increases is wind velocity, temperature and humidity

Explanation: Diel stem diameter variations have long been related to change in the water status of the stem, with shrinking occurring as stored water is exported to the canopy to meet demands imposed by high rates of transpiration during daylight. Transpiration is affected by various environmental factors, such as environmental temperature, photosynthetically active radiation (PAR), environmental relative humidity, and air velocity The diameter of a tree is reduced slightly during the day and increased at night. Increases in wind velocity, temperature and light intensity cause the greatest reduction in diameter.

Q41. The tricuspid valve prevent backflow of blood from the:

• A. Left ventricle into the left atrium
• B. Aorta into the left ventricle
• C. Pulmonary artery into the right ventricle
• D. Right ventricle into the right atrium✓

Explanation: Tricuspid valve: Allows blood to pass from the right atrium to the right ventricle; prevents blood from flowing back into the right atrium as the heart pumps (systole).

Q42. Which of the following processes does NOT need Pyruvic Acid as a substrate?

• A. Alcoholic fermentation
• B. Calvin cycle✓
• C. Aerobic respiration
• D. Lactic Acid fermentation

Explanation: Calvin cycle does not require pyruvate rather just requires RuBP and CO2 for carbon dioxide fixation, as shown by the diagram below. All other reactions mentioned in other options do require pyruvate.

Q43. A three dimensional cavity bearing a specific charge by which the enzyme reacts with its substrate is called?

• A. Active site✓
• B. Binding site
• C. Catalytic site
• D. Allosteric site

Explanation: Option A: Active site is a groove or a depression on the surface of a substrate into which the enzyme fits. This is the correct option.Option B: Binding site is a region on a macromolecule such as a protein that binds to another molecule with specificity. This is not the correct answer.Option C: Catalytic site is the location where the catalysis of a chemical reaction takes place in an enzyme. This is not the correct answer.Option D: Allosteric regulation is any form of regulation where the regulatory molecule (activator or inhibitor) binds to an enzyme someplace other than the active site. The place where the regulator binds is called the allosteric site. This is not the correct option.

Q44. The structure of an enzyme is altered by which of the following inhibitors?

• A. Reversible inhibitor
• B. Competitive inhibitor
• C. Non-competitive inhibitor✓
• D. Irreversible inhibitor

Explanation: In non competitive inhibitor, the inhibitor molecule binds to an enzyme other than the active site. The other binding site of the enzyme is called the allosteric site. Non-competitive enzymes may temporarily inactivate the enzymes or may denature them permanently.

Q45. Irreversible modifications require the synthesis of which of the following:

• A. Enzymes
• B. Carbohydrates
• C. Vitamins
• D. Proteins✓

Explanation: Irreversible modifications require the synthesis of protein. Irreversible modifications typically associated with physiological cascade processes such as blood coagulation.

Q46. Pepsin, protein digesting enzymes, sets best pH:

• A. 3.00
• B. 4.50
• C. 2.00✓
• D. 6.00

Explanation: Pepsin works best at a pH of around 2.00, which is highly acidic. The low pH helps denature proteins and allows pepsin to cleave peptide bonds efficiently.

Q47. The hormone which inhibits the secretion of pancreatic juice is:

• A. Secretin✓
• B. Gastrin
• C. Thyroxine
• D. Parathormone

Explanation: Pancreatic juice is produced by the walls of the duodenum, and by the action of autonomic innervation. It is regulated by the hormones secretin and cholecystokinin. Regulations includes inhibition as well as production.

Q48. Which artery supplies blood to the liver?

• A. Pulmonary artery
• B. Hepatic artery✓
• C. Celiac artery
• D. Thoracic artery

Explanation: Hepatic artery supplies blood to the liver.

Q49. A woman can be bald only when she is

• A. Homozygous dominant
• B. Heterozygous
• C. Homozygous recessive✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: Pattern baldness is a sex influenced trait. It is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait in males but as an autosomal recessive trait in females. A heterozygous male is bald but a heterozygous female is not. A woman can only be bald when she is homozygous recessive.

Q50. Which of the following does the autonomic nervous system control?

• A. Sight
• B. Thinking
• C. Digestion✓
• D. Hearing
• E. Memory

Explanation: Autonomic nervous system is the component of the peripheral nervous system that regulates involuntary physiologic processes including heart rate, blood pressure, respiration, digestion, and sexual arousal.

Q51. Which of the following is mismatched?

• A. Nervous system … reception, conduction, integration, effect
• B. Skeletal system … posture, protection, locomotion, blood cell production
• C. Epidermis … support, integration, exchange, filtration✓
• D. Gastrointestinal system … absorption, secretion, digestion, egestion

Explanation: Epidermis plays its role to protect from the external environment mainly,forming a layer to protect internal organs from the outside environment. Support,integration and exchange are not the roles of epidermis. All other options are correctly associated.

Q52. A hormone called _ controls the secretion of gastric juice.

• A. Gastrin✓
• B. Secretin
• C. Thyroxine
• D. Iodothyronine
• E. Parathormone

Explanation: Gastrin, as the name implies, controls the secretion of gastric juice. (A)Secretin stimulates secretions of the liver and pancreas. (B)Thyroxine is involved in metabolism and increasing heat production, along with other functions involving growth. (C)Iodothryonine is the scientific/chemical name for thyroxine (specifically, tetraiodothyronine and triiodothyronine). (D)Parathormone is involved in calcium homeostasis, as it increases calcium levels in the body. (E)

Q53. Muscular tube that passes through pharynx and joins stomach is:

• A. Trachea
• B. NG tube
• C. Nerve canal
• D. Esophagus✓

Explanation: Esophagus: An organ in vertebrates that consists of a muscular tube through which food passes from the pharynx to the stomach. Peristalsis: The rhythmic, wave-like contraction of both longitudinal and circular smooth muscle fibers within the digestive tract that forces food through it.

Q54. Interconversion of carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids in living cells are an example of?

• A. Coordinated catabolic activities
• B. Coordinated anabolic activities
• C. Both a and b✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: Interconversion involves both 'catabolism and anabolism'.

Q55. The number of functional parts in the forebrain are:

• A. 2
• B. 3✓
• C. 4
• D. 5

Explanation: The forebrain can be divided into three functional parts namely the thalamus, the limbic system and the cerebrum.1. Thalamus: it acts as the main relay station for your brain, all motor and sensory signals pass through this structure in the centre of the brain.2. Limbic system: This is the part of the brain involved in behavioural and emotional responses.3. Cerebrum: This is the largest part of the brain, it is divided into two hemispheres namely the cerebral hemispheres. Areas within the cerebrum control muscle function and speech along with thoughts, emotions reading, writing and learning.

Q56. The composition of brain stem is _.

• A. Spinal cord, axon, vertebra
• B. Cerebrum, cerebellum, pons
• C. Medula, pons, midbrain✓
• D. Thalamus, midbrain, pons

Explanation: This is the correct option. The correct composition of the brain stem is "Medulla, Pons, Midbrain."

Q57. What is the length of duodenum in cm?

• A. 15-20
• B. 20-25✓
• C. 21-25
• D. 30-35

Explanation: The duodenum is about 20-25 cm long.

Q58. Which of the following is a water soluble vitamin?

• A. Riboflavin
• B. Vitamin C
• C. Niacin
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: Option D is correct since Ascorbic acid (vitamin C), riboflavin, and niacin are all included in 'water-soluble vitamins'. On the other hand, vitamins A, D, E, and K are called 'fat-soluble vitamins', because they are soluble in 'organic solvents'.

Q59. Adipose cells and small intestine secrete which enzyme

• A. Maltase
• B. Proteases
• C. Amylase
• D. Lipase✓

Explanation: Lipase, any of a group of fat-splitting enzymes found in the blood, gastric juices, pancreatic secretions, intestinal juices, and adipose tissues. Lipases hydrolyze triglycerides (fats) into their component fatty acid and glycerol molecules.

Q60. Retrovirus cause diseases in:

• A. Rodents
• B. Fowls
• C. Cats
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: d) All of these:The correct answer is d) All of these. Retroviruses have been identified to cause diseases in rodents, fowls, and cats. These viruses can have varying effects on different species, but they are known to be pathogenic and can lead to various health issues.

Q61. Which change contributes to the lowering of the blood sugar level, if a person is injected with insulin?

• A. decrease in the permeability of cells to glucose
• B. decrease in the rate of absorption of glucose from the gut
• C. increase in the rate of excretion of glucose
• D. increase in the synthesis of glycogen✓

Explanation: When you take insulin, it helps to move glucose out of your bloodstream and into cells. Your cells use some of that sugar for energy and then store any leftover sugar in your fat, muscle, and liver for later. Once the sugar moves into your cells, your blood glucose level should go back to normal. If the glucose gets excreted it goes into the cell and the blood glucose level is maintained.

Q62. Actinia is the biological name of:

• A. Sea Anemone✓
• B. Corals Obelia
• C. Jellyfish
• D. Frog

Explanation: This is a fact. Actinia is the biological name of Sea Anemone. It is a Cnidarian.

