Federal Mdcat Mock Paper 5 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Humpty Dumpty sat on a wall.

• A. Assertive✓
• B. Imperative
• C. Exclamatory
• D. Interrogative

Explanation: (A) Assertive (Correct Answer) – Correct. This sentence simply states a fact, making it an assertive (declarative) sentence.

Q2. Choose the correct antonym to the given word:Interruption

• A. Break
• B. Continuity✓
• C. Injury
• D. Difference

Explanation: The unbroken and consistent existence or operation of something over time is continuity. It is the opposite of interruption.

Q3. Use an appropriate article:We have _ small house in _ village in _ Netherlands.

• A. The, An, A
• B. An, A, The
• C. A, A, The✓
• D. A, An, The

Explanation: "We have a small house in a village in the Netherlands."Here's why each article is used:"A" before "small house": The indefinite article "a" is used before "small house" because it refers to one unspecified small house among possibly many."A" before "village": Similarly, "a" is used before "village" because it refers to one unspecified village among possibly many villages."The" before "Netherlands": The definite article "the" is used before "Netherlands" because it refers to a specific country, indicating that the house is located in the country known as the Netherlands.

Q4. Fill in the blank: I'm now going to give you 10 _ tips for running a really successful website.

• A. Invaluable✓
• B. Valueless
• C. Unworthy
• D. Unprofitable

Explanation: Invaluable is defined as something extremely useful; indispensable. Since these tips will help create a successful website, they are extremely helpful and thus important, making them invaluable.

Q5. Choose the correct option according to subject verb agreementIt_ (rain) since last night.

• A. Raining
• B. Has been raining✓
• C. Rains
• D. Rained

Explanation: "Since" in the sentence indicates the present perfect tense. In the present perfect tense, we use the helping verb has/have been + the ing form of the verb (present participle).

Q6. Demonstrate the correct use of subject-verb agreement:There _ many objections to the plan.

• A. Is
• B. Are✓
• C. Was
• D. Be

Explanation: In the case of a plural subject, the correct helping verb would be ‘are’ or ‘were’. As ‘were’ is in none of the options hence B is the correct answer.

Q7. Select the option which fits appropriately in the blank:A really sophisticated person would never be _ enough, to think that he is always right.

• A. Reverent
• B. Naive✓
• C. Articulate
• D. Humble

Explanation: If someone always thinks they’re right, that is foolish on their behalf, therefore it would be 'naive' for a sophisticated person.

Q8. They will bake the pies.Which tense is used here?

• A. Present
• B. Past
• C. Future✓
• D. Universal

Explanation: The sentence “They will bake the pies” uses the simple future tense because it expresses an action that has not happened yet but will occur later. The helping verb “will” combined with the base form “bake” clearly marks it as a future action.

Q9. Last Saturday my father _ (take) my friends and me to the circus.

• A. Take
• B. Took✓
• C. Will take
• D. Has taken

Explanation: Since the person has said “last” saturday, it is automatically known that it was an event that already took place so we will choose the past tense of "take" which is "took".

Q10. How many ml of blood is pumped by each contraction of the heart?

• A. 85 ml✓
• B. 90 ml
• C. 70 ml
• D. 60 ml

Explanation: Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped out by the ventricles during one heartbeat. The average stroke volume is 85 ml so that is the amount of blood pumped in each heartbeat so option A is correct.

Q11. Hybrid black Guinea pigs are crossed with each other. The resulting offsprings will be:

• A. All black
• B. All white
• C. 3 black, 1 white✓
• D. 3 white, 1 black

Explanation: Hybrid black Guinea pigs have the genotype Bb, where B (black) is dominant and b (white) is recessive. When two Bb individuals are crossed, the Punnett square results in the following combinations:BB (Black) – 1/4 (25%)Bb (Black) – 1/2 (50%)bb (White) – 1/4 (25%)Thus, out of four offspring, three will be black (BB or Bb), and one will be white (bb).

Q12. Antibodies are actually:

• A. Globular proteins✓
• B. Glycoproteins
• C. Fibrous proteins
• D. Glycolipids

Explanation: Antibodies are globular proteins that play a key role in the immune system by binding to antigens. Their compact, three-dimensional structure enables them to specifically recognize and neutralize foreign substances.

Q13. T-Lymphocytes are matured in the thymus glands, and they are produced in:

• A. Thymus glands
• B. Bone marrow✓
• C. Pancreas
• D. Heart

Explanation: T-lymphocytes originate from stem cells in bone marrow, then migrate to the thymus gland for maturation.

Q14. Read the passage below to answer the question:Haemophilia is a disorder in which blood fails to clot. Saad, a male haemophiliac, marries Sara, a normal woman and together they have four children, two boys (Ahmed and Ali) and two girls (Alia and Ayesha). None of the children display the symptoms of Haemophilia. Ahmed, Ali, Ayesha, and Ali all marry normal individuals and have children. None of Ahmed's or Ali’s children, male or female, display symptoms of haemophilia, but the sons of Alia and Ayesha display symptoms of haemophilia while the daughters of Alia and Ayesha do not.Which of the following best explains the reason that Ahmed, Ali, Ayesha and Alia do not display symptoms of haemophilia, even though their father, Saad, is a haemophiliac.

• A. Haemophilia is an X-linked disorder, and Saad can only pass on his Y chromosome
• B. Haemophilia is an X-linked disorder, and even though Alia and Ayesha receive a hemophiliac X-chromosome from Saad, Sara gave them a normal X-chromosome.✓
• C. Haemophilia is a Y -linked disorder, and therefore cannot be displayed in females
• D. Haemophilia is a Y-linked disorder ,and Ahmed and Ali must have received an X Chromosome from Saad
• E. Haemophilia is an X-linked disorder, and even though Ahmed and All received a Hemophilia X-chromosome from Saad, Sara gave them a normal X- chromosome.

Explanation: Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder. Males (XY) only need one affected X chromosome to express the disorder, but females (XX) need two affected X chromosomes. Since Sara is normal, she provides a normal X chromosome to Alia and Ayesha, making them carriers but not affected.

Q15. Read the passage below to answer the question: Hemophilia is a disorder in which blood fails to clot. Saad, a male hemophiliac, marries Sara, a normal woman and together they have four children, two boys (Ahmed and Ali) and two girls (Alia and Ayesha). None of the children display the symptoms of Hemophilia. Ahmed, Ali, Ayesha, and Ali all marry normal individuals and have children. None of Ahmed's or Ali’s children, male or female, display symptoms of hemophilia, but the sons of Alia and Ayesha display symptoms of hemophilia while the daughters of Alia and Ayesha do not. If one of Ali's daughters marries a normal man, what is the probability that one of their children will display symptoms of hemophilia:

• A. 0%✓
• B. 25%
• C. 50%
• D. 75%
• E. 100%

Explanation: Ali and Ahmed are normal males because they receive a Y chromosome from their father and Haemophilia is an X-linked disorder. Ali marries a normal female and will therefore have a normal daughter. If this normal daughter marries a normal male, the probability that they will have haemophiliac children is 0%.

