Federal Mdcat Mock Paper 4 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Identify the word or phrase that needs to be changed for the sentence to be correct:The stories that she makes out for her children ought to be written down and published.

• A. That
• B. Makes out✓
• C. Ought to
• D. Written down
• E. No error

Explanation: "That" is correctly placed as a demonstrative pronoun.To "make out" means to manage with some difficulty to see or hear someone or something so it is incorrectly used here. "Makes" would be the correct word for the blank."Ought to" can be used to indicate light responsibility or urgency. It is correctly used in the sentence.It means to record something by writing down.An error was present in the sentence.

Q2. Identify the word or phrase that needs to be changed for the sentence to be correct. You cannot leave now. The lions and tigers will appear in a minute.

• A. You
• B. The lions
• C. Tigers
• D. Appear
• E. No error✓

Explanation: The sentence is structured correctly with no grammatical errors. The subject 'You' correctly refers to the person being addressed. 'The lions and tigers' correctly acts as a compound subject in the second clause, and the verb 'appear' properly describes the action that will occur in a minute. Therefore, no changes are needed, making 'No error' the correct choice. The other options incorrectly suggest that individual words or phrases need revision, but each part of the sentence is appropriately used.

Q3. Choose the correct sentence from the following options:

• A. The government should accrue taxes for strengthen the economy of the country.
• B. The government should accrue taxes in strengthen the economy of the country
• C. The government should accrue taxes to strengthen the economy of the country.✓
• D. The government should accrue taxes by strengthen the economy of the country.

Explanation: By comparing all four sentences ,you notice there is only one difference i.e. PREPOSITION and for fact the best suited is 'to strengthen'.

Q4. In each of the following questions, four alternative sentences are given.Choose the CORRECT option.

• A. Norma had put the button unit besides her on the couch.
• B. Norma put an button unit besides her on the couch.
• C. Norma put the button unit besides hers on the couch.
• D. Norma put the button unit beside her on the couch.✓

Explanation: The phrase "beside her" is used in the sentence to indicate the location of the button unit in relation to Norma. "Beside" means next to or by the side of someone or something. In this case, it suggests that Norma placed the button unit in close proximity to herself, likely on the couch within reach. The phrase provides spatial information and helps to specify the position of the button unit in relation to Norma.

Q5. Each sentence below has a blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word that best fits in with the meaning of the sentence as a whole.The provost was utterly _ about having the students keep their books tidily in their lockers, yet her desk was very _.

• A. Apathetic ...comfortable
• B. Bewildered ... bizarre
• C. Determined ...disorderly✓
• D. Considerate...modern

Explanation: The first step is to examine the first word of each choice. We eliminate Choice B, bewildered, and Choice D, considerate, because the first part of the sentence makes no sense with these choices. Now we go to the remaining choices. Choice A does not make sense in the sentence and is therefore incorrect. Choice C does make sense in the sentence.

Q6. Each sentence below has a blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word that best fits in with the meaning of the sentence as a whole.The air in a room that contains several houseplants can be more _ oxygen than in a room that contains no plants.

• A. Complicated by
• B. Exhausted with
• C. Obscured by
• D. Saturated with✓

Explanation: The word "saturated" most accurately indicates the density of the oxygen in the room. The other answer choices do not fit the context of the sentence.

Q7. In the following question, a sentence is given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word. Four alternatives are suggested. Choose the correct alternative, out of the four as your answer.Ravens appear to behave _, actively helping one another to find food.

• A. Mysteriously✓
• B. Warily
• C. Aggressively
• D. Defensively

Explanation: Ravens appear to behave mysteriously, showing puzzling or clever actions, such as actively helping one another to find food.

Q8. Select the option which fits appropriately in the blank:My father often _ here.

• A. Come
• B. Came
• C. Comes✓
• D. Coming

Explanation: 'The correct option that fits appropriately in the blank is:"My father often comes here."The sentence is in the present tense, and the subject is "my father," which is singular. Therefore, the appropriate verb to use is "comes," which agrees with the singular subject in the present tense. The other options are not suitable for the present tense and do not match the subject-verb agreement correctly.

Q9. Choose the correct spelling of the word:

• A. Something✓
• B. Somthing
• C. Sumthing
• D. Sumthin

Explanation: The correct spelling is "something" because:It is a combination of "some" + "thing", meaning an unspecified object, event, or idea.

Q10. There are two types of dialysis i.e. :

• A. Blood Dialysis and Peritoneal Dialysis
• B. Plasma Dialysis and Peritoneal Dialysis
• C. Haemodialysis and Peritoneal Dialysis✓
• D. Hemodialysis and Permanent dialysis

Explanation: Hemodialysis is a pure mechanical dialysis whereas in peritoneal dialysis a human membrane called peritoneum is used as filtering membrane to isolate the nitrogenous wastes from blood.

Q11. The wastes and excess water pass during dialysis from blood through the membrane :

• A. Into the body
• B. Out of the body
• C. Into the dialysis fluid✓
• D. Out of the dialysis fluid

Explanation: During dialysis, wastes and excess water pass from the blood through the dialysis membrane into the dialysis fluid, which is then discarded.

Q12. Peritoneal cavity is filled with dialysis fluid that enters the body through a/an :

• A. Artery
• B. Vein
• C. Capillary
• D. Catheter✓

Explanation: A catheter is a thin tube made from medical grade materials, serving a broad range of functions along with filling and draining the dialysis fluid from peritoneal cavity.

Q13. It is the kidney machine that works on the same principle as the kidney for removal of wastes and excess water from the blood:

• A. Catheter
• B. Peritoneum
• C. Dialyzer✓
• D. Epithelium

Explanation: A dialyzer, also known as a hemodialyzer or artificial kidney, is a medical device used in hemodialysis, a life-sustaining procedure that removes waste products, excess fluids, and electrolytes from the blood in individuals with kidney failure or end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The dialyzer is a crucial component of a hemodialysis machine and serves as an artificial filter for cleansing the patient's blood during hemodialysis treatments.The dialyzer is a critical component of the hemodialysis process, as it effectively cleanses the patient's blood, removing waste products and excess fluids to help maintain their overall well-being.

Q14. What is the human breathing rate during hard physical work?

• A. 10 to 15 times per minute
• B. 10 to 20 times per minute
• C. 80 to 120 times per minute
• D. 30 times per minute✓

Explanation: In humans, the normal breathing rate at rest is about 12–16 times per minute. However, during strenuous physical activity, muscles consume more oxygen and produce more carbon dioxide, which stimulates the respiratory center in the brain to increase breathing rate. To meet this demand, the rate can rise to 30–40 breaths per minute, along with an increase in tidal volume (depth of breathing). Extremely high values like 80–120 per minute are not seen in humans, as they would not allow enough time for effective gas exchange. Therefore, the correct breathing rate during hard physical work is 30–40 times per minute

Q15. The smaller tubes within the chest cavity having cartilaginous plates are known as:

• A. Pharynx
• B. Bronchioles
• C. Bronchi✓
• D. Both B and C

Explanation: The pharynx is a muscular tube-shaped structure that connects the nasal cavity and mouth to the oesophagus and larynx. It is part of both the respiratory and digestive systems and plays a crucial role in the passage of air and food.Bronchioles are small tubes in the lungs that branch off from the bronchi and divide further into even smaller tubes called alveolar ducts. The bronchi are the large airways that connect the trachea to the lungs.Bronchi are supported by cartilage Plates while bronchioles have no cartilage. Instead, they are supported by smooth muscle.

Q16. Select the phase/s of breathing:

• A. Inhalation
• B. Exhalation
• C. Both and A and B✓
• D. Vocal waves

Explanation: Inhalation is a part of breathing where the air is taken into the lungs by creating negative pressure by the contraction of respiratory muscles and diaphragm. Exhalation is a part of breathing where the air is drawn out of the lungs by the relaxation of respiratory muscles. Inhalation is also called inspiration.

Q17. What is the length of the windpipe?

• A. 12cm✓
• B. 15cm
• C. 18cm
• D. 20cm

Explanation: The trachea, also called the windpipe, is a cartilaginous tube that connects the larynx to the bronchi and ensures the safe passage of air into the lungs. In most standard anatomy references, its average length in humans is 10–12 cm, which is reflected in option A. Although some texts extend the range up to 15 cm in adults, especially males, 12 cm remains the most accurate and accepted figure for examination purposes. Therefore, the correct answer here is 12 cm.

Q18. The floor of the chest is called:

• A. Alveoli
• B. Trachea
• C. Bronchi
• D. None of these✓

Explanation: The diaphragm is a muscle that helps you inhale and exhale (breathe in and out). This thin, dome-shaped muscle sits below your lungs and heart. It's attached to your sternum (a bone in the middle of your chest), the bottom of your rib cage and your spine.

Q19. The thick muscular structure which is present below the pair of lungs is known as:

• A. Pharynx
• B. Diaphragm✓
• C. Bronchi
• D. None of these

Explanation: The diaphragm is a muscle that helps you inhale and exhale (breathe in and out). This thin, dome-shaped muscle sits below your lungs and heart. It's attached to your sternum (a bone in the middle of your chest), the bottom of your rib cage and your spine.

Q20. The cartilage protects the trachea from:

• A. Collapsing✓
• B. Vibrating
• C. Swelling
• D. Breaking

Explanation: In the wall of trachea there are a series of C shaped cartilage rings which prevent the trachea from collapsing and keep the passage of air open.

Q21. The role of globulins in the maintenance of the osmotic pressure of blood is:

• A. 75%
• B. 65%
• C. 35%
• D. 25%✓

Explanation: The role of globulins in the maintenance of the osmotic pressure of blood is 25%.

Q22. The average life span of an RBC is:

• A. 120 days✓
• B. 30 days
• C. 60 days
• D. 90 days

Explanation: Normal human red blood cells have an average life span of 120 days in the circulation, after which they are engulfed by macrophages.

Q23. On one hand, its high level in our blood produces cardiovascular disorders, and on the other hand, it serves as a precursor for steroid hormones. It is:

• A. Acylglycerol
• B. Cholesterol✓
• C. Animal fat
• D. None of these

Explanation: Excess of cholesterol causes some cardiovascular problems; however, a fixed amount of cholesterol is inevitable for animals, including human being,s due to its role in stabilization of the structure and fluidity of cell membranes and its role in hormone synthesis.

Q24. Which one of the following gives rise to macrophages?

• A. Neutrophils
• B. Eosinophils
• C. Monocytes✓
• D. Lymphocytes

Explanation: Monocytes have a relatively longer lifespan and employ a more intensive approach to killing pathogens compared to neutrophils. They are also able to give rise to macrophages, hence it is the correct option.

Q25. They have been without a nucleus since their origin:

• A. RBCs
• B. WBCs
• C. Platelets✓
• D. Erythrocytes

Explanation: Platelets are cell fragments derived from megakaryocytes. They lack a nucleus and pigment and help in blood clotting.

Q26. A solid mass or plug of blood constituents in the blood vessels is called:

• A. Thrombus✓
• B. Thrombosis
• C. Embolus
• D. Atheroma

Explanation: A thrombus is a blood clot forming in a vessel to prevent bleeding or as a pathological blockage.

