Federal Mdcat Mock Paper 2 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Identify the word or phrase that needs to be changed for the sentence to be correct:The stories that she makes out for her children ought to be written down and published.

• A. That
• B. Makes out✓
• C. Ought to
• D. Written down
• E. No error

Explanation: "That" is correctly placed as a demonstrative pronoun.To "make out" means to manage with some difficulty to see or hear someone or something so it is incorrectly used here. "Makes" would be the correct word for the blank."Ought to" can be used to indicate light responsibility or urgency. It is correctly used in the sentence.It means to record something by writing down.An error was present in the sentence.

Q2. Choose the correct sentence from the following options:

• A. The government should accrue taxes for strengthen the economy of the country.
• B. The government should accrue taxes in strengthen the economy of the country
• C. The government should accrue taxes to strengthen the economy of the country.✓
• D. The government should accrue taxes by strengthen the economy of the country.

Explanation: By comparing all four sentences ,you notice there is only one difference i.e. PREPOSITION and for fact the best suited is 'to strengthen'.

Q3. Each sentence below has a blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word that best fits in with the meaning of the sentence as a whole.The air in a room that contains several houseplants can be more _ oxygen than in a room that contains no plants.

• A. Complicated by
• B. Exhausted with
• C. Obscured by
• D. Saturated with✓

Explanation: The word "saturated" most accurately indicates the density of the oxygen in the room. The other answer choices do not fit the context of the sentence.

Q4. In the following question, a sentence is given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word. Four alternatives are suggested. Choose the correct alternative, out of the four as your answer.Ravens appear to behave _, actively helping one another to find food.

• A. Mysteriously✓
• B. Warily
• C. Aggressively
• D. Defensively

Explanation: Ravens appear to behave mysteriously, showing puzzling or clever actions, such as actively helping one another to find food.

Q5. Select the option which fits appropriately in the blank:Everyone _ done his or her homework.

• A. Has✓
• B. Have
• C. Had
• D. None

Explanation: This is the correct form. "Has" is used with the indefinite pronoun "everyone," which is singular. In English, indefinite pronouns like "everyone," "somebody," "anybody," etc., are treated as singular subjects and require a singular verb form. Therefore, "has" agrees with "everyone" in number.

Q6. Jack is six years old, but he _ French and Spanish.

• A. Speaking
• B. Is speaking
• C. Speaks✓
• D. Speak

Explanation: The correct verb form to use in the sentence "Jack is six years old, but he _ French and Spanish" is speaks. The present simple tense is used to talk about things that are always true or that happen regularly. In this case, we are talking about Jack's ability to speak French and Spanish, which is something that he does regularly. Here is the correct sentence:Jack is six years old, but he speaks French and Spanish.

Q7. Select the most suitable synonym for the given word:JUXTAPOSE:

• A. Justify
• B. Compare✓
• C. Expose
• D. Jettison

Explanation: Juxtapose means to compare two contrasting things/traits.

Q8. Which one is grammatically correct? Read carefully.

• A. Both are correct
• B. Speak up! I can't hear you because your dog is making too much noise.✓
• C. Both are wrong
• D. Speak up! I can't hear you because your dog is making much too noise.

Explanation: Too much is used as a determiner with singular (uncountable) nouns while much too is used with comparatives and adjectives. As noise is a noun, therefore too much noise is grammatically correct.

Q9. Choose the related word for Rat on the analogy of "Elephant : Stride".

• A. Scamper✓
• B. Loiter
• C. Whimper
• D. Gallop

Explanation: Elephants take long steps while walking which is known as a stride. Similarly, a rat scampers which means it runs in quick, light movements.

Q10. The process of RNA interference (RNAi) has been used in the development of plants resistant to:

• A. Nematodes✓
• B. Fungi
• C. Viruses
• D. Insects

Explanation: Many nematodes live in plants and animals including human beings. A nematode Meloidogyne incognita infests the roots of tobacco plants and causes a great reduction in yield. A novel strategy was adopted to prevent this infection that was based on the process of RNA interference (RNAi). RNA interference (RNAi) is the phenomenon of inhibiting the activity of a gene by the synthesis of RNA molecules complementary to the mRNA. The normal (in vivo synthesized) mRNA of a gene is said to be “sense” because it carries the codons that are “read” during translation. Normally, the complement to the mRNA “sense” strand will not contain a sequence of codons that can be translated to produce a functional protein; thus, this complementary strand is called “anti-­sense RNA”. The anti­-sense RNA and mRNA molecules will anneal to form duplex RNA molecules (or double-stranded RNA) and the duplex RNA molecules can not be translated. Thus, the presence of anti­sense RNA will block translation of the mRNA of the affected gene.

Q11. Which one of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of the human nephron?

• A. Podocytes: create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s capsule✓
• B. Henle’s loop: most absorption of the major substances from the glomerular filtrate
• C. Distal convoluted tubule: reabsorption of K + ions into the surrounding blood capillaries
• D. Afferent arteriole: carries the blood away from the glomerulus towards renal vein.

Explanation: The visceral layer of Bowman’s capsule surrounds the glomerulus and is composed of special type of cells, the podocytes. The podocytes are so called because they possess foot like processes (projection), the pedicels. The space between pedicels are called slit pores (filtration slits) through which the glomerular filtrate filters.

Q12. Detoxification of drugs is the function of _ in a cell.

• A. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
• B. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum✓
• C. Liver cells
• D. Lysosome

Explanation: The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is a part of the endoplasmic reticulum which does not possess ribosomes studded on its membrane. It is involved in the detoxification of many poisons and drugs such as lipid soluble drugs, aspirin, insecticides (DDT), petroleum products and pollutants and converting them to safer water-soluble products.

Q13. Holoenzyme is?

• A. Protein part of enzyme
• B. Non-protein part of enzyme
• C. Complete enzyme✓
• D. Inactive enzyme

Explanation: A holoenzyme is the complete, active form of an enzyme. It is composed of an apoenzyme, which is the protein portion, and one or more cofactors, which can be metal ions or organic molecules known as coenzymes. These components together allow the holoenzyme to perform its catalytic function. Option A and B are incorrect because they describe only parts of the enzyme system, not the complete active form. Option D is incorrect because it describes an inactive enzyme, which is an apoenzyme, not a holoenzyme.

Q14. A non­-proteinaceous enzyme is:

• A. Lysozyme
• B. Ribozyme✓
• C. Ligase
• D. Deoxyribonuclease

Explanation: The correct answer is Ribozyme. Ribozymes are unique because they are RNA molecules with catalytic properties, unlike typical enzymes, which are proteins. Ribozymes can catalyze reactions such as RNA cleavage and ligation, and they play crucial roles in the function of ribosomes. The other options, Lysozyme, Ligase, and Deoxyribonuclease, are all protein-based enzymes; hence, they do not fit the description of a non-proteinaceous enzyme.

Q15. Which of the following is the least likely to be involved in stabilizing the three­ dimensional folding of most proteins?

• A. Hydrogen Bonds
• B. Electrostatic Interaction
• C. Hydrophobic Interaction
• D. Ester Bonds✓

Explanation: Protein folding is the process by which a protein structure assumes its functional shape or conformation by allowing interaction between amino acids by various bond formations. All protein molecules are heterogeneous unbranched chains of amino acids. Different types of weak interactions hold the interacting segments together in protein. Hydrophobic interaction, H bonds, and electrostatic interactions are the weak ones and stabilize the tertiary structure of proteins, while ester bonds are covalent bonds and are least likely to be involved in stabilizing the three-dimensional folding of most proteins.

Q16. In which type of cells, cell wall is not present?

• A. Plant cells
• B. Fungal cells
• C. Bacterial cells
• D. Liver cells✓

Explanation: A cell wall is a structural layer surrounding some types of cells, just outside the cell membrane. It can be tough, flexible, and sometimes rigid. It provides the cell with both structural support and protection, and also acts as a filtering mechanism. No cells in the human body have a cell wall, hence liver cells will not have one either. Plant cell walls are primarily made of cellulose, which is the most abundant macromolecule on Earth. The cell wall is a characteristic structure of fungi and is composed mainly of glucans, chitin, and glycoproteins. The bacterial cell wall consists of peptidoglycan, an essential protective barrier for bacterial cells that encapsulates the cytoplasmic membrane.

Q17. The bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2 ) released from body tissues into the blood is present as:

• A. Bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs✓
• B. Free CO2 in blood plasma
• C. 70% carbamino­haemoglobin and 30% as bicarbonate
• D. Carbamino­haemoglobin in RBCs

Explanation: Most of the carbon dioxide released from body tissues into the blood is transported as bicarbonate ions in both the plasma and red blood cells. A smaller amount binds with hemoglobin to form carbaminohemoglobin, and only a tiny fraction remains as free CO₂ in the plasma.

Q18. The diagram is taken from an electron of a cell, name the organelle labeled D:

• A. Nucleus
• B. Lysosomes
• C. Golgi complex
• D. Mitochondria✓
• E. Endoplasmic reticulum

Explanation: Mitochondria are bean- shaped membrane bounded organelles. Cristae is the fold in the inner membrane of mitochondria which is visible in the picture.

Q19. Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are:

• A. T­-DNA
• B. Bacterial artificial chromosome & Yeast artificial chromosome✓
• C. Expression vectors
• D. TA cloning vectors

Explanation: Bacterial artificial chromosome (BAC) vectors are based on the natural, extra­-chromosomal plasmid of E. coli. BAC vector contains genes for replication and maintenance of the F-factor, a selectable marker and cloning site. These vectors can accommodate up to 300­-350 kb(kilo base) of foreign DNA and are also being used in genome sequencing project. Yeast artificial chromosome (YAC) vectors are used to clone DNA fragments of more than 1Mb in size. Therefore, they have been exploited extensively in mapping the large genomes, e.g., in the Human Genome Project. These vectors contain the telomeric sequence, the centromere and the autonomously replicating sequence from yeast chromosomes.

Q20. In which of the following is the organic compound COOH (carboxyl) group found? (I) Carbohydrate (II) Lipid (III) Protein

• A. I only
• B. II only
• C. I and II only
• D. II and III only✓
• E. I , II and III

Explanation: Carboxyl groups are commonly found in amino acids, fatty acids, and other biomolecules. Whereas carbohydrates only contain atoms of carbon hydrogen and oxygen they don't have any functional group.

Q21. What forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting?

• A. The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA
• B. The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin, and saliva
• C. The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints
• D. Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated, short DNA segments✓

Explanation: DNA fingerprinting is a technique of determining nucleotide sequences of certain areas of DNA which are unique to each individual. The difference of about 0.1% or 3 × 106 base pairs (out of 3 × 10 9 bp) provides individuality to each human being. The human genome possesses numerous small noncoding but inheritable sequences of bases that are repeated many times. These sequences occur near telomere, centromeres, Y chromosome, and heterochromatic area. The area with the same sequence of bases repeated several times is called repetitive DNA. It is separated as a satellite from the bulk DNA during density gradient centrifugation and hence called satellite DNA where repetition of the bases is in tandem. Satellite DNAs show polymorphism (the occurrence of mutations in a population at high frequency), which is the basis of genetic mapping of human genome as well as DNA fingerprinting. While mutations in genes produce alleles with different expressions, mutations in noncoding repetitive DNA have no immediate impact. These mutations which have piled up with time form the basis of polymorphism.

Q22. A disease caused by an autosomal primary non-disjunction is:

• A. Klinefelter’s syndrome
• B. Turner’s syndrome
• C. Sickle cell anaemia
• D. Down’s syndrome✓

Explanation: Down syndrome is trisomy 21, an autosomal nondisjunction event producing an extra chromosome 21. Klinefelter and Turner involve sex chromosomes; sickle cell is single-gene.

Q23. The mechanism that causes a gene to move from one linkage group to another is called:

• A. Inversion
• B. Duplication
• C. Translocation✓
• D. Crossing over

Explanation: Translocation transfers chromosome segments between non-homologous chromosomes, relocating genes to different linkage groups.

Q24. The external solution having more concentration than the cell sap is known:

• A. Hypertonic solution✓
• B. Hypotonic solution
• C. Isotonic solution
• D. None of these

Explanation: The correct answer is a hypertonic solution. In osmoregulation, when a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, the external environment has a higher concentration of solutes compared to the inside of the cell. This concentration difference causes water to move out of the cell through osmosis, leading to a decrease in cell volume and potential plasmolysis. Conversely, a hypotonic solution would cause water to move into the cell, and an isotonic solution would result in no net water movement. None of these is incorrect because the correct term for a solution with higher solute concentration than the cell sap is indeed a hypertonic solution.