Q63. Smooth muscles, cardiac muscles, and organs are regulated by which of the following?

• A. Central nervous system
• B. Parasympathetic nervous system
• C. Sympathetic nervous system
• D. Autonomic system✓

Explanation: Smooth muscles, cardiac muscles and organs are controlled by the autonomic nervous system, as they donot require conscience control and are involuntary actions. Autonomic nervous system and the somatic nervous system are part of the peripheral nervous system. The somatic nervous system controls all conscious activities, for example the movement of skeletal muscles. The autonomic nervous system allows for tight unconscious control of respiratory and heart rate and other critical systems of the body. Hence option D will be the correct option.

Q64. Which of these functions will be affected if the medulla oblongata is damaged?

• A. Thermoregulation
• B. Vision
• C. Memory
• D. Tactile sensation-response when pricked with a needle.✓

Explanation: Correct option is D. Medulla oblongata is the bottom-most part of your brain. It is present at a point where your brain and spinal cord connect, making it a key conduct for nerve signals to and from your body. It also helps control vital processes like your heartbeat, breathing and blood pressure. So if medulla is affected to all the sensations will also be affected,

Q65. The condition in which one of more genes that have no allelic counterpart is known as:

• A. Homozygous
• B. Hemizygous✓
• C. Heterozygous
• D. Incomplete dominance

Explanation: Hemizygous means having only a single copy of a gene instead of the customary two copies. All the genes on the single X chromosome in the male are hemizygous. Homozygous means having 2 identical alleles of a particular gene. Heterozygous means having 2 different alleles of a particular gene. Incomplete dominance is a form of Gene interaction in which both alleles of a gene at a locus are partially expressed, often resulting in an intermediate or different phenotype. The correct answer is, therefore, B.

Q66. When the muscle is required to contract, then calcium ions bind with which molecule and cause them to move slightly?

• A. Tropomyosin
• B. Actin
• C. Troponin✓
• D. Myosin

Explanation: Calcium is required by two proteins, troponin and tropomyosin, that regulate muscle contraction by blocking the binding of myosin to filamentous actin. In a resting sarcomere, tropomyosin blocks the binding of myosin to actin. Calcium binds to troponin, causing the conformational shift in tropomyosin that reveals myosin-binding sites on actin. ATP then binds to myosin.

Q67. The placenta releases all of the following hormones EXCEPT

• A. Progesterone
• B. LH✓
• C. HCG
• D. estrogen
• E. Minerals

Explanation: LH is made by your pituitary gland, a small gland located underneath the brain. LH plays an important role in sexual development and functioning. In women, LH helps control the menstrual cycle. It also triggers the release of an egg from the ovary. Rest is released by the placenta

Q68. All the following organs produce hormones involved in the reproductive cycle EXCEPT the

• A. Testes
• B. Pitituary
• C. Pancreas✓
• D. Ovaries
• E. Uterus

Explanation: Pancreas don't play part in reproduction Instead, the hormones secreted by the endocrine gland in the pancreas are insulin and glucagon, which regulate the level of glucose in the blood, and somatostatin, which prevents the release of insulin and glucagon.

Q69. In human female FSH regulates the concentration of

• A. Control
• B. Estrogen✓
• C. Cortisol
• D. Aldosterone
• E. None of the above

Explanation: Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) is produced by the pituitary gland in the brain. It is an important hormone for normal functioning of the reproductive system in men and women. In women, FSH helps control the menstrual cycle and the production of eggs by the ovaries. FSH stimulates growth of the granulosa cells of the ovarian follicle and controls their estrogen secretion. At the midpoint of the menstrual cycle, the increasing level of estradiol stimulates a surge of LH secretion, which then triggers ovulation.

Q70. At which two points of the menstrual cycle are the levels of oestrogen heights?

• A. Immediately before and after ovulation
• B. At ovulation and during the menstrual flow✓
• C. During the menstrual flow and pregnancy
• D. Pregnancy and after menopause

Explanation: Oestrogen levels rise during the mid-follicular phase and then drop precipitously after ovulation. This is followed by a secondary rise in oestrogen levels during the mid-luteal phase with a decrease at the end of the menstrual cycle.

Q71. Which of the following statements could not be used to describe a species?

• A. A group of organism showing distinctly similar autosomes
• B. A group of organism showing analogues body structures
• C. A group of organism capable of mating to produce viable offspring
• D. A group of organisms sharing the same ecological niche✓
• E. A group of organisms sharing unique structural and functional characteristics

Explanation: Ecological niche refers to the role that an organism plays in its environment. Two species can share the same ecological niche and still be different species. For example, two species of birds might both live in the same forest and eat the same type of fruit, but they might have different beak shapes that allow them to eat different parts of the fruit.

Q72. Alleles are:

• A. Different molecular forms of a gene✓
• B. Heterozygotes
• C. Different phenotype
• D. True breeding homozygotes

Explanation: Genes are the units of inheritance and contain the information that is required to express a particular trait in an organism. Alternating forms of a single gene that code for a pair of contrasting traits are known as alleles. For example, two alleles determine the height of pea plant (tall and dwarf).

Q73. A human female with Turner’s syndrome:

• A. Has 45 chromosomes with XO✓
• B. Has one additional X chromosome
• C. Exhibits male characters
• D. Is able to produce children with normal husband.

Explanation: A human female with Turner’s syndrome has single-sex chromosome i.e., 44 + X0 (45). Such females are called sterile females with rudimentary ovaries. Other associated phenotypes of this condition are short stature, webbed­-neck, broad chest, lack of secondary sexual characteristics, and sterility. Thus, any imbalance in the copies of the sex chromosomes may disrupt the genetic information necessary for normal sexual development.

Q74. Rod-shaped bacteria are known as:

• A. Cocci
• B. Bacilli✓
• C. Spirilla
• D. None of these

Explanation: Bacteria are classified according to their shape, or morphology. Spherical bacteria are known as cocci, rod-shaped bacteria are bacilli, and spiral-shaped bacteria are spirilla.

Q75. The bacteria can cope in unfavorable condition by producing:

• A. Mesosomes
• B. Zygospores
• C. Endospores✓
• D. Hyphae

Explanation: Numerous strategies exist in bacteria to cope with stressful conditions including the formation of endospores. An endospore is a dormant, tough, non-reproductive structure produced by a small number of bacteria from the Firmicute family. The primary function of most endospores is to ensure the survival of a bacterium through periods of environmental stress.

Q76. Vibrio cholera is an example of _ type of bacteria.

• A. Cocci
• B. Bacilli
• C. Spirilla
• D. Commas✓

Explanation: Bacteria are classified according to their shape, or morphology. Spherical bacteria are known as cocci, rod-shaped bacteria are bacilli, and spiral-shaped bacteria are spirilla, and comma shaped bacteria are known as Vibrio.

Q77. Cyanobacteria have which of the following type of cell wall?

• A. Gram-positive
• B. Gram-negative✓
• C. Cellulose
• D. Acid fast

Explanation: Cyanobacteria has a double layered Gram negative cell wall. The outerlayer is composed of cellulose and Pectic compound whereas, the inner layer is completely made of cellulose. Cyanobacteria, also known as blue-green algae, have a cell wall that is primarily composed of peptidoglycan, similar to the cell walls of many bacteria. However, the cell wall structure of cyanobacteria can be more complex and varied. They have normal Gram-negative type cell wall.

Q78. The function of a cell wall in prokaryotes is:

• A. To give cells rigidity
• B. To give specific shape
• C. To protect from osmotic lysis
• D. All of Above✓

Explanation: All prokaryotic cells have a stiff cell wall located underneath the capsule (if there is one). This structure maintains the 'cell's shape', protects the cell interior, and prevents the cell from bursting when it takes up water. Since the bacterial cell wall is 'thick and rigid', it will maintain the shape of the cell and also 'protect it from osmotic lysis' just like the cell wall of plants. Hence, the correct option is 'D'.

Q79. A structure established between the uterine and foetal tissues for the exchange of oxygen, carbon dioxide, waste, nutrients and other materials is:

• A. Amnion
• B. Placenta✓
• C. Endometrium
• D. Uterus

Explanation: The placenta is defined as temporary intimate mechanical and the physiological connection between foetus and maternal tissue for the nutrition, respiration and excretion of the foetus. Human placenta consists of chorion only. The placenta is fully formed by the end of the third month and maintains pregnancy. In the placenta, the foetal blood comes very close to the maternal blood and this permits the exchange of material between the two. Food, water, mineral salt, vitamins, hormone antibodies and oxygen pass from the maternal blood into the foetal blood, and foetal metabolic waste, such as carbon dioxide, and urea, also water and hormones, pass into the maternal blood.

Q80. Special structures for the absorption of digested food in the small intestine are called:

• A. Alveoli
• B. Tubules
• C. Mucous glands
• D. Villi✓
• E. Peristalsis

Explanation: The folds form numerous tiny projections which stick out into the open space inside your small intestine (or lumen), and are covered with cells that help absorb nutrients from the food that passes through. Microvilli: The cells on the villi are packed full of tiny hairlike structures called microvilli.