Q27. In thromboembolism:

• A. Thrombosis is followed by embolism✓
• B. Thrombosis follows the embolism
• C. Thrombosis and embolism occur simultaneously
• D. Thrombosis occurs independent of embolism

Explanation: A thrombus forms first, then a part may break off as an embolus, traveling through the bloodstream to cause blockage elsewhere.

Q28. PCR can create millions of copies of a single gene or any specific piece of DNA quickly in:

• A. Bioreactor
• B. Test tube✓
• C. Expression system
• D. Petridish

Explanation: PCR amplifies DNA in vitro, meaning it happens in a test tube, not inside cells or dishes.

Q29. PCR is very specific, the targeted DNA sequence can be _ of total DNA sample.

• A. One part in a million
• B. Less than one part in a million✓
• C. More than one part in a million
• D. Two parts in a million

Explanation: PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is highly specific and can amplify a targeted DNA sequence even if it is present at less than one part in a million of the total DNA sample.

Q30. Before carrying out PCR:

• A. Gene product must be available
• B. Vector must be available
• C. Primers must be available✓
• D. Bacteriophage must be available

Explanation: As DNA polymerase cannot initiate a polynucleotide chain, rather it can elongate a polynucleotide chain.

Q31. DNA polymerase _ the replication process.

• A. Continues
• B. Initiates
• C. Extends
• D. Continues and extends✓

Explanation: It starts a chain reaction and keep on carrying out replication until test tube is filled.

Q32. Hemodialysis means:

• A. Cleaning the blood✓
• B. Replacing the blood
• C. Washing the blood
• D. Centrifugation of the blood

Explanation: Hemodialysis literally means cleaning the blood. Hemodialysis is a medical procedure that removes waste products, excess salts, and extra water from the blood when the kidneys can't do so effectively. In this process, the patient's blood is passed through a dialyzer (artificial kidney) where it is cleaned before being returned to the body.

Q33. In case of uremia, to remove nitrogenous wastes, particularly the urea, the blood of the patient is treated through:

• A. Centrifugation
• B. Lithotripsy
• C. Transfusion
• D. Dialysis✓

Explanation: Dialysis is the correct answer as it is a medical procedure used to remove waste products like urea from the blood when the kidneys are not functioning properly. It serves as an artificial replacement for lost kidney function. The other options are incorrect because:Centrifugation is not used in medical treatment for waste removal from blood.Lithotripsy targets kidney stones, not blood purification.Transfusion replenishes blood components but does not remove metabolic wastes.

Q34. In PCR, primers are sequences of 20 bases that are complementary to the bases on either side of the:

• A. Target DNA✓
• B. DNA polymerase
• C. Primase
• D. RNA polymerase

Explanation: In PCR, primers bind to sequences flanking the target DNA to initiate replication.

Q35. Which of the following is correct for the given structure?

• A. These are small structures which work like oars
• B. It is covered with plasma membrane
• C. It's core is called axoneme
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: Cilia and flagella are hair-like outgrowths of the cell membrane. Cilia are small structures working like oars, causing the movement of either the cell or the surrounding fluid. Flagella, in comparison, is longer and is responsible for cell movement. Both cilium and flagellum are covered with plasma membrane. Their core, called axoneme, possesses a number of microtubules running parallel to the long axis.So, the correct answer is 'All of the above'.

Q36. Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia?

• A. Chromosomal disorder
• B. Dominant gene disorder
• C. Recessive gene disorder
• D. X-linked recessive gene disorder✓

Explanation: Hemophilias (e.g, factor VIII/IX defects) are caused by mutations on the X chromosome and show recessive inheritance — classic X-linked recessive.

Q37. The function of the kidney is completely lost, and it is unable to remove nitrogenous wastes in :

• A. Acute renal failure
• B. Chronic renal failure✓
• C. Partial renal failure
• D. Kidney stones

Explanation: Chronic renal failure, also known as chronic kidney disease (CKD), is a long-term and progressive condition in which the kidneys gradually lose their ability to function effectively over an extended period, often months to years. This condition is characterized by the gradual and irreversible deterioration of kidney function. CKD is typically classified into stages, with stage 1 being the mildest and stage 5 being the most severe.Early detection and appropriate management are essential in controlling CKD and preventing its progression to more severe stages. Regular monitoring of kidney function, blood pressure, and blood glucose levels is often recommended for individuals at risk of or already diagnosed with CKD.

Q38. DNA polymerase copies the target DNA, after the:

• A. Primers bind by complementary base pairing✓
• B. The target DNA duplex is unwound
• C. The target DNA gets denatured
• D. The primers get separated from target DNA

Explanation: In PCR both strands of DNA act as template for new strands to be synthesized.

Q39. Holoenzyme is?

• A. Protein part of enzyme
• B. Non-protein part of enzyme
• C. Complete enzyme✓
• D. Inactive enzyme

Explanation: A holoenzyme is the complete, active form of an enzyme. It is composed of an apoenzyme, which is the protein portion, and one or more cofactors, which can be metal ions or organic molecules known as coenzymes. These components together allow the holoenzyme to perform its catalytic function. Option A and B are incorrect because they describe only parts of the enzyme system, not the complete active form. Option D is incorrect because it describes an inactive enzyme, which is an apoenzyme, not a holoenzyme.

Q40. In which type of cells, cell wall is not present?

• A. Plant cells
• B. Fungal cells
• C. Bacterial cells
• D. Liver cells✓

Explanation: A cell wall is a structural layer surrounding some types of cells, just outside the cell membrane. It can be tough, flexible, and sometimes rigid. It provides the cell with both structural support and protection, and also acts as a filtering mechanism. No cells in the human body have a cell wall, hence liver cells will not have one either. Plant cell walls are primarily made of cellulose, which is the most abundant macromolecule on Earth. The cell wall is a characteristic structure of fungi and is composed mainly of glucans, chitin, and glycoproteins. The bacterial cell wall consists of peptidoglycan, an essential protective barrier for bacterial cells that encapsulates the cytoplasmic membrane.

Q41. A non­-proteinaceous enzyme is:

• A. Lysozyme
• B. Ribozyme✓
• C. Ligase
• D. Deoxyribonuclease

Explanation: The correct answer is Ribozyme. Ribozymes are unique because they are RNA molecules with catalytic properties, unlike typical enzymes, which are proteins. Ribozymes can catalyze reactions such as RNA cleavage and ligation, and they play crucial roles in the function of ribosomes. The other options, Lysozyme, Ligase, and Deoxyribonuclease, are all protein-based enzymes; hence, they do not fit the description of a non-proteinaceous enzyme.

Q42. Which of the following is the least likely to be involved in stabilizing the three­ dimensional folding of most proteins?

• A. Hydrogen Bonds
• B. Electrostatic Interaction
• C. Hydrophobic Interaction
• D. Ester Bonds✓

Explanation: Protein folding is the process by which a protein structure assumes its functional shape or conformation by allowing interaction between amino acids by various bond formations. All protein molecules are heterogeneous unbranched chains of amino acids. Different types of weak interactions hold the interacting segments together in protein. Hydrophobic interaction, H bonds, and electrostatic interactions are the weak ones and stabilize the tertiary structure of proteins, while ester bonds are covalent bonds and are least likely to be involved in stabilizing the three-dimensional folding of most proteins.

Q43. Various factors of pathological and chemical nature may progressively destroy the nephron, which results in :

• A. Increase in the plasma level of urea✓
• B. Decrease in other nitrogenous wastes
• C. Decrease in the plasma level of urea
• D. Decrease in the blood pressure

Explanation: When nephrons suffers from any disorder, they remain unable to filter the urea from blood and as a result of plasma level of urea increases.

Q44. The diagram is taken from an electron of a cell, name the organelle labeled D:

• A. Nucleus
• B. Lysosomes
• C. Golgi complex
• D. Mitochondria✓
• E. Endoplasmic reticulum

Explanation: Mitochondria are bean- shaped membrane bounded organelles. Cristae is the fold in the inner membrane of mitochondria which is visible in the picture.

Q45. Detoxification of drugs is the function of _ in a cell.

• A. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
• B. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum✓
• C. Liver cells
• D. Lysosome

Explanation: The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is a part of the endoplasmic reticulum which does not possess ribosomes studded on its membrane. It is involved in the detoxification of many poisons and drugs such as lipid soluble drugs, aspirin, insecticides (DDT), petroleum products and pollutants and converting them to safer water-soluble products.

Q46. Thermus aquaticus bacterium lives in:

• A. Hot springs✓
• B. Hot pools
• C. Hot thermal vents
• D. Hot ponds

Explanation: As these are thermal bacteria,they are adapted to survive in high temperature.

Q47. In which of the following is the organic compound COOH (carboxyl) group found? (I) Carbohydrate (II) Lipid (III) Protein

• A. I only
• B. II only
• C. I and II only
• D. II and III only✓
• E. I , II and III

Explanation: Carboxyl groups are commonly found in amino acids, fatty acids, and other biomolecules. Whereas carbohydrates only contain atoms of carbon hydrogen and oxygen they don't have any functional group.

Q48. Suggest which among the following is not a function attributed to endoplasmic reticulum?

• A. Detoxification of poisons and drugs
• B. Digestion/egestion of foreign materials outside the cell✓
• C. Manufacture of fat and lipid molecules
• D. Biogenesis of membrane proteins

Explanation: The endoplasmic reticulum is involved in the detoxification of the poisons and the drugs. This is the main function of the endoplasmic reticulum in the liver. The manufacturing of the lipids and fat molecules take place in the smooth ER. The membrane proteins are synthesised on the ribosomes which are present on the surface of the ER. The digestion and egestion of the foreign materials which enter the cells take place in the lysosomes. Thus, the correct answer is option B.

Q49. Which property of water helps to maintain the integrity of lipid membranes?

• A. Specific heat capacity
• B. Cohesion and adhesion
• C. Hydrogen bonding
• D. Hydrophobic exclusion✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Hydrophobic exclusion. This property is critical for the formation and stability of lipid membranes, as lipid molecules are hydrophobic and tend to exclude water. This exclusion leads to the formation of a lipid bilayer, creating a barrier between the aqueous environments inside and outside the cell. The other options, such as specific heat capacity, cohesion and adhesion, and hydrogen bonding, are important properties of water but do not directly contribute to the structural integrity of lipid membranes.

Q50. HIV is also known as:

• A. AIDS✓
• B. HAV
• C. HTLV
• D. HBV

Explanation: AIDS is merely an advanced form of HIV.

Q51. Tay Sach's disease is caused by absence of enzyme required to breakdown _.

• A. Lipids✓
• B. Glycogen
• C. Glucose
• D. Proteins

Explanation: Tay-Sachs disease is a inherited disorder that progressively destroys nerve cells (neurons) in the brain and spinal cord. It is caused due to the mutation in the gene which is responsible for producing enzyme involved break down of fatty substance.