Q25. The antigen-antibody complexes formed in the body are taken up by:

• A. Phagocytes✓
• B. Lymphocytes
• C. Monocytes
• D. Leukocytes

Explanation: Phagocytes, such as neutrophils and macrophages, are crucial for the immune system's function of engulfing and digesting foreign particles, including antigen-antibody complexes. These cells are equipped to identify and internalize these complexes, aiding in their removal from the body. While lymphocytes are vital for recognizing antigens and initiating immune responses, they do not perform phagocytosis. Monocytes can differentiate into macrophages, which are phagocytic, but the term 'monocytes' itself does not directly imply phagocytic activity. Leukocytes encompass a broader category of white blood cells, not all of which are phagocytic.

Q26. In the following human pedigree, the filled symbols represent the affected individuals. Identify the type of given pedigree.

• A. Autosomal recessive✓
• B. X-linked dominant
• C. Autosomal dominant
• D. X-linked recessive

Explanation: The correct answer is Autosomal recessive. In the pedigree, the trait appears in individuals who are homozygous recessive, meaning they have inherited two copies of the recessive allele, one from each parent. This pattern typically skips generations, as carriers (heterozygous individuals) do not express the trait but can pass it to their offspring. Other options, such as X-linked dominant, autosomal dominant, and X-linked recessive, do not match the inheritance pattern shown in the pedigree. X-linked dominant would affect all daughters of an affected male, autosomal dominant would appear in every generation, and X-linked recessive would predominantly affect males.

Q27. The area on the left hemisphere related to speech is called?

• A. Amygdala
• B. Broca's area✓
• C. Hypothalamus
• D. Occipital lobe

Explanation: Option A: The amygdala is commonly thought to form the core of a neural system for processing fearful and threatening stimuli (4), including detection of threat and activation of appropriate fear-related behaviors in response to threatening or dangerous stimuli. Option B: Broca’s area is also known as the motor speech area. It is near the motor cortex and utilized in speech production, located in the inferior frontal gyrus. This area regulates breathing patterns while speaking and vocalizations required for normal speech. Option C: The Hypothalamus is a structure deep in your brain, acts as your body's smart control coordinating center. Its main function is to keep your body in a stable state called homeostasis. It does its job by directly influencing your autonomic nervous system or by managing hormones. Option D: The occipital lobes sit at the back of the head and are responsible for visual perception, including colour, form, and motion. Damage to the occipital lobe can include: Difficulty with locating objects in the environment

Q28. The diencephalon comprises of:

• A. Pons of medulla
• B. Thalamus and limbic system✓
• C. Pons and medulla
• D. Hypothalamus and limbic system

Explanation: The diencephalon is a part of the brain that is located between the cerebrum and the midbrain. It is made up of four main parts, i.e. thalamus, the hypothalamus, the epithalamus, and the subthalamus. The hypothalamus is also a part of the limbic system.

Q29. A woman with normal colour vision, whose father was red green colour blind, married a red green colour blind man. What is the probability of her born child being red green colour blind?

• A. 1.0
• B. 0.75
• C. 0.50✓
• D. 0.25

Explanation: Males have 1 X chromosome and 1 Y chromosome, and females have 2 X chromosomes. The genes that can give you red-green colour blindness are passed down on the X chromosome.The woman’s father is red-green colour blind. Since the woman got one of her X chromosomes from her father this means that she is a carrier. As it can be seen from the table the probability of having a colourblind child is 0.5%

Q30. Gigantism in human beings is caused due to over secretion of:

• A. Thyrotropin
• B. Corticotropin
• C. Somatotropin✓
• D. Prolactin

Explanation: Gigantism occurs when a child’s pituitary gland makes too much growth hormone, which is also known as somatotropin. Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), also called corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF), is a peptide hormone that activates the synthesis and release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the pituitary gland. In this way, CRH affects our response to stress, addiction and depression, amongst others. Prolactin is a hormone made by the pituitary gland, a small gland at the base of the brain. Prolactin causes the breasts to grow and make milk during pregnancy and after birth. Thyroid-stimulating hormone/Thyrotropin is a hormone produced by anterior pituitary gland that stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine, and then triiodothyronine which stimulates the metabolism of almost every tissue in the body. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Q31. A structure established between the uterine and foetal tissues for the exchange of oxygen, carbon dioxide, waste, nutrients and other materials is:

• A. Amnion
• B. Placenta✓
• C. Endometrium
• D. Uterus

Explanation: The placenta is defined as temporary intimate mechanical and the physiological connection between foetus and maternal tissue for the nutrition, respiration and excretion of the foetus. Human placenta consists of chorion only. The placenta is fully formed by the end of the third month and maintains pregnancy. In the placenta, the foetal blood comes very close to the maternal blood and this permits the exchange of material between the two. Food, water, mineral salt, vitamins, hormone antibodies and oxygen pass from the maternal blood into the foetal blood, and foetal metabolic waste, such as carbon dioxide, and urea, also water and hormones, pass into the maternal blood.

Q32. RNA interference involves the:

• A. Synthesis of complementary DNA and RNA using reverse transcriptase
• B. Silencing of specific mRNA due to complementary RNA✓
• C. Interference of RNA in the synthesis of DNA
• D. Synthesis of mRNA from DNA

Explanation: RNA interference (RNA) is the phenomenon of inhibiting the activity of a gene through the production of both sense and anti sense RNA. RNA takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense. This method involves specific mRNA silencing. It is due to a complementary dsRNA molecule that binds to and prevents translation of the mRNA causing its silencing.

Q33. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates:

• A. Juxtaglomerular cells to release renin✓
• B. Adrenal cortex to release aldosterone
• C. Adrenal medulla to release adrenaline
• D. Posterior pituitary to release vasopressin

Explanation: Low GFR triggers renin release to maintain blood pressure.

Q34. A large proportion of oxygen remains unused in the human blood even after its uptake by the body tissues. This O2 _.

• A. Acts as a reserve during muscular exercise✓
• B. Raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mmHg
• C. Is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96%
• D. Helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelial tissues

Explanation: The unused oxygen in the blood acts as a reserve, which can be utilized during physical activities such as exercise when the body's oxygen demand increases. This ensures sufficient oxygen supply to the muscles.

Q35. Erythropoiesis starts in:

• A. Spleen
• B. Red bone marrow✓
• C. Kidney
• D. Liver

Explanation: Erythropoiesis is the formation of red blood cells (erythrocytes) which occurs in the red bone arrow. Proerythroblast is the earliest precursor which gives rise successively to the early erythroblast, intermediate erythroblast and late erythroblast. Then, the nucleus is forced out and a biconcave, enucleated cell called reticulocyte is formed, which is released into blood. In blood, it develops into mature erythrocytes. Red bone marrow, found in certain bones of the body, is the primary site for erythropoiesis. It is responsible for producing red blood cells (erythrocytes), along with other blood cell types like white blood cells and platelets. Red bone marrow contains stem cells known as hematopoietic stem cells that give rise to various blood cell lineages, including red blood cells.

Q36. Read the following four statements.(A) The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie, produced milk that was human alpha­ lactalbumin enriched.(B) Restriction enzymes are used in the isolation of DNA from other macromolecules.(C) Downstream processing is one of the steps of rDNA technology.(D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in the transfer of rDNA into the host.Which of the two statements have mistakes?

• A. B and C
• B. C and D
• C. A and C
• D. A and B✓

Explanation: In 1997, the first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced human protein enriched milk. The milk contained the human alpha ­lactalbumin and was nutritionally a more balanced product for human babies than natural cow­milk. Isolation of DNA from other macromolecule is achieved by treating the bacterial cells/plant or animal tissue with enzymes such as lysozyme (bacteria), cellulase (plant cells), chitinase (fungus).

Q37. All of the following statements about arteries are true except:

• A. They are thick-walled
• B. They pulsate
• C. They contain much elastic fiber tissue
• D. They carry blood away from the heart
• E. They contain valves✓

Explanation: Unlike arteries, veins contain valves that ensure blood flows in only one direction. (Arteries don't require valves because pressure from the heart is so strong that blood is only able to flow in one direction.)

Q38. The rate of breathing is controlled by the:

• A. Lungs
• B. Cerebellum
• C. Pons
• D. Medulla oblongata✓
• E. Diaphragm

Explanation: The respiratory center is located in the medulla oblongata and is involved in the minute-to-minute control of breathing.

Q39. The joints that allow movement in two directions are called:

• A. Ball and Socket joint
• B. Hinge joint✓
• C. Cartilaginous joint
• D. Fibrous joint

Explanation: Hinge joints are the ones that allow the movement in only 2 directions. Elbow and knee joints are the examples of hinge joints.

Q40. _ accepts hydrogen from malate

• A. COQ
• B. FMN
• C. FAD
• D. NAD✓

Explanation: Oxidation(Dehydrogenation -IV) is one of the steps of Krebs cycle, in which Malate is oxidized by removal of hydrogen and oxalo-acetate gets regenerated. The hydrogen removed in this reaction is taken up by the coenzyme NAD to form NADH2.

Q41. The absorption and use of calcium are regulated by:

• A. Parathormone✓
• B. Adrenaline
• C. Thyroxin
• D. Thiamin
• E. Prolactin

Explanation: Circulating parathyroid hormone targets the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct, directly increasing calcium reabsorption.

Q42. Enzymes that are functioning within the cell are called:

• A. Endoenzymes✓
• B. Exoenzymes
• C. Holoenzymes
• D. Both A & C

Explanation: Endoenzymes are enzymes that act within the cell, and their catalytic activity is confined to the interior of the cell. They are involved in intracellular processes, catalyzing reactions within the cell's cytoplasm or organelles. Enzymes involved in glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, or other metabolic pathways taking place inside the cell are considered endoenzymes.

Q43. Lack of relaxation between successive contractions is called :

• A. Spasm
• B. Tetany✓
• C. Arthritis
• D. Fatigue

Explanation: Tetany = sustained contraction without relaxation due to continuous stimul.

Q44. Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia?

• A. Chromosomal disorder
• B. Dominant gene disorder
• C. Recessive gene disorder
• D. X-linked recessive gene disorder✓

Explanation: Hemophilias (e.g, factor VIII/IX defects) are caused by mutations on the X chromosome and show recessive inheritance — classic X-linked recessive.

Q45. Which of the following restriction enzymes produces blunt ends?

• A. Sal I
• B. EcoRV✓
• C. Xho I
• D. Hind III

Explanation: EcoRV is a type II restriction endonuclease isolated from certain strains of E.coli. It creates blunt ends.SalI, XhoI and HindIII restriction enzymes produce sticky ends.

Q46. The DNA molecule to which the gene of interest is integrated for cloning is called:

• A. Template
• B. Carrier
• C. Transformer
• D. Vector✓

Explanation: Vector is a DNA molecule that carries a foreign DNA segment and replicates inside a host cell. The vector DNA and foreign DNA carrying gene of interest are cut by the same restriction endonuclease enzyme to produce complementary sticky ends. With the help of DNA ligase enzyme, the complementary sticky ends of the two DNAs are joined to produce a recombinant DNA (rDNA), which is then introduced into the host cell.

Q47. _ is involved in lipid synthesis/metabolism.

• A. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum✓
• B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
• C. Mitochondria
• D. Vacuoles

Explanation: The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is an organelle that plays a role in lipid synthesis and metabolism. It is involved in the synthesis of lipids, including fatty acids, phospholipids, and steroids, and is also involved in the metabolism of drugs and toxins.

Q48. Which of the following animals can survive without drinking water?

• A. Kangaroo rat✓
• B. Pig
• C. Kangaroo
• D. Camel

Explanation: The kangaroo rat is almost perfectly adapted to life in the desert. They can survive without ever drinking any water, getting needed moisture from their seed diet.

Q49. The part of the nephron involved in active reabsorption of sodium is:

• A. Distal convoluted tubule
• B. Ascending loop of Henle✓
• C. Bowman’s capsule
• D. Descending limb of Henle’s loop

Explanation: The correct answer is the ascending loop of Henle, which is crucial for the active reabsorption of sodium ions from the filtrate back into the bloodstream. This segment utilizes active transport mechanisms to move sodium ions against their concentration gradient, which is essential for maintaining osmotic balance and blood pressure.The distal convoluted tubule causes gradual osmotic outlow of water from the iltrate back to kidney as it passes downward in the descending loop of Henle. Bowman's capsule serves a different function by filtering blood but does not participate in sodium reabsorption. Finally, the descending limb of Henle's loop is primarily involved in the passive reabsorption of water, making it ineffective for sodium reabsorption.

Q50. At which site does digestion of starches begin?

• A. 3✓
• B. 7
• C. 8
• D. 12
• E. 13

Explanation: In the mouth, as the chewing begins, saliva is released which has the amylase enzyme. The amylase starts breaking down starch to maltose.

Q51. An antibody molecule consists of:

• A. Two identical light chains only
• B. Two identical heavy chains only
• C. Two identical light and two identical heavy chains✓
• D. Two identical light chains and two non-identical heavy chains

Explanation: An antibody molecule, also known as an immunoglobulin, is a Y-shaped protein that plays a critical role in the immune response by recognizing and binding to antigens. Its structure includes two identical light chains and two identical heavy chains, which are connected by disulfide bonds. This configuration allows antibodies to specifically bind to antigens. Option A is incorrect because it only mentions light chains. Option B is incorrect because it only mentions heavy chains. Option D is incorrect because it suggests the heavy chains are non-identical, which is not the case.