Q81. A nerve cell that transmits impulses from a sense organ to the nervous system is known as a(n):

• A. Sensory neuron✓
• B. Motor neuron
• C. Interneuron
• D. Plexus
• E. Ganglion

Explanation: Sensory neurons transmit nerve impulses from sense organs (eyes, ears, nose, tongue and touch) to the brain. They also carry nerve impulses to the brain and spinal cord.

Q82. Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?

• A. Down’s syndrome
• B. Jaundice✓
• C. Klinefelter’s syndrome
• D. Sex of the foetus

Explanation: Amniocentesis is a foetal sex determination test in which amniotic fluid containing foetal cells which surrounds the developing embryo is extracted and cells are tested for chromosomal pattern to identify genetic disorders, if any. Jaundice is not a chromosomal disorder thus cannot be tested by amniocentesis.

Q83. If two persons with ‘AB’ blood group marry and have sufficiently large number of children, these children could be classified as ‘A’ blood group: ‘AB’ blood group: ‘B’ blood group in 1 : 2 : 1 ratio. The modern technique of protein electrophoresis reveals the presence of both ‘A’ and ‘B’ type proteins in ‘AB’ blood group individuals. This is an example of

• A. Partial dominance
• B. Complete dominance
• C. Codominance✓
• D. Incomplete dominance

Explanation: The phenomenon of expression of both the alleles in a heterozygote is called codominance. The alleles which do not show dominance­recessive relationship and are able to express themselves independently when present together are called codominant alleles. As a result, the heterozygous condition has a phenotype different from either of homozygous genotypes, e.g., alleles for blood group A (IA) and for blood group B (IB) are codominant so that when they come together in an individual, they produce blood group AB.

Q84. Which factor cannot denature the protein

• A. pH change
• B. Increase of temperature
• C. Oxidizing condition
• D. Dissolving in H2O✓

Explanation: The deformation or disruption of protein structure under specific conditions is called denaturation of proteins. Denaturation Occurs by Heat change PH change Undcebrasutgroeng oxidizing or reducing conditions.

Q85. What assumptions are made in the Kinetic Theory about an ideal gas? There are no forces of attraction between molecules the molecules are in a state of continuous random motion the size of the molecule is negligible

• A. I ONLY
• B. II ONLY
• C. I AND II ONLY
• D. II AND III ONLY
• E. I, II, III✓

Explanation: According to Kinetic Molecular Theory , there are no attractive forces between the molecules of a gas because the distance between them is very large. The gaseous molecules are in continuous random, zigzag motion called Brownian motion. Gaseous molecules have negligible sizes as compared to liquids and solids. As all the three statements are true hence , option E is the correct answer.

Q86. The bond, which is based on attractive forces between oppositely charged ions, is:

• A. Covalent bond
• B. Dative bond
• C. Ionic bond✓
• D. Metallic bond

Explanation: An Ionic bond, also called an electrovalent bond, type of linkage formed from the electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions in a chemical compound. Such a bond forms when the valence (outermost) electrons of one atom are transferred permanently to another atom.

Q87. Which one of the following has the highest lattice energy?

• A. NaCl
• B. KCl
• C. KBr
• D. LiCl✓

Explanation: The lattice energy is the enthalpy change involved in the formation of an ionic compound from gaseous ions. The lattice energy is directly proportional to the charge of the ions, but inversely proportional to the radii of the ions. As we go down in the group, I and VII, in this case, the ionic radius increases, while the charge is constant. Therefore, the lattice energy of the compounds decreases. The order of increasing radius (decreasing lattice energy) for cations: Li> Na> K The order of increasing radius (decreasing lattice energy) for anions: F> Cl> Br Hence the compound lithium chloride will have the greatest lattice energy as both the ions have the smallest radius. Note. From left to right, as the charge on the ion increases, the lattice energy increases.

Q88. The oxidation potential standard hydrogen electrode is arbitrarily taken as:

• A. -0.76 volts
• B. 0.00 vols✓
• C. +1.5 volts
• D. 1.0 vots

Explanation: Hydrogen has an oxidation potential of 0.

Q89. If a graph is plotted between pressure on x- axis and volume on y- axis for Boyle's law verification, the curve obtained is called

• A. pseudotherm
• B. isotherm✓
• C. biotherm
• D. all of these

Explanation: If a graph is outlined in between pressure on the x-axis (abscissa) and volume on the y-axis (ordinate), then a curve is obtained. This curve is called isotherm 'iso' implies the same, “therm” implies heat.

Q90. The given diagram shows the enthalpy changes during a chemical reaction.

• A. An endothermic reaction
• B. An exothermic reaction✓
• C. An isothermic process
• D. A non-spontaneous process

Explanation: This diagram shows a reaction in which the reactants are at a greater energy level than the products, indicating that energy is released during the reaction, i.e. change in enthalpy or (H2-H1) would be negative, indicating that it is an exothermic reaction so, option B is correct. Option A describes an endothermic reaction which would have a diagram depicting products, at a higher energy level than the reactants. Option C indicates a process in which the heat energy of the system does not change, but the diagram itself shows a change in enthalpy. Option D cannot be determined from a mere energy diagram as shown.

Q91. When 2 - bromopropane is heated with concentrated alcoholic potassium hydroxide, the major product is:

• A. Propene✓
• B. Propan-1-ol
• C. Propan-2-ol
• D. Potassium Propoxide

Explanation: In the elimination reaction, 2-BromoPropane reacts with KOH to give Propene as a main product, with the Bromine eliminated and double bonds formed in its stead.

Q92. The haloform test is given by all of the following, except;

• A. Formaldehyde✓
• B. Acetaldeyde
• C. Acetone
• D. Alpha-phenylethyl alcohol
• E. B, C and D

Explanation: Substrates that successfully undergo the haloform reaction are methyl ketones and secondary alcohols oxidizable to methyl ketones, such as isopropanol. The only primary alcohol and aldehyde to undergo this reaction are ethanol and ethanal, respectively.

Q93. Select from the following the one, which is alcohol:

• A. CH3 - CH2 - OH✓
• B. CH3 - O - CH3
• C. CH3COOH
• D. CH3 - CH2 - Br

Explanation: An alcohol is an organic compound with a hydroxyl (OH) functional group on an aliphatic carbon atom. Because OH is the functional group of all alcohols, we often represent alcohols by the general formula ROH, where R is an alkyl group

Q94. Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing reactivity towards the addition of HCN. Acetone(I) , Acetaldehyde (II) , methy t-butyl ketone (III) , di-t-butyl ketone (IV)

• A. IV < I < II < III
• B. II<I<III<IV
• C. IV < III < I < II✓
• D. II < I < IV < III

Explanation: . . .To arrange the compounds in order of increasing reactivity towards the addition of HCN, follow this order: Acetaldehyde (II) < Acetone (I) < methyl t-butyl ketone (III) < di-t-butyl ketone (IV). The decreasing reactivity towards the addition of HCN is from left to right in this sequence.

Q95. Enzyme used for the treatment of blood cancer in children is

• A. Cellulose
• B. Urease
• C. L-asperginase✓
• D. Lactic dehydrogenase

Explanation: L-asparaginase has proved very useful in the treatment of blood cancer in children.

Q96. The number of sigma and pi bonds in 1-butene-3-yne?

• A. 5 sigma and 5 pi
• B. 7 sigma and 3 pi✓
• C. 8 sigma and 2 pi
• D. 6 sigma and 4 pi

Explanation: The number of sigma and pi-bonds in 1-butene 3-yne are 7 sigma and 3 pi. It has one C=C double bond which contains one pi bond. It has one C≡C triple bond which contains two pi bonds. It has 3 carbon carbon sigma bonds and 4 C−H pi bonds.

Q97. Which of the following Halogens molecules has maximum bond energy?

• A. F-F
• B. Cl-Cl✓
• C. Br-Br
• D. I-I

Explanation: Bond energy( B.E ) is a measure of the bond strength of a chemical bond, and is the amount of energy needed to break the atoms involved in a molecular bond into free atoms. B.E. depends on the atomic radius. Going down the group, in halogens, the bond energy decreases. It is because down the group the distance between the outermost electrons and nucleus decreases, decreasing the force of attraction between them. There is an exception in the halogen group which is of fluorine. This is because the atomic radius of fluorine atoms is so small that when two fluorine atoms form an F-F bond, the internuclear repulsive forces between them reduces the bond strength and thus the bond energy. That is why despite being on the top-most position, fluorine has lower bond energy. Where Chlorine is having the least radius thus, its B.E is the highest among all the members of its group.

Q98. Which alkaline earth metal form peroxides?