Q52. A combination of alpha interferon and ribavirin is used for the treatment of hepatitis:

• A. Hepatitis B
• B. Hepatitis A
• C. Hepatitis D
• D. Hepatitis C✓

Explanation: The combination of alpha interferon and ribavirin has been used in the treatment of hepatitis, particularly in the context of hepatitis C. Both alpha interferon and ribavirin have antiviral properties, and their combination was historically a standard treatment for chronic hepatitis C infection. Here's a brief overview of each component: Alpha Interferon: interferons are proteins that the body naturally produces in response to viral infections. They have antiviral properties and can modulate the immune response. Alpha interferon is a specific type of interferon that has been used as part of antiviral therapy. It was administered as an injection. Ribavirin: Ribavirin is an antiviral medication that inhibits the replication of viruses. It is a nucleoside analog and can interfere with the synthesis of viral genetic material. Ribavirin was often administered orally as part of the treatment regimen.

Q53. First infectious disease against which effective method of prevention developed was a _:

• A. Bacterial disease
• B. Viral disease✓
• C. Protozoan disease
• D. Viroid disease

Explanation: b. Viral disease: This option is correct. The smallpox vaccine, developed in the late 18th century by Edward Jenner, is a landmark achievement in the prevention of viral diseases. It played a crucial role in the eventual global eradication of smallpox. c. Protozoan disease: Protozoan diseases are caused by single-celled organisms (protozoa). Prevention methods for these diseases often involve medications (antiprotozoal drugs) rather than vaccines. Malaria, caused by the Plasmodium protozoan, is an example of a protozoan disease with preventive measures like antimalarial drugs and bed nets. d. Viroid disease: Viroids are infectious agents consisting of small, circular RNA molecules. They cause diseases in plants. Preventive methods for viroid diseases typically involve plant hygiene and control measures, as there are no widely recognized vaccines for viroids. Correct Answer: b. Viral disease Explanation: The smallpox vaccine is a historic example of the first effective prevention method developed against a viral disease, marking a significant milestone in the history of infectious disease control. Summary: The correct answer is b. Viral disease. The smallpox vaccine, developed for the prevention of smallpox caused by the variola virus, is a groundbreaking achievement in the history of infectious disease prevention. While bacterial diseases also saw early success with vaccination, the smallpox vaccine stood out as a pivotal moment in addressing viral infections and contributed to the eventual global eradication of smallpox.

Q54. The number of spinal nerves along the spinal cord is:

• A. 16 pairs
• B. 20 pairs
• C. 31 pairs✓
• D. 33 pairs

Explanation: There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves in the human body. These nerves emerge from the spinal cord and pass through openings between adjacent vertebrae, distributing to various regions of the body.

Q55. The brain is protected by:

• A. Sacrum
• B. Cranium✓
• C. Humerus
• D. Scapula

Explanation: The brain is produced by the "b) Cranium," which forms the protective bony enclosure for this vital organ. The cranium, also known as the skull, is the bony structure that forms the protective enclosure for the brain. It is a complex structure made up of several bones that fuse together during development to provide a solid and robust casing for the brain. The cranium not only safeguards the brain from external injuries but also provides support and structure to the head. The brain is a vital organ of the central nervous system, responsible for controlling various bodily functions, cognitive processes, emotions, and voluntary and involuntary actions. It is encased within the cranium to shield it from mechanical damage and to maintain a stable and protective environment.

Q56. Venous blood enter route from the kidneys to the heart must pass through the:

• A. Iliac vein
• B. Inferior vena cava✓
• C. Liver
• D. Hepatic vein
• E. Pulmonary vein

Explanation: The kidneys receive unfiltered blood directly from the heart through the abdominal aorta which then branches to the left and right renal arteries. Filtered blood then returns by the left and right renal veins to the inferior vena cava and then the heart.

Q57. Premature birth or miscarriage is usually caused by the disturbance in secretion of which of the following hormone?

• A. Estrogen
• B. Progesterone✓
• C. Lactogen
• D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

Explanation: Progesterone is one of the sex hormones closely associated with pregnancy and the menstrual cycle. It can also play a role in recurrent miscarriages or premature birth.

Q58. Enzymes that are functioning within the cell are called:

• A. Endoenzymes✓
• B. Exoenzymes
• C. Holoenzymes
• D. Both A & C

Explanation: Endoenzymes are enzymes that act within the cell, and their catalytic activity is confined to the interior of the cell. They are involved in intracellular processes, catalyzing reactions within the cell's cytoplasm or organelles. Enzymes involved in glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, or other metabolic pathways taking place inside the cell are considered endoenzymes.

Q59. Lack of relaxation between successive contractions is called :

• A. Spasm
• B. Tetany✓
• C. Arthritis
• D. Fatigue

Explanation: Tetany = sustained contraction without relaxation due to continuous stimul.

Q60. Vaccines for all of these have been developed except

• A. Polio
• B. Mumps
• C. Measles
• D. Cancer✓

Explanation: Vaccine is a preparation that is used to stimulate the body's immune response against diseases

Q61. At which site does digestion of starches begin?

• A. 3✓
• B. 7
• C. 8
• D. 12
• E. 13

Explanation: In the mouth, as the chewing begins, saliva is released which has the amylase enzyme. The amylase starts breaking down starch to maltose.

Q62. The shape of grey matter is:

• A. Spherical
• B. Mosquito
• C. Butterfly✓
• D. Rectangular

Explanation: Grey matter is shaped like the letter "H" or a "butterfly". The grey matter consists of neuron cell bodies and non-myelinated parts of the fibres. The white matter is made up of bundles of myelinated fibres.

Q63. Which of the following is true in case of induced fit model?

• A. The substrate changes its shape slightly.
• B. The enzyme changes its shape slightly.✓
• C. None of them changes shape.
• D. Both changes shape.

Explanation: Correct option B Since according to the induced fit model presented by koshland the binding of substrate or other molecules to enzyme causes changes in enzyme to enhance or inhibit its activity.

Q64. The optimum pH for the functioning of enzyme pepsin is:

• A. 2✓
• B. 3
• C. 4
• D. 5

Explanation: The optimum pH for the functioning of the enzyme pepsin is 2. Pepsin is a digestive enzyme produced in the stomach It plays a crucial role in the digestion of proteins.

Q65. Hypothalamus initiates the release of hormones, by their releasing factors, while _ is directly produced by it.

• A. TSH
• B. Oxytocin✓
• C. ACTH
• D. FSH
• E. GH

Explanation: Option A: TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) is released by the anterior pituitary gland in response to a releasing factor called thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus. Option B: Oxytocin is released directly by the hypothalamus into the bloodstream. It is involved in childbirth, breastfeeding, and social bonding. Option C: ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) is released by the anterior pituitary gland in response to a releasing factor called corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamus. ACTH stimulates the release of cortisol from the adrenal glands. Option D: FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and LH (luteinizing hormone) are released by the anterior pituitary gland in response to releasing factors called follicle-stimulating hormone-releasing hormone (FSHRH) and luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) from the hypothalamus. FSH and LH are involved in the regulation of reproduction. Option E: GH (growth hormone) is released by the anterior pituitary gland in response to a releasing factor called growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) from the hypothalamus. GHRH stimulates the release of GH, which is involved in growth and development.

Q66. Some enzymes require the presence of a non protein molecule to behave catalytically. An enzyme devoid of this molecule is called a(n):

• A. Holoenzyme
• B. Apoenzyme✓
• C. Coenzyme
• D. Zymoenzyme

Explanation: Enzyme with a non-proteinous part is called Holoenzyme; without that non-proteinous part, it is called Apoenzyme.

Q67. An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of:

• A. Succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid✓
• B. Cytochrome oxidase by cyanide
• C. Hexokinase by glucose
• D. Carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide

Explanation: The inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid is an example of competitive inhibition. Succinic dehydrogenase is an enzyme involved in the citric acid cycle (also known as the Krebs cycle) and plays a role in the conversion of succinate to fumarate. Malonic acid serves as a competitive inhibitor in this context. It structurally resembles the substrate (succinate) and competes with it for binding to the active site of succinic dehydrogenase. Malonic acid binds to the active site of the enzyme, preventing the normal substrate (succinate) from binding and undergoing the catalytic reaction. The presence of malonic acid decreases the rate of the succinic dehydrogenase-catalyzed reaction by interfering with the binding of succinate.

Q68. A disease caused by an autosomal primary non-disjunction is:

• A. Klinefelter’s syndrome
• B. Turner’s syndrome
• C. Sickle cell anaemia
• D. Down’s syndrome✓

Explanation: Down syndrome is trisomy 21, an autosomal nondisjunction event producing an extra chromosome 21. Klinefelter and Turner involve sex chromosomes; sickle cell is single-gene.

Q69. The mechanism that causes a gene to move from one linkage group to another is called:

• A. Inversion
• B. Duplication
• C. Translocation✓
• D. Crossing over

Explanation: Translocation transfers chromosome segments between non-homologous chromosomes, relocating genes to different linkage groups.

Q70. In the following human pedigree, the filled symbols represent the affected individuals. Identify the type of given pedigree.

• A. Autosomal recessive✓
• B. X-linked dominant
• C. Autosomal dominant
• D. X-linked recessive

Explanation: The correct answer is Autosomal recessive. In the pedigree, the trait appears in individuals who are homozygous recessive, meaning they have inherited two copies of the recessive allele, one from each parent. This pattern typically skips generations, as carriers (heterozygous individuals) do not express the trait but can pass it to their offspring. Other options, such as X-linked dominant, autosomal dominant, and X-linked recessive, do not match the inheritance pattern shown in the pedigree. X-linked dominant would affect all daughters of an affected male, autosomal dominant would appear in every generation, and X-linked recessive would predominantly affect males.

Q71. _ is involved in lipid synthesis/metabolism.

• A. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum✓
• B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
• C. Mitochondria
• D. Vacuoles

Explanation: The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is an organelle that plays a role in lipid synthesis and metabolism. It is involved in the synthesis of lipids, including fatty acids, phospholipids, and steroids, and is also involved in the metabolism of drugs and toxins.

Q72. Which of the following animals can survive without drinking water?

• A. Kangaroo rat✓
• B. Pig
• C. Kangaroo
• D. Camel

Explanation: The kangaroo rat is almost perfectly adapted to life in the desert. They can survive without ever drinking any water, getting needed moisture from their seed diet.

Q73. Nutrition refers to the processes involved in:

• A. Taking in of food
• B. Utilization of food elements
• C. Growth, repair, and maintenance
• D. All of the above options are correct✓

Explanation: Nutrition is the process of taking in food and converting it into energy and other vital nutrients required for life. Nutrients are the substances that provide energy and biomolecules necessary for carrying out the various body functions. All living organisms need nutrients for proper functioning and growth.

Q74. The area on the left hemisphere related to speech is called?

• A. Amygdala
• B. Broca's area✓
• C. Hypothalamus
• D. Occipital lobe

Explanation: Option A: The amygdala is commonly thought to form the core of a neural system for processing fearful and threatening stimuli (4), including detection of threat and activation of appropriate fear-related behaviors in response to threatening or dangerous stimuli. Option B: Broca’s area is also known as the motor speech area. It is near the motor cortex and utilized in speech production, located in the inferior frontal gyrus. This area regulates breathing patterns while speaking and vocalizations required for normal speech. Option C: The Hypothalamus is a structure deep in your brain, acts as your body's smart control coordinating center. Its main function is to keep your body in a stable state called homeostasis. It does its job by directly influencing your autonomic nervous system or by managing hormones. Option D: The occipital lobes sit at the back of the head and are responsible for visual perception, including colour, form, and motion. Damage to the occipital lobe can include: Difficulty with locating objects in the environment

Q75. The diencephalon comprises of:

• A. Pons of medulla
• B. Thalamus and limbic system✓
• C. Pons and medulla
• D. Hypothalamus and limbic system

Explanation: The diencephalon is a part of the brain that is located between the cerebrum and the midbrain. It is made up of four main parts, i.e. thalamus, the hypothalamus, the epithalamus, and the subthalamus. The hypothalamus is also a part of the limbic system.