Q52. Which of the following explains the binding of inorganic components in structures found in erythrocytes?

• A. CO with organic portion of haem
• B. CO2 with NH2 group of haemoglobin
• C. O2 with Fe of haem✓
• D. H+ with COOH group of haemoglobin

Explanation: Oxygen binds to the iron (Fe) in haem groups of haemoglobin, forming oxyhaemoglobin to transport oxygen from lungs to tissues.

Q53. Nutrition refers to the processes involved in:

• A. Taking in of food
• B. Utilization of food elements
• C. Growth, repair, and maintenance
• D. All of the above options are correct✓

Explanation: Nutrition is the process of taking in food and converting it into energy and other vital nutrients required for life. Nutrients are the substances that provide energy and biomolecules necessary for carrying out the various body functions. All living organisms need nutrients for proper functioning and growth.

Q54. Which of the following is true in case of induced fit model?

• A. The substrate changes its shape slightly.
• B. The enzyme changes its shape slightly.✓
• C. None of them changes shape.
• D. Both changes shape.

Explanation: Correct option B Since according to the induced fit model presented by koshland the binding of substrate or other molecules to enzyme causes changes in enzyme to enhance or inhibit its activity.

Q55. A metal cofactor which is used in synthesis of glycolysis is?

• A. Fe3+
• B. Mn2+
• C. Co2+
• D. Mg2+✓

Explanation: "Mg2+" is an inorganic cofactor used in glycolysis to convert glucose into glucose 6-phosphate.

Q56. The nephrons arranged along the cortex are called:

• A. Cortical✓
• B. Juxtamedullary
• C. Juxtacortical nephron
• D. Medullary

Explanation: Nephrons that are arranged along the cortex of the kidney are called "cortical nephrons." Cortical nephrons are one of the two main types of nephrons found in the human kidney, with the other type being juxtamedullary nephrons. These two types of nephrons have distinct features and functions within the kidney. Cortical nephrons are primarily located in the outer part of the renal cortex, and they do not extend deeply into the renal medulla. They play essential roles in the initial filtration of blood, reabsorption of nutrients and electrolytes, and regulation of overall body homeostasis. Unlike juxtamedullary nephrons, cortical nephrons do not have long loops of Henle that extend deeply into the renal medulla, and they do not play a primary role in the concentration of urine.

Q57. The optimum pH for the functioning of enzyme pepsin is:

• A. 2✓
• B. 3
• C. 4
• D. 5

Explanation: The optimum pH for the functioning of the enzyme pepsin is 2. Pepsin is a digestive enzyme produced in the stomach It plays a crucial role in the digestion of proteins.

Q58. Which of the following is the correct statement?

• A. The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.
• B. The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water.
• C. The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes.
• D. The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.✓

Explanation: The key difference between ascending and descending loop of Henle is that the ascending loop of Henle is the thicker segment of the loop of Henle located just after the sharp bend of the loop while descending loop of Henle is the thinner segment located just before the sharp bend of the loop. The descending limb of the loop of Henle is permeable to water. Water diffuses into the hyperosmolar medullary interstitium.

Q59. A person who is on a long hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have:

• A. Less amino acids in his urine
• B. More glucose in his blood
• C. Less urea in his urine✓
• D. More sodium in his urine.

Explanation: During starvation, the body must rely on body proteins for the amino acids. On high protein diets the carbon skeletons of the amino acids are oxidized for energy or stored as fat and glycogen, but the amino nitrogen must be excreted. To facilitate this process, enzymes of the urea cycle are controlled at the gene level. When dietary proteins increase significantly, enzyme concentrations rise. On return to a balanced diet, enzyme levels decline. Under conditions of starvation, enzyme levels rise as proteins are degraded and amino acid carbon skeletons are used to provide energy, thus increasing the quantity of nitrogen that must be excreted in the form of urea.

Q60. Some enzymes require the presence of a non protein molecule to behave catalytically. An enzyme devoid of this molecule is called a(n):

• A. Holoenzyme
• B. Apoenzyme✓
• C. Coenzyme
• D. Zymoenzyme

Explanation: Enzyme with a non-proteinous part is called Holoenzyme; without that non-proteinous part, it is called Apoenzyme.

Q61. The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The P-­wave represents the:

• A. Beginning of the systole
• B. End of systole
• C. Contraction of both the atria✓
• D. Initiation of the ventricular contraction

Explanation: P-wave represents the electrical excitation (or depolarisation) of the atria, which leads to the contraction of both the atria. The QRS complex represents the depolarisation of the ventricles, which initiates the ventricular contraction. The contraction starts shortly after Q and marks the beginning of the systole. The T wave represents the return of the ventricles from excited to normal state. (repolarisation). The end of the T-wave marks the end of systole.

Q62. Given below are four statements (i-­iv) regarding human blood circulatory system. (i) Arteries are thick-­walled and have narrow lumen as compared to veins. (ii) Angina is acute chest pain when the blood circulation to the brain is reduced. (iii) Persons with blood group AB can donate blood to any person with any blood group under ABO system. (iv) Calcium ions play a very important role in blood clotting. Which two of the above statements is/are correct?

• A. (i) and (iv)✓
• B. (i) and (ii)
• C. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
• D. (iii), (iv) and (i)

Explanation: The correct statements (i)and (iv) are correct.(i) Arteries are thick-walled and have narrow lumen as compared to veins. Arteries are blood vessels that carry oxygenated blood away from the heart to various parts of the body. They have thick walls containing smooth muscle and elastic fibers, which allow them to withstand the high pressure generated by the heart's pumping action. Arteries also have a smaller lumen (the central opening through which blood flows) to maintain the blood pressure and ensure proper blood flow to the tissues. (iv) Calcium ions play a very important role in blood clotting.The statement about calcium ions is correct. Calcium ions play a crucial role in the process of blood clotting or coagulation. When there is an injury or damage to blood vessels, a series of complex reactions involving various clotting factors take place, ultimately leading to the formation of a blood clot to prevent excessive bleeding. Calcium ions are essential for the activation of clotting factors and the formation of a stable blood clot.

Q63. An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of:

• A. Succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid✓
• B. Cytochrome oxidase by cyanide
• C. Hexokinase by glucose
• D. Carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide

Explanation: The inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid is an example of competitive inhibition. Succinic dehydrogenase is an enzyme involved in the citric acid cycle (also known as the Krebs cycle) and plays a role in the conversion of succinate to fumarate. Malonic acid serves as a competitive inhibitor in this context. It structurally resembles the substrate (succinate) and competes with it for binding to the active site of succinic dehydrogenase. Malonic acid binds to the active site of the enzyme, preventing the normal substrate (succinate) from binding and undergoing the catalytic reaction. The presence of malonic acid decreases the rate of the succinic dehydrogenase-catalyzed reaction by interfering with the binding of succinate.

Q64. First infectious disease against which effective method of prevention developed was a _:

• A. Bacterial disease
• B. Viral disease✓
• C. Protozoan disease
• D. Viroid disease

Explanation: b. Viral disease: This option is correct. The smallpox vaccine, developed in the late 18th century by Edward Jenner, is a landmark achievement in the prevention of viral diseases. It played a crucial role in the eventual global eradication of smallpox. c. Protozoan disease: Protozoan diseases are caused by single-celled organisms (protozoa). Prevention methods for these diseases often involve medications (antiprotozoal drugs) rather than vaccines. Malaria, caused by the Plasmodium protozoan, is an example of a protozoan disease with preventive measures like antimalarial drugs and bed nets. d. Viroid disease: Viroids are infectious agents consisting of small, circular RNA molecules. They cause diseases in plants. Preventive methods for viroid diseases typically involve plant hygiene and control measures, as there are no widely recognized vaccines for viroids. Correct Answer: b. Viral disease Explanation: The smallpox vaccine is a historic example of the first effective prevention method developed against a viral disease, marking a significant milestone in the history of infectious disease control. Summary: The correct answer is b. Viral disease. The smallpox vaccine, developed for the prevention of smallpox caused by the variola virus, is a groundbreaking achievement in the history of infectious disease prevention. While bacterial diseases also saw early success with vaccination, the smallpox vaccine stood out as a pivotal moment in addressing viral infections and contributed to the eventual global eradication of smallpox.

Q65. Vaccines for all of these have been developed except

• A. Polio
• B. Mumps
• C. Measles
• D. Cancer✓

Explanation: Vaccine is a preparation that is used to stimulate the body's immune response against diseases

Q66. The function of nasal cavity is:

• A. Protection
• B. Moisten
• C. Temperature regulation
• D. All A, B and C✓

Explanation: The nasal cavity is a part of the respiratory system located behind the nose. It performs three important functions: Moistening: The nasal cavity produces mucus to moisten the air we breathe, preventing the respiratory tract from drying out. Protecting: Mucus in the nasal cavity traps dust, allergens, and other particles, keeping them from reaching the lungs. Regulating Temperature: The nasal cavity warms the inhaled air to body temperature, preventing discomfort from breathing in cold air. These functions are crucial for the proper functioning and protection of the respiratory system.

Q67. Various factors of pathological and chemical nature may progressively destroy the nephron, particularly its:

• A. Glomerulus✓
• B. Convoluted Tubule
• C. Loop of Henle
• D. Bowman's Capsule

Explanation: The correct answer is the glomerulus because it is the primary site of filtration within the nephron, making it particularly vulnerable to damage from pathological and chemical factors. These factors can impair the glomerulus's ability to filter blood effectively, leading to progressive destruction. In contrast, the convoluted tubules and loop of Henle are more involved in reabsorption and concentration of urine, respectively, and while they can be affected, they are not the primary sites of initial damage. The Bowman's capsule surrounds the glomerulus and can also be impacted, but the glomerulus itself is more directly involved in the filtration process and therefore is more susceptible to progressive damage.

Q68. The number of spinal nerves along the spinal cord is:

• A. 16 pairs
• B. 20 pairs
• C. 31 pairs✓
• D. 33 pairs

Explanation: There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves in the human body. These nerves emerge from the spinal cord and pass through openings between adjacent vertebrae, distributing to various regions of the body.

Q69. The brain is protected by:

• A. Sacrum
• B. Cranium✓
• C. Humerus
• D. Scapula

Explanation: The brain is produced by the "b) Cranium," which forms the protective bony enclosure for this vital organ. The cranium, also known as the skull, is the bony structure that forms the protective enclosure for the brain. It is a complex structure made up of several bones that fuse together during development to provide a solid and robust casing for the brain. The cranium not only safeguards the brain from external injuries but also provides support and structure to the head. The brain is a vital organ of the central nervous system, responsible for controlling various bodily functions, cognitive processes, emotions, and voluntary and involuntary actions. It is encased within the cranium to shield it from mechanical damage and to maintain a stable and protective environment.

Q70. The shape of grey matter is:

• A. Spherical
• B. Mosquito
• C. Butterfly✓
• D. Rectangular

Explanation: Grey matter is shaped like the letter "H" or a "butterfly". The grey matter consists of neuron cell bodies and non-myelinated parts of the fibres. The white matter is made up of bundles of myelinated fibres.

Q71. Hypothalamus initiates the release of hormones, by their releasing factors, while _ is directly produced by it.

• A. TSH
• B. Oxytocin✓
• C. ACTH
• D. FSH
• E. GH

Explanation: Option A: TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) is released by the anterior pituitary gland in response to a releasing factor called thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus. Option B: Oxytocin is released directly by the hypothalamus into the bloodstream. It is involved in childbirth, breastfeeding, and social bonding. Option C: ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) is released by the anterior pituitary gland in response to a releasing factor called corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamus. ACTH stimulates the release of cortisol from the adrenal glands. Option D: FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and LH (luteinizing hormone) are released by the anterior pituitary gland in response to releasing factors called follicle-stimulating hormone-releasing hormone (FSHRH) and luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) from the hypothalamus. FSH and LH are involved in the regulation of reproduction. Option E: GH (growth hormone) is released by the anterior pituitary gland in response to a releasing factor called growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) from the hypothalamus. GHRH stimulates the release of GH, which is involved in growth and development.

Q72. PCR and restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) are the methods for?

• A. Study of enzymes
• B. Genetic transformation
• C. DNA sequencing
• D. Genetic fingerprinting✓

Explanation: Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used to amplify a small DNA fragment to obtain its large quantity. PCR is very helpful in DNA fingerprinting in such cases where the culprit has to be identified from a very small blood, semen or another cell sample from a crime scene. Restriction fragment length polymorphism(RFLP) is used to determine or confirm the source of DNA sample such as in paretnity tests or criminal investigtaions In genetic mapping to determine recombination rates that show the genetic distance between the loci. To identify a carrier of a disease-causing mutation in a family.