• A. Ba✓
• B. Be
• C. Mg
• D. Ca

Explanation: The alkaline earth metals burn in oxygen to produce oxides or in the case of barium, peroxide. It is the most reactive among the other members of group II. When barium is heated in air or oxygen at 500-600°C, its peroxide is formed according to the equation:Ba (s) + O2 (g) —----------------> BaO2 (s)Therefore the correct answer is option A. The rest of the elements form normal oxides, therefore B,C and D are incorrect, as per the following equations:Be + O2 —-------------> BeO (occurs at about 800°C since Be is the least reactive)Mg + O2 —-------------> MgO (this MgO coats the surface and prevents further corrosion)Ca + O2 —--------------> CaO

Q99. The process in which electric current is used to carry out a non-spontaneous redox reaction is called:

• A. Electrolyte
• B. Electrolysis✓
• C. Metallic conductor
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Electrolysis is a process by which an electric current is passed through a substance to effect a chemical change. A chemical change is one in which the substance loses or gains an electron (oxidation or reduction).

Q100. Which one among the following is the strongest reducing agent: Fe2+ + 2e -> Fe (-0.44V) Sn2+ + 2e -> Sn (-0.14 V) Ni2+ + 2e -> Ni (0.25 V) Fe3+ + e -> Fe2+ (-0.77 V)

• A. Fe3+✓
• B. Ni
• C. Fe2+
• D. Sn

Explanation: The species with the lowest electrode potential is the strongest reducing agent i.e. Fe3+

Q101. The solubility product of AgCl is 2.0x10-10 mol-2 dm-6. The maximum concentration of Ag+1 ions in the solution is:

• A. 2.0x10-12 mol dm-3
• B. 1.41x 10-5 mol dm-3✓
• C. 1.0x10-12 mol dm-3
• D. 2.5x10-10 mol dm-3

Explanation: To find out the concentration, We know that solubility product is 2 x 10-10 so, AgCl = (Ag+2) (Cl-) 2 x 10-10 = (x) (x) 2 x 10-10 = x2 X = 1.4 x 10-5

Q102. In an exothermic reaction (reversible), which of the following has a positive value?

• A. Enthalpy
• B. Entropy
• C. Gibb's free energy✓
• D. None of these options are correct

Explanation: In an exothermic reversible reaction, the change in Gibbs free energy (ΔG) can have a positive value at lower temperatures due to the balance between the negative change in enthalpy (ΔH) and the positive change in entropy (ΔS). This positive ΔG indicates that the reaction is nonspontaneous under those conditions. The sign of ΔG depends on the interplay between ΔH, ΔS, and temperature, and it determines whether a reaction is spontaneous or nonspontaneous.

Q103. For a single step reaction A+B ---> 2C, the rate law is:

• A. Rate = k
• B. Rate = k [A] [B]✓
• C. Rate = k [A]
• D. Rate = k [B]

Explanation: This is the incorrect option as rate laws or rate equations are mathematical expressions that describe the relationship between the rate of a chemical reaction and the concentration of its reactants. For single step reactant, both reactants are written in rate equation.

Q104. When NH3 gas is exposed to HCl, white fumes are formed which are chemically:

• A. NH4+
• B. NH4Cl✓
• C. HCl fumes
• D. Cl

Explanation: b) NH4Cl:NH4Cl is the correct chemical formula for ammonium chloride. When NH3 gas reacts with HCl gas, it forms ammonium chloride (NH4Cl), which is a white solid. The white fumes observed in this reaction are attributed to the formation of NH4Cl.

Q105. How many chain isomer can be obtained from alkane C6H14 :

• A. 7
• B. 6
• C. 5✓
• D. 4

Explanation: Hexane (C6H14) has five possible isomers. The isomers are as follows;- Hexane, CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3, a six carbon containing, saturated straight chain alkane. - 2-Methylpentane (Isohexane), CH3CH(CH3)CH2CH2CH3, which is a five carbon containing chain with one methyl branch on the carbon number 2.- 3-Methylpentane, CH3CH2CH(CH2)CH2CH3, is also a five-carbon chain, however the methyl group is attached on Carbon number 3.- 2,3-Dimethylbutane, CH3CH(CH3)CH(CH3)CH3, is a four-carbon -containing chain with a methyl group on carbon number 2 and 3.- 2,2-Dimethylbutane (neohexane), CH3C(CH3)2CH2CH3, is a four-carbon chain with two methyl groups attached on carbon number two.

Q106. At 100 C, 0.1 mole of N2O4 is heated in a one dm3 flask. At equilibrium concentration of NO2 was found to be 0.12 moles. Calculate Kc for the reaction.

• A. 0.36✓
• B. 0.50
• C. 0.083
• D. 0.91
• E. 1

Explanation: N2O4 DECOMPOSES AS FOLLOWS N2O4(g)⇌2NO2(g) Kc=[NO2]² /[N204] Concentration of P=0.12moles (NO2) Concentration of R=0.1 moles (N204) Kc=(0.12)²/(0.1)

Q107. hich of the following halosubstituted carboxylic acids is the strongest acid?

• A. FCH2COOH✓
• B. CICH2COOH
• C. BrCH2COOH
• D. ICH2COOH

Explanation: Explanation for this question will be added soon!

Q108. What is the temperature at which the volume of gas is said to be zero?

• A. 0°C
• B. 4°C
• C. -273.16˚C✓
• D. -173.16 ˚C

Explanation: This point, with a temperature of –273.15 ˚C, is the theoretical point where the samples would have “zero volume”. This temperature, -273.15 ˚C, is called absolute zero.

Q109. Reaction of water with quicklime results in the rise in the temperature of the system. Using the concept of an energy change, indicates the nature of the reaction?

• A. Endothermic Reaction
• B. Non-Spontaneous Reaction
• C. Third Order Reaction
• D. Exothermic Reaction✓

Explanation: Calcium oxide reacts with water to form calcium hydroxide, also called slaked lime. Here are the for this reaction: Calcium oxide + water → calcium hydroxide CaO+H2O → Ca(OH)2 A lot of heat is produced in the reaction, which may even cause the water to boil. Hence it is a combination reaction as well as exothermic reaction.

Q110. Carboxylic acids are formed by the hydrolysis of _.

• A. Ester & Nitriles✓
• B. Nitriles and Amines
• C. Alkenes and Alkynes
• D. Esters and Alcohols

Explanation: Ester hydrolysis is a reaction that breaks an ester bond with a molecule of water or a hydroxide ion to form a carboxylic acid and an alcohol. Nitriles can be hydrolyzed to carboxylic acids in acidic aqueous solutions.

Q111. Heat of solution for NaCl is ?

• A. High
• B. Low✓
• C. Zero
• D. One

Explanation: The heat of the solution for NaCl is low. When NaCl dissolves in water then the enthalpy of the solution decreases and the reaction of NaCl with water is endothermic so, heat has to be added to the solution. Thus NaCl solution possesses low heat than normal water. OPTIONS A, C & D are incorrect.

Q112. Which one of the following free radical is most stable:

• A. CH3+
• B. (CH3)2CH+
• C. (CH3)3C+✓
• D. C2H5+

Explanation: Option A and D are incorrect as they are primary free radicals. Option B is incorrect as its basically a secondary free radical. Option C is correct as it is a tertiary free radical. Order of stability is: Primary radical < Secondary radical < Tertiary radical.

Q113. Formalin is an aqueous solution of:

• A. Formic acid
• B. Formaldehyde✓
• C. Furfuraldehyde
• D. Acetone

Explanation: Hence only option A as Formalin is a water-based saturated solution of formaldehyde gas. It contains about 40% formaldehyde gas (by volume) or 37% formaldehyde gas (by weight), as well as a small amount of stabilizer. The general stabilizer, in this case, is 10-12% methanol, which helps to avoid formaldehyde polymerization. Formaldehyde solution is very unstable without a stabilizer, and it appears to polymerize, forming insoluble macromolecules. Methylene glycol is the main product of the complete hydration of formaldehyde gas. Polymerization results in the development of paraformaldehyde as a result.

Q114. How many isomers are possible for the compound having molecular having molecular formula C3H5Br

• A. 5✓
• B. 4
• C. 6
• D. 8

Explanation: C3H5Br3 has 5 possible isomers. It is a value that must be memorised.

Q115. The Unit cell with crystallographic dimensions a = b ≠ c , α = β = γ = 90 degrees is:

• A. Cubic
• B. Tetragonal✓
• C. Monoclinic
• D. Hexagonal

Explanation: a = b ≠ c , α = β = γ = 90 degrees is for tetragonal crystallographic structures.

Q116. How many balloons of capacity 0.25dm3 at 1atm pressure can be filled from a hydrogen gas cylinder of 5dm3 capacity at 10 atm?

• A. 50
• B. 90
• C. 180
• D. 200✓

Explanation: We will use Boyle's law for the relationship between volume and pressure. PV = k Where : P = Pressure V = Volume k = Constant Lets get PV for each : Balloon : 0.25 × 1 = 0.25...... k₁ Gas cylinder : 5 × 10 = 50......... k₂ To get the number n of the balloons the cylinder can supply we get : k₂ / k₁ = n 50 / 0.25 = 200 The answer is 200 balloons.