Q76. A metal cofactor which is used in synthesis of glycolysis is?

• A. Fe3+
• B. Mn2+
• C. Co2+
• D. Mg2+✓

Explanation: "Mg2+" is an inorganic cofactor used in glycolysis to convert glucose into glucose 6-phosphate.

Q77. The primary electron acceptor in cyclic photophosphorylation is:

• A. Carbon dioxide
• B. A protein that contains iron and sulphur✓
• C. NADP
• D. FAD

Explanation: The electron released by P700 in the presence of light is passed to the primary acceptor, ferredoxin, then plastoquinone, cytochrome complex, plastocyanin, and finally back to P700. Ferredoxins are small proteins containing iron and sulphur atoms organised as iron–sulphur clusters. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Q78. A woman with normal colour vision, whose father was red green colour blind, married a red green colour blind man. What is the probability of her born child being red green colour blind?

• A. 1.0
• B. 0.75
• C. 0.50✓
• D. 0.25

Explanation: Males have 1 X chromosome and 1 Y chromosome, and females have 2 X chromosomes. The genes that can give you red-green colour blindness are passed down on the X chromosome.The woman’s father is red-green colour blind. Since the woman got one of her X chromosomes from her father this means that she is a carrier. As it can be seen from the table the probability of having a colourblind child is 0.5%

Q79. Gigantism in human beings is caused due to over secretion of:

• A. Thyrotropin
• B. Corticotropin
• C. Somatotropin✓
• D. Prolactin

Explanation: Gigantism occurs when a child’s pituitary gland makes too much growth hormone, which is also known as somatotropin. Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), also called corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF), is a peptide hormone that activates the synthesis and release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the pituitary gland. In this way, CRH affects our response to stress, addiction and depression, amongst others. Prolactin is a hormone made by the pituitary gland, a small gland at the base of the brain. Prolactin causes the breasts to grow and make milk during pregnancy and after birth. Thyroid-stimulating hormone/Thyrotropin is a hormone produced by anterior pituitary gland that stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine, and then triiodothyronine which stimulates the metabolism of almost every tissue in the body. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Q80. A structure established between the uterine and foetal tissues for the exchange of oxygen, carbon dioxide, waste, nutrients and other materials is:

• A. Amnion
• B. Placenta✓
• C. Endometrium
• D. Uterus

Explanation: The placenta is defined as temporary intimate mechanical and the physiological connection between foetus and maternal tissue for the nutrition, respiration and excretion of the foetus. Human placenta consists of chorion only. The placenta is fully formed by the end of the third month and maintains pregnancy. In the placenta, the foetal blood comes very close to the maternal blood and this permits the exchange of material between the two. Food, water, mineral salt, vitamins, hormone antibodies and oxygen pass from the maternal blood into the foetal blood, and foetal metabolic waste, such as carbon dioxide, and urea, also water and hormones, pass into the maternal blood.

Q81. All of the following statements about arteries are true except:

• A. They are thick-walled
• B. They pulsate
• C. They contain much elastic fiber tissue
• D. They carry blood away from the heart
• E. They contain valves✓

Explanation: Unlike arteries, veins contain valves that ensure blood flows in only one direction. (Arteries don't require valves because pressure from the heart is so strong that blood is only able to flow in one direction.)

Q82. The rate of breathing is controlled by the:

• A. Lungs
• B. Cerebellum
• C. Pons
• D. Medulla oblongata✓
• E. Diaphragm

Explanation: The respiratory center is located in the medulla oblongata and is involved in the minute-to-minute control of breathing.

Q83. The joints that allow movement in two directions are called:

• A. Ball and Socket joint
• B. Hinge joint✓
• C. Cartilaginous joint
• D. Fibrous joint

Explanation: Hinge joints are the ones that allow the movement in only 2 directions. Elbow and knee joints are the examples of hinge joints.

Q84. _ accepts hydrogen from malate

• A. COQ
• B. FMN
• C. FAD
• D. NAD✓

Explanation: Oxidation(Dehydrogenation -IV) is one of the steps of Krebs cycle, in which Malate is oxidized by removal of hydrogen and oxalo-acetate gets regenerated. The hydrogen removed in this reaction is taken up by the coenzyme NAD to form NADH2.

Q85. The absorption and use of calcium are regulated by:

• A. Parathormone✓
• B. Adrenaline
• C. Thyroxin
• D. Thiamin
• E. Prolactin

Explanation: Circulating parathyroid hormone targets the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct, directly increasing calcium reabsorption.

Q86. Irreversible modifications require the synthesis of which of the following?

• A. Enzymes✓
• B. Carbohydrates
• C. Vitamins
• D. Proteins

Explanation: Enzymes: Irreversible modifications, such as covalent modifications (like phosphorylation, methylation, or ubiquitination), typically involve adding or removing chemical groups from a target molecule. These reactions are usually catalyzed by enzymes. Since these modifications are irreversible, it often means a new enzyme is needed to either add the modification or, if it can be reversed (though less common), to remove it. The synthesis of these new enzymes is what's required for the irreversible modification to take place.

Q87. The oxygen and carbon dioxide crosses the plasma membrane by the process of?

• A. Active diffusion
• B. Facilitated diffusion
• C. Passive diffusion✓
• D. Random diffusion

Explanation: Diffusion is the spontaneous movement of gases, without the use of any energy or effort by the body, between the alveoli and the capillaries in the lungs. Perfusion is the process by which the cardiovascular system pumps blood throughout the lungs.

Q88. Which one forms the raw material for coenzymes:

• A. Vitamins✓
• B. Carbohydrates
• C. Lipids
• D. Proteins

Explanation: Most coenzymes are vitamins or are derived from vitamins. Vitamins are organic compounds that are essential in very small (trace) amounts for the maintenance of normal metabolism.

Q89. Which of the following is an exception to cell theory?:

• A. Bacteria
• B. Viruses✓
• C. Protists
• D. Protozoans

Explanation: Viruses are an exception to cell theory since they are within the boundary of living and non-living. Non-living characteristics include the fact that they are not cells, have no cytoplasm or cellular organelles, and carry out no metabolism on their own; therefore, must replicate using the host cell's metabolic machinery which is against cell theory. Living characteristics included the presence of genome and protein.

Q90. At equilibrium, which of the following reactions is not affected by pressure?

• A. ½ N2(g) + ½ O2 (g) ⇌ NO(g)✓
• B. PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
• C. 2NO2 (g) ⇌ N2O4(g)
• D. SO2Cl2(g) ⇌ SO2(g) + Cl2(g)

Explanation: Pressure affects only reactions where the number of gas moles changes. In option A, reactants have 1 mole of gas total (0.5 + 0.5), and the product also has 1 mole. Since gas moles are equal on both sides, pressure has no effect on this equilibrium.

Q91. Which carbon of amino acids bond to nitrogen of another in peptide linkage?

• A. α-Carbon
• B. ẞ-Carbon
• C. Side chain carbon
• D. Carbonyl carbon✓

Explanation: A peptide bond is formed in a dehydration reaction between. two amino acids. The carboxyl group of the first amino acid reacts with the amino group of the second, forming a covalent bond between the carbonyl carbon of the first and the amino nitrogen of the second.

Q92. 1 liter of a gas weighs 2 g at 300 K and 1 atm pressure. If the pressure is made 0.75 atm, at which of the following temperatures will 1 L of the same gas weigh 1 g?

• A. 450 K✓
• B. 800 K
• C. 600 K
• D. 900 K

Explanation: So we know that,P₁V₁ / P₂V₂ = W₁T₁ / W₂T₂Substituting in the above formula we get,=> 1 × 1 / 0.75 × 1 = 2 × 300 / 1 × T₂=> 1 / 0.75 = 600 / T₂Cross Multiplying we get,=> T₂ × 1 = 600 × 0.75=> T₂ = 450 K

Q93. The shape of SnCl2 is:

• A. Linear
• B. Tetrahedral
• C. Angular✓
• D. Trigonal Planar

Explanation: SnCl2 (Tin dichloride) has a bent or V-shaped geometry, which is an example of an angular or non-linear shape. The molecule has a central tin atom that is bonded to two chlorine atoms. The two bond pairs of electrons repel each other, resulting in a bent shape. The bond angle is approximately 119 degrees. This bent shape is due to the lone pair of electrons present on the tin atom. The lone pair occupies a greater amount of space compared to the bond pair, resulting in the distortion of the molecule. In contrast, the linear shape is a molecular geometry in which the atoms of the molecule are arranged in a straight line, like in HCl or CO2. Tetrahedral shape is a molecular geometry that has four atoms attached to a central atom, like in CH4 or CCl4. Trigonal shape is a molecular geometry that has three atoms attached to a central atom, like in BF3.

Q94. The nitrides of alkaline earth metals hydrolyse with water to form:

• A. NH3✓
• B. H2
• C. N2
• D. NO

Explanation: When alkaline earth metal nitride reacts with water, ammonia (NH3) is produced.The reaction of alkaline earth metal nitrides with water is as follows:M3N2 + 6 H2O → 3 M(OH)2+ 2 NH3, where M is an alkaline earth metal.

Q95. One Calorie is equivalent to:

• A. 0.4184 J
• B. 41.84 J
• C. 4.184 J✓
• D. 418.4 J

Explanation: One calorie is defined as the amount of energy needed to raise the temperature of one gram of water by one degree Celsius. The correct conversion is 1 Calorie = 4.184 joules. Option A (0.4184 J) and Option B (41.84 J) are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the conversion rate. Option D (418.4 J) is incorrect as it overestimates the conversion factor. Understanding this conversion is essential when working with energy changes in thermochemical processes.

Q96. Grignard reagent when reacts with CO₂, it forms:

• A. Carboxylic acid✓
• B. Aldehyde
• C. Alkyl Halide
• D. Ketone

Explanation: When Grignard reagent reacts with CO2 it forms Carboxylic salt which undergoes protonation by aqueous acid to form a carboxylic acid.

Q97. Which order reaction obey the expression t1/2 = 1/Ka

• A. First
• B. Second✓
• C. Third
• D. Zero

Explanation: For a second-order reaction, the half-life is inversely proportional to the initial concentration of the reactant, Hence the correct answer is B.For option A, the Half-life of a first-order reaction is inversely proportional to the concentration of the reactant.For option C, the Half-life of a third-order reaction is inversely proportional to the square of the initial concentration of the reactant. Thus, it is incorrect.For Option D, the Half-life is directly proportional to the initial concentration of reactants.

Q98. In which of the following situations is it impossible to predict how the pressure will change for a gas sample?

• A. The gas is cooled at a constant volume.
• B. The gas is heated at a constant volume.
• C. The gas is heated, and the volume is simultaneously increased.✓
• D. The gas is cooled, and the volume is simultaneously increased.