Q73. Serum differs from blood in:

• A. Lacking globulins
• B. Lacking albumins
• C. Lacking clotting factors✓
• D. Lacking antibodies.

Explanation: Serum is plasma without clotting proteins like fibrinogen, which are consumed during coagulation.

Q74. Venous blood enter route from the kidneys to the heart must pass through the:

• A. Iliac vein
• B. Inferior vena cava✓
• C. Liver
• D. Hepatic vein
• E. Pulmonary vein

Explanation: The kidneys receive unfiltered blood directly from the heart through the abdominal aorta which then branches to the left and right renal arteries. Filtered blood then returns by the left and right renal veins to the inferior vena cava and then the heart.

Q75. Premature birth or miscarriage is usually caused by the disturbance in secretion of which of the following hormone?

• A. Estrogen
• B. Progesterone✓
• C. Lactogen
• D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

Explanation: Progesterone is one of the sex hormones closely associated with pregnancy and the menstrual cycle. It can also play a role in recurrent miscarriages or premature birth.

Q76. Suggest which among the following is not a function attributed to endoplasmic reticulum?

• A. Detoxification of poisons and drugs
• B. Digestion/egestion of foreign materials outside the cell✓
• C. Manufacture of fat and lipid molecules
• D. Biogenesis of membrane proteins

Explanation: The endoplasmic reticulum is involved in the detoxification of the poisons and the drugs. This is the main function of the endoplasmic reticulum in the liver. The manufacturing of the lipids and fat molecules take place in the smooth ER. The membrane proteins are synthesised on the ribosomes which are present on the surface of the ER. The digestion and egestion of the foreign materials which enter the cells take place in the lysosomes. Thus, the correct answer is option B.

Q77. Which property of water helps to maintain the integrity of lipid membranes?

• A. Specific heat capacity
• B. Cohesion and adhesion
• C. Hydrogen bonding
• D. Hydrophobic exclusion✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Hydrophobic exclusion. This property is critical for the formation and stability of lipid membranes, as lipid molecules are hydrophobic and tend to exclude water. This exclusion leads to the formation of a lipid bilayer, creating a barrier between the aqueous environments inside and outside the cell. The other options, such as specific heat capacity, cohesion and adhesion, and hydrogen bonding, are important properties of water but do not directly contribute to the structural integrity of lipid membranes.

Q78. Which of the following is correct for the given structure?

• A. These are small structures which work like oars
• B. It is covered with plasma membrane
• C. It's core is called axoneme
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: Cilia and flagella are hair-like outgrowths of the cell membrane. Cilia are small structures working like oars, causing the movement of either the cell or the surrounding fluid. Flagella, in comparison, is longer and is responsible for cell movement. Both cilium and flagellum are covered with plasma membrane. Their core, called axoneme, possesses a number of microtubules running parallel to the long axis.So, the correct answer is 'All of the above'.

Q79. HIV is also known as:

• A. AIDS✓
• B. HAV
• C. HTLV
• D. HBV

Explanation: AIDS is merely an advanced form of HIV.

Q80. Blood analysis of a patient reveals an unusually high quantity of carboxyhaemoglobin content. Which of the following conclusions is most likely to be correct? The patient has been inhaling polluted air containing unusually high content of:

• A. Oxygen
• B. Chloroform
• C. Carbon dioxide
• D. Carbon monoxide✓

Explanation: Carboxyhaemoglobin is formed when hemoglobin binds to carbon monoxide (CO), a process that occurs when polluted air containing high levels of carbon monoxide is inhaled. This can occur due to the incomplete combustion of fuels.

Q81. Tay Sach's disease is caused by absence of enzyme required to breakdown _.

• A. Lipids✓
• B. Glycogen
• C. Glucose
• D. Proteins

Explanation: Tay-Sachs disease is a inherited disorder that progressively destroys nerve cells (neurons) in the brain and spinal cord. It is caused due to the mutation in the gene which is responsible for producing enzyme involved break down of fatty substance.

Q82. A combination of alpha interferon and ribavirin is used for the treatment of hepatitis:

• A. Hepatitis B
• B. Hepatitis A
• C. Hepatitis D
• D. Hepatitis C✓

Explanation: The combination of alpha interferon and ribavirin has been used in the treatment of hepatitis, particularly in the context of hepatitis C. Both alpha interferon and ribavirin have antiviral properties, and their combination was historically a standard treatment for chronic hepatitis C infection. Here's a brief overview of each component: Alpha Interferon: interferons are proteins that the body naturally produces in response to viral infections. They have antiviral properties and can modulate the immune response. Alpha interferon is a specific type of interferon that has been used as part of antiviral therapy. It was administered as an injection. Ribavirin: Ribavirin is an antiviral medication that inhibits the replication of viruses. It is a nucleoside analog and can interfere with the synthesis of viral genetic material. Ribavirin was often administered orally as part of the treatment regimen.

Q83. “Zymase”- a group of 14 enzymes used in the fermentation of starch, is present in:

• A. Bacteria
• B. Yeast✓
• C. Fungi
• D. Algae
• E. Virus

Explanation: Zymase is an enzyme complex that catalyzes the fermentation of sugar into ethanol and carbon dioxide. It occurs naturally in yeasts. Zymase activity varies among yeast strains. Zymase is also the brand name of the drug pancrelipase.

Q84. Match the parts of the human brain listed under Column I with the functions given under Column II. Choose the answer which gives the correct combination of alphabets of the two columns.

• A. A=r, B=q, C=p, D=s
• B. A=r, B s, C=q, D=t,
• C. A=t, B=p, C=q, D=r✓
• D. A=t, B=q, C=p, D=s

Explanation: Your cerebral hemisphere plays a key role in memory, intelligence, thinking, learning, reasoning, problem-solving, emotions, consciousness, and functions related to your senses. (so A=T, hence options A and B are incorrect). The thalamus is your body's information relay station. All information from your body's senses (except smell) must be processed through your thalamus before being sent to your brain's cerebral cortex for interpretation (so B=P, hence options A, B, and D are incorrect). The cerebellum controls voluntary movements such as walking, posture, balance, coordination, eye movements, and speech (C=Q). Neurons in the medulla also control arousal and sleep (D=R).

Q85. Which of the following neurotransmitters function, both as neurotransmitter and hormones, decreasing our perception of pain?

• A. Epinephrine
• B. Serotonin
• C. Dopamine
• D. Endorphins✓

Explanation: Neurotransmitters are chemical messengers that transmit a message from a nerve cell across the synapse to a target cell. Hormones are chemical messengers that are secreted directly into the blood, which carries them to organs and tissues of the body to exert their functions. All the options are both, a hormone as well neurotransmitters. Epinephrine, commonly referred to as Adrenaline, relaxes the airway muscles, making it easier for the person to breathe. At the same time, it constricts blood vessels, helping to improve blood pressure. It also increases the heart rate. However, it does not decrease the response to pain. Hence Option A is rejected. Serotonin, on the other hand, is used by the body to send messages between nerve cells. It appears to play a role in mood, emotions, appetite, and digestion. As the precursor for melatonin, it helps regulate sleep-wake cycles and the body clock. Since it is not used to decrease pain response, Option B is rejected. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that plays a role in how we feel pleasure. It's a big part of our unique human ability to think and plan. However, it plays no role in the pain response. Hence Option C is rejected. Endorphins are substances produced by the nervous system to cope with pain or stress. They are often called “feel-good” chemicals because they can act as pain relievers and happiness boosters. Hence, Option D is correct.

Q86. In a typical compound microscope the resolution is 2 μm. Which is about _ that of naked eye.

• A. 100 x
• B. 300 x
• C. 400 x
• D. 500 x✓

Explanation: Resolution is the measurement of the number of pixelsNaked eye resolution is 576 Megapixels which is 500 times the resolution of compound microscopeThe resolution of the naked eye refers to its ability to distinguish and perceive fine details or distinguish between two closely spaced objects. The resolution of the human eye is limited by several factors, including the number of photoreceptor cells in the retina and the optics of the eye.On average, the human eye can resolve objects that are approximately 1 arcminute apart. This means that if two objects are separated by an angle of 1 arcminute (which is 1/60th of a degree), a person with normal vision would be able to perceive them as separate entities rather than a single object.

Q87. Which one of the following combinations is NOT part of an animal cell?

• A. Central Vacuole, Cell Membrane, Ribosomes
• B. Chloroplast, Ribosome , Mitochondria
• C. Cell wall, Chloroplast, Central vacuole✓
• D. Ribosome, Mitochondria, Cell wall

Explanation: Animal cells do not have a Cell wall and Chloroplasts. They have temporary small vacuoles; unlike plant cells which have large, permanent, central vacuoles.In the other options, at least one feature is present in the animal cells instead of all the three features pertaining to animal cells. The idea is to choose the better answer.The diagram presented below shows the major organelles in an animal cell; Flexibility and Mobility: Animal cells are often required to move and change shape, which is facilitated by their flexible cell membrane. The absence of a rigid cell wall allows animal cells to have more flexibility and mobility compared to cells with a cell wall. This flexibility is essential for various cellular processes, including cell migration, muscle contraction, and the ability to form complex tissues and organs.Intercellular Communication: Animal cells rely on direct cell-to-cell communication through specialized structures like gap junctions and tight junctions. These junctions facilitate the exchange of signals, ions, and molecules between neighboring cells, allowing for coordinated responses and tissue organization. A cell wall would hinder the direct interaction between animal cells and impede the efficient communication required for their complex physiological processes.Structural Support: In the absence of a cell wall, animal cells utilize the cytoskeleton, a network of protein filaments, to maintain their structural integrity and provide support. The cytoskeleton allows animal cells to maintain their shape, organize their internal components, and carry out cellular functions. This dynamic framework provides mechanical strength while allowing flexibility and shape changes.Adaptation to Environment: Animals have evolved to inhabit diverse environments and face varying physical conditions. The absence of a rigid cell wall enables animal cells to adapt to different osmotic pressures, temperature changes, and other environmental factors. Animal cells can regulate their volume and shape in response to external stimuli, allowing them to survive and function effectively in their respective environments.It's important to note that while animal cells lack a cell wall, they still possess a cell membrane (plasma membrane) that separates the cell's internal environment from the external environment. The cell membrane is a selectively permeable barrier that controls the passage of substances in and out of the cell.

Q88. For the reaction: N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 .The production of NH3 will be favored at:

• A. High pressure and catalyst✓
• B. Low pressure only
• C. Low pressure and catalyst
• D. High pressure only
• E. Catalyst only

Explanation: The forward reaction forms fewer moles of gas (4 → 2), so high pressure shifts equilibrium toward NH₃. A catalyst increases the reaction rate but does not change equilibrium position. Therefore, maximum ammonia production is achieved using high pressure along with a catalyst.

Q89. When does a gas deviate the most from its ideal behavior ?

• A. At low pressure and high temperature
• B. At high pressure and high temperature
• C. At low pressure and low temperature
• D. At high pressure and low temperature✓

Explanation: At high pressure and low temperature, a gas deviates the most from its ideal behaviour.Under these conditions, the gas molecules are close to each other and they exert significant intermolecular forces on each other. Also, the volume of gas molecules becomes a significant portion of total volume and cannot be neglected.Hence, the correct option is D.

Q90. Listed below are four respiratory capacities (i–iv) and four jumbled respiratory volumes of a normal human adult. Which one of the following is the correct matching of two capacities and volumes?

• A. (ii) 2500 mL, (iii) 4500 mL
• B. (iii) 1200 mL, (iv) 2500 mL
• C. (iv) 3500 mL, (i) 1200 mL✓
• D. (i) 4500 mL, (ii) 3500 mL

Explanation: All options are explained below:a)(ii) 2500 mL, (iii) 4500 mL:This option pairs capacity (ii) with 2500 mL and capacity (iii) with 4500 mL. This is an incorrect match. It doesn't align with the jumbled respiratory volumes provided in the question.B. (iii) 1200 mL, (iv) 2500 mL: This option pairs capacity (iii) with 1200 mL and capacity (iv) with 2500 mL. It also accurately pairs the capacities with their respective volumes.C. (iv) 3500 mL, (i) 1200 mL (Correct Option):This option pairs capacity (iv) with 3500 mL and capacity (i) with 1200 mL. If this is the correct option, it means that capacity (i) has a volume of 1200 mL, and capacity (iv) has a volume of 3500 mL, as per the question.D. (i) 4500 mL, (ii) 3500 mL:This option pairs capacity (i) with 4500 mL and capacity (ii) with 3500 mL. This is an incorrect match and doesn't align with the jumbled respiratory volumes provided in the question.Summary: The correct match is option C, which pairs capacity (iv) with 3500 mL and capacity (i) with 1200 mL, as indicated by the jumbled respiratory volumes provided in the question. The other options provide incorrect pairings of respiratory volumes with capacities.