Q117. In the reaction; H2 + CO2 <-> H2O + CO The decrease in the concentration of reactants and products cause the equilibrium to shift:

• A. Towards left
• B. Towards right
• C. Nothing happens to the equilibrium✓
• D. Equilibrium will shift towards both the directions

Explanation: The decrease in the concentration of either side of the reaction equation favors that very side of the equation. However, if both sides (the reactants and the products) show a decrease in concentration, this will render no change to the equilibrium.

Q118. At the transition temperature of a crystalline solid, the substance exists:

• A. In most stable geometric form
• B. Solid and liquid state
• C. In dynamic equilibrium between two crystalline forms✓
• D. In one solid geometrical form only

Explanation: Option C is correct because, from the thermodynamic standpoint, the transition temperature can be characterized by the temperature, T0, at which two crystalline phases can coexist.

Q119. The halogen acid with the highest reducing power is:

• A. HF
• B. HI✓
• C. HBr
• D. HCl

Explanation: Reducing power refers to the ability of a substance to reduce another substance by donating electrons. The halogen acids, HF, HCl, HBr, and HI, can all act as reducing agents, but the strength of their reducing power increases as we move down the group. Hence, HI is the halogen acid with the highest reducing power.

Q120. A solution of Sodium Sulphate was electrolyzed using platinum electrode, the products at the anode and cathode respectively are:

• A. O2, H2✓
• B. O2 ,Na
• C. O2, SO
• D. O2, S2O4-2

Explanation: Explanation: This question can be solved by recalling the order of electrochemical series:From this, it can be seen that H+ will be discharged in preference to Na+ at cathode as H2 and OH- will be discharged in preference to (S04)2- at anode as O2.

Q121. The shape of sulphate ion is:

• A. Hexagonal
• B. Square planar
• C. Trigonal bipyramidal
• D. Tetrahedral✓

Explanation: The structure of Sulphate ion is tetrahedral, as given below;

Q122. In intense electric fields and at a very high temperature, the matter generally exists in:

• A. Plasma state✓
• B. Liquid state
• C. Solid state
• D. Super condensed state

Explanation: Plasma is the fourth state of matter. Matter turns into plasma due to its hyper ionized state, which makes it so electrically conductive that its behavior is dominated by high range electrical and magnetic fields.

Q123. A student makes measurements from which she calculated the speed of sound as 321 ms^-1 . She estimates that the result is accurate to +3% or -3% . Which of the following give results expressed to the appropriate number of significant figures?

• A. 327 ms^-1
• B. 328 ms^-1
• C. 330 ms^-1✓
• D. 300 ms^-1

Explanation: Since all options are greater than the measured value of 321m/s the answer lies in the +3% accuracy . 3/100 x 321 = 9.63 321+9.63 = 330.63 which will be rounded to 3 significant figures as our measured value is also in 3 sig fig. answer=330m/s

Q124. In addition of HCI to CH3CH=CH2, which one will be added first:

• A. CI+
• B. CI-1
• C. H+✓
• D. H∘

Explanation: In case of alkenes, the addition is started by the attack of electrophale.

Q125. Baeyer's reagent is used in the laboratory for

• A. Reduction
• B. Oxidation
• C. Detection of double bond✓
• D. Detection of glucose

Explanation: Alkaline KMnO4 is called Baeyer's reagent which is used in the laboratory for the detection of double bond.

Q126. All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:

• A. Introduction of R-group in the benzene ring in the presence of AlCl3 is called alkylation
• B. Introduction of acyl group in the benzene ring in the presence of AlCl3 is called acylation
• C. Benzene cannot undergo polymerization
• D. Ozonolysis of benzene results in the formation of (COOH)2✓

Explanation: "Ozonolysis of benzene results in the formation of (COOH)2" is not the correct statement as ozonolysis of benzene produces glyoxal as an ultimate product.

Q127. Which of the following catalysts is used in the below reaction?

• A. Conc. H2SO4✓
• B. Purnice stone
• C. Pt
• D. Ni

Explanation: Esterification process is a slow process when it is performed at room temperature also the process does not complete at all in the room temperature. So to complete the process of esterification there should be something to complete the process as well as to speed up the process. Thus concentrated sulphuric acid is added. It is a catalyst which will speed up the process and esterification will proceed speedily and complete on time. Also concentrated sulphuric acid has a property to remove water. Therefore it also acts as a dehydrating agent. After adding this will take reaction in the equilibrium position and will be able to give a greater yield of ester as result.

Q128. The alkali metals group lies in the _.

• A. d-block
• B. s-block✓
• C. f-block
• D. p-block

Explanation: The s-block in the periodic table of elements occupies the alkali metals and alkaline earth metals, also known as groups 1 and 2. Helium is also part of the s-block. The principal quantum number “n” fills the s orbital. There is a maximum of two electrons that can occupy the s orbital. A) d-block, C) f-block, and D) p-block are not the correct answers as the d-block consists of transition metals, the f-block consists of inner transition metals, and the p-block includes non-metals, metalloids, and some metals.

Q129. What is Le Chatelier Principle about?

• A. Reaction Mixture
• B. Reactants
• C. Equilibrium Mixture✓
• D. Products

Explanation: Option C is correct since Le Chatelier’s principle is an observation about the chemical equilibria of reactions. It states that changes in the temperature, pressure, volume, or concentration of a system will result in predictable and opposing changes in the system to achieve a new equilibrium state.

Q130. Among the alkyl halides, which always follows SN2 mechanism:

• A. Primary alkyl halides✓
• B. Secondary alkyl halides
• C. Tertiary alkyl halides
• D. Both Secondary & Tertiary alkyl halides

Explanation: Since primary alkyl halide is least sterically hindered among primary, secondary and tertiary alkyl halides therefore primary alkyl halides undergo SN2 reaction.

Q131. Compound in which addition takes place through Markovnikov’s rule is:

• A. C𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶H3
• B. C𝐻3 − 𝐶(𝐶𝐻3) = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻3✓
• C. C2𝐻5 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻3
• D. C𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶3𝐻7

Explanation: Markovnikov Rule predicts the regiochemistry of HX addition to unsymmetrically substituted alkenes. The halide component of HX bonds preferentially at the more highly substituted carbon, whereas the hydrogen prefers the carbon which already contains more hydrogens.

Q132. In addition to water, which of the following could be found during the incomplete combustion of a hydrocarbon?

• A. Carbon, carbon monoxide and hydrogen
• B. Carbon and oxygen
• C. Carbon monoxide and hydrogen
• D. Carbon and carbon monoxide and water✓

Explanation: By the complete combustion of hydrocarbons, we get carbon dioxide and water. Eg; C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O For the complete combustion, we need 5 moles of O2 as per the balanced chemical equation, in order to gain water and carbon dioxide. An incomplete combustion, however, occurs when oxygen is the limiting reagant, therefore its products formed are different than those of a complete combustion. C3H8 + 4O2 → 2CO + CO2 + 4H2O Thus producing carbon monoxide. If the oxygen supply is even more limited, then it will produce Carbon soot as a product.

Q133. What is the colour of iodine in the non polar solvent, cyclohexane?

• A. Black
• B. Brown
• C. Purple✓
• D. Yellow

Explanation: Iodine gives a purple color in organic solvents.

Q134. The reaction CH3COOAg + Br2 → CH3 Br + CO2 + AgBr is known as

• A. Reformatshky reaction
• B. Hunsdicker reaction✓
• C. Decarboxylati
• D. Hell- Vollhard- Zellinsky reaction

Explanation: Hunsdicker reaction, the silver salt of a carboxylic acid produces Alkyl halide on heating with Bromine.

Q135. Amongst the following ions whish has the highest paramagnetism?

• A. [Cr(H2O) 6] 3+]
• B. [Fe(H2O) 6] 2+]✓
• C. [Cu(H2O) 6] 2+]
• D. [Zn(H2O) 6] 2+]

Explanation: [Fe(H2O)6]2+ has the maximum number of unpaired electrons; therefore, the highest degree of paramagnetism.

Q136. Which of the following alkyl halides will undergo SN1 reaction most readily?

• A. (CH3)3 - F
• B. (CH3)3 - Cl
• C. (CH3)3 - Br
• D. (CH3)3 - I✓

Explanation: All options given are alkyl halide (tertiary) so all will form tertiary carbocation. But order of leaving group ability Is I− > Br− > Cl− > F− SN1 mechanism goes through formation of carbocation. More easily leaving group leaves more easily the carbocation will form. Option D is correct.

Q137. A metal sulphate contains 9.87% of M. This sulphate is isomorphous with ZnSO4, 7H2O. Determine the atomic weight of metal M.

• A. 24.31✓
• B. 34.31
• C. 25.25
• D. 44.41
• E. 50.75

Explanation: Let x be the molar mass of M.Molar mass of M = 100 / 9.87 * xMolar mass of Zn = 65.38 g/molSince they are isomorphous, equate the molar masses:100 / 9.87 * x = 65.38Solve for x:x = 65.38 * 9.87 / 100x = 6.46 g/molThe molar mass of M is 6.46 g/mol, but it is a metal, so the atomic mass is approximately 24.31 g/mol.

Q138. Which one is the bigger unit of work?