Explanation: Choice (C), on the other hand, presents too vague a scenario for us to predict definitively the change in pressure. Heating the gas would amplify the pressure, while increasing the volume would decrease it. Without knowing the magnitude of each influence, it's impossible to say whether the pressure would increase, decrease, or stay the same.

Q99. The crystals formed as a result of vander der Waals interactions are:

• A. Molecular crystals✓
• B. Covalent crystals
• C. Metallic crystals
• D. Ionic crystals
• E. None of these

Explanation: Molecular crystals have Vander Waal forces between them. Covalent crystals have strong covalent bonds between its structure. Ionic crystals are bound by ionic bonding. Metallic bonds are bound by strong electrostatic attraction between positively charged ions and electrons dispersed in the matrix.

Q100. Which of the following processes is endothermic?

• A. The condensation of steam
• B. The electrolysis of water✓
• C. The freezing of water
• D. 𝐶𝑎(𝑠)+ 2𝐻2O (I)---> 𝐶𝑎2 (aq)+ 𝐻2 (g)
• E. 𝐻+(aq) + OH(aq) ---->𝐻2O (I)

Explanation: During electrolysis, heat is given to the water which gets absorbed by water to give oxygen and hydrogen and so the reaction is an endothermic reaction.

Q101. When N2+ is form N2 bond-order ......... and when O2+ is formed from O2 bond-order:

• A. Increases increases
• B. Decreases decreases
• C. Increases decreases
• D. Decrease increase✓

Explanation: Molecular orbital configuration of N2 is 1s2 2s2 2p3 Molecular orbital configuration of O2 is 1s2 2s2 2p4. When n2+ is formed from n2 electron is removed from sigma- bonding and hence boiling point decreases while o2+ is formed from o2, electron is removed from pie bonding and boiling point increases.

Q102. One of the isomers of C6 H12 (A) has chiral carbon but on hydrogenation it losses is chirality.

• A. 2-methyl-2-pentene
• B. 2,3-Dimethyl-2-butene
• C. 3-methyl-1-pentene✓
• D. 3,3-Dimethyl-1-butane

Explanation: The correct answer is 3-methyl-1-pentene (Option C), which does not have a chiral carbon in its structure. Upon hydrogenation, it will not form a chiral compound as there are no asymmetric carbon centers to begin with.Option A (2-methyl-2-pentene) initially has a chiral carbon, but loses its chirality upon hydrogenation, making it a potential candidate for misunderstanding. However, it is ultimately incorrect because it retains chirality before hydrogenation. Option B (2,3-Dimethyl-2-butene) retains chirality even after hydrogenation, thus it cannot be the correct answer. Option D (3,3-Dimethyl-1-butane) is entirely non-chiral and does not fit the requirement of the question.

Q103. Which one of the following phenol is more soluble in aq: NaCHO3

• A. 2,4-Dihydrox acetophenone✓
• B. 2,4,6-Tricyano phenol
• C. 3,4- Dicyano phenol
• D. P-Cyano phenol

Explanation: Option A, 2,4-Dihydroxy acetophenone, is more soluble in aqueous NaCHO3. The hydroxyl groups in this compound form hydrogen bonds with NaCHO3, increasing its solubility. In contrast, options B, C, and D lack such polar functional groups to facilitate significant solubility.

Q104. A water soluble compound of molecular formula C3H6O gives yellow crystalline solid on heating with I and Na2CO3 , the compound is:

• A. CH3CH2 CHO
• B. CH2 OCH = CH2
• C. CH3 COCH3✓
• D. CH2 =CHCH2 OH

Explanation: When the conditions are alkaline,ketones containing methyl group (CH3CO−) give yellow crystalline solid with I2 And Na2CO3. This is known as the Iodoform reaction.

Q105. Buffer solutions resist change in their?

• A. Temperature
• B. Solubility
• C. Volatility
• D. pH✓

Explanation: Correct option is D. A buffer is a solution that can resist pH change upon the addition of an acidic or basic component. It is able to neutralize small amounts of added acid or base, thus maintaining the pH of the solution relatively stable. This is important for processes and/or reactions which require specific and stable pH ranges.

Q106. Which class of halogenoalkane can react with alkali by an SN2 mechanism?

• A. Primary and secondary✓
• B. Secondary and tertiary
• C. Primary and tertiary
• D. Primary, secondary and tertiary

Explanation: a) Primary and secondary: This option suggests that both primary and secondary halogenoalkanes can react with alkali by an SN2 (substitution nucleophilic bimolecular) mechanism. In SN2 reactions, the nucleophile attacks the carbon atom bearing the leaving group, resulting in a simultaneous substitution of the leaving group and the nucleophile. Primary and secondary halogenoalkanes are suitable for SN2 reactions because they have a less hindered carbon center, allowing the nucleophile to approach and substitute the leaving group more easily.

Q107. How many atoms of carbon are present in 18 g of glucose, 𝐶6 𝐻12 𝑂6?

• A. 6.0 x 1022
• B. 3.6 x 1023✓
• C. 6.0 x 1023
• D. 3.6 x 1024
• E. 6.0 x 1024

Explanation: •18g of glucose =0 1 mol•No of moles of C in = 6mol1mol of glucose•moles of C in 0.1 =0.6molMol of glucose •no.of atoms of C = 0.6×6.02×10²³=3.6×10²³In 0.1 mol of Glucose ACCORDING TO ABOVE CALCULATION OPTION B is only correct

Q108. Regular coiling or zigzagging of polypeptide through hydrogen bonding is its.

• A. Quantum structure
• B. Secondary structure✓
• C. Tertiary structure
• D. Primary structure

Explanation: The regular coiling or zigzagging of a polypeptide chain through hydrogen bonding between amino acids in close proximity is associated with the secondary structure of proteins. Common examples of secondary structures include alpha-helices and beta-pleated sheets. In an alpha-helix, the polypeptide chain forms a helical structure, while in a beta-pleated sheet, it forms a sheet-like structure.Why Other Options are Incorrect:● (a) Quantum structure: The term "quantum structure" is not related to the organization of protein structures. Quantum mechanics is a branch of physics dealing with the behavior of particles at the quantum level.● (c) Tertiary structure: Tertiary structure involves the overall three-dimensional arrangement of the entire polypeptide chain, including interactions between distant amino acids. It goes beyond the local folding seen in secondary structure.● (d) Primary structure: Primary structure refers to the linear sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain and does not involve the specific folding patterns seen in secondary structure.

Q109. For a given mass of gas, if the pressure is reduced to half and its temperature is doubled, then volume V will become?

• A. 4V✓
• B. 2V
• C. V/4
• D. 8V

Explanation: To determine how the volume changes, we use the ideal gas law: PV = nRT. Since the number of moles (n) and the gas constant (R) remain constant, we can compare the initial and final states of the gas:P1V1/T1 = P2V2/T2.Given that the pressure is halved (P2 = P1/2) and the temperature is doubled (T2 = 2T1), substitute these values into the equation:(P1V1/T1) = ((P1/2) * V2) / (2T1)Rearranging and simplifying gives V2 = 4V1, indicating that the volume becomes four times the original.Therefore, the correct answer is 4V. Other options incorrectly interpret the effects of these changes on the volume.

Q110. The RMS speed at NTP of a gas can be calculated from the expression:

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D
• E. Option A, B and C✓
• F. Option D, B, and C

Explanation: Correct option is E

Q111. Which statement is true about electron affinity?

• A. The value of electron affinity is always positive
• B. The value of electron affinity is always negative
• C. The value of first electron affinity is always positive
• D. The value of first electron affinity is always negative✓

Explanation: Electron affinity is the energy change when an atom gains an electron. The first electron affinity is usually exothermic, meaning energy is released, so its value is negative.

Q112. When the number of moles of reactants and products are equal in reversible reaction which parameter would not affect at fusion equilibrium?

• A. Temperature
• B. Pressure✓
• C. None of them
• D. Catalyst

Explanation: When the number of moles of reactants and products is equal, changes in pressure do not affect the equilibrium position because there is no net change in volume. Temperature can affect equilibrium because it can alter the balance of endothermic and exothermic reactions. A Catalyst speeds up the rate of a reaction but does not change the equilibrium position.

Q113. Conversion of Electrical energy into chemical energy is

• A. Mechanical Energy
• B. Electromechanical Energy
• C. Electrochemistry✓
• D. Chemical Energy

Explanation: The conversion of electrical to chemical energy is called electrochemistry.Electrochemistry is the branch of physical chemistry concerned with the relationship between electrical potential difference, as a measurable and quantitative phenomenon, and identifiable chemical change, with the potential difference as an outcome of a particular chemical change, or vice versa.

Q114. Which of the following method is used to prepare acetic acid?

• A. Distillation
• B. Fermentation✓
• C. Dehydration
• D. Ozonolysis

Explanation: Production of acetic acid can be carried out by aerobic and anaerobic fermentation. The fermentation is usually initiated by yeasts which break down glucose into ethyl alcohol with the liberation of carbon dioxide gas. Following on from the yeasts, bacteria (acetobacter aceti) oxidize the alcohol to acetic acid and water. Usually, ozonolysis followed by hydrolysis of alkynes also yields in the formation of carboxylic acids but in the case of ethyne, instead of acetic acid, glyoxal is formed. Hence, the best suited option here is B.

Q115. In an Irreversible reaction the tendency of it to go in reverse direction is

• A. High
• B. Low
• C. Negligible✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: As it is an Irreversible reaction it cannot go in the reverse direction.

Q116. The test used to distinguish among primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols is:

• A. 2, 4 - DNPH test
• B. Tollen’s test
• C. Lucas test✓
• D. Fehling’s solution test

Explanation: The "Lucas test" uses Lucas Reagent, which is a solution of Anhydrous zinc in concentrated H2SO4. The test determines whether alcohol is primary, secondary, or tertiary based on how readily the alcohol gives hydroxyl ions to replace the chloride in zinc chloride. Primary alcohols show the least turbidity (haziness of the liquid's surface indicating that a reaction took place), meaning that it does not react quickly with Lucas Reagent at room temperature. Secondary alcohols show medium turbidity, while tertiary alcohols show the most, meaning that they react readily with Lucas Reagent.

Q117. Which one of the following organic compound has the least carbon - carbon bond length?

• A. Ethane
• B. Ethene
• C. Ethyne✓
• D. Methane

Explanation: Option A is incorrect as Alkanes have the highest bond length (of about 1.54 Angstrom). Option B is incorrect as Alkenes have a lower bond length (of about 1.34 Angstrom). Option C is correct as Alkynes have the lowest bond length (of about 1.20 Angstrom). Option D is incorrect due to similar reasons as stated for Alkanes in option A. Note: The unsaturated compounds have lower bond lengths due to high e- density.

Q118. A catalyst is a substance which:

• A. Stops the reaction
• B. Decreases the rate of reaction
• C. Alters the rate of reaction
• D. Increases the rate of reaction✓

Explanation: Option D is correct as a catalyst is a substance that speeds up a chemical reaction, or lowers the temperature or pressure needed to start one, without itself being consumed during the reaction. Catalysis is the process of adding a catalyst to facilitate a reaction. Hence, Options A, B and C are incorrect.