Q91. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

• A. Eggs in the ovaries ripen when they meet a sperm✓
• B. Girls are born with thousands of eggs in their ovaries
• C. Hormones control the release of the egg from the ovary
• D. One egg is released from the ovary about every month

Explanation: Eggs in the ovaries are already fully developed when they are released. They do not need to meet a sperm in order to ripen. Once an egg is released from the ovary, it can be fertilized by a sperm and become a baby. If an egg is not fertilized, it will break down and results in mensturation.

Q92. Which factor does affect the equilibrium constant Kc for a reaction?

• A. Temperature✓
• B. Pressure
• C. Catalyst
• D. Initial concentrations

Explanation: Changing the temperature shifts the equilibrium position based on whether the reaction is endothermic (absorbs heat) or exothermic (releases heat), according to Le Chatelier's Principle.3 Since the ratio of products to reactants changes, the value of K must also change.

Q93. Many elements have fractional atomic masses. This is because:

• A. Mass of atom is itself reactional
• B. Atomic masses are average masses of isobars
• C. Atomic masses are average masses of isotopes
• D. Atomic masses are average masses of isotopes proportional to their abundance✓

Explanation: Atomic masses are typically reported as weighted averages that take into account the abundance of each isotope of an element. Most elements exist as a mixture of isotopes, and these isotopes have different masses. The atomic mass of an element listed on the periodic table is a weighted average of the masses of its naturally occurring isotopes. The weighting is based on the abundance of each isotope in nature. Since isotopes have different masses, the atomic mass is not a whole number, and it may appear as a fractional value.

Q94. The best standard for the calculation of relative atomic masses is:

• A. Hydrogen - 1.008
• B. Carbon - 12✓
• C. Carbon - 13
• D. Oxygen - 16

Explanation: The best standard for the calculation of relative atomic masses is based on the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC) recommendation. The current standard is based on the carbon-12 isotope. The relative atomic mass of an element is determined by comparing the mass of its atoms to the mass of carbon-12 atoms. Carbon-12 is defined as having a relative atomic mass of exactly 12 atomic mass units (amu). This means that one atom of carbon-12 is assigned a mass of exactly 12 amu.Using carbon-12 as the reference, the relative atomic mass of other elements is calculated by comparing the masses of their atoms to the mass of a carbon-12 atom. This is done by measuring the mass of isotopes of the element and their relative abundance in nature. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have different numbers of neutrons in their nuclei and, therefore, different masses.The atomic masses of elements are expressed relative to the carbon-12 scale using a unit called the atomic mass unit (amu). One atomic mass unit is defined as 1/12th of the mass of a carbon-12 atom.It's important to note that the relative atomic masses of some elements are not whole numbers because they are calculated based on the average masses of the isotopes present in nature and their relative abundances.The IUPAC periodically reviews and updates the atomic masses of elements based on new experimental data and advances in measurement techniques. This ensures that the atomic masses remain accurate and consistent over time.Atomic mass is defined as the mass of an atom of an element compared with the mass of an atom of carbon 12 (the stable light isotope of carbon). Atomic mass is a ratio and therefore has no units. It may be given any unit of measure, but generally, atomic masses are expressed in atomic mass units (a.m.u). One atomic mass unit equals exactly 1/12th the mass of a carbon 12 atom.Therefore, the most common standard for measuring an atom is the mass of carbon-12 and hence, option B is the correct answer.

Q95. At 1489 mm of Hg, water will boil at:

• A. 120 oC✓
• B. 110 oC
• C. 100 oC
• D. 90 oC

Explanation: At a pressure of 1489 mmHg (millimeters of mercury), water will boil at approximately 120 degrees Celsius (212 degrees Fahrenheit). The boiling point of a substance, such as water, depends on the pressure applied to it. Under normal atmospheric pressure at sea level, which is around 760 mmHg, water boils at 100 degrees Celsius (212 degrees Fahrenheit). However, when the pressure is increased, as in the case of 1489 mmHg, the boiling point of water also increases. At higher pressures, the boiling point of water increases because the additional pressure on the water molecules raises the energy required for them to overcome the intermolecular forces and transition from the liquid phase to the gaseous phase (vaporization). This results in an increase in the boiling point temperature. It's important to note that the boiling point of water can vary with altitude and atmospheric conditions, as the atmospheric pressure changes with elevation. Additionally, impurities and dissolved substances in the water can also affect its boiling point. The value mentioned above (100 degrees Celsius at 1489 mmHg) is an approximate estimation based on the relationship between pressure and boiling point. Although you are not expected to know the calculation of boiling points at various pressures, you must understand that at pressures higher than atmospheric pressure, the boiling point must also be higher than that at atmospheric pressure. This is because the boiling point is defined as the temperature at which the vapor pressure equals the external pressure. So, the higher the pressure, the higher the required temperature to evaporate enough liquid to equal the external pressure. Since 1489 mm of Hg>760 mm of Hg(atmospheric pressure), the boiling point must also be greater than 100. The best option in this case is, therefore, option A. If you have read the book thoroughly, this may just be a factual recall for you:

Q96. Which one of the following has the highest lattice energy?

• A. NaCl
• B. KCl
• C. KBr
• D. LiCl✓

Explanation: The lattice enthalpy is the enthalpy change involved in the formation of an ionic compound from gaseous ions (an exothermic process).The Lattice energy is directly proportional to the charges of the ions but inversely proportional to the radii of the ions or more generally the distance between ions. Lattice Energy α (charge of ion/radius of the ion).As we go down in a group (Group 1 and 7 in this case), ionic radius increases, and as the net charge is constant (+1 and -1 respectively), the lattice energy of their compounds decreases.Order of cation radius: K+> Na+> Li+Order of anion radius: Br-> Cl-Hence, the compound LiCl will have the greatest Lattice energy as both the ions have the least radius.Note: Across a period from left to right as the charge on ion increases, lattice energy increases.

Q97. Industrially water gas is converted into methanol by using catalyst:

• A. CuO + ZnO✓
• B. CuO + Cr2O3
• C. Al2O3 + ZnO
• D. ZnO + Cr2O3

Explanation: Water gas (CO+H2) is converted to methanol (CH3OH) industrially using a catalyst. A mixture of copper oxide (CuO) and zinc oxide (ZnO) is commonly used as the catalyst. This catalyst facilitates the hydrogenation of CO to methanol efficiently under high temperature and pressure.

Q98. The nature of Lysine is:

• A. Acidic
• B. Basic✓
• C. Neutral
• D. Weakly acidic

Explanation: The chemical nature of an amino acid depends on its variable ‘R’ group. The R group of lysine contains the NH2 group which is basic as it can accept a proton to form NH3+.Therefore, lysine is considered to be a basic amino acid and hence option B is correct.

Q99. Reaction of CH3CH2MgBr with ethylene epoxide gives:

• A. Ethanal
• B. 1 - butanol✓
• C. 2 - butanol
• D. Butane

Explanation: The reaction of CH3CH2MgBr (ethylmagnesium bromide) with ethylene oxide (ethylene epoxide) typically results in the formation of 1,2-propanediol. This reaction is an example of a nucleophilic substitution reaction in which the nucleophilic carbon of the organometallic reagent attacks the electrophilic carbon of the epoxide, leading to the formation of an alcohol.The reaction can be represented by the following equation:CH3CH2MgBr + C2H4O-> CH3CH2CH2OHIn this reaction, the ethylmagnesium bromide acts as a nucleophile, attacking the epoxide ring and displacing the bromide ion. The resulting intermediate is an alkoxide ion, which quickly protonates to form the corresponding alcohol, 1,2-propanediol.It's important to note that the reaction conditions, such as temperature, solvent, and presence of any catalysts, can influence the outcome of the reaction. However, under typical conditions, the reaction described above is the most common result.Ethylene epoxide reacts with Grignard’s Reagent to produce an additive product, which upon hydrolysis yields a primary alcohol. The type of primary alcohol depends upon the number of C atoms in the grignard reagent’s ‘R’ group (RMgX).Since we have two C in Grignard’s Reagent and two in ethylene epoxide, the total number of carbon atoms in primary alcohol will be four, so the name of the alcohol formed is 1-butanol.

Q100. Which of the following has six isotopes?

• A. Manganese
• B. Tin
• C. Calcium✓
• D. Carbon

Explanation: Calcium has six stable isotopes: 40, 42, 43, 44, 46, 48Manganese has four stable isotopes: 52, 53, 54, 55Tin has ten isotopes: 112, 114, 115, 116, 117, 118, 119, 120, 122, 124Carbon has three isotopes: 12, 13, 14.So option C is correct.

Q101. At 0°C what is the physical state of water?

• A. Ice
• B. Liquid
• C. Vapour
• D. Both ice and liquid✓

Explanation: 0 degree C at 1 atm pressure is the freezing point of pure water where its solid-state and liquid state coexist in an equilibrium.

Q102. What is the correct demonstration of general gas equation?

• A. PV/RT=n
• B. PV=mRT
• C. V=nRT/P
• D. PV=nRT✓

Explanation: In the general gas equation, volume is directly proportional to number of moles and temperature, and volume is inversely proportional to pressure.If R is universal gas constant, this relation is given by the equation:PV=nRTwhereP= PressureV= volumen= number of molesR= Ideal gas constantT= Temperature

Q103. Which of the following is/are allotrope(s) of Sulphur?

• A. Monoclinic S and Rhombic S✓
• B. Rhombic S
• C. Triclinic S
• D. Monoclinic S

Explanation: Allotropy is the existence of an element in more than one crystalline forms. These forms are known as allotropes. Sulphur exists in both rhombic and monoclinic forms which are in equilibrium with one another at 95.5 C.

Q104. The property of a crystal to grow in its usual shape is called as:

• A. Symmetry
• B. Habit of crystal✓
• C. Isomorphism
• D. Polymorphism

Explanation: The shape in which a crystal usually grows is called the habit of the crystal. If the conditions for crystallization remain the same, then the crystal will grow in the same shape (habit).

Q105. Gases are non-ideal at high pressure due to:

• A. Intermolecular forces
• B. Decrease in volume occupied by gas
• C. All of these✓
• D. Decrease in compressibility of gas

Explanation: Ideal gases are those that have no intermolecular forces, their molecular volume is negligible as compared to the volume of the entire gas and are infinitely compressible.As the pressure on a gas increases, the gas molecules are brought closer together. This decrease in the total volume of the gas brings the molecules so close that intermolecular forces of attraction develop between them. Moreover, the individual volume of a gas molecule is not negligible compared to the now decreased total volume of the gas. Due to the increase in pressure, the gas is already compressed, making further compression more difficult. So, its compressibility decreases.

Q106. HF has a higher boiling point than HCl because of:

• A. Dipole-dipole interactions
• B. Ion-dipole interactions
• C. Hydrogen bonding✓
• D. London-dispersion forces

Explanation: HF has a higher boiling point than HCl because of the hydrogen bonding that exists between HF molecules. HCl has dipole-dipole intermolecular interactions. Out of the two, hydrogen bonding is stronger, hence, the greater boiling point of HF.

Q107. The maximum number of electrons that an orbital can accommodate is/are:

• A. 0
• B. 1
• C. 2✓
• D. 3
• E. 4

Explanation: The maximum number of electrons in a single orbital is two. The maximum number of electrons an orbital can accommodate is 2. As in an orbital two electrons can never have the same values of all 4 quantum no.s according to Pauli’s exclusion principle. So to follow this rule, an orbital can accommodate 2 electrons only.

Q108. In a reaction:A+B < - > 2C When equilibrium was attained, the concentration was [A] = [B] = 4 moles/dm3[C]= 6 moles/dm3The equilibrium constant Kc of this reaction is:

• A. 1.25
• B. 2.25✓
• C. 3.25
• D. 2.75
• E. 3.75

Explanation: The equilibrium constant Kc is calculated using the expression: Kc = [C]² / [A][B]. For the reaction A + B < - > 2C, substitute the equilibrium concentrations: [C] = 6 moles/dm3, [A] = [B] = 4 moles/dm3. Thus, Kc = (6)² / (4)(4) = 36 / 16 = 2.25, confirming Option B as correct. Options A, C, D, and E result from errors in calculation or misinterpretation of the equilibrium constant formula.

Q109. When two moles of H2 and one mole of O2 react to form H2O, -484 KJ heat is evolved. What is Δ Hf for one mole of H2O?