• A. 10 watt hour
• B. 10 electron volt
• C. electron volt
• D. kilo watt hour✓

Explanation: 10 Wh = 10×3600 Ws = 3.6 ×103J10 eV = 10×1.6×10-19 J = 1.6×10-18 J1 kWh = 3.6×106JClearly, kWh is bigger unit than other units given in options

Q139. Force F on a particle moving in a straight line varies with distance d as shown in the figure. The work done on the particle during its displacement of 12m is

• A. 13 J
• B. 26 J
• C. 18 J✓
• D. 21 J

Explanation: .

Q140. Two bodies with kinetic energies in the ratio 4 1 are moving with equal linear momentum. The ratio of their masses is:

• A. 1:2
• B. 1:4✓
• C. 1:1
• D. 4:1

Explanation: The explanation of this question will be added soon.

Q141. A car 500 kg is travelling at a constant speed of 9 m/s round a curve of 100m. What is the centripetal force?

• A. 205N
• B. 305N
• C. 405N✓
• D. 505N

Explanation: F = Mv2 / R F = 500× 9×9 / 100 F = 405 N

Q142. A longitudinal standing wave, in second harmonic mode, is established in a tube that is open at both ends. The length of the tube is 0.80 m. What is the wavelength of the waves that make up the standing wave?

• A. 0.20 m
• B. 0.40 m
• C. 0.80 m✓
• D. 1.60 m

Explanation: Option C is correct since according to the formula for standing waves in an open pipe, the fundamental frequency is : v/2L. For the second harmonic, the frequency is 2v/2L. Let’s calculate the wavelength of the waves according to the formula given in the image. As the length of the tube is 0.80m, there will be three antinodes and 2 nodes. Since L= (2 * lambda )/2, so L= lambda. So 0.80m is the wavelength of the waves. Option A is incorrect since it states 0.20m which corresponds to a quarter of a wavelength. Option B is incorrect since it states 0.40m which corresponds to half a wavelength. Option D is incorrect since it states 1.60m which corresponds to double wavelength.

Q143. What is the phase difference between the center of compression and the center of rarefaction in longitudinal wave?

• A. 0 deg
• B. 45 deg
• C. 90 deg
• D. 180 deg✓

Explanation: Option D is correct since the phase difference value ranges from 0 to 2π radians. We know that the phase difference between the two successive compressions of rarefaction is 2π. As rarefaction appears between the two compressions, the phase difference is π, 180 degrees.

Q144. A stationary wave is formed in a pipe which is open at both ends. If length of pipe is 10 cm, then what is the maximum possible wavelength of the wave?

• A. 20 cm✓
• B. 5 cm
• C. 10 cm
• D. 30 cm

Explanation: Let the wavelength of the wave be 'λ' and the length of the open pipe be 'l'.So, length of pipe = λ/4 + λ/4⇒ l = λ/2; As the diagram shows.⇒ λ = 2lSince the length of the pipe is 10 cm;therefore, the maximum wavelength of the pipe is;2 × 10 = 20cm.

Q145. Projectile is thrown in such a way that its maximum height equals to its range, the angle of projection is

• A. Tan-1 (45)
• B. Tan-1 (60)
• C. Tan 1 (30)
• D. None✓

Explanation: If the angle of projection is 75.96∘ the maximum height is equal to the horizontal range.

Q146. The range of projectile is the same for two angles which are mutually:

• A. Perpendicular
• B. Supplementary
• C. Complementary✓
• D. 270̇°

Explanation: The range of projectiles is the same for two angles which are mutually complementary. There are 2 angles of projection for which the horizontal range should be the same. Normally the projectile is fired at 60° above the horizontal line with an initial velocity v0.

Q147. If Cv = 2.5 R, Cp = ?

• A. 0.4 R
• B. 2R/7
• C. 2.5 R
• D. 3.5 R✓

Explanation: R = Cp-CvSo, Cp = R + 2.5 RCp = 3.5 R

Q148. Two plates are at potentials 20V and -20V respectively with a separation of 2cm between them. The electric field between them is:

• A. 2000 V/m✓
• B. 1000 V/m
• C. 500 V/m
• D. 300 V/m

Explanation: E=V/d (Note: distance should be in meters. So 2cm = 0.02m) 20-(-20)/0.02 = 2000 V/m

Q149. In rotator motion angular momentum plays a role which is analogous to that played by _ in linear motion.

• A. Linear velocity
• B. Linear momentum✓
• C. Linear acceleration
• D. Inertia

Explanation: The rotational momentum and "linear momentum both form the same function in a body, they are responsible for keeping the body moving in the direction it is moving, and both quantity the amount of motion (translational tor linear momentum and rotational tor angular momentum) present in the body.moment of inertia in an analogue to mass in rotational motion.If we want to feel inertia in linear motion we examine the linear acceleration of mass produced by a given force. If acceleration for a given force is more we say that the body has less inertia. If the same force produces less acceleration in another mass then the inertia of the second body for linear motion is large compared to the first body.The expression for this fact is F/m=a. So, mass is the measure of inertia to linear motion.

Q150. A fuse can be saviour against:

• A. High voltage
• B. High current✓
• C. High power
• D. Heating of wires

Explanation: To protect a high-voltage circuit, you need a properly rated fuse. Here are five popular examples for consideration in your next design. A fuse is simple in concept: Current flows through a thin metal wire, and when that current gets too high, the metal heats and melts, breaking the circuit

Q151. The special theory of relativity is based upon I) The laws of physics are same in all inertial frame II) The speed of light in free space has the same value for all observers, regardless of their state of motion

• A. I only
• B. II only
• C. I and II only✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Einstein's special theory of relativity states that the same laws of physics hold true in all inertial reference frames and that the speed of light is the same for all observers, even those moving with respect to one another

Q152. Identify the main type(s) of nuclear reactors

• A. Slow reactors
• B. Fast reactors
• C. Thermal reactors
• D. Both Slow and Fast reactors✓

Explanation: In thermal reactors, moderator is used to slow down the prompt neutrons to continue chain reaction with low enriched fuel; while in fast reactors, prompt neutrons are directly used to continue chain reaction with high enriched fuel.

Q153. A force of 1500 N is acting horizontally on a vehicle of mass 200 kg and the vehicle starts its motion from rest. What will be the speed of the vehicle when it covers a distance of 30 m?:

• A. 17 m s-1
• B. 21 m s-1✓
• C. 25 m s-1
• D. 10 m s-1

Explanation: Explanation is given below.

Q154. A 1000 kg vehicle is turning around a corner at 10 m/s as it travels along an arc of a circle. If the radius of the circular path is 10 m, how large a force must be exerted by the pavement on the tires to hold the vehicle in the circular path?

• A. 1.0 x 104 N✓
• B. 3.0 x 104 N
• C. 5.0 x 104 N
• D. 7.0 x 104 N
• E. 9.0 x 104 N

Explanation: Given: m=1000kgV=10m/s Find: F(centripetal force)=? Formula=F=mv2/r F=1000×102/10F=10000~1×104N

Q155. One complete circle is equal to:

• A. 2 radian
• B. 3 radian
• C. 5 radian
• D. 6.28 radian✓

Explanation: One complete circle is approximately equal to 6.28 radii and is exactly equal to 2 ℼ radii.

Q156. A current of 16 amperes divides between two branches in parallel of resistances 8 ohms and 12 ohms respectively. The current in each branch is:

• A. 6.4 a, 6.9 a
• B. 6.4 a, 9.6 a✓
• C. 4.6 a, 6.9 a
• D. 4.6 a, 9.6 a

Explanation: To calculate the current in each branch, we first need to calculate the total resistance of the circuit. The formula for the total resistance of two resistors in parallel is: 1/Rtotal = 1/R1 + 1/R2 where R1 and R2 are the resistances of the two branches. Plugging in the values, we get: 1/Rtotal = 1/8 ohm + 1/12 ohm 1/Rtotal = 5/24 ohm Rtotal = 24/5 ohm Now that we know the total resistance of the circuit, we can use Ohm's Law to calculate the voltage across the branches: V = I x Rtotal V = 16 A x 24/5 ohm V = 76.8 V Now we can use the formula I = V/R to calculate the current in each branch: For the 8-ohm branch: I = V / R I = 76.8 V / 8 ohm I = 9.6 A For the 12 ohm branch: I = V / R I = 76.8 V / 12 ohm I = 6.4 A Therefore, the current in the 8-ohm branch is 9.6 amperes, and the current in the 12-ohm branch is 6.4 amperes.

Q157. A current of 5 Amperes flows in a resistor of 2 Ohms. Calculate the energy dissipated in 300 seconds in the resistor:

• A. 5 KJ
• B. l0 KJ
• C. 15 KJ✓
• D. 20 KJ

Explanation: Given that,Current = I = 5AResistor = R = 2ΩTime taken = 300 secUsing the Power Dissipation formula,P = I²RP = (5)²(2) = 50W, Since electric power is the rate of transfer of electrical energy in an electric circuit per unit time,P = E/tMaking energy the subject, E = PxtE = PxtE = 50x300E = 15,000JE = 15kJ

Q158. The projectile motion of an object on earth is always _.