Q119. In addition to water, which of the following could be found during the incomplete combustion of a hydrocarbon?

• A. Carbon, carbon monoxide and hydrogen✓
• B. Carbon and oxygen
• C. Carbon monoxide and hydrogen
• D. Carbon and carbon monoxide

Explanation: a) Carbon, carbon monoxide, and hydrogen:During the incomplete combustion of a hydrocarbon, if there is not enough oxygen available, the hydrocarbon may not completely burn. This can result in the formation of carbon, carbon monoxide, and hydrogen as byproducts. The carbon is formed due to the incomplete combustion, while carbon monoxide and hydrogen are formed through various chemical reactions in the process.

Q120. Which reagent gives a colorless homogeneous solution when added tp phenol?

• A. Aqueous bromine
• B. Aqueous sodium carbonate
• C. Aqueous sodium hydroxide✓
• D. Aqueous sodium hydroxide and benzoyl chloride

Explanation: Phenol reacts with sodium hydroxide solution to give a colourless solution containing sodium phenoxide. In this reaction, the hydrogen ion has been removed by the strongly basic hydroxide ion in the sodium hydroxide solution

Q121. Secondary structure of protein includes:

• A. α-helix
• B. Both A and C✓
• C. β-sheets
• D. 3-dimensional folding

Explanation: The secondary structure refers to the local, regular folding patterns of the polypeptide chain. The two most commen and well-known types of secondary structure are the a-helix and the B-pleated sheet.

Q122. Which of the following statements about the reaction given below are correct? IO3-(aq) + 2I-(aq) + 6H+(aq) + 6Cl-(aq) -> 3ICl2-(aq) + 3H2O(l)

• A. The oxidation number of iodine in the iodate ion, IO3-(aq), changes from +5 to +1.✓
• B. The oxidation number of iodine in the iodide ion I-, changes from -1 to +2
• C. The oxidation number of chlorine in the iodide ion I- , changes from -1 to -2
• D. Iodate ions are oxidized

Explanation: In IO3-, iodine has an oxidation number of +5 which we can calculate from the oxidation number of oxygen which is -2, and the collective oxidative number of the iodate ion which is -1. On the other hand, we have ICl2- ion in which iodine has the oxidative number of +1 which we can find from the same method but in this case, we have chlorine having the oxidation state of -1. This reduction in the oxidation state of iodide from +5 to +1 is true thus the answer is A.

Q123. As compared to K, Na has:

• A. Larger atomic radius
• B. Higher ionization potential✓
• C. Lower melting point
• D. Lower electronegativity

Explanation: The ionization potential or ionization energy decreases down a group due to an increase in atomic radius, which binds the electron less tightly to the nucleus, hence it is easier to remove. So Na has a higher ionization potential than K.Na has a higher melting point because of less distance between nuclei and electrons, which makes stronger metallic bonds.Na has 3 shells (K, L, M) while K has 4 shells (K, L, M, N), so the atomic radius of Na is smaller than that of K.Na and K are metals and have the property of electropositivity instead of electronegativity.

Q124. Beryllium(Be) shows the diagonal relationship with:

• A. Al✓
• B. B
• C. Mg
• D. Na

Explanation: The elements of the 2nd period, show resemblance in properties with elements of the 3rd period, placed diagonally. This is called the diagonal relationship. Beryllium (Be) shows a diagonal relationship with aluminum (Al).

Q125. The relation between first and second ionization potentials of a given atom is:

• A. I1 < I2✓
• B. I1 > I2
• C. I1 = I2
• D. None of these options

Explanation: Option A is correct as Successive ionization energy increases due to increasing Z. Effective which decreases the size of the electron cloud. This causes an increase in the requirement of energy given for another electron to be ejected. Thus, all other options are rendered as incorrect.

Q126. A crystal system having all sides (a, b and c) unequal and angles α = β = γ = 90 is:

• A. Cubic
• B. Rhombohedral
• C. Orthorhombic✓
• D. Hexagonal

Explanation: This is correct because an orthorhombic system has all three sides unequal (a ≠ b ≠ c), but all angles are 90° (α = β = γ = 90°).

Q127. Which of the following contains the coordinate covalent bond?

• A. N2H5+✓
• B. BaCl2
• C. HCl
• D. H2O

Explanation: The compound that contains the coordinate covalent bond is N2H5+ (hydrazinium ion), where the nitrogen atom donates a pair of electrons to form a bond with the positively charged nitrogen atom.

Q128. Upon which factor is vapor pressure not dependent:

• A. Temperature
• B. Intermolecular forces
• C. Density of liquid
• D. Surface area of liquid✓

Explanation: The surface area of liquid or solid in contact does not affect vapor pressure. Other factors do have an impact on vapor pressure. Higher density decreases vapor pressure, higher temperature increases vapor pressure and higher intermolecular forces also decrease the vapor pressure.

Q129. The process of depositing a thin layer of expensive metals on ordinary or inexpensive metals is called:

• A. Electroplating✓
• B. Conductivity
• C. Galvanizing
• D. Metallurgy

Explanation: In electroplating, we have the object replacing the cathode and the metal, the anode. As the electric current is allowed to flow, the metal ions are formed at the anode, and then they discharge at the cathode which is the object.

Q130. The shape of CO2 molecule is similar to:

• A. H2S
• B. SO2
• C. SnCl2
• D. BeF2✓

Explanation: CO2 has a linear structure with a bond angle of 180 degrees with the central atom (C) having no lone pairs and being sp hybrid. Beryllium in BeF2 has the same configuration. Other options are wrong because: H2S= sp3 SO2=sp2 SnCl2=sp2

Q131. In the electrolysis of molten ZnCl2, how much Zn can be deposited at the cathode by the passage of 0.01 ampere for one hour?

• A. 0.002 g
• B. 0.123 g
• C. 0.012 g✓
• D. 0.004 g

Explanation: In this scenario, we first find the total number of charges flown through the apparatus. The formula that we are going to be using is Charge= Ampere x Time. 1 mole of Zn is formed when we have two moles of electrons being added to 1 mole of Zn2+. 1 mole of electrons carries a charge of 96500 coulombs. So, 2 moles of electrons would have a charge of 193000C. To find the moles of Zn deposited, we have the charge passed divided by the charge required to form 1 mole of Zn. Once we have the moles, we multiply them by the molar mass. For a better understanding, please see the attached solution.

Q132. Metallic character depends on:

• A. Electron affinity
• B. Ionization energy✓
• C. Electronegativity
• D. All of these

Explanation: The metallic character of an element is closely related to its ionization energy. Metallic character refers to how readily an element can lose electrons and form positive ions (cations). Elements with a high metallic character tend to have low ionization energies, while those with low metallic character have high ionization energies. Metallic character depends on an element's ability to lose electrons and form cations, which, in turn, is influenced by its ionization energy.

Q133. The value of surface tension of isopropyl alcohol is:

• A. Less than water✓
• B. Higher than ethylene glycol
• C. Less than methyl alcohol
• D. Same as ethyl alcohol

Explanation: water has strong hydrogen bonding due to its highly polar O-H bonds and small molecular size. In contrast, isopropyl alcohol has weaker hydrogen bonding because the bulky alkyl group (C₃H₇) disrupts intermolecular attractions, reducing surface tension.

Q134. In IUPAC naming, alcohols are named as _.

• A. Alkanal
• B. Alkyl alcohols
• C. Alkanol✓
• D. Alkenol

Explanation: IUPAC names alcohols as alkanols and they are represented in any reaction through the general formula R-OH.

Q135. If a wheel of radius r turns through an angle of 30°, then the distance through which any point on its rim moves is?

• A. r(π/3)
• B. r(π/6)✓
• C. r(π/30)
• D. r(π/180)

Explanation: The dispance through which any point on the rim moves is equal to the the distance the rim has rolled, S. S = rθ where θ is angle in radians Convert 30° to radians 30 x π/180 = π/6 S = r(π/6)

Q136. For static electric field

• A. Δx E=0✓
• B. Δ.E=0
• C. (ΔxE)xE=0
• D. Δ.I E I^2

Explanation: Option A is correct since under static conditions, the tangential component of the electric field is always zero on the surface and the normal component is equal to surface charge density on the conductor divided by the permittivity of space. The symbol flipped triangle represents small lengths d/dt. So the cross product of small lengths and E gives you the tangential component of electric field strength. So that must be zero Option B is incorrect since it does not give the correct formula Option C is incorrect since it does not give the correct formula Option D is incorrect since it does not give the correct formula

Q137. If the number of turns of a solenoid circular coil is doubled, but the current in the coil and radius of the coil remain the same, then what will be the magnetic flux density produced by the coil?

• A. Magnetic flux density will be halved
• B. Magnetic flux density increases by different amount at different points
• C. Magnetic flux density remains unchanged✓
• D. Magnetic flux density will be doubled

Explanation: When the number of turns N is doubled but the solenoid length L also doubles, the magnetic flux density B=μ0(NI/L) remains the same. Therefore, there is no change in B.

Q138. What happens to the pressure of a sample of helium gas if the temperature is increased from 200 K to 800 K, with no change in volume?

• A. Pressure increases by a factor of 4✓
• B. Pressure decreases by a factor of 4
• C. Pressure decreases by a factor of 2
• D. Pressure increases by a factor of 2
• E. No change in pressure

Explanation: Option A: The pressure of the gas will increase by a factor of 4.This is because the ideal gas law states that the pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature, if the volume is held constant. So, if the temperature is increased by a factor of 4, the pressure will also increase by a factor of 4.Here is the equation for the ideal gas law:PV = nRTwhere:P is the pressure of the gasV is the volume of the gasn is the number of moles of gasR is the universal gas constant T is the temperature of the gasIf we keep the volume (V) and the number of moles of gas (n) constant, and increase the temperature (T) by a factor of 4, then the pressure (P) will also increase by a factor of 4.Therefore, the pressure of the gas will increase from 1 atmosphere to 4 atmospheres. Option B: This is not correct. The pressure of a gas can only decrease if the volume is increased or the number of moles of gas is decreased. In this case, the volume is held constant and the number of moles of gas is also held constant. So, the pressure cannot decrease. Option C: This is not correct. The pressure of a gas can only decrease by a factor of 2 if the volume is doubled or the number of moles of gas is halved. In this case, the volume is held constant and the number of moles of gas is also held constant. So, the pressure cannot decrease by a factor of 2. Option D: This is not correct. The pressure of a gas can only increase by a factor of 2 if the temperature is doubled. In this case, the temperature is increased by a factor of 4, so the pressure will increase by a factor of 4, not 2. Option E: This is not correct. The pressure of a gas will only remain constant if the temperature, volume, and number of moles of gas are all held constant. In this case, the temperature is increased, so the pressure will also increase.

Q139. Power developed by a person on eating 100g of ice per minute is (Latent heat of ice is 80 cal/g):

• A. 130 W
• B. 560 cal/sec
• C. 560 J/sec✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: A mass of ice eaten by the man per second.m =100/60=5/3 g/sLatent heat of ice,L = 80 cal/g.Therefore, energy required per second by the man in eating the ice, i.e., power developed by the man.= mL =5/3 x 80 cal/s 3=5x80/3x4.2J/s=560W

Q140. A particle having the charge of 20 electrons falls through a potential difference of 100 volts. Calculate the energy acquired by it in electron volt (eV).