• A. -484 KJmol-1
• B. -242 KJmol-1✓
• C. -121 KJmol-1
• D. +242 KJmol-1

Explanation: To determine the enthalpy change of formation (ΔHf) for one mole of H2O, we can use the given information about the heat evolved in the reaction.The balanced equation for the reaction is:2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(g)According to the given information, when two moles of H2 and one mole of O2 react, 484 kJ of heat is evolved. This heat change represents the enthalpy change of the reaction.Since two moles of H2O are formed in the reaction, we need to find the enthalpy change for one mole of H2O. To do that, we divide the heat evolved by the stoichiometric coefficient of H2O:ΔHf (H2O) = (484 kJ) / 2ΔHf (H2O) = 242 kJTherefore, the enthalpy change of formation for one mole of H2O is 242 kJ.Firstly, since heat is evolved, the formation of water is an exothermic reaction and so the sign of enthalpy change will be negative. Secondly, enthalpy of formation is the change in enthalpy when one mole of a substance is formed from its constituent elements under standard conditions.When 2 moles of H2 and 1 mole of O2 react, 2 moles of H2O will be formed:2H2 + O2 —------------------------> 2H2O ΔH=-484 kJ/mol (given)Now, for the formation of one mole of H2O, we can simply divide the entire equation by 2:H2 + ½ O2 —-----------------------> H20 ΔH= -242 kJ/molSo, the enthalpy change of formation is –242 kJ/mol, which corresponds to option B, hence that is the correct answer.

Q110. Which of the following metals does NOT liberate hydrogen in reaction with acids?

• A. Mg
• B. Pt✓
• C. Zn
• D. Ca

Explanation: The metal that does not liberate hydrogen in reaction with acids is gold (Au). Gold is a noble metal and is generally unreactive with most acids, including hydrochloric acid (HCl) and sulfuric acid (H2SO4), which are commonly used in acid-metal reactions. Unlike more reactive metals like zinc (Zn) or magnesium (Mg), gold does not undergo a displacement reaction with acids to produce hydrogen gas. Metals exhibit displacement reactions based on their reactivity. All the metals Mg, Zn, and Ca in options A, C, and D respectively are above Hydrogen in the reactivity series and therefore will displace it from acid. Platinum, however, is below hydrogen and so will not displace it and will not liberate H2 gas on reaction with an acid. Therefore option C is the correct answer. The reactivity series of metals is given below:

Q111. The rate of a gaseous reaction Is given by K [A] [B]. If the volume of the vessel containing these gases is reduced to 1/4th of the initial volume, the rate of reaction relative to the original rate would be:

• A. 16/1✓
• B. 1/16
• C. 4/1
• D. 1/8
• E. 8/1

Explanation: If the volume of the vessel is reduced by 1/4th that means according to formula C=n/V concentration of each gas in the flask increases by a factor of 4 times. Since concentrations of two gases are increased by this factor that increases the overall rate by 4x4=16.

Q112. A term in which no two electron can have the same set of four Quantum numbers is stated by

• A. Heisenberg's principle
• B. Pauli's exclusion principle✓
• C. Aufbau principle
• D. Hund's rule

Explanation: The heisenberg uncertainty principle states that certain pairs of physical properties, such as position and momentum, cannot be precisely determined simultaneously with arbitrary accuracy. Mathematically, the uncertainty principle is expressed as follows: (Δx . Δp ≥ h/4π) Hence, this is the incorrect answer. This is the correct answer because, The Pauli exclusion principle states that each electron in an atom must have a unique combination of quantum numbers. The four quantum numbers that describe an electron are: The principal quantum number (n) which determines the energy level or shell of the electron. The azimuthal quantum number (l) which specifies the subshell or orbital angular momentum of the electron. The magnetic quantum number (mₗ) which specifies orientation in space of a given orbital of particular energy and shape. The spin quantum number (mₛ) which specifies the spin state of an electron. The Aufbau principle, also known as the "building-up principle". According to the Aufbau principle, electrons occupy the lowest energy orbitals available first before moving to higher energy levels. The principle is based on the idea that electrons exist in discrete energy levels or shells surrounding the nucleus of an atom. Hence, this is the incorrect answer. Hund's rule states that when electrons are filling degenerate orbitals (orbitals with the same energy), they will occupy separate orbitals within the subshell before pairing up. In other words, electrons will try to maximize the number of unpaired electrons in a subshell or orbital before pairing begins. This principle is based on the concept of electron-electron repulsion. Hence, this is the incorrect answer.

Q113. The unit of rate of reaction is:

• A. Mole (dm3) sec
• B. Mole (dm3) sec-1
• C. Mole(dm-3) sec -1✓
• D. Mole(dm3) sec-2
• E. Mole (dm3)-1 sec -2

Explanation: Reaction rates are usually expressed as the concentration of reactant consumed or the concentration of product formed per unit time. The units are thus moles per decimeter cube per unit time [Mole (dm-3) sec-1 ].

Q114. The rate of a chemical reaction is directly proportional to the product of active masses of the reactants, it is referred to as:

• A. Law of conservation of energy
• B. Law of mass action✓
• C. Law of conservation of mass
• D. Active mass law

Explanation: The rate of a chemical reaction being directly proportional to the product of the active masses of the reactants is described by the law of mass action. Therefore this option is correct.

Q115. The charge on one proton is:

• A. 1.602 x 10-31 C
• B. 1.602 x 10-27 C
• C. 1.602 x 10-19 C✓
• D. 1.602 x 10-11 C

Explanation: This is a factual recall question. The charge on a proton is equal to +1e, where e is the elementary charge having a value of 1.602 x 10-19 coulombs. This is the same as the charge on an electron but has a different polarity, i.e. positive instead of negative for electrons.

Q116. Hybridization of carbon in -CHO group is:

• A. sp
• B. sp2✓
• C. sp3
• D. dsp

Explanation: In the CHO group, - HC=O, the carbon is double bonded to an oxygen and single bonded to hydrogen and another R group, which may be an alkyl or some other group. It has no lone pairs remaining. In other words, the central atom Carbon is bonded to three other groups only. Therefore the hybridisation that it corresponds to is sp2, as can be confirmed from the table below:

Q117. Dehydration of ethanol at 140 oC in the presence of concentrated H2SO4 gives:

• A. Ethene
• B. Ethane
• C. Ethyne
• D. Ether✓

Explanation: Dehydration of alcohol at 140°C gives etherreference # ftb 162

Q118. Which of the following is the worst conductor of electricity?

• A. Hg
• B. Distilled water✓
• C. NaCl(l)
• D. Dilute sugar solution

Explanation: Pure distilled water is a poor conductor of electricity. Water itself is a good electrical insulator, but it can conduct electricity when it contains dissolved ions or impurities. These ions, such as sodium (Na+), chloride (Cl-), or other dissolved salts, increase the conductivity of water by allowing the flow of electric current. In order to conduct electricity, a substance must possess charged particles, either ions or electrons. Distilled water has neither of those as it does not dissociate into H+ or OH- ions unless it is dissolved with some other polar substance. Hence it does not conduct electricity and therefore option B is the correct answer.

Q119. In an adiabatic process:

• A. Pressure is maintained constant
• B. The gas is isothermally expanded
• C. There is perfect heat insulation✓
• D. System exchanges heat with the surroundings

Explanation: During an adiabatic process, the system is completely insulated from its surroundings. Thus, it takes place without heat entering or leaving the system, i.e.,q=0. During an isobaric process, the pressure of the system is kept constant (ΔP=0). During the isochoric process, the volume of the system is kept constant. (ΔV=0). During an isothermal process. the temperature of the system is kept constant (ΔT=0 but q≠0).

Q120. Catenation is a process in which carbon shows the properties of:

• A. Making single bond
• B. Hybridization
• C. Making chains or rings of carbon atoms✓
• D. Isomerism
• E. Breaking of bonds

Explanation: Catenation is the process by which an atom is able to form a bond with another atom of its kind. Carbon possesses this ability hence is able to form ringed structures.

Q121. Primary Alcohol is produced by reactions of Grignard's reagent with _ followed by hydrolysis in an acidic medium.

• A. Carbon dioxide
• B. Formaldehyde✓
• C. Acetaldehyde
• D. Ketone
• E. Methyl chloride

Explanation: The Grignard Reaction involves the addition of an organomagnesium halide (Grignard reagent) to carbonyl compounds. When Grignard reagents react with formaldehyde, a primary alcohol is produced upon hydrolysis in an acidic medium. Formaldehyde is unique as it is the simplest aldehyde, thus allowing the formation of a primary alcohol. Other aldehydes and ketones lead to secondary and tertiary alcohols, respectively. Carbon dioxide reacts with Grignard reagents to form carboxylic acids, not alcohols, and methyl chloride does not react to form an alcohol.

Q122. The diagram below represents the process of:

• A. Hydrolysis
• B. Condensation✓
• C. Neutralization
• D. Metabolism

Explanation: When two monomers join together to form a single product, with the removal of H2O, the process is called the condensation process. Hence, option B is correct.

Q123. Valence electronic configuration Cu+2 is (29Cu)

• A. 5d6
• B. 3d9✓
• C. 3d8
• D. 3d7

Explanation: The valence electronic configuration of Cu+2 is derived from the neutral atom of copper (Cu), which has an atomic number of 29. The electronic configuration of neutral copper (Cu) is 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s¹ 3d¹⁰. When copper loses two electrons to form the Cu+2 ion, the two outermost electrons from the 4s orbital are removed. Therefore, the valence electronic configuration of Cu+2 is 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d⁹.Cu is an element of d-block. Its electronic configuration is anomalous owing to the stability associated with half filled and as in the case of Cu, completely filled d-subshell. One electron from the 4s subshell jumps to 3d subshell, thereby making the electronic configuration:1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s1, 3d10Now, for the formation of Cu2+ ion, the Cu atom must lose 2 electrons from the highest energy level. The important thing here is that the 4s orbital of an atom usually fills before electrons go into its 3d orbitals because the 4s orbital is slightly lower in energy than the empty 3d orbitals (n+l rule). However, once electrons are in the 3d orbital, the 4s is no longer lower in energy, it becomes higher in energy than 3d so when ionisation occurs electrons are lost from the 4s orbital before they're lost from the 3d orbitals.Hence, the first electron is lost from 4s and the one after that, from 3d. So the new electronic configuration from Cu2+ is:1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s0, 3d9Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Q124. The total number of transition elements is:

• A. 58✓
• B. 48
• C. 30
• D. 25

Explanation: This is a factual recall question. There are 58 transition metals in the periodic table of elements, of which 30 are outer transition elements (d-block) and 28 are inner transition elements (f-block). Therefore option A is correct. (Source: FTBB book 2 page 64)

Q125. Which of the following does not act as ligand in the formation of complexes?

• A. CH3NH2
• B. OH-
• C. Cl-
• D. NH4+✓

Explanation: Ligand is a species that donates a lone pair of electrons by forming a dative coordinate bond with a central metal atom/ion. NH4+ has no lone pair of electrons because 4 of the valence electrons of nitrogen are involved in forming covalent bonds with hydrogen and 1 electron has been lost by it, being an ion of +1 charge. Therefore it cannot form a dative bond and hence cannot act as a ligand. The correct answer is therefore option D.

Q126. The ratio of σ to π bonds in benzene is:

• A. 4:1✓
• B. 1:4
• C. 1:3
• D. 3:1

Explanation: The structure of benzene reveals that it has 3 C-C double bonds, hence it has three π bonds for each double bond that it makes. It also possesses 6 C-C single bonds and 6 C-H single bonds, making a total of 12 σ bonds.Ratio of σ:π = 12:3 = 4:1Therefore option A is the correct answer. OIP.kJ8bRcHGdSByWKiFdeWugwHaHa (474×474) (bing.com)

Q127. Which of the following alcohol does not get oxidized when it reacts with K₂Cr₂O₇/H₂SO₄?

• A. CH₃C(CH₃)₂OH✓
• B. CH₃CH(CH₃)OH
• C. CH₃OH
• D. C₂H₅OH

Explanation: Option A is a tertiary alcohol which cannot be oxidized with K2Cr2O7 as the central carbon atom has no free hydrogens.Option B is a secondary alcohol which oxidizes to a ketone. Option C is methanol which oxidizes to carbondioxide. Option D is ethanol which oxidizes to ethanal first then ethanoic acid.

Q128. The classification of monohydric alcohols is due to

• A. Hydrogen atom
• B. Carbon atom✓
• C. Hydroxyl group
• D. Carbonyl group

Explanation: The classification of monohydric alcohols is based on the type of carbon atom to which the –OH group is attached.Therefore:Primary alcohol: –OH on a carbon attached to one other carbon.Secondary alcohol: –OH on a carbon attached to two other carbons.Tertiary alcohol: –OH on a carbon attached to three other carbons.

Q129. Acyclic hydrocarbons are also called:

• A. Closed chain hydrocarbons
• B. Open chain hydrocarbons✓
• C. Ring compounds
• D. Alicyclic compounds

Explanation: OPTION A: Closed-chain hydrocarbons are also called cyclic or alicyclic hydrocarbons. In these, the carbon atoms are arranged in closed-chain forms.OPTION B: In open-chain hydrocarbons, carbon atoms are linked to each other in open chains, which may be a straight chain or a branched chain. It is also called Acyclic hydrocarbons.Hence, B is the correct option.

Q130. How many molecules of H2 are added in acetylene to form ethane?