• A. Linear
• B. Parabolic✓
• C. Cubic
• D. Inverse

Explanation: A projectile’s motion is parabolic because it is affected by gravity. Gravity causes the projectile to fall in a curved path, rather than a straight line. The equation for projectile motion takes into account the force of gravity, which is why the path of a projectile is always a parabola.

Q159. Which ion represents alpha particles?

• A. H+
• B. C+
• C. Na+
• D. He+✓

Explanation: Option D is correct since an alpha particle is obtained by removing 2 electrons from a helium atom. So, an alpha particle is a doubly - charged helium ion.

Q160. Projectile motion has _acceleration at each point of trajectory.

• A. Variable
• B. Constant✓
• C. Zero
• D. None of these

Explanation: Option B is correct since the horizontal velocity of a projectile is constant (a never changing in value). There is a vertical acceleration caused by gravity; its value is 9.8 ms-2, down; the vertical velocity of a projectile changes by 9.8 m/s each second.

Q161. When the length of a simple pendulum is doubled, find the ratio of the new frequency to the old frequency?

• A. 1/4
• B. 1/2
• C. √2
• D. 1/√2✓

Explanation: ‘T’ the period of a pendulum is given byT= 2π√ (l/g)Where,l is the length of the pendulumg is the acceleration due to gravity,Frequency ‘f’ is given as,f= 1/T = 1/2π √ (g/l)If we square on both sides,f2=[ 1/2π √ (g/l)]2f2= 1/4π . (g/l)Since in the given question l is now 2l hence l=2lThen, the new frequency will bef12= 1/4π . (g/2l)By dividing the squares of the new frequencies and original f12/f2f12/f2= [1/4π . (g/2l)] ÷ [1/4π . (g/l)]f1/f = 1 / √ 2

Q162. In medical diagnosis for precise internal imaging of brain, _ radiographs are used.

• A. X-ray✓
• B. Beta-ray
• C. Gamma-ray
• D. Alpha-ray

Explanation: For internal imaging of braina X-Ray radiographs are used. Some examples include use of X-rays in CAT Scans and MRIs.

Q163. The level of radiation to which human body can be exposed is _ times the radiation from natural source.

• A. 1 to 10✓
• B. 10 to 100
• C. 10 to 1000
• D. 10 to 10000

Explanation: Fact.

Q164. As the temperature of a black body is raised, the black body radiations become richer in:

• A. Intermediate wavelengths
• B. Long wavelengths
• C. Short wavelengths✓
• D. Low frequencies

Explanation: Wein's displacement law states that temperature is inversely related to wavelength. Therefore, increasing temperature results in shorter wavelengths.

Q165. The rapid escape of air from a burst tyre is an example of:

• A. Isothermal
• B. Adiabatic✓
• C. Isobaric
• D. Isochoric

Explanation: Isothermal process is the one where temperature remains constant.Isochoric process is the one where volume remains constant.Isobaric process is the one where pressure remains constant.Adiabatic process is a rapid process where heat excahnge of a system is zero. Hence, sudden bursting of a ture is an example of an adibatic process.

Q166. The ratio of angular speed of moon around the Earth to its angular speed about its own axis is:

• A. 2:1
• B. 1:6
• C. 1:30
• D. 1:1✓

Explanation: The moon orbits the Earth once every 27.322 days. In the same amount of time, the moon rotates once on its axis. As a result, the moon does not seem to be spinning but appears to observers from Earth to be keeping almost perfectly still (this is called synchronous rotation). So its angular speed (W) around its own axis is W =2π /T W(moon) = (2π)/(27.322 x 24 x 3600) = 2.67*10(-6) rad/s For orbital motion around the earth, the angular speed is W(earth) = (2π)/(27.322 x 24 x 3600) = 2.67*10(-6) rad/s So the ratio is 1:1

Q167. Resistivity of a wire is _ ohm-m if 0.75A current flows through it by applying 1.5V potential difference, take length and cross section as 5m and 2.5 x 10^-7 m^2.

• A. 1 X 10^-7✓
• B. 2.63 X 10^-8
• C. 19 x 10^-8
• D. 7.85 x 10^-8

Explanation: he resistivity (ρ) of a wire can be calculated using the formula: ρ = (R * A) / L where R is the resistance, A is the cross-sectional area of the wire, and L is the length of the wire. Given that the current (I) is 0.75A and the potential difference (V) is 1.5V, we can use Ohm's law to calculate the resistance: R = V / I = 1.5V / 0.75A = 2Ω Substituting the values of resistance (R), cross-sectional area (A), and length (L) into the resistivity formula: ρ = (2Ω * 2.5 x 10^-7 m^2) / 5m = 10^-7 Ω-m Therefore, the resistivity of the wire is: A) 1 x 10^-7 Ω-m

Q168. When a particle is launched at angle of 90˚ with respect to the horizontal axis, then its vertical acceleration is:

• A. -9.8 m/s2✓
• B. 9.8 m/s2
• C. 0
• D. 5 m/s2

Explanation: at any point of launch, the vertical accelaration is always equal to gravitaional accelaration but with a negative sign because the force of gravity is acting in the downword direction so vertical accelaration is -9.8ms-2

Q169. The half life of U-238 against alpha decay is 4.5 x 109 years. Find the activity of 1 kg of U-238?

• A. 2.4 x 10-4 Ci
• B. 3.34 x 10-4 Ci✓
• C. 4.34 x 10-4 Ci
• D. 2.4 x 10-5 Ci

Explanation: The working is as follows:

Q170. Which is not radioactive?

• A. Ozone
• B. Hydrogen
• C. Sodium
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: D. Radioactive elements have unstable nuclei that lose energy in the form of radiation. And none of them are radioactiveA. Ozone is given by the formula O₃, and is a stable molecule.B. Atomic hydrogen is neutral, thus stable. However the isotope of hydrogen, tritium shows spontaneous decay.C. Sodium belongs to the 3rd period and 1st group of the periodic table. It is a stable metal with a Z number of 11. The only element in group 1 that shows decay is Francium.

Q171. Three resistors of 6 Ohms each, can be connected in all possible ways. The highest value of resistance can be obtained (in ohms) be _.

• A. 2 Ohms
• B. 4 Ohms
• C. 9 Ohms
• D. 18 Ohms✓
• E. 36 Ohms

Explanation: If we connect all three in series, combined resistance will be 6+6+6=18 (Series combination always gives the highest combined resistance)If we connect all three in parallel, combined resistance will be 1/6 + 1/6 + 1/6 = 1/R so R = 2 Ohms (This is the lowest possible combined resistance) This cancels options A, B, C and E since the highest possible resistance must be equal 18 Ohms.

Q172. Equation of continuity is expressed as:

• A. A1V2 = A2V1
• B. A1V1 = A2V2✓
• C. A1H2 = A2H1
• D. A1H1 = A2H2

Explanation: Option A: A1V2 = A2V1: This is the equation of continuity for fluid flow. It states that the mass flow rate through a control volume is constant. In other words, the amount of fluid that enters the control volume must equal the amount of fluid that leaves the control volume. Option B: The equation of continuity is expressed as A1V1 = A2V2. This equation states that the mass flow rate through a control volume is constant. In other words, the amount of fluid that enters the control volume must equal the amount of fluid that leaves the control volume. Option C: A1H2 = A2H1: This is the equation of continuity for heat transfer. It states that the heat flow rate through a control volume is constant. In other words, the amount of heat that enters the control volume must equal the amount of heat that leaves the control volume. Option D: A1H1 = A2H2: This is not the equation of continuity for heat transfer. It states that the product of the cross-sectional area and the heat transfer coefficient is constant. This is only true for steady-state heat transfer, which means that the temperature of the fluid does not change.

Q173. The light exhibits the phenomena of constructive interference under the situation when it is _ and _.

• A. Monochromatic and in Phase✓
• B. Monochromatic and out of Phase
• C. In phase and non-monochromatic
• D. Out of phase and non-monochromatic

Explanation: For constructive interference to take place, the waves must be monochromatic (single frequency) and integral multiple of pi or 180 degrees (which implies they must be in phase)

Q174. The distance between two consecutive antinodes is equal to:

• A. λ/8
• B. λ/6
• C. λ/4
• D. λ/2✓

Explanation: The distance between two consecutive antinodes (or two consecutive nodes) is equal to half a wavelength as shown:

Q175. The charge on neutron is:

• A. 1.6 x 10-27 C
• B. Zero✓
• C. 1.6 x 10-31 C
• D. 9.11 x 10-19 C
• E. 9.6 x 10-15C

Explanation: A neutron is an electrically neutral sub-atomic particle. Therfore, it has no charge.

Q176. An electron is moving along the axis of a solenoid carrying a current. Which of the following is a correct statement about the electromagnetic force acting on the electron?

• A. The force X acts radially inwards
• B. The force X acts radially outwards
• C. The force X acts in the direction of motion
• D. No force acts✓

Explanation: The electron will be accelerated along the axis. The electron path will be circular about the axis. The electron will experience a force at 45 degree to the axis and hence execute a helical path. The electron will continue to move with uniform velocity along the axis of the solenoid. Therefore `F=0`and no force acts.