• A. 2.0 x 10-2 eV
• B. 2.0 x 10-3 eV
• C. 2.0 x 102 eV
• D. 2.0 x 103 eV✓

Explanation: Energy = qV= 20e x 100V= 2 x 103 eVHence, option D is the correct option.

Q141. The magnetic lines of force are directed in a manner that they:

• A. Originate at south pole and terminate at north pole
• B. Pass through the magnet
• C. Originate at north pole and terminate at south pole✓
• D. Go away from both the poles

Explanation: The correct answer is Option C: The magnetic lines of force originate at the north pole and terminate at the south pole. This is because magnetic field lines emerge from the north pole and enter the south pole, completing a loop.Option A is incorrect because it reverses the direction of the magnetic lines of force, which do not originate at the south pole.Option B is incorrect in context because, while magnetic lines do pass through the magnet as continuous loops, it does not address their directional origin and termination.Option D is incorrect because magnetic lines of force do not move away from both poles; they form loops, ensuring the magnetic field is present outside the magnet.

Q142. A car is moving in a circular track of radius 20m at a constant speed of 20m/sec. Find the centripetal acceleration?

• A. 20 m/s2✓
• B. 40 m/s2
• C. 30 m/s2
• D. 10 m/s2

Explanation: The formula for centripetal acceleration =v2/r, hence, 202/20=20m/s2

Q143. If the engine power is 3.3kW and it is 60% efficient, how much water will it pump in 5s from a height of 10m?

• A. 60kg
• B. 100kg✓
• C. 75kg
• D. 80kg

Explanation: To calculate the amount of water pumped in 5 seconds from a height of 10 meters, we can use the principle of work and energy. First, let's determine the potential energy of the water at a height of 10 meters.Potential energy (P.E) = mass (m) * gravitational acceleration (g) * height (h)where:g ≈ 9.81 m/s² (gravitational acceleration)Given that the potential energy is transferred into the water by the engine, and the engine is 60% efficient, we can calculate the work done by the engine( Wengine) as follows:Wengine = P.E/efficiency , work done by the engine is also equal to the power (P) of the engine multiplied by time (t):Wengine = P * tWe are given that the engine power (P) is 3.3 kW, and the time (t) is 5 seconds.Now we can set up the equation:3.3 kW * 5 s = PE / 0.60Solving for PE:P.E = 3.3 kW * 5 s * 0.60 ≈ 9.9 kJNow, we can find the mass of the water (m) using the potential energy (P.E):PE = m * g * h9.9 kJ = m * 9.81 m/s² * 10 mSolving for m:m = 9.9 kJ / (9.81 m/s² * 10 m) ≈ 0.101 kg ≈ 100 g

Q144. An automobile is moving forwards with uniform velocity due to the force exerted by its engine. If the force is doubled with the velocity remaining constant, what happens to its total power?

• A. It is squared
• B. It is halved
• C. It is doubled✓
• D. It does not change

Explanation: Power = force * velocityWith velocity kept constant, Power is directly proportional to force. Therefore, doubling force would double power.

Q145. An object is moving along a circular path of radius 4m. What will be its angular displacement if it moves 14 m on this circular path?

• A. 5.0 radians
• B. 3.5 radians✓
• C. 4.5 radians
• D. 5.5 radians

Explanation: Arc length = Radius x Angular displacementS = rθKeeping Arc length as 14m and radius as 4m, we get angular displacement as 3.5 radians.

Q146. The half-life of radium is about 1600 years. Of 100 g of radium existing now, 25 g will remain unchanged after:

• A. 2400 years
• B. 3200 years✓
• C. 6400 years
• D. 4800 years

Explanation: Two half lives later, 100g of gamma rays will be reduced to 25g. 100/2² = 25 The half life of Radium = 1600 yearsTime taken = 2×1600 = 3200 years

Q147. If a nucleus absorbs a photon, the energy of the nucleus:

• A. Remains same
• B. Increase slightly✓
• C. Decreases slightly
• D. It will pass the nucleus

Explanation: Correct option: BThis option is correct because when a nucleus absorbs a photon its energy is increased and becomes excited. As there are energy levels inside the nucleus. When the nucleons get energy they become excited as their energy increases.

Q148. The diagram shows a small magnet hanging on a thread near the end of a solenoid carrying a steady current ‘I’. What happens to the magnet as the iron core is inserted into the solenoid?

• A. It moves towards solenoid and rotates through 180˚
• B. It moves towards the solenoid✓
• C. It moves away from solenoid
• D. It moves away from solenoid and rotates through 180˚

Explanation: According to the right-hand grip rule, a north pole is induced at the end of the solenoid which faces the south pole of the magnet. Since opposite poles attract, the magnet will move towards the solenoid.

Q149. A solenoid is cut into two halves. Magnetic induction due to the same current in each half will be:

• A. Half of the original
• B. Double of the original
• C. Same as original✓
• D. Four times of the original

Explanation: Magnetic field due to a solenoid, B=μo n I, where n= l/N. So, if the length and number of turns become half for a solenoid, n remains the same, and thus magnetic field remains the same.

Q150. A solenoid 15 cm long has 300 turns of wire. A current of 5 A flows through it. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field inside the solenoid?

• A. 75 x 107 T
• B. 60 x 10+3 T
• C. 4π x 10-3✓
• D. 750π x 10+3

Explanation: The magnetic field inside a solenoid is given by the formula:B=μ0nIwhere:B = Magnetic field (T)μ0​ = Permeability of free space (4π×10−7n = Number of turns per unit length (N/L)I = Current (A)Given data:N=300N = 300N=300 turnsL=15L = 15L=15 cm = 0.15 mI=5I = 5I=5 AFirst, calculate n:n=NL=3000.15=2000 turns/mNow, calculate BBB:B=(4π×10−7)×(2000)×(5)Approximating π≈3.1416B≈4×3.1416×10−3

Q151. Magnetic force on a charged particle is:

• A. QvBl
• B. None of these
• C. QvB cosθ
• D. QvB sinθ✓

Explanation: When a charge moves through a magnetic field, a force is applied on it which is given by:F = QvB sinθQvBl is the motional EMF produced when a conductor moves through a static magnetic field.

Q152. Alpha rays are nuclear radiation. They are the same as the _ nuclei.

• A. Hydrogen
• B. Deuterium
• C. Tritium
• D. Helium✓
• E. Lithium

Explanation: Alpha particle has charge of +2e and mass no 4Hydrogen has a charge of +e and mass no 1Deutrium has charge of +e and mass no 2Tritrium has charge of +e and mass no 3Helium has charge of +2e and mass no 4 Lithium has charge of +3e and mass no 7This confirms that alpha rays are same as the Helium Nuclei.

Q153. The magnetic field is produced in a solenoid depends on:

• A. Its length
• B. Its length and current in it
• C. Its length and number of turns in it
• D. The number of turns and current in it✓

Explanation: The correct answer is The number of turns and current in it. The magnetic field strength inside a solenoid is determined by the product of the current flowing through it and the number of turns per unit length. While the length of the solenoid influences the uniformity of the magnetic field, it does not significantly impact its strength. Thus, Option D is correct. Options A, B, and C incorrectly emphasize the length of the solenoid as a primary factor, which is not the case.

Q154. The path difference for the constructive interference is:

• A. (n-1)λ
• B. (n+1)λ
• C. n λ / 2
• D. 2n λ
• E. n λ✓

Explanation: Option A: (n-1)λ: This is the path difference for destructive interference. When the path difference is one wavelength less than a whole number of wavelengths, the waves will be out of phase and will cancel each other out. Option B: (n+1)λ: This is also the path difference for destructive interference. When the path difference is one wavelength more than a whole number of wavelengths, the waves will be out of phase and will cancel each other out. Option C: nλ/2: This is the path difference for a node. A node is a point where the waves cancel each other out completely. Option D: 2nλ: This is not possible, as the path difference cannot be greater than the wavelength of the wave. Option E: The path difference for constructive interference is nλ, where n is any integer. This means that the difference in the distance traveled by two waves must be a whole number of wavelengths. When this happens, the waves will be in phase and will add together to create a larger wave.

Q155. Which row describes the oscillations of two moving particles in a stationary wave that are separated by a distance of half a wavelength?

• A. A
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D✓

Explanation: 1 full wavelength is 2π or 360°, so half wavelength will have a 180° difference or π. Amplitude will be the same as it is the same particle, unless told otherwise. Hence, option D.

Q156. The kinetic energy of a projectile at the highest point is half of its kinetic energy. The angle of projection is

• A. 00
• B. 300
• C. 600
• D. 450✓
• E. 900

Explanation: Let K.Ei and K.Eh be the initial kinetic energy and kinetic energy at the highest point respectively.Let v be the initial velocity of the projectile.At highest point, the velocity of projectile =vcosθAccording to question(KE)h=1/2(KE)i=>1/2mv2 cos2θ = ½(½ mv^)=>cos2θ=1/2=>cos θ=1/√2=>θ =45°.

Q157. A small and a large raindrops are falling through air

• A. The small drop will evaporate
• B. The large drop moves faster✓
• C. The small drop moves faster
• D. Both move with the same speed
• E. No conclusion can be drawn unless the exact sizes of the drops are known

Explanation: vt=2r2ρg/9ηWhere ρ is the density of water and η the viscosity of air. As the terminal velocity of the sphere is directly proportional to the square of radius. So a larger drop will have larger terminal velocity and hence will move faster.

Q158. A body of mass 1 kg is rotated in a horizontal circle of radius 1 m and moves with a velocity of 2m/s. The work done in 10 revolutions is:

• A. 40 J
• B. 20 J
• C. 4x2π (10)J
• D. zero✓

Explanation: Option D is correct as there is no change in P.E. as well as in the K.E. therefore work done is zero. Work done in circular motion is zero, as distance covered by object is zero.

Q159. Light of wavelength 400 nm is incident continuously on a cesium ball (work function 1.9 eV). The maximum potential to which the ball will be charged is:

• A. 3.1 V
• B. 1.2 V✓
• C. Zero
• D. Infinite

Explanation: Calculate the energy of the incident photon:Use the formula: Ephoton = (hc) / λWhere:Ephoton is the energy of the photonh is Planck's constant (6.626 x 10-34 J s)c is the speed of light (3 x 108 m/s)λ is the wavelength of the light (400 nm = 400 x 10-9 m)E_photon = (6.626 x 10-34 J s * 3 x 108 m/s) / (400 x 10-9 m)E_photon = 4.9695 x 10-19 J Convert the photon energy to electron volts (eV):1 eV = 1.602 x 10-19JE_photon (eV) = E_photon (J) / (1.602 x 10-19 J/eV)E_photon (eV) = 4.9695 x 10-19 J / (1.602 x 10-19J/eV)E_photon (eV) ≈ 3.1 eVUse the photoelectric effect equation:E_photon = Work Function (Φ) + Kinetic Energy (KE) of emitted electronsCalculate the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons:KEmax = E_photon - ΦKEmax = 3.1 eV - 1.9 eVKEmax = 1.2 eVDetermine the stopping potential (V_s):The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons is equal to the work done by the stopping potential to stop them.KEmax = eV_s, where e is elementary charge (i.e. we divide KE by electron charge) and Vs is the stopping potentialVs = KEmax / e, and since the KE is already in eV, then it will simply be:Vs = 1.2 V

Q160. If K.E of free electron is doubled, its de broglie wavelength becomes?