Q16. Read the passage below to answer the question:Hemophilia is a disorder in which blood fails to clot. Saad, a male hemophiliac, marries Sara, a normal woman and together they have four children, two boys (Ahmed and Ali) and two girls (Alia and Ayesha). None of the children display the symptoms of Hemophilia. Ahmed, Ali, Ayesha, and Ali all marry normal individuals and have children. None of Ahmeds or Ali’s children, male or female, display symptoms of hemophilia, but the sons of Alia and Ayesha display symptoms of hemophilia while the daughters of Alia and Ayesha do not. Which of the following individuals are heterozygous for hemophilia:

• A. Saad, Ahmed, and Ali
• B. Ahmed, Ali, Alia, and Ayesha
• C. Saad and Sara
• D. Alia and Ayesha✓
• E. Ahmed and Ali

Explanation: Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning that males (XY) need only one affected X chromosome to express the disorder, while females (XX) need two affected X chromosomes to have the disease.Saad (hemophiliac male) has only one X chromosome, which carries the hemophilia mutation, and a Y chromosome.Sara (normal female) has two normal X chromosomes.Ahmed and Ali (sons of Saad and Sara) inherit their Y chromosome from Saad and a normal X chromosome from Sara, so they are unaffected.Alia and Ayesha (daughters of Saad and Sara) inherit one affected X chromosome from Saad and one normal X chromosome from Sara, making them carriers (heterozygous) for hemophilia.Since Alia and Ayesha are carriers, they do not show symptoms themselves but can pass the affected X chromosome to their sons. Their sons receive their Y chromosome from their fathers and have a 50% chance of inheriting the affected X chromosome from their mothers, leading to hemophilia.Thus, Alia and Ayesha are heterozygous for hemophilia.

Q17. The causes of Cyanosis include:

• A. Deficiency of vitamin C
• B. Varicella-zoster virus
• C. Degeneration of the cartilage of joints
• D. Ventricular septum defect✓
• E. None of these options

Explanation: Cyanosis occurs when oxygen-depleted (deoxygenated) blood, which is bluish rather than red, circulates through the skin. This occurs when there is the mixing of blood which takes place when there is a septal defect in the heart, e.g Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD).

Q18. The Law of Dominance Is illustrated in the garden pea by:

• A. Homozygous tall x heterozygous tall
• B. Heterozygous tall x heterozygous tall
• C. Homozygous tall x homozygous tall
• D. Pure short x pure short
• E. Homozygous tall x pure short✓

Explanation: The Law of Dominance states that in a heterozygous individual, the dominant allele will determine the phenotype while the recessive allele is masked. In this case, the cross between a homozygous tall plant (TT) and a pure short plant (tt) clearly illustrates this law, as all offspring (Tt) will be tall, demonstrating that the dominant allele 'T' expresses itself over the recessive 't'.The other options do not adequately illustrate the Law of Dominance: the first option shows both parents expressing the tall phenotype, while the second option leads to a mix of phenotypes. The third option results in only tall offspring, but both parents are homozygous dominant, failing to demonstrate dominance. The fourth option produces only short offspring, which lacks any dominant allele.

Q19. The massive accumulation of blood within a tissue is called:

• A. Hemorrhage
• B. Haematoma✓
• C. Hepatoma
• D. Haemocoel
• E. Haematemesis

Explanation: A hematoma is a localized collection of blood outside vessels, usually due to vessel injury.

Q20. Which valve action results from an increase in pressure in the ventricles of the heart?

• A. The closing of all the heart valves
• B. The closing of semilunar valves
• C. The opening of the bicuspid valve
• D. The opening of the semilunar valves✓
• E. The opening of the tricuspid valve

Explanation: When ventricular pressure rises above the pressure in the aorta and pulmonary artery, the semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary) open to allow blood to enter aorta and pulmonary arteries.

Q21. Blood circulating from the gut to the heart passes through the:

• A. Aorta
• B. Kidneys
• C. Liver✓
• D. Lungs

Explanation: The hepatic portal system carries nutrient-rich blood from the gut to the liver before it enters systemic circulation.

Q22. Number of bones in the skull:

• A. 22✓
• B. 26
• C. 24
• D. 28

Explanation: The human skull is composed of 22 bones. These bones include 14 facial bones (a pair of maxilla, mandible, vomer, nasal, a pair of zygomatic, a pair of conchae, a pair of lacrimal, and a pair of palatine) and 8 cranial bones (frontal, a pair of parietal, a pair of temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid). As per the NUMS answer key, 22 is the correct answer. The skull has 22 bones; the 6 earbones are not included in the skull bones. However, according to STB, it's 28, you should prefer your textbook.

Q23. Which of the following bones are present in the palm of the hand:

• A. Carpals
• B. Metacarpals✓
• C. Phalanges
• D. Tarsal
• E. Radius

Explanation: The human forelimbs each consist of 30 bones: The humerus, which forms a ball and socket joint with the scapula, and two long parallel bones, the radius and ulna, at its distal end. The radius and ulna join the wrist with eight small carpal bones, which articulate with five metacarpals of the palm. From the palm extend the fingers containing 14 small bones called phalanges, arranged in 5 rows, one row in each finger. The relevant detail for this question is that the bones of the palm are called metacarpals, hence option B is correct.

Q24. The muscles attached to the bones are

• A. Voluntary and smooth
• B. Involuntary and smooth
• C. Voluntary and striated✓
• D. Involuntary and striated
• E. Smooth and striated

Explanation: Voluntary muscles are under conscious control, allowing us to move our bodies intentionally. Striated muscles have a striped appearance under a microscope due to the organization of their contractile proteins, giving them the name "striated." These muscles are also known as skeletal muscles and are responsible for body movements.

Q25. The number of muscles in the human body is about:

• A. 200
• B. 300
• C. 400
• D. 500
• E. 600✓

Explanation: Most sources state that there are over 600 named skeletal muscles in the human body.

Q26. How many metacarpals are present in the hand?

• A. 4
• B. 3
• C. 6
• D. 5✓
• E. 8

Explanation: There are five metacarpal bones in the palm, as shown below (marked red):

Q27. Molluscs have an exoskeleton made up of:

• A. Protein
• B. Silica
• C. CaCO3✓
• D. Cuticles

Explanation: While mollusca exoskeleton does indeed contain proteins as well as calcium carbonate(CaCO3), they are composed mostly of calcium carbonate with only a small quantity of protein--no more than 2 percent. These shells, unlike typical animal structures, are not made up of cells (so no cuticle). So options A, B, and D are incorrect as it does not contain silica either. Option C is correct.

Q28. Which one of the following is a “myogenic” type of muscle?

• A. Glandular muscles
• B. Cardiac muscles✓
• C. Skeletal muscles
• D. Smooth muscles

Explanation: The term 'myogenic' refers to muscle contractions that originate from the muscle tissue itself without external stimuli from the nervous system. Cardiac muscles are 'myogenic' because they can initiate contractions autonomously due to the intrinsic pacemaker cells of the heart. This distinguishes them from skeletal muscles, which are 'neurogenic,' as they require neural input to contract. Although some smooth muscle types are 'myogenic,' the question specifies a singular type of 'myogenic' muscle, making cardiac muscle the most precise answer.

Q29. What do we call the cell surface membrane of a muscle fibre?