Q177. A simple pendulum suspended from the ceiling of a train has a period ‘T’ when the train is at rest. When the train is accelerating with a uniform acceleration, the time period of simple pendulum will:

• A. Decrease✓
• B. Increase
• C. Remain unchanged
• D. Become infinite
• E. Insufficient information

Explanation: When the train is at rest the time period of simple pendulum is T=2π√l/g When the train is accelerating the net acceleration is = g+a. So,T=2π √l/g+a. Hence the time period decreases.

Q178. The mass of a photon at rest is?

• A. 1 amu
• B. 9x10-31 kg
• C. 1.67 x 10-35 kg
• D. Zero✓

Explanation: The rest mass of photon is zero

Q179. If an object is undergoing an orbital motion around another object it is called

• A. Revolution✓
• B. Rotation
• C. Both of them
• D. None of them

Explanation: If an object is undergoing an orbital motion around another object it is called revolution. An orbit is a repeating and regular path where one object takes another object in space. An object with a larger mass moves front and it keeps moving forward. This orbital motion by an object towards another object is called revolution. One complete revolution around the sun by Earth takes a year. We all know that the sun is a huge massive object in our solar system. The remaining objects in the solar system are subjected to the gravitational pull of the sun.

Q180. What is the half-time of a radioactive sample (in minutes), if its mean life is 200 s?

• A. 0.69 min
• B. 2 min
• C. 2.57 min
• D. 2.31 min✓

Explanation: As,T½= 0.693tT½ = 0.693 × 200sT½= 138.6/60 minT½= 2.31 minutes.

Q181. The spin of quarks is?

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. Half✓
• D. Quarter

Explanation: Spin is a quantum mechanical property of subatomic particles that is analogous to the angular momentum of a spinning object. In the case of quarks, their spin is a fundamental property that is intrinsic to their nature. The spin of a quark is always either +1/2 or -1/2, which means that it can be oriented in one of two possible directions. This property is what gives quarks their distinctive properties and allows them to interact with other particles in the way that they do.

Q182. An electron is moving along the axis of a solenoid carrying a current. Which of the following is a correct statement about the electromagnetic force acting on the electron?

• A. The force acts perpendicular to its motion
• B. The force acts anti-parallel to its motion
• C. The force acts in the direction of motion
• D. No force acts✓

Explanation: This is the following solution.

Q183. Lenz’s law states that:

• A. The flow of a fluid in a medium under same applied force experiences some sort of friction or resistance in its path
• B. A body remains at rest of continuous to move with uniform velocity unless acted upon by an unbalanced force
• C. The induced current always flows in such a direction as to oppose the change which is giving rise to it✓
• D. When a particle bearing a charge q and moving with a velocity V enters the region of a uniform magnetic field of induction B, it is acted upon by a force

Explanation: Option A: It is the frictional force faced by the flowing liquid. Option B: It is the statement of 1st Law of motion. Option C: It is the correct statement of Lenz's law. Option D: The charge carrier in the conductor experiences force under the influence of magnetic field.

Q184. A body rolling freely on the surface of the earth eventually comes to rest because

• A. It has mass
• B. It suffers friction✓
• C. It has inertia of rest
• D. It has a momentum
• E. It is gravitation less because it is already on the surface.

Explanation: Friction is the force acting between two surfaces in contact, or the force of a medium acting on a moving object (e.g., air on aircraft) to resist the relative motion.Frictional forces may also exist between surfaces when there is no relative motion.Frictional forces arise due to molecular interactions.Force of friction always opposes relative motion.Due to friction on the surface of the Earth, a body comes to a state of rest after some time. Hence, the body rolling on the surface of the Earth comes to a state of rest after some time due to friction.

Q185. Ratio of momentum of photons having wavelength 4000 angstrom and 8000 angstroms is?

• A. 2:1✓
• B. 1:2
• C. 20:1
• D. 1:20

Explanation: P=h/λ P1/P2 = λ2/λ1= 8000A/4000A = 2:1

Q186. If we apply 100 N force on 10 kg box then its acceleration is:

• A. 20 m/s^2
• B. 5 m/s^2
• C. 10 m/s^2✓
• D. 40 m/s^2

Explanation: F=ma according to Newton's first law, so F/a (100/10) gives 10 which is the value for acceleration (a). We can use the formula F = m * a to find the acceleration (a) of an object with mass m that is experiencing a force F. Rearranging the formula, we get: a = F / m Plugging in the given values, we get: a = 100 N / 10 kg a = 10 m/s^2 Therefore, the acceleration of the object is 10 m/s^2.

Q187. Projectile when launched at 90 degree with respect to horizontal then its trajectory is _.

• A. Parabolic✓
• B. Periodic
• C. Hyperbolic trajectory
• D. Linear

Explanation: When a projectile is launched vertically upward at 90 degrees with respect to the horizontal, its trajectory is parabolic (option a). The path follows a curved shape due to the combined effects of horizontal and vertical motion.

Q188. If an ideal gas has volume V at 27°C and it is heated at constant pressure so that it volume become 1.5V, the value of final temperature is:

• A. 327K
• B. 871K
• C. 177°C✓
• D. 600°C

Explanation: According to Charles Law, V1/T1 = V2/T2(Note: For these questions, always make sure the temperature is in Kelvin)Initial temperature = 27°C For converting temperature in Celcius to Kelvin:273+27 = 300KV/300 = 1.5V/T2T2= (1.5V x 300)/VT2=450KFor converting temperature in Kelvin to Celcius:450-273 = 177°C

Q189. If the mass of the bob of simple pendulum is doubled, its time period is:

• A. One half
• B. Doubled
• C. Remains constant✓
• D. One fourth

Explanation: Time period of a simple pendulum is given by T=1/2π √ (l/g). This means that the time period of a pendulum does not depend on the mass of the bob. So, if the mass of the bob doubled, the time period remains the same.

Q190. Dependent Causes/ Independent Causes: Statement: All the schools in the area had to be kept closed for most of the week. Many parents have withdrawn their children from the local schools.

• A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
• B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
• C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes
• D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes✓

Explanation: Closing the schools for a week and the parents withdrawing their wards from the local schools are independent issues, which must have been triggered by different individual causes.

Q191. Statement: The ratio of poverty is at an alarming point in our country. Conclusions: I. The Government needs to take steps for economic and development growth. II. The lower class area of people in our country needs to be supported as most of them live hand to mouth.

• A. Both of the conclsuions follow✓
• B. None of the conclusions follow
• C. Only conclusion I follows
• D. Only conclusion II follows

Explanation: As there are alot of poverty in the country,the government needs to take steps for economic growth so that people get job opportunities and are able to get out of poverty.Economic growth is the most powerful instrument for reducing poverty and improving the quality of life in developing countries. Secondly,the lower class area of people in our country need to be supported as most of them live hand to mouth. Hence,both of the conclusions follow.

Q192. Statement and actions: Statement: The Management of the School has decided to give free breakfast from the next academic year to all the students in its primary section through its canteen even though they will not get any government grant. Courses of Action (I) The school will have to admit many poor students who will seek admission for the next academic year. (II) The canteen facilities and utensils have to be checked and new purchases to be made to equip it properly. (Ill) Funds will have to be raised to support the scheme for years to come.

• A. Only Il and III follow✓
• B. Only Ill and I follow
• C. Only I and II follow
• D. Only I follows

Explanation: Since the school has introduced the scheme without receiving any grant, it needs to pool up the funds and make adequate arrangements to keep the scheme going. So, only statemnts II and III follow.

Q193. Making Judgements. If in a certain language, NOIDA is coded as OPJEB, how is DELHI coded in that language?

• A. CDKGH
• B. EFMIJ✓
• C. FGNJK
• D. IHLED

Explanation: Each letter in the word NOIDA is moved one step forward to form the code OPJEB. So, in DELHI, D will be coded as E, E as F, L as M, H as I, I as J. Thus, the code becomes EFMIJ.

Q194. Fact Checking: Fact 1: Some pens don't write Fact 2: Only blue pens write Fact 3: Some writing utensils are pens If the above three statements are facts then which of the following statement will also be a fact? I. Some writing utensils don't write II. Some writing utensils are blue Ill. Some blue writing utensils don't write

• A. Only Ill
• B. Only I and II✓
• C. Only I
• D. Only Ill and II

Explanation: "Since some pens don't write, some writing utensils don't write(statement I)". "Since there are blue pens and since pens are writing utensils, some writing utensils are blue(statement II)". There is not enough information to support statement III.

Q195. Logical games: Due to some mathematical formulae, we are getting the following results, where 2 becomes equal to 5, and 3 becomes equal to 10. What will four be equal to? 2 = 5 3 = 10 4 = ?

• A. 9
• B. 13
• C. 14
• D. 17✓

Explanation: Looking at the first two equations, we can decipher that the number on the left hand is being squared and then 1 is being added to it. Hence (4x4) + 1 will be equal to 17.