• A. 1/√8
• B. √2
• C. 1/√2✓
• D. 2

Explanation: The de Broglie wavelength (λ) of a particle is given by the equation λ = h / p, where h is Planck's constant and p is the momentum of the particle.The kinetic energy (K.E.) of an electron can be related to its momentum using the equation K.E. = p² / (2m), where m is the mass of the electron.Let's consider the initial kinetic energy of the electron as K.E.1. If the kinetic energy is doubled (2K.E.1), the new kinetic energy becomes K.E. 2 = 2K.E.1.Since the momentum (p) of the electron is related to its kinetic energy, we can write:K.E.1 = p₁² / (2m)K.E.2 = p₂² / (2m)Dividing the second equation by the first equation:2K.E.1 / K.E.1 = (p₂² / (2m)) / (p₁² / (2m))2 = (p₂² / p₁²)Taking the square root of both sides:√2 = p₂ / p₁Now, we can substitute this relationship between the momenta into the de Broglie wavelength equation:λ₂ = h / p₂ = h / (p₁ * √2)Rearranging, we get:λ₂ = (1/√2) * (h / p₁) = (1/√2) * λ₁Therefore, when the kinetic energy of a free electron is doubled, its de Broglie wavelength becomes (1/√2) times the original wavelength.

Q161. Angle between radius vector and centripetal acceleration is

• A. 0°
• B. π✓
• C. 2π
• D. none of these

Explanation: When a particle moves in a circular path, the radius vector points from the center of the circle to the particle, while the centripetal acceleration points towards the center of the circle. Therefore, they are directed opposite each other, making the angle between them 180°. In radians, this angle is represented as π, making Option B the correct choice.Option A (0°) is incorrect because that would imply the vectors point in the same direction. Option C (2π) is incorrect because it suggests a full circle, which is not applicable here. Option D is incorrect because the correct answer is indeed included in the given options.

Q162. The length and radius of an electric resistance of a certain wire are doubled simultaneously, then the:

• A. Resistance will be doubled and specific resistance will be halved
• B. Resistance will be halved and specific resistance will remain uncharged✓
• C. Resistance will be halved and specific resistance will be doubled
• D. Resistance and specific resistance will both remain uncharged

Explanation: Correct option is B. The formula for resistance of wire is given by: ρ = RA/l. In Specific resistance there will be no Change . Specific resistance will remain the same as it is a material property but a point to be remembered is that it depends upon temperature.

Q163. An ambulance siren emits a sound of frequency 1800 Hz. The speed of sound in air is 330m/s. If the ambulance moves toward a stationary observer at a constant speed of 50m/s. What is the frequency heard by the observer?

• A. (1800 x 290) / 330
• B. (1800 x 330) / 370
• C. (1800 x 330) / 280✓
• D. (1800 x 330) / 380

Explanation: Formula for this case, when source is moving and observer is stationary, is: f' = f (v) / (v - vs) where: f = frequency of the sound emitted by the source v = speed of sound in air = 330 m/s vs = speed of the source Plugging in the values, we get: f' = 1800 x (330) / (330 - 50) = 1800 x 330 / 280

Q164. Consider two capacitors with capacitance 2µF and 4µF. With which type of connection will the 4µF capacitor have a greater amount of stored energy than the 2µF capacitor?

• A. Series
• B. Parallel✓
• C. Either series or parallel
• D. Neither series nor parallel

Explanation: Option A) Series and Option C) Either series or parallel are not correct because in a series connection, the 4uF capacitor will have a smaller amount of stored energy than the 2uF capacitor because it has a smaller capacitance.Option B) This is because the capacitance in parallel circuits is greater.

Q165. A first harmonic stationary sound wave is produced in the air of the cylinder, which is half-filled with water. More water is added to the cylinder, and now first harmonic stationary wave is produced with a different frequency. What is the change in frequency and nature of displacement in air at the surface of the water?

• A. Nature of displacement = antinode change in frequency = decrease
• B. Nature of displacement = antinode change in frequency = increase
• C. Nature of displacement = node change in frequency = increase✓
• D. Nature of displacement = node change in frequency = decrease

Explanation: Since the cylinder is half-filled with water, we can treat this as a pipe where it is closed on one end and open on the other. The closed end is a node. Adding water would decrease the original length, change the node, and increase the frequency as the formula for frequency is F = V/2L and since the length is decreasing, the frequency is increasing. Hence Option C is correct.

Q166. The voltage that is applied across X-plates is provided by a circuit called:

• A. Audio generator
• B. Time base generator✓
• C. Signal generator
• D. Linear generator

Explanation: The circuit that provides voltage to X-plates is called a "time base generator". It is a type of electronic circuit used in electronic displays such as oscilloscopes and television sets. The time base generator generates a sawtooth waveform which is used to control the horizontal deflection of the electron beam in a CRO (Cathode Ray Oscilloscope). This allows the display of time-varying signals such as waveforms and images.

Q167. Astronomers calculate the speed of distant stars moving away from us using:

• A. Beats
• B. Interference
• C. Superposition principle
• D. Doppler effect✓

Explanation: If a star is moving toward us, its light wavelength get shorter, producing a blueshift. If a star is moving away, its light waves get stretched out to longer, redder, wavelengths, producing a redshift. The faster the star, the greater this shift, so observers can measure the line-of-sight speed from the Doppler shift.

Q168. Alpha, Beta and Gamma radiations are emitted from a radioactive substance:

• A. When it is heated.
• B. When it is subjected to high pressure.
• C. When it interacts with another particle.
• D. Spontaneously.✓

Explanation: Radioactive decay is a natural process where unstable atomic nuclei lose energy by emitting radiation spontaneously. This process occurs irrespective of external conditions such as temperature, pressure, or interactions with other particles, making the emission of alpha, beta, and gamma radiation a spontaneous event. Heating or applying pressure does not trigger radioactive decay, and while nuclear reactions might involve interactions with particles, the typical decay and emission of radiation from a radioactive substance are independent of these factors.

Q169. Newton's third law is derived from:

• A. Newton's first law
• B. Both of these
• C. None of these
• D. Newton's second law✓

Explanation: Newton's second law tells us that Fnet = 0 and Newton's third law states that to every action, there is always an equal and opposite reaction. Mathematically, FAB = -FBA. When both forces, acting opposite, will be equal then the net force will be zero as implied by the second law.The diagram below simplifies Newton's third law of motion;

Q170. Which of the following is a unit of impulse?

• A. Nm/s
• B. Kgm/s✓
• C. N/s
• D. N/m

Explanation: Impulse refers to the force acting on an object for a short period of time. Its units include Ns (newton-second) and kgm/s (kilogram metre per second).It can be calculated by this formula: ΔP = ΔF x t

Q171. 8, 10, 14, 18, _ , 34, 50 , 66:

• A. 24
• B. 25
• C. 26✓
• D. 27

Explanation: The series progresses as follows: starting from 8, we add 2 to get 10, then add 4 to get 14, again add 4 to get 18. The next step requires adding 8 to 18, resulting in 26. This fits the established pattern of increasing increments: +2, +4, +4, +8. The subsequent number in the series is then 34, followed by 50, and 66, which confirm the sequence's consistency. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not adhere to this increment pattern.

Q172. Analogies:Measure is to caliper as direction is to:

• A. Speed
• B. Hiking
• C. Needle
• D. Compass✓

Explanation: The word that completes the analogy is "compass." A caliper is a measuring tool that is used to measure the distance between two points, while a compass is a tool that is used to determine the direction of a magnetic field. Therefore, the relationship between measure and caliper is similar to the relationship between direction and compass.

Q173. Making Judgements:Arrange the following words in a meaningful sequence. 1.lnfection 2.Consultation 3.Doctor 4.Treatment 5.Recovery

• A. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
• B. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5✓
• C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
• D. 2, 3, 5, 1, 4

Explanation: Infection occurs first, then one visits a doctor, and after consultation, the doctor starts the treatment which is followed by recovery.

Q174. Statements:I. There is an unprecedented increase in the number of young unemployed in comparison to the previous year.II. A large number of candidates submitted applications against an advertisement for the post of manager issued by a bank.

• A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect✓
• B. Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its effect
• C. Both statements I and II are independent causes
• D. Both statements I and II are effects of independent causes

Explanation: An increase in the number of unemployed youth is bound to draw in huge crowds for a single vacancy.

Q175. Verbal ClassificationWhat will the area of a triangle will be when a = lm, b = 2m, c = 3m, a, b, c being lengths of respective sides?

• A. 0 sq m✓
• B. 3 sq m
• C. 2 sq m
• D. Both A and B

Explanation: Putting in values in given formulas, we will get 0 sq m.

Q176. Waiter : Tip

• A. Student : Marks
• B. Worker : Bonus✓
• C. Employee : Wages
• D. Clerk : Bribe

Explanation: (B) Worker : Bonus (Correct Answer) – Correct. A worker may receive a bonus, similar to how a waiter receives a tip.

Q177. Statements: 1. The temperature on Monday was lower than on Tuesday. 2. The temperature on Wednesday was lower than on Tuesday. 3. The temperature on Monday was higher than on Wednesday. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is:

• A. True
• B. False
• C. Uncertain✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: The statements establish that Tuesday had the highest temperature (Tuesday > Monday and Tuesday > Wednesday). However, they do not provide any information to compare the temperatures of Monday and Wednesday directly. Monday could have been warmer, colder, or the same temperature as Wednesday.

Q178. Each problem consists of three statements. Based on the first two statements, the third statement may be true, false, or uncertain.Oat cereal has more fiber than corn cereal but less fiber than bran cereal.Corn cereal has more fiber than rice cereal but less fiber than wheat cereal.Of the three kinds of cereal, rice cereal has the least amount of fiber.If the first two statements are true, the third statement is:

• A. True✓
• B. False
• C. Uncertain
• D. None of these

Explanation: To determine if the third statement is true or false, analyze the given statements: Oat cereal has more fiber than corn but less than bran. Corn has more fiber than rice but less than wheat. Rice cereal is not mentioned as having more fiber than any other cereal. Thus, rice cereal logically has the least fiber among the cereals mentioned. Option A is correct. Options B and C are incorrect because they contradict the logical deduction from the statements. Option D is incorrect because Option A is indeed correct.

Q179. Each problem consists of three statements. Based on the first two statements, the third statement may be true, false, or uncertain.Battery X lasts longer than Battery Y.Battery Y doesn't last as long as Battery Z.Battery Z lasts longer than Battery X.If the first two statements are true, the third statement is:

• A. True
• B. False
• C. Uncertain✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: The first two statements establish that Battery Y has the shortest lifespan. However, they do not provide a direct comparison between Battery Z and Battery X. Therefore, it is uncertain if Battery Z lasts longer than Battery X, making the third statement uncertain. Options A and B are incorrect because they assume a certainty in the relationship that is not supported by the provided information.