• A. 1
• B. 3
• C. 4
• D. 2✓

Explanation: Acetylene, C2H2, can be converted to ethane, C2H6, by a process known as hydrogenation. One molecule of H2 when added to acetylene forms ethene. The addition of another molecule of H2 results in the formation of ethane. A total of 2 molecules of H2 are hence required Option A,B and C are incorrect

Q131. The equation shows the reaction between element X and dilute hydrochloric acid: X(s) + 2HCl(aq) -> XCl2(aq) + H2(g) What types of bonding is present in element X and in compound XCl2?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D✓

Explanation: Metallic bonding is a type of chemical bonding that arises from the electrostatic attractive force between conduction electrons (in the form of an electron cloud of delocalized electrons) and positively charged metal ions. The element X is metal as Metals react with halogens to form salts.The compound XCl2 is a salt and has ionic bonds. As two chlorine atoms are attached, this shows the central metal has two valence electrons in free states, so it is a metal of group II A[Be, Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba].

Q132. The enthalpy change accompanying the gain of an electron by a neutral gaseous atom to form a negative ion is called:

• A. Ionization potential
• B. Electronegativity
• C. Electron affinity✓
• D. Lattice energy
• E. Potential energy

Explanation: When an electron is added to a neutral gaseous atom to convert it into a negative ion, the enthalpy change accompanying the process is called Electron affinity enthalpy. Ionization potential, in chemistry, is the amount of energy required to remove an electron from an isolated atom or molecule. Electronegativity is a measure of the tendency of an atom to attract a bonding pair of electrons. Lattice energy is defined as the energy required to separate a mole of an ionic solid into gaseous ions. Potential energy is energy that is stored – or conserved - in an object or substance.

Q133. Lithium and Beryllium are unique in such a way that they have higher charge densities which produce strong polarizing effects due to:

• A. Non-metal
• B. Solubility
• C. Small Size✓
• D. Large size

Explanation: Smaller size is the main cause of high charge density and increasing polarizing effect. The polarizing power of a cation is inversely proportional to its size. Smaller is the size of the cation and higher will be its charge density, which means greater concentration of charge on a smaller area. The more will be the charge density, higher will be its polarising power.

Q134. Order of the reactivity of halogens during halogenation of alkanes is:

• A. Cl2 > I2 > Br2
• B. Br2 > I2 > Cl2
• C. I2 > Cl2 > Br2
• D. Cl2 > Br2 > I2✓

Explanation: The chlorine radical is the most reactive of the among the given halogen molecules and it reacts easily with alkanes. In contrast, the iodine radical is the least reactive of the halogen radicals. In fact, it is so unreactive that it is unable to abstract a hydrogen atom from an alkane.So, (D) option is correct.

Q135. If the temperature is increased from 200K to 800K, then what would be the change in pressure at constant volume?

• A. Increases by factor 4✓
• B. Decreases by factor 4
• C. Increases by factor 2
• D. Decreases by factor 2

Explanation: PV=NRΔT V=constant ;R=constant; N=constant so P is directly proportional to T as the temperature increases 4 times as it increases from 200K to 800K so the pressure will also increase 4 times.Just be careful that the units (especially temperature) are absolute.

Q136. Assume that you have two balls of Identical volume, one weighing 2 Newtons and the other 10 Newtons. Both are falling freely after being released from the same point simultaneously. Which of the following will then be true: I. The 10 N ball falling freely from rest will be accelerated at a greater rate than the 2 N ball II. At the end of the 4s of freefall, the 10 N ball will have 5 times the momentum of the 2 N ball III. At the end of the 4s of free fall, the 10 N ball will have the same kinetic energy as the 2 N ball IV. The 10 N ball possesses greater inertia than the 2 N ball

• A. I, Il and Ill only
• B. I and II only
• C. II and IV only✓
• D. IV only
• E. None of these

Explanation: Acceleration of free fall acts equally on all masses, this is why both objects despite having different masses have the same speed at any point in time. Statement II is correct because two objects have the same velocity but one having 5 times more mass than the other will have 5 times more momentum than the other object. Statement IV is also correct because inertia depends upon mass since a 10N ball has a higher mass it will have greater inertia. Statement III is wrong because objects have different masses so their kinetic energy can not be the same. Statement I is wrong because objects accelerate irrespective of their masses as mentioned before.

Q137. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one mole of a substance through 1 K is called:

• A. Carnot engine
• B. Molar specific heat✓
• C. Kinetic specific heat
• D. General gas law
• E. Boyle's law

Explanation: Specific heat is the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of one kilogram of mass by 1 degree. The molar heat capacity is the heat capacity per unit amount (SI unit: mole) of a pure substance, and the specific heat capacity often called simply specific heat, is the heat capacity per unit mass of material. Option B is correct.

Q138. Identify the example/s of Static Equilibrium:I. A book lying on a horizontal tableII. A buildingIII. A bridge

• A. I only
• B. II and III only
• C. I and III only
• D. III only
• E. I, II and III✓

Explanation: Static equilibrium occurs when the sum of all forces and torques acting on an object is zero, meaning the object is at rest or its center of mass is not accelerating. In the given examples:I. A book lying on a horizontal table is in static equilibrium as it is at rest and the forces acting on it, such as gravity and the normal force, are balanced.II. A building is in static equilibrium if it is stationary and not experiencing any net forces or torques that would cause motion.III. A bridge is in static equilibrium when the forces acting on it, including its own weight and any supporting forces, are balanced to prevent motion.Thus, option E is correct as all examples satisfy the conditions for static equilibrium, while the other options incorrectly omit one or more examples.

Q139. A student is performing a lab experiment on simple harmonic motion. He has two different springs (with force constants k1 and k2) and two different blocks (of masses m1 and m2). If k1 =2k2, and m1 = 2m2, which of the following combinations would give the student the spring-block simple harmonic oscillator with the shortest period?

• A. The spring with force constant k1 and the block of mass m1
• B. The spring with force constant k1 and the block of mass m2✓
• C. The spring with force constant k2 and the block of mass m1
• D. The spring with force constant k2 and the block of mass m2
• E. All the combinations above would give the same period

Explanation: The period of the spring-block simple harmonic oscillator is given by the equation T =2π√m/k so, to make T as small as possible, we want m to be as small as possible and k to be as large as possible. Since m2 is the smaller mass and k1 is the larger spring constant, this combination will give the oscillator the shortest period.

Q140. Some water at 0°C is placed in a large insulated enclosure (vessel). The water vapour formed is pumped out continuously. What fraction of the water will ultimately freeze, if the latent heat vaporization is seven times the latent heat of fusion?

• A. 7/8✓
• B. 8/7
• C. 3/8
• D. 5/8

Explanation: In an insulated system, the energy lost by the water that freezes must equal the energy required to vaporize the remaining water. Let m be the mass of the water and f the fraction that freezes. The heat lost by the frozen part is mfL2 and the heat gained by the vaporized part is m(1-f)L1. Given that L1 = 7L2, we have mfL2 = m(1-f)7L2. Solving for f gives f = 7/8. Therefore, 7/8 of the water freezes. The other options do not satisfy this energy balance.

Q141. Law of Conservation of Momentum states that total linear momentum of system remains constant if:

• A. Balanced external forces are applied to a system.
• B. No external force is applied to a system.
• C. Only linear force is applied in a system is zero.
• D. Sum of external forces are applied to a system is zero.✓

Explanation: This is a statement of the conservation of linear momentum, thus, it is a fact. For the sake of explanation, an external force would disturb the equilibrium of the system and produce an acceleration in the objects being tested.

Q142. What is true about the electric field and electric force?

• A. Electric field lines are towards negative and electron flow in same direction
• B. Electric field lines are towards positive and electron flow in opposite direction
• C. Electric field lines are towards the negative and electrons flow in the opposite direction.✓
• D. Electric field lines are positive and electrons flow in the same direction.

Explanation: Electric field lines always point away from a positive charge and towards a negative point. In fact, electric fields originate at a positive charge and terminate at a negative charge.This shows that OPTION B and D ARE INCORRECT. Electrons flow from lower potential terminal to higher potential terminal being negatively charged particles it flows from negative to positive poles hence it is the opposite direction as the electric field.So,OPTION C is incorrect.

Q143. Two capacitors C1 = 2µ and C2 = 4µ F are connected in series across in a 100V supply. Find the effective capacitance.

• A. ½ µF
• B. 3/2 µF
• C. 5/2 µF
• D. 4/3 µF✓
• E. 2 µF

Explanation: Recall that the effective capacitance of capacitors in series is the reciprocal of the sum of reciprocals of individual capacitors (just like resistors in parallel)Therefore,1/Ceffective = 1/C1 + 1/C21/Ceffective = ½ +¼ 1/Ceffective = ¾C effective= 4/3 µF Hence option D is the correct answer.

Q144. Coal and petrol are stores of chemical energy when are burnt, chemical energy is converted into heat energy i.e chemical energy = heat energy + _:

• A. Electrical energy
• B. Losses✓
• C. Gains
• D. Wind energy
• E. Nothing

Explanation: When coal or petrol is burned, the chemical energy stored in the fuel is primarily converted into heat energy. However, not all of this energy conversion is perfectly efficient; some energy is inevitably lost to the surroundings as waste heat, which is why 'Losses' is the correct answer. Electrical energy is not directly produced from combustion without additional equipment. Gains are incorrect because energy is not gained but redistributed with losses. Wind energy is unrelated to burning fuels. 'Nothing' is incorrect because energy transformations usually accompany some degree of energy loss.

Q145. When there is an increase in the length of the simple pendulum then its time period will:

• A. Remain the same
• B. Decrease
• C. First decrease then increase
• D. Increase✓

Explanation: The time period T of a simple pendulum is given by the formula T = 2π√(l/g), where l is the length of the pendulum and g is the acceleration due to gravity.From this formula, we can see that T is directly proportional to the square root of the length l. Therefore, if the length of the pendulum increases, the time period will also increase.Option A is incorrect because the time period does not remain constant. Option B is incorrect because the time period does not decrease with an increase in length. Option C is incorrect as the time period does not first decrease and then increase; it continuously increases with an increase in length. Option D is correct as it accurately describes the relationship.

Q146. When frequency of applied periodic Force is equal to the natural frequency of harmonic oscillator then the _ of oscillator _.

• A. amplitude : decreases
• B. Amplitude : increases✓
• C. Frequency : increases
• D. Frequency : decreases

Explanation: This question refers to the phenomenon of resonance. During resonance, the amplitude keeps on increasing after every subsequent oscillation, provided the system is undamped.

Q147. The wavelength of the electromagnetic wave having frequency of 3 kHz will be?

• A. 120 km
• B. 100 km✓
• C. 80 km
• D. 140 km

Explanation: λ = v / fInputting speed of light or 3 x 108 m/s as v and 3 x 103 Hz as f gives us 1 x 105 m or 100 km.

Q148. Laser light is?

• A. Multi-directional.
• B. Bi-directional.
• C. Uni-directional.✓
• D. None of these options is correct.

Explanation: The waves emitted from a laser are all in-phase and coherent. They are focused at one point and do not emit at an angle.

Q149. The sum of all forms of molecular energies (kinetic and potential) of a substance is termed as:

• A. Elastic energy
• B. Absolute energy
• C. Internal energy✓
• D. Heat energy

Explanation: Elastic energy is a form of potential energy. Absolute energy does not exist. By definition, Internal energy is the sum of total kinetic and potential energy as defined in 1st law of thermodynamics.

Q150. The rate at which work is being done is called:

• A. Power✓
• B. Energy
• C. Density
• D. Force

Explanation: The rate at which work is done is called power. It is expressed as the amount of work per unit of time.

Q151. Which one of the following requires no medium?

• A. Beta rays
• B. Alpha rays
• C. Gamma rays✓
• D. All of these

Explanation: Out of all these, Gamma rays are an example of electromagnetic waves, which require NO medium to travel and propagate from one place to the other or even through a vacuum.On the other hand, mechanical waves require a medium to travel and propagate from one place to the other and can NOT pass through the vacuum. Examples of mechanical waves are sound waves, alpha rays, beta rays, etc.The picture attached represents the 'Electromagnetic Spectrum', of which 'Gamma Rays' are a part of.

Q152. An electric bulb is rated at 220 V, 100 W. What is its resistance?

• A. 250 Ohms
• B. 350 Ohms
• C. 450 Ohms
• D. 484 Ohms✓

Explanation: In this case, we are given the voltage (V) of the bulb, which is 220 V, and the power (P) of the bulb, which is 100 W. We can use the formula for power:Power (P) = V2/RR = V2/P= (220)2/100= 22 x 22= 484 Ohms

Q153. The fractional change in resistance per kelvin is known as:

• A. None
• B. Temperature coefficient of resistance✓
• C. Thermal coefficient
• D. Volumetric coefficient of expansion
• E. Linear coefficient of expansion

Explanation: The fractional change in resistance per kelvin is called the temperature coefficient.The temperature coefficient of resistance is a measure of how much the electrical resistance of a material changes with temperature. It is expressed in units of ohms per ohm per degree Celsius (Ω/Ω/°C) or ohms per ohm per kelvin (Ω/Ω/K). This coefficient is denoted by the symbol α (alpha) and is an important factor in understanding and designing electronic circuits, particularly when dealing with components like resistors whose resistance can vary with temperatureResistance coefficient, abbreviated as K, a dimensionless number, is how much resistance to the flow an obstacle has. Volumetric coefficient increases in volume per unit original volume per Kelvin rise in temperature is called the coefficient of volumetric expansion.The ratio increase in length original length for the 1-degree rise in temperature is called the coefficient of linear expansion

Q154. Which of the following is the pair of isobars?