• A. Sarcolemma✓
• B. Plasma membrane
• C. Sarcoplasm
• D. Myofibrils

Explanation: The correct answer is Sarcolemma. The sarcolemma is the specialized cell membrane that surrounds a muscle fiber. It is crucial for communication between the nervous system and the muscle fiber, allowing the initiation of muscle contraction through electrical signal transmission. The term 'sarco-' denotes its association with muscle cells, differentiating it from the general plasma membrane found in all cell types. Option B, the 'Plasma membrane', refers to the cell membrane in general terms and does not specify its role in muscle cells. Option C, 'Sarcoplasm', is the cytoplasmic content of the muscle cell, not the membrane. Finally, Option D, 'Myofibrils', are the internal structures responsible for contraction, unrelated to the cell's surface membrane.

Q30. The diagram shows some of the muscles and bones of the human arm.

• A. The tricep contracts to bend the elbow and the bicep relaxes.
• B. The bicep contracts to straighten the elbow and the tricep relaxes.
• C. The tricep contracts to straighten the elbow and the bicep relaxes.✓
• D. The bicep contracts to bend the elbow and the tricep relaxes.
• E. Both A and C are correct.

Explanation: The correct answer is that the tricep contracts to straighten the elbow and the bicep relaxes. In the human arm, the tricep and bicep are antagonistic muscles, meaning they work in opposition to each other to create movement. When the tricep contracts, it exerts force on the bones of the arm, causing the elbow to extend or straighten. During this action, the bicep must relax to allow the movement to occur smoothly. Option A is incorrect because the tricep does not bend the elbow; the bicep is responsible for bending the elbow by contracting. Option B is incorrect because the bicep does not straighten the elbow; that is the function of the tricep. Option D describes the action of bending the elbow, which is not the focus of the question about straightening the elbow. Option E is incorrect because it includes Option A, which is not correct.

Q31. Nutritional deficiency ( vitamin D ) results in softening of the bones. This disease is called?

• A. Rickets✓
• B. Cleft palates
• C. Microcephaly
• D. Down syndrome

Explanation: Rickets is a condition that primarily affects children and is caused by a deficiency in vitamin D. Vitamin D is essential for calcium and phosphate absorption in the body, which are critical for healthy bone formation. Without adequate vitamin D, bones become soft and weak, leading to symptoms such as bowed legs and stunted growth. The other options are distinct medical conditions that do not involve vitamin D deficiency or bone softening. Cleft palate is a structural birth defect, microcephaly is a condition affecting brain size, and Down syndrome is a genetic disorder.

Q32. Which of the following is known as adaptation of traits to better fill a niche?

• A. Polymorphism
• B. Gene linkage
• C. Specialization✓
• D. Replication

Explanation: The correct answer is Specialization. Specialization refers to how organisms adapt particular traits to perform specific functions or to thrive in certain environmental conditions, thereby filling a specific ecological niche. This process helps organisms become more efficient in their roles within their ecosystems.Polymorphism is incorrect because it involves the existence of multiple forms within a species, not necessarily linked to niche adaptation.Gene linkage is incorrect as it pertains to genes being inherited together, which is unrelated to niche adaptation.Replication is incorrect because it relates to the process of copying genetic material and does not involve adaptation to environmental niches.

Q33. The factory of ribosomal synthesis is:

• A. Cytoplasm
• B. Nucleus
• C. Nucleolus✓
• D. Endoplasmic reticulum

Explanation: The nucleolus is a substructure within the nucleus of eukaryotic cells, and it is the primary site of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) transcription and ribosome assembly. It is the correct answer because it is the factory of ribosomal synthesis. The nucleolus synthesizes and assembles the ribosomal subunits, which are later exported to the cytoplasm for final assembly into functional ribosomes.

Q34. The complex that forms when a substrate binds to an enzyme is called:

• A. Enzyme-substrate complex✓
• B. Enzyme complex
• C. Substrate complex
• D. Structural complex

Explanation: A substrate enters the active site of the enzyme. This forms the enzyme-substrate complex.

Q35. Covalent modification means change in?

• A. Chemical properties✓
• B. Physical properties
• C. Bonding on amino acids
• D. pH of amino acids

Explanation: Covalent modifications are enzyme-catalyzed alterations of synthesized proteins and include the addition or removal of chemical groups. Modifications can target a single type of amino acid or multiple amino acids and will change the chemical properties of the site. Covalent modification in the context of enzymes refers to a regulatory mechanism where the activity of an enzyme is altered through the covalent attachment or removal of chemical groups to specific amino acid residues within the enzyme molecule. This post-translational modification can result in changes to the enzyme's structure, conformation, and ultimately, its catalytic activity.

Q36. Centrioles are composed of how many triplets of microtubules?

• A. 6
• B. 9✓
• C. 12
• D. 15

Explanation: Animal cells, cells of some microorganisms, and lower plants contain two centrioles located near the exterior surface of the nucleus. In cross-section, each centriole consists of a cylindrical array of nine microtubules. However, each of the nine microtubules is further composed of three tubules. Centrioles are made up of nine microtubule triplets.

Q37. The end or complete stop of the menstrual cycle is called?

• A. Ovulation
• B. Menstruation
• C. Fertilization
• D. Menopause✓

Explanation: Menopause is the time that marks the end of the menstrual cycles of a woman.

Q38. One of the functions of the Neuroglial cells is to protect and support which of the following?

• A. Nephrons
• B. Myoid cells
• C. Neurons✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: Neuroglia is a collective of cells whose primary function is to protect and maintain the optimum functioning of your nervous system. Neuroglial cells provide homeostatic support, protection, and defence to the nervous tissue.

Q39. The cementing material between adjacent plant cells.

• A. Cellulose
• B. Hemicellulose
• C. Middle lamella✓
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Option C is correct since the middle lamella is the layer of material between adjacent plant cells. It cements the cells together and contains pectins, which are also used as gelling agents in food.

Q40. An involuntary and nearly instantaneous movement in response to a stimulus is called:

• A. Reflex✓
• B. Reflex arc
• C. Neuron
• D. Synapse

Explanation: A reflex action is an automatic, involuntary, and rapid response to a stimulus, so this is the correct answer. A reflex is an automatic, involuntary, and rapid response to a stimulus that protects an organism from harm and aids survival. These responses occur through a reflex arc, a nerve pathway that bypasses the brain for instant reaction, though the signal is still sent to the brain for further processing or override. Examples include the sudden withdrawal from a hot surface, the pupil constricting in bright light, and the knee-jerk response to a tap.

Q41. Gigantism in human beings is caused due to over secretion of:

• A. Thyrotropin
• B. Corticotropin
• C. Somatotropin✓
• D. Prolactin

Explanation: Gigantism occurs when a child’s pituitary gland makes too much growth hormone, which is also known as somatotropin. Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), also called corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF), is a peptide hormone that activates the synthesis and release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the pituitary gland. In this way, CRH affects our response to stress, addiction and depression, amongst others. Prolactin is a hormone made by the pituitary gland, a small gland at the base of the brain. Prolactin causes the breasts to grow and make milk during pregnancy and after birth. Thyroid-stimulating hormone/Thyrotropin is a hormone produced by anterior pituitary gland that stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine, and then triiodothyronine which stimulates the metabolism of almost every tissue in the body. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Q42. A structure established between the uterine and foetal tissues for the exchange of oxygen, carbon dioxide, waste, nutrients and other materials is:

• A. Amnion
• B. Placenta✓
• C. Endometrium
• D. Uterus

Explanation: The placenta is defined as temporary intimate mechanical and the physiological connection between foetus and maternal tissue for the nutrition, respiration and excretion of the foetus. Human placenta consists of chorion only. The placenta is fully formed by the end of the third month and maintains pregnancy. In the placenta, the foetal blood comes very close to the maternal blood and this permits the exchange of material between the two. Food, water, mineral salt, vitamins, hormone antibodies and oxygen pass from the maternal blood into the foetal blood, and foetal metabolic waste, such as carbon dioxide, and urea, also water and hormones, pass into the maternal blood.

Q43. Retrovirus cause diseases in:

• A. Rodents
• B. Fowls
• C. Cats
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: The correct answer is d) All of these. Retroviruses have been identified to cause diseases in rodents, fowls, and cats. These viruses can have varying effects on different species, but they are known to be pathogenic and can lead to various health issues.

Q44. A man’s right side of the heart has _ type of blood.

• A. Oxygenated
• B. Deoxygenated✓
• C. Oxygenated and Deoxygenated
• D. None

Explanation: The left side pumps oxygenated blood (high in oxygen and low in carbon dioxide) to the organs of the body. Deoxygenated blood enters the right atrium from the vena cava. Blood moves into the right ventricle and is then pumped into the pulmonary artery. Therefore, the right side of the heart has deoxygenated blood.

Q45. Right ventricle connects with lungs by:

• A. Aorta
• B. Pulmonary veins
• C. Pulmonary artery✓
• D. Dorsal aorta

Explanation: The pulmonary artery leaves the right ventricle and takes blood to the lungs. Pulmonary vein brings blood back from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart. Aorta connects the right ventricle to pump blood to the body. The correct answer is, therefore, C.

Q46. The egg-laying birds are called:

• A. Oviparous✓
• B. Viviparous
• C. Monotremes
• D. All of these

Explanation: Oviparous is producing young by means of eggs that are hatched after they have been laid by the parent, as in birds. Viviparous means bringing forth live young who have developed inside the body of the parent. Monotreme is a primitive mammal that lays large yolky eggs and has a common opening for the urogenital and digestive systems.

Q47. Treponema pallidum causes:

• A. Syphilis✓
• B. Gonorrhoea
• C. AIDS
• D. Herpes

Explanation: Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infectious (STI) disease caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum.

Q48. What is the commercial method of producing millions of seedlings in limited time?

• A. Parthenogenesis
• B. Parthenocarpy
• C. Micropropagation✓
• D. Grafting

Explanation: Micropropagation is a tissue culture technique used commercially to produce millions of identical seedlings in a short time under controlled conditions.

Q49. Hepatic and pancreatic secretions are also stimulated by a hormone called:

• A. Gastrin
• B. Secretin✓
• C. HCl
• D. Enterokinase

Explanation: Secretin is the correct answer because it is a hormone released by the small intestine in response to acidic chyme. It stimulates the pancreas to secrete bicarbonate, which neutralizes stomach acid and promotes liver bile production, thus facilitating digestion. In contrast, gastrin primarily stimulates the stomach's activity; HCl is a gastric secretion rather than a hormone, and enterokinase is an enzyme that activates other digestive enzymes but does not stimulate secretion from the liver or pancreas.

Q50. Deficient production of hormones by adrenal glands results in:

• A. Cushing's syndrome
• B. Addison's disease✓
• C. Diabetes Mellitus
• D. Goiter
• E. Epilepsy

Explanation: Addison's disease is the result of insufficient production of hormones from the adrenal glands, particularly cortisol and aldosterone. This condition leads to symptoms such as fatigue, muscle weakness, and low blood pressure. Cushing's syndrome, in contrast, is caused by excessive cortisol. Diabetes Mellitus involves insulin issues and not adrenal hormones. Goiter relates to thyroid gland issues, and epilepsy is a neurological disorder, both unrelated to adrenal insufficiency.

Q51. The phase of meiosis during which the non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes may exchange their segments:

• A. Leptotene
• B. Pachytene✓
• C. Diplotene
• D. Zygotene

Explanation: Leptotene is the first stage of the prophase of meiosis, during which each chromosome becomes visible as two fine threads. Pachytene is the third stage of the prophase of meiosis, following zygotene, during which the paired chromosomes shorten and thicken, the two chromatids of each separate, and exchange of segments between chromatids may occur. Diplotene is the fourth stage of the prophase of meiosis, following pachytene, during which the paired chromosomes begin to separate into two pairs of chromatids. Zygotene is the second stage of the prophase of meiosis, following leptotene, during which homologous chromosomes begin to pair. The correct answer is, therefore, B.

Q52. In mitochondria, UGA codon act to specify _ instead stop codon.

• A. Arginine
• B. Valine
• C. Glutamic acid
• D. Tryptophan✓

Explanation: In mitochondria UGA codon is assigned to tryptophan (Trp) instead of being a signal for translational termination.

Q53. In aerobic respiration most of the ATP is synthesized during:

• A. Oxidation of pyruvic acid
• B. Electron transport chain✓
• C. Krebs cycle
• D. Glycolysis

Explanation: The maximum ATP yield for a molecule of glucose is around 30-32 ATP. During glycolysis, from one glucose molecule, net 2 ATP molecules are produced. During oxidation of Pyruvic acid, no ATPs are produced. During Krebs cycle, for one glucose molecule, 2 ATPs are produced. Beyond those four, the remaining ATP all come from ETC during oxidative phosphorylation. The correct answer is, therefore, B.

Q54. Number of bones in skull is:

• A. 8
• B. 14
• C. 22✓
• D. 33

Explanation: The cranium has 8 bones. 14 bones are found in the fingers of each hand and also in the toes of each foot. The spine is made up of 33 vertebrae. Vertebrae are the 33 individual bones that interlock with each other to form the spinal column. The human skull contains 22 bones. The correct answer is, therefore, C.

Q55. The name of the opening at the posterior part skull through which spinal cord passes is:

• A. Foramen Triosseum
• B. Foramen Magnum✓
• C. Acetabulum
• D. Ischia Pubic Foramen

Explanation: The foramen magnum functions as a passage of the central nervous system through the skull connecting the brain with the spinal cord. On either side of the foramen magnum is an occipital condyle. These condyles form joints with the first cervical vertebra.

Q56. Fundography is relevant to:

• A. Heart
• B. Liver
• C. Stomach
• D. Eyes✓

Explanation: Fundography uses a photograph of the inside surface of your eye – including the retina, optic disc, macula, and posterior pole (fundus) – to diagnose or monitor the progression of eye disease.

Q57. Bile is used in:

• A. Protein digestion
• B. Starch digestion
• C. Fat emulsification✓
• D. Both A and B

Explanation: Bile juice (containing bile salts) is secreted from the liver, stored in the gallbladder, and secreted into the intestine via the bile duct. Bile salts are compounds produced by the liver from cholesterol that are critical for fat digestion and the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins. They are stored in the gallbladder and released into the small intestine after a meal. As amphipathic molecules, they have both water-soluble and fat-soluble parts, allowing them to break down large fat globules into smaller droplets, a process called emulsification. This increases the surface area for digestive enzymes to break down fats more effectively.

Q58. Which of the following have both internal and external digestion?

• A. Hydra
• B. Jellyfish
• C. Flatworms
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: Internal digestion occurs when food is digested within the body of the organism, while external digestion is when an organism secretes digestive enzymes outside its body to digest food material and then absorb the digestive nutrients. Hydra, jellyfish, and flatworms all show a combination of these methods where they secrete enzymes, ingest partially digested food then internally digest the remaining.

Q59. Which process takes place during the movement of glucose from the body fluid to the blood?

• A. Endosmosis
• B. Osmosis
• C. Active transport
• D. Facilitated diffusion✓

Explanation: The movement of glucose from intestinal fluid into the blood is mostly through facilitated diffusion. Inside intestinal cells, glucose enters actively (with sodium co-transport). But from the intestinal cell to the blood, glucose moves by facilitated diffusion, through carrier proteins (like GLUT2) without using ATP.

Q60. Thyroid gland requires high amount of:

• A. Phosphate
• B. Calcium
• C. Iodine✓
• D. Sodium

Explanation: Iodine is essential to maintain a healthy thyroid. Iodine is the critical 'ingredient' for the production of thyroid hormones.

Q61. Which of the following is not the function of the cerebrum?

• A. Voluntary digestion✓
• B. Thinking
• C. Intelligence
• D. Skeletal muscles

Explanation: Functions of the cerebrum include initiation of movement, coordination of movement, temperature, touch, vision, hearing, judgment, reasoning, problem-solving, emotions, and learning, which do not involve digestion. Digestion is controlled by the autonomic nervous system- it is not a voluntary function!

Q62. Which of the following is the function of adrenaline?

• A. To increase the rate of breathing
• B. To increase the heart rate
• C. To increase the level of calcium in blood
• D. Both A and B✓

Explanation: Adrenaline is released in a fight or flight situation. In flight or fight conditions, both the breathing rate and the heart rate increase in order to increase alertness.

Q63. The process of swallowing is controlled by:

• A. Hypothalamus
• B. Hormones
• C. Medulla oblongata✓
• D. Sympathetic nervous system

Explanation: Swallowing is a reflex action controlled by the swallowing center in the medulla oblongata of the brainstem.

Q64. A major constituent of contraceptive pills is:

• A. Estrogen
• B. Progesterone✓
• C. Prolactin
• D. Testosterone

Explanation: The most commonly prescribed contraceptive pill is the combined hormonal pill with progesterone. Progesterone is primarily responsible for preventing pregnancy. The main mechanism of action is the prevention of ovulation; they inhibit follicular development and prevent ovulation. Progestogen-negative feedback works at the hypothalamus to decrease the pulse frequency of the gonadotropin-releasing hormone. This, in turn, will reduce the secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and decrease the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH). If the follicle isn’t developing, there is no increase in the estradiol levels (the follicle makes estradiol). The progestogen-negative feedback and lack of estrogen-positive feedback on LH secretion stop the mid-cycle LH surge. With no follicle developed and no LH surge to release the follicle, ovulation is prevented.

Q65. The propulsive movement of the gastrointestinal tract (GI tract) is:

• A. Peristalsis✓
• B. Epiglottis
• C. Antiperistalsis
• D. Anus
• E. None of these options

Explanation: Peristalsis is the contraction of muscle tissue that helps move and break down foodstuffs. The walls of the alimentary canal include layers of smooth muscle controlled by the autonomic nervous system. The alternating contraction and relaxation of these muscles is called peristalsis.

Q66. The prolactin hormone, responsible for the activation of mammary glands to start producing milk, is a hormone of the:

• A. Pituitary gland✓
• B. Pancreas
• C. Thyroid gland
• D. Thymus gland
• E. Adrenal gland

Explanation: In humans, prolactin is produced both in the front portion of the pituitary gland (anterior pituitary gland) and in a range of sites elsewhere in the body. Lactotroph cells in the pituitary gland produce prolactin, where it is stored and then released into the bloodstream.

Q67. Ileum is about _ long:

• A. 3.6 centimeters
• B. 3.6 millimeters
• C. 3.6 inches
• D. 3.6 meters✓
• E. 3.6 kilometers

Explanation: The ileum is about 3.6 meters (11.5 feet) long (or about three-fifths the length of the small intestine) and extends from the jejunum (the middle section of the small intestine) to the ileocecal valve, which empties into the colon (large intestine).

Q68. A woman can be bald only when she is

• A. Homozygous dominant
• B. Heterozygous
• C. Homozygous recessive✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: Pattern baldness is a sex-influenced trait, meaning its expression differs between males and females. In men, it is an autosomal dominant trait, allowing baldness to occur with just one dominant allele. However, in women, it is an autosomal recessive trait, which means baldness occurs only if the woman has two recessive alleles (homozygous recessive). This is why a woman can only be bald if she is homozygous recessive. The other genotypes, homozygous dominant and heterozygous, result in the dominant allele masking the recessive allele, preventing baldness in females.

Q69. An enzyme – substrate is the place where enzyme are

• A. Formed
• B. Deactivated
• C. Active✓
• D. Reduced
• E. Diluted

Explanation: When an enzyme binds its substrate, it forms an enzyme-substrate complex. This complex lowers the activation energy of the reaction and promotes its rapid progression by providing certain ions or chemical groups that actually form covalent bonds with molecules as a necessary step of the reaction process.

Q70. Fungi may be all of the following EXCEPT

• A. Heterotrophic
• B. Autotrophic✓
• C. Saprophytic
• D. Decomposers
• E. Parasitic

Explanation: Autotrophs are known as producers because they are able to make their own food from raw materials and energy. Examples include plants, algae, and some types of bacteria. Fungi are instead A major group of osmotrophic organisms.

Q71. People who have migrated from the planes to a higher altitude area about six months back:

• A. Have an increased number of RBCs and their hemoglobin has a lower affinity for O2✓
• B. Are generally unfit for physical activities like football
• C. Experience altitude sickness with symptoms such as nausea and fatigue
• D. Maintain usual RBC count but have hemoglobin with a very high affinity for O2

Explanation: At higher altitudes, the body adapts to lower oxygen availability by producing more red blood cells (RBCs). This increases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Additionally, hemoglobin may decrease its affinity for oxygen to facilitate better oxygen delivery to tissues, which is crucial in a low-oxygen environment.

Q72. Which one of the following is the correct statement for respiration in humans?

• A. Cigarette smoking may lead to inflammation of bronchi
• B. Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre in pons region of brain can increase the duration of inspiration
• C. Asthma is a condition in which your airways narrow and swell and may produce extra mucus✓
• D. About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino­haemoglobin

Explanation: Asthma involves the narrowing and swelling of airways and increased mucus production, which can lead to breathing difficulties.

Q73. The figure shows a diagrammatic view of the human respiratory system with labels A, B, C, and D. Select the option which gives correct identification, main function, and/or characteristic.

• A. C-­ Alveoli- gas exchanges✓
• B. D- Lower end of lungs gas- gaseous exchanges
• C. A- Trachea- less than 1 mm diameter
• D. B- Pleural membrane- around heart

Explanation: Explanation of each option:a) C- Alveoli- Thin-walled vascular bag-like structures for exchange of gases (Correct Option): The alveoli are indeed thin-walled, vascular, and resemble tiny sacs or "bag-like" structures. They are responsible for the primary function of gas exchange in the respiratory system. Oxygen is taken up by the bloodstream, and carbon dioxide is released into the alveoli to be exhaled. The thin walls and extensive vascularization of alveoli facilitate efficient gas exchange.b)D- Lower end of lungs- Diaphragm pulls it down during inspiration:The lower end of the lungs is not directly pulled down by the diaphragm during inspiration. Instead, the diaphragm contracts and moves downward, increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity and allowing the lungs to expand and fill with air during inspiration. The diaphragm plays a crucial role in the mechanics of breathing. c) A- Trachea- Long tube supported by complete cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired air: The trachea is indeed a long tube in the human respiratory system, but it is not supported by "complete cartilaginous rings." Instead, the trachea is supported by C-shaped cartilaginous rings. These C-shaped rings provide support to the trachea while allowing flexibility for swallowing and neck movement. The main function of the trachea is to conduct inspired air from the upper respiratory tract (nose and mouth) into the lower respiratory tract (lungs).d) B- Pleural membrane- Surround ribs on both sides to provide cushion against rubbing: The pleural membrane does not primarily surround the ribs. Instead, it forms a double-layered sac that surrounds the lungs and lines the inner surface of the chest wall. It consists of two layers: the visceral pleura (which covers the lungs) and the parietal pleura (which lines the chest wall). The pleural membrane's main function is to create a sealed, fluid-filled space between the layers, reducing friction and enabling the smooth movement of the lungs during breathing.Summary: The correct option is a) C. Alveoli are indeed thin-walled, vascular, and responsible for gas exchange in the respiratory system. The other options provide explanations but do not accurately describe the main function or characteristics of the labeled structures.

Q74. Approximately seventy percent of carbon­ dioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs:

• A. As bicarbonate ions✓
• B. In the form of dissolved gas molecules
• C. By binding to R.B.C
• D. As carbamino haemoglobin.

Explanation: About 70% of CO₂ in the blood is carried to the lungs as bicarbonate ions (HCO₃⁻) formed when CO₂ reacts with water under the influence of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase in red blood cells.

Q75. Approximately seventy percent of carbon­ dioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs

• A. As bicarbonate ions✓
• B. In the form of dissolved gas molecules
• C. By binding to R.B.C
• D. As carbamino ­haemoglobin.

Explanation: The correct option is a) as bicarbonate ions.Explanation of each option:A. As bicarbonate ions (Correct Option): Approximately seventy percent of carbon dioxide (CO2) absorbed by the blood is transported in the form of bicarbonate ions (HCO3-). This is the primary method for CO2 transport in the blood. It involves a chemical reaction where CO2 combines with water (H2O) to form carbonic acid (H2CO3), which rapidly dissociates into bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) and hydrogen ions (H+). This bicarbonate ion is then carried in the bloodstream to the lungs for elimination.B. In the form of dissolved gas molecules: Some CO2 (around 7-10%) is transported in the bloodstream as dissolved gas molecules in plasma. However, this is a relatively small fraction compared to the bicarbonate ion transport method.C.By binding to R.B.C (Red Blood Cells): A smaller portion of CO2 (around 20-23%) binds to hemoglobin within red blood cells, forming carbamino compounds. This is a significant but secondary method compared to bicarbonate ion transport.D. As carbamino-hemoglobin: This option refers to the CO2 that binds to hemoglobin within red blood cells. It is a less dominant method of CO2 transport compared to bicarbonate ions.Brief Summary: Approximately seventy percent of carbon dioxide (CO2) absorbed by the blood is transported as bicarbonate ions (HCO3-). This process involves the conversion of CO2 to bicarbonate ions in a chemical reaction and is the primary method for CO2 transport in the bloodstream. While CO2 can also be transported as dissolved gas molecules, by binding to red blood cells, and as carbamino compounds, these are secondary methods in comparison to the predominant bicarbonate ion transport.

Q76. The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The P-­wave represents the:

• A. Beginning of the systole
• B. End of systole
• C. Contraction of both the atria✓
• D. Initiation of the ventricular contraction

Explanation: P-wave represents the electrical excitation (or depolarisation) of the atria, which leads to the contraction of both the atria. The QRS complex represents the depolarisation of the ventricles, which initiates the ventricular contraction. The contraction starts shortly after Q and marks the beginning of the systole. The T wave represents the return of the ventricles from excited to normal state. (repolarisation). The end of the T-wave marks the end of systole.

Q77. The given figure shows schematic plan of blood circulation in humans with labels A to D. Identify the label and give its functions?

• A. C ­-Vena cava- takes blood from body parts to right auricle, pCO 2 = 45 mm Hg✓
• B. D-Dorsal aorta-­ takes blood from heart to body parts, pO 2 = 95 mm Hg
• C. A-Pulmonary vein - takes impure blood from body parts, pO 2 = 60 mm Hg
• D. B-Pulmonary artery takes blood from heart to lungs, pO2 = 90 mm Hg

Explanation: C ­-Vena cava- takes blood from body parts to right auricle, pCO 2 = 45 mm Hg. The vena cava is a large vein in humans that carries deoxygenated blood back to the heart. There are two main types: the superior vena cava and the inferior vena cava. The superior vena cava collects deoxygenated blood from the upper body, including the head, neck, and arms, and delivers it to the right atrium of the heart. The inferior vena cava collects deoxygenated blood from the lower body, including the abdomen, pelvis, and legs, and also delivers it to the right atrium. The vena cava plays a crucial role in returning blood to the heart for oxygenation and circulation throughout the body.

Q78. Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is maximum during

• A. Systole of the left ventricle✓
• B. Diastole of the right atrium
• C. Systole of the left atrium
• D. Diastole of the right ventricle

Explanation: The correct answer is the systole of the left ventricle. During this phase, the left ventricle contracts forcefully, pushing blood into the aorta, which causes a temporary rise in blood pressure known as systolic pressure. The aorta, being the main artery, directly feels this increase in pressure. The other options involve phases of the cardiac cycle that do not directly affect the blood pressure in the aorta. The diastole of the right atrium and right ventricle are related to the filling of these chambers and do not influence aortic pressure. The systole of the left atrium is mainly responsible for pushing blood into the left ventricle and has little direct impact on aortic pressure.

Q79. Which one of the following is correct?

• A. Lymph = Plasma + RBC + WBC
• B. Blood = Plasma + RBC + WBC + Platelets✓
• C. Plasma = Blood – Lymphocytes
• D. Serum = Blood + Fibrinogen

Explanation: Blood is a fluid connective tissue that circulates through our body and performs various functions, including transport of oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and waste products. It consists of plasma, which is the liquid portion of blood, and formed elements, including red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), and platelets.

Q80. The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating:

• A. Diabetes mellitus
• B. Chicken pox
• C. Rheumatoid arthritis
• D. Adenosine deaminase deficiency.✓

Explanation: Gene therapy is a collection of methods that allows the correction of a gene defect that has been diagnosed in a child/embryo. Here genes are inserted into a person’s cells and tissues to treat a disease. Correction of a genetic defect involves the delivery of a normal gene into the individual or embryo to take over the function of and compensate for the non­functional gene. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4- year old girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency. This enzyme is very important for the immune system to function. SCID is caused due to defect in the gene for the enzyme adenosine deaminase. In some children, ADA deficiency can be cured by bone marrow transplantation. Here, the isolated gene from bone marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at early embryonic stages; it can be a permanent cure.

Q81. What forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting?

• A. The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA
• B. The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin, and saliva
• C. The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints
• D. Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated, short DNA segments✓

Explanation: DNA fingerprinting is a technique of determining nucleotide sequences of certain areas of DNA which are unique to each individual. The difference of about 0.1% or 3 × 106 base pairs (out of 3 × 10 9 bp) provides individuality to each human being. The human genome possesses numerous small noncoding but inheritable sequences of bases that are repeated many times. These sequences occur near telomere, centromeres, Y chromosome, and heterochromatic area. The area with the same sequence of bases repeated several times is called repetitive DNA. It is separated as a satellite from the bulk DNA during density gradient centrifugation and hence called satellite DNA where repetition of the bases is in tandem. Satellite DNAs show polymorphism (the occurrence of mutations in a population at high frequency), which is the basis of genetic mapping of human genome as well as DNA fingerprinting. While mutations in genes produce alleles with different expressions, mutations in noncoding repetitive DNA have no immediate impact. These mutations which have piled up with time form the basis of polymorphism.

Q82. Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have been developed by the introduction of DNA that produces (in the host cells):

• A. Both sense and anti-sense RNA✓
• B. A particular hormone
• C. An antifeedant
• D. A toxic protein

Explanation: Many nematodes live in plants and animals including human beings. A nematode Meloidogyne incognita infests the roots of tobacco plants and causes a great reduction in yield. A novel strategy was adopted to prevent this infection that was based on the process of RNA interference (RNAi). RNA interference (RNAi) is the phenomenon of inhibiting the activity of a gene by the synthesis of RNA molecules complementary to the mRNA. The normal (in vivo synthesized) mRNA of a gene is said to be “sense” because it carries the codons that are “read” during translation. Normally, the complement to the mRNA “sense” strand will not contain a sequence of codons that can be translated to produce a functional protein; thus, this complementary strand is called “anti­-sense RNA”. The anti-­sense RNA and mRNA molecules will anneal to form duplex RNA molecules (or double-stranded RNA) and the duplex RNA molecules can not be translated. Thus, the presence of anti­sense RNA will block translation of the mRNA of the affected gene. In fact, recent evidence indicates that these RNA duplexes are often rapidly degraded in vivo.

Q83. Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of blindness associated with vitamin ‘A’ deficiency?

• A. ‘Flavr Savr’ tomato
• B. Canola
• C. Golden rice✓
• D. Bt­-Brinjal

Explanation: Golden rice is a genetically modified variety of rice (Oryza sativa) that has been engineered to produce beta-carotene, a precursor of vitamin A. This makes it a valuable food source in regions where vitamin A deficiency is prevalent, helping to prevent associated conditions such as blindness. In contrast, ‘Flavr Savr’ tomato is modified for shelf life, Canola is known for its heart health benefits due to its oil, and Bt-Brinjal is designed to resist certain pests rather than enhance nutritional content related to vitamin A.

Q84. Which one of the following vectors is used to replace the defective gene in gene therapy?

• A. Adenovirus✓
• B. Cosmid
• C. Ri plasmid
• D. Ti plasmid

Explanation: Gene therapy involves the insertion of normal genes into the cells of individuals with genetic disorders to correct or replace defective genes. Adenoviruses are commonly used as vectors in this process because they are capable of infecting a wide variety of human cells and can carry significant amounts of genetic material. They are engineered to be replication-deficient, ensuring they do not cause disease themselves.Cosmids, Ri plasmids, and Ti plasmids are not used in human gene therapy due to their specific applications in cloning and plant genetic engineering, which do not involve the efficient delivery of genes into human cells.

Q85. Glucose is taken back from glomerular filtrate through:

• A. Active transport✓
• B. Passive transport
• C. Osmosis
• D. Diffusion

Explanation: Glucose is reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate in the proximal convoluted tubule of the nephron through active transport, which involves energy expenditure to move glucose against its concentration gradient. This process is crucial to prevent glucose loss in urine. Passive transport, osmosis, and diffusion do not require energy and do not describe the mechanism by which glucose is reabsorbed in the kidneys.

Q86. The basic functional unit of the human kidney is:

• A. Nephridia
• B. Loop of Henle
• C. Nephron✓
• D. Pyramid

Explanation: Nephron is the microscopic structural and functional unit of the kidney, responsible for filtration, reabsorption, and secretion.

Q87. A condition of failure of kidney to form urine is called:

• A. Anuria✓
• B. Deamination
• C. Uremia
• D. Oliguria

Explanation: Anuria is the medical term for the complete cessation of urine production by the kidneys, often resulting from severe kidney damage or failure. In contrast, 'Deamination' refers to a metabolic process unrelated to kidney function. 'Uremia' describes a condition where waste products accumulate in the blood due to impaired kidney function, but does not specifically indicate the absence of urine production. Therefore, Anuria is the correct choice as it directly addresses the failure to form urine.

Q88. Concentration of urine depends upon which organ?

• A. Bowman’s capsule
• B. Length of loop of Henle✓
• C. Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)
• D. Network of capillaries arising from glomerulus

Explanation: Concentration of urine depends upon the length of Henle’s loop. Loop of Henle is the hairpin shaped section of a kidney tubule situated between the proximal and distal tubules in the nephron. It consists of a thin descending limb which is permeable to water and a thick ascending limb which is impermeable to water complex movements of ions and water across the walls of the loop enable it to function as a countercurrent multiplier, resulting in the production of concentrated urine in the collecting duct.

Q89. If the loop of Henle were absent from the mammalian nephron, which one of the following is to be expected?

• A. There will be no urine formation.
• B. There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed
• C. The urine will be more concentrated
• D. The urine will be more dilute✓

Explanation: Reabsorption is a process by which useful constituents of the glomerular filtrate are returned into the bloodstream. It occurs in convoluted tubules (proximal convoluted tubule) as well as the loop of Henle. Basically loop of Henle, in association with the vasa recta, plays an important role in the countercurrent mechanism (the process which makes urine hypertonic, i.e., more concentrated). Therefore, if Henle’s loop was absent from the mammalian nephron, the urine would be more dilute.

Q90. Regarding structure of the human heart, Chordae tendinae are present in:

• A. Atria
• B. Pulmonary valve
• C. Ventricles✓
• D. Aortic valve

Explanation: Chordae tendineae (or simply chordae) are fibrous cords or tendons that are present in the heart to anchor the atrioventricular (AV) valves (specifically, the tricuspid and bicuspid/mitral valves) to the papillary muscles located in the ventricles. This prevents the valves from inverting into the atria when the ventricles contract and helps in maintaining proper valve function. Therefore, the correct location for chordae tendineae is Ventricles

Q91. The chemical analysis of a compound having a molecular mass 188 gives, C=12.8%, H=2.1%, and Br=85.1%. Its molecular formula is:

• A. CH2Br
• B. C2H4Br2✓
• C. C2H4Br
• D. CH2(Br)2
• E. C2H2(Br)3

Explanation: To determine the molecular formula, first calculate the empirical formula based on the given percentage composition:Convert the percentage of each element to mass: 12.8 g of C, 2.1 g of H, and 85.1 g of Br.Convert mass to moles: C (12.8 g / 12.01 g/mol), H (2.1 g / 1.008 g/mol), Br (85.1 g / 79.904 g/mol).Find the mole ratio by dividing each by the smallest number of moles.The empirical formula is CH2Br.The empirical formula mass is approximately 94.5 g/mol.Divide the molecular mass (188 g/mol) by the empirical formula mass (94.5 g/mol) to find the multiplier, which is 2.Multiply the empirical formula by this factor to get the molecular formula: C2H4Br2.Options A, C, D, and E do not match the molecular mass or fail to maintain the correct elemental ratio.

Q92. 106 gram of Na2CO3 per dm3 of the solution of Na2CO3 in water, the concentration of the solution will be:

• A. 1N
• B. 0.1 M
• C. 1M✓
• D. 0.02M

Explanation: Na2CO3=23(2)+12+16(3)=46+12+48= 106Concentration=Given mass/molar massConcentration= 106/106 = 1M.

Q93. What volume in dm3 of KCl is obtained in the following equation if the volume of KCIO3 at the beginning of the reaction is 20 dm3? 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2

• A. 2 dm3
• B. 74.5 dm3
• C. 50 dm3
• D. 40 dm3
• E. 20 dm3✓

Explanation: To determine the volume of KCl obtained in the given equation, we need to know the stoichiometric ratio between KCIO3 and KCl. From the balanced equation: 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2 We can see that for every 2 moles of KCIO3, we obtain 2 moles of KCl. Therefore, the ratio is 1:1. Given that the volume of KCIO3 at the beginning of the reaction is 20 dm3, and the stoichiometric ratio is 1:1, the volume of KCl obtained will also be 20 dm3. Therefore, the volume of KCl obtained in the given equation is 20 dm3.

Q94. The efficiency of chemical reaction can be expressed as:

• A. Theoretical yield
• B. Actual yield
• C. % yield✓
• D. Maximum yield

Explanation: % yield is typically referred to as percentage yield. This is determined by dividing the number of moles of the product obtained by the number of moles of the 'limiting' reactant (the one present in the smallest amount), then multiplying by 100.

Q95. In a vessel 10g N2, 10g H2 and 10g O2 are present. Which one will have least number of atoms?

• A. H2
• B. N2
• C. O2✓
• D. Both H2 and N2

Explanation: The number of atoms in an element is proportional to the number of moles of that element. The number of moles can be calculated using the formula n = Mass/Molecular Mass nNitrogen = 10/28 = 0.4 mol nHydrogen = 10/2 = 5 mol nOxygen = 10/32 = 0.3 mol The number of moles are highest for hydrogen and lowest for oxygen, out of the given options.

Q96. Which of the following substances has a giant covalent structure?

• A. Iodine crystal
• B. Solid CO2
• C. Silica✓
• D. White phosphorus

Explanation: Silica tends to form long-chain covalent structures such as carbon so it has a giant covalent structure. Diamond and graphite (forms of carbon) and silicon dioxide (silica) are examples of giant covalent structures (lattices) of atoms. All the atoms in these structures are linked to other atoms by strong covalent bonds and so they have very high melting points.

Q97. For a given mass of gas, if the pressure is reduced to half and its temperature is doubled, then volume V will become?

• A. 4V✓
• B. 2V
• C. V/4
• D. 8V

Explanation: To determine how the volume changes, we use the ideal gas law: PV = nRT. Since the number of moles (n) and the gas constant (R) remain constant, we can compare the initial and final states of the gas:P1V1/T1 = P2V2/T2.Given that the pressure is halved (P2 = P1/2) and the temperature is doubled (T2 = 2T1), substitute these values into the equation:(P1V1/T1) = ((P1/2) * V2) / (2T1)Rearranging and simplifying gives V2 = 4V1, indicating that the volume becomes four times the original.Therefore, the correct answer is 4V. Other options incorrectly interpret the effects of these changes on the volume.

Q98. A mole of a substance contains _ particles.

• A. 6.2x1022
• B. 6.22x1022
• C. 6.02x1023✓
• D. 6.5x1022

Explanation: Answer: C One mole contains an Avogadro’s number of particles i.e. 6.02x1023

Q99. Spectrometry is used when reactants and products absorb?

• A. Ultraviolet radiation
• B. Visible radiation
• C. Infrared radiation
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: Spectrometry is a versatile analytical method that measures the absorption of electromagnetic radiation by reactants and products. This absorption can occur across various regions of the spectrum, including ultraviolet, visible, and infrared radiation. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of these,' as it encompasses all the types of radiation listed in the options. The other options, listing individual types of radiation, are incorrect because they do not account for the full range of electromagnetic radiation utilized in spectrometry.

Q100. Natural gas in homes burns in excess of oxygen, what is the limiting reactant in this case?

• A. Oxygen
• B. Natural gas✓
• C. Air
• D. There is no limiting reactant

Explanation: The limiting reactant is the substance that gets completely consumed first, stopping the reaction from continuing. Since oxygen is in excess, the natural gas (primarily methane, CH₄) is the limiting reactant because it determines how much combustion occurs.

Q101. Nitrogen and phosphorus have 3 of their valence electrons unpaired because of:

• A. Auf bau principle
• B. Heisenberg's principle
• C. Hund’s rule✓
• D. Planck’s statement
• E. None of these

Explanation: Hund's rule states that every orbital in a subshell is singly occupied with one electron before any one orbital is doubly occupied, and all electrons in singly occupied orbitals have the same spin.

Q102. The atomic number Z of an atom represents the:

• A. Number of protons✓
• B. Number of electrons and protons
• C. Number of neutrons
• D. Sum of protons and neutrons

Explanation: The atomic number Z of an atom represents the number of protons in the nucleus. Atomic number Z is equal to the number of electrons only for neutral atoms whereas for ions the number of electrons will be different from the number of protons. So, Z is the number of protons and our correct option is A.

Q103. The neutron was discovered by:

• A. Goldstein
• B. Rutherford
• C. J.J Thomson
• D. Chadwick✓

Explanation: Thomson discovered electrons in 1897, Chadwick discovered neutrons in 1932 and Goldstein discovered canal ray in 1886.

Q104. The number of electrons present in n = 2, l = 1 and m = -1, 0, +1 are:

• A. 6✓
• B. 2
• C. 8
• D. 10
• E. 18

Explanation: n is the principal quantum number and indicates the number of shells. n = 2 indicates that the second shell is being discussed. l is the azimuthal quantum number and indicates the number of subshells. l = 0 means s subshell, l = 1 means p subshell, and so on. m is the magnetic quantum number and indicates the orientation of orbitals in the subshells. m ranges from -1 to +1 through 0. Since m = -1, 0, +1, this means that all three sub-orbitals; 2px, 2py, 2pz are taken into consideration. Since all of these have 2 electrons each, the total number of electrons in them is 6.

Q105. The Unit cell with crystallographic dimensions a=b≠c , α=β=γ=90 degrees is:

• A. Cubic
• B. Tetragonal✓
• C. Monoclinic
• D. Hexagonal

Explanation: A tetragonal unit cell has two equal dimensions (a = b ≠ c) and all angles equal to 90 degrees (α = β = γ = 90°).

Q106. What is the temperature at which the volume of gas is said to be zero?

• A. 0°C
• B. 4°C
• C. 273.15°C✓
• D. 173.16°C

Explanation: The correct answer is -273.15°C, which is the theoretical point known as absolute zero. At absolute zero, the kinetic energy of particles is minimal, and according to the ideal gas law, the volume of a gas would be zero. This is a theoretical limit because reaching absolute zero is not practically possible. Other temperatures, such as 0°C or 4°C, are not applicable here as gases do not reach zero volume at these points. -173.16°C is also incorrect