• A. 1H1 and 2H1
• B. 12C6 and 13H6
• C. 2H1 and 3H1
• D. 30H15 and 30Si14✓

Explanation: Isobars are atomic species that have the same mass number (A), but a different atomic number (Z). This can only be seen in option D. Isobars should not be confused with isotopes, which share the same atomic number, and therefore belong to the same chemical element, but have varying mass numbers.

Q155. Electrons are emitted in the production of X-rays by the process of:

• A. Conduction
• B. Convection
• C. Thermionic emission✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Electrons are emitted in the production of X-rays by heating a filament and this process is called thermionic emission and electrons themselves are called thermions.

Q156. Due to the magnetic force, a positively charged particle executes uniform circular motion within a uniform magnetic field ‘B’. If the charge is ‘q’ and radius of its path is r, which of the expressions gives the magnitude of the particle’s linear momentum:

• A. qBr✓
• B. qB/r
• C. q/(Br)
• D. B

Explanation: Here the centripetal force will balance the magnetic force. So, mv2/r=qvB or mv=qBr Thus, linear momentum, p=mv=qBr

Q157. The half-life of 14C is approximately 5,730 years, while the half-life of 12C is essentially infinite. If the ratio of 14Cto 12C in a certain sample is 25% less than the normal ratio in nature, how old is the sample?

• A. Less than 5,730 years✓
• B. Approximately 5,730 years
• C. Significantly greater than 5,730 years, but less than 11,460 years
• D. Approximately 11,460 years
• E. Approximately 15,730 years

Explanation: Because the half-life of carbon-12 is essentially infinite, a 25 percent decrease in the ratio of carbon-14 to carbon-12 means the same as a 25 percent decrease in the amount of carbon-14. If less than half of the carbon-14 has deteriorated, then less than one half-life has elapsed. Therefore, the sample is less than 5730 years old. Be careful with the wording here—the question states that the ratio is 25% less than the ratio in nature, not 25% of the ratio in nature, which would correspond to choice (D).

Q158. Which of the following statements is not consistent with Bohr's set of postulates regarding the hydrogen atom model with regard to the emission and absorption of light?

• A. Energy levels of the electrons are stable and discrete.
• B. An electron emits or absorbs radiation only when making a transition from one energy level to another.
• C. To jump from lower energy to higher energy, an electron must absorb a photon of precisely the right frequency such that the photon's energy equals the energy difference between the two orbits.
• D. To jump from a higher energy to a lower energy, an electron' absorbs a photon of frequency such that photon's energy is exactly the energy difference between the two orbits.✓
• E. None of the above

Explanation: Bohr's model describes that energy levels are quantized and electrons transition between these levels by absorbing or emitting photons. Option D is incorrect because it incorrectly states that an electron absorbs a photon when moving from a higher to a lower energy level, which contradicts Bohr's model. Instead, the electron emits a photon in such transitions. Options A, B, and C are consistent with the model as they correctly describe the stability of energy levels, the conditions for emission and absorption of radiation, and the requirement for precise photon energy during transitions.

Q159. Sodium nucleus consists of 11 protons and 12 neutrons. The conventional symbol of this nucleus is?

• A. 11Na11
• B. 12Na12
• C. 11Na23✓
• D. 12Na23
• E. 12Na11

Explanation: The conventional symbol of the element contains the proton number(number of protons) and the mass number(proton number+number of neutrons), which is 11 and (11+12=)23, in this case. So the correct option is C. The conventional symbol of a sodium nucleus is 11Na23.

Q160. In free states, the mass of the nucleus is always:

• A. Greater than the mass of its constituents
• B. Equal to the mass of its constituents
• C. Less than the mass of its constituents✓
• D. Far greater than the mass of its constituents

Explanation: The correct answer is that the mass of the nucleus is less than the mass of its constituents. This is due to the mass defect, where some mass is converted into binding energy. Binding energy is crucial as it holds the nucleus together. The other options are incorrect because they do not account for the mass defect and the role of binding energy in nuclear physics.

Q161. For the first time in 1914, Henry Moseley used X-rays for the determination of:

• A. Atomic Number✓
• B. Atomic Mass
• C. Molecular Mass
• D. Equivalent mass

Explanation: In 1914, he observed and measured the X-ray spectra of various chemical elements using diffraction in crystals. Through this, he discovered a systematic relation between wavelength and atomic number. This discovery is now known as Moseley's Law. He found that certain lines in the X-ray spectrum of elements move by the same amount each time when we increase the atomic number by one.

Q162. Ohm time’s farad is equivalent to:

• A. Time✓
• B. Charge
• C. Distance
• D. Capacitor

Explanation: The formula for charging and discharging capacitor is RC=T R: resistance C: capacitance T: time for charging/ discharging

Q163. e/m for an electron is _, when the charge of an electron is 1.6 x 10-19C and mass of electron is 9.1 x 10-31kg.

• A. 1.67 x 10-11 C/kg
• B. 1.76 x 1011 C/kg✓
• C. 16.7 x 1011 C/kg
• D. 1.76 x 10-11 C/kg

Explanation: The specific charge is being asked here. The formula for that is:Q/m {where Q is the charge of the electron and m is the mass.}Substitute Q= 1.6x10-19 and m=9.1x10-31 into the equation:=1.6x10-19/9.1x10-31= 1.76x1011

Q164. If the velocity of a charged particle and magnetic field are at a fixed angle that is not 90 degrees, then the path will be:

• A. Circular
• B. Straight line
• C. Spherical
• D. Helical✓

Explanation: Force is given by F = qvBsinθ, where F, q, v and B are the force, charge on particle, velocity of particle and magnetic field strength respectively. θ is the angle between v and B.If θ = 0 or 180, there is no force on the particle and it continues to move with uniform velocity.If θ = 90, the force acting on the particle is maximum and perpendicular to the path of the particle. (force acts as a centripetal force and the particle moves along a circular path)When θ has a value other than 0, 90 or 180, the direction of velocity is either perpendicular or parallel to B. If the component of velocity is parallel to B it will not be affected by the magnetic field. However if the component of velocity is perpendicular to B it will be subject to a force of the magnetic field which would result in uniform circular motion. Hence the particle would have a component along a straight line as well as a circular component. Therefore the path would be in the form of a helix. And so option D is correct.

Q165. What is the SI Unit of EMF?

• A. Ohm
• B. Ampere
• C. Volt✓
• D. Newton

Explanation: This is a standard answer. The SI unit of EMF is Volts. Volts is also the SI unit of Potential difference. 1 Volt = Joule/Coulomb

Q166. Magnetic field lines have a property that lines are _.

• A. Non intersecting✓
• B. Intersect near south pole
• C. Intersect near north pole
• D. Intersect everywhere

Explanation: The magnetic field lines do not intersect, under normal conditions, without any external influences.

Q167. When electron series terminates on the 4th orbit _ series is obtained.

• A. Balmer
• B. Pfund
• C. Paschen
• D. None of these options is correct✓

Explanation: Bracket series is obtained when all transition of electron terminates on 4th orbit.Option A; balmer series is obtained when all transition of electron terminates on 2nd orbit.Option B: pfund series is obtained when all transition of electron terminates on 5th orbit.Option C: paschen series is obtained when all transition of electron terminates on 3rd orbit.

Q168. The series limit for the Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum occurs at 3664 A°. Calculate Ionization energy of hydrogen atom.

• A. 21.7 x 10-19 J
• B. 6.626 x 10-34 J
• C. 5.425 x 10-19 J✓
• D. 3664 x 10-10 J
• E. 3 x 108 J

Explanation: The Balmer emission lines correspond to transitions down to the level for which n=2. Given series is the Balmer series, so n1=2 and n2=∞ λ=3664A° Change in ionisation energy= Einfinity−E2= −E2 -E2 =-hc/λ -E2=6.626×10-34 ×3×10⁸/(3664x10-10) -E2 =−5.42×10−19 J so option C is the only correct option.

Q169. The phenomena in which certain metals emit electrons when exposed to high-frequency light is known as?

• A. Photoelectric Effect✓
• B. Compton’s Effect
• C. Henry's Effect
• D. Principle of Relativity
• E. Coulomb's Law

Explanation: When a metal surface is exposed to a monochromatic electromagnetic wave of sufficiently short wavelength (or equivalently, above a threshold frequency), the incident radiation is absorbed and the exposed surface emits electrons. This phenomenon is known as the photoelectric effect.

Q170. Minimum frequency below which no electrons are emitted from the metal surface is called _ frequency.

• A. Minimum
• B. Angular
• C. Maximum
• D. Threshold✓

Explanation: The correct answer is the 'threshold frequency', which is the minimum frequency of electromagnetic radiation necessary to dislodge electrons from the surface of a metal. This concept is fundamental to the photoelectric effect, where no electrons are emitted if the incident light's frequency is below this threshold, regardless of its intensity. The other options, 'minimum', 'angular', and 'maximum', either lack specificity or pertain to different contexts within physics.

Q171. Suppose in a certain language MADRAS is coded as NBESBT. Then BOMBAY is coded in that language as:

• A. CPNCBZ✓
• B. CPNCBX
• C. CPOCBZ
• D. CQOCBZ

Explanation: As we can see the code exchanges each letter with the letter that follows it, so A becomes B, B becomes C, C becomes D, and so on. We will do this for each letter in Bombay and will arrive to: CPNCBZ.

Q172. Choose the odd one out:

• A. Eagle
• B. Cloud
• C. Squirrel✓
• D. Plane

Explanation: All Options excluding C refers to animals and objects that are involved in flying. Squirrel is the only option that is present on the ground.

Q173. Statements: 1. Blueberries cost more than strawberries. 2. Blueberries cost less than raspberries. 3. Raspberries cost more than strawberries and blueberries. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is:

• A. True✓
• B. False
• C. Uncertain
• D. None of these

Explanation: From the first two statements, we can establish the cost order: Raspberries > Blueberries > Strawberries. This directly confirms that raspberries cost more than both of the other fruits, making the third statement true.

Q174. The Emporium Mall has more stores than the Pakages Mall.The Amanah Mall has fewer stores than the Pakages Mall.The Emporium Mall has more stores than the Amanah Mall.If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

• A. True✓
• B. FALSE
• C. Uncertain
• D. None of these

Explanation: ExplanationFrom the first two statements, you know that the Emporium mall has the most stores, so the Emporium Mall would have more stores than the packages Mall.

Q175. Statement:I. The school authority has asked the FSC students to attend special classes to be conducted on Sundays.II. The parents of the FSC students have withdrawn their wards from attending private tuitions conducted on Sundays.

• A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.✓
• B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
• C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes
• D. Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Explanation: The reason why parents have withdrawn their wards from attending private tuitions on Sunday is that the students had to attend special classes conducted by the school on Sunday. If there were no classes conducted by the school on Sunday then the parents wouldn’t have had to make their kids leave their Sunday tuitions.

Q176. From the following which word does not belong to the others:

• A. Index
• B. Book✓
• C. Glossary
• D. Chapter

Explanation: An index, glossary, and chapter are all parts of a book. Option A does not belong because the book is the whole, not a part.

Q177. How many rectangle and square are there in the given figure?

• A. 15✓
• B. 16
• C. 25
• D. 13

Explanation: This is the correct total count of rectangles and squares found by methodically analyzing each part of the figure.

Q178. Directions: In the following question, a number sequence is given with one term missing. Choose the correct term that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given sequence.1,2,4,7,?,16

• A. 8
• B. 11✓
• C. 9
• D. 13

Explanation: To solve the sequence 1, 2, 4, 7, ?, 16, observe the differences between consecutive terms: +1, +2, +3. The pattern indicates that the differences are increasing sequentially by 1. Thus, the next difference should be +4. Adding 4 to 7 results in 11, completing the sequence as 1, 2, 4, 7, 11, 16. Therefore, the correct answer is 11. The other options 8, 9, and 13 do not follow this established pattern, making them incorrect choices.

Q179. Find the missing symbol: *, @, *, @, *, ?

• A. *
• B. @✓
• C. $
• D. &

Explanation: The sequence alternates between '*' and '@'. Observing the pattern: *, @, *, @, *, ?, the missing symbol should continue this alternation. After '*', the next symbol should be '@', making Option B correct. Options A, C, and D do not follow the observed pattern of alternating between '*' and '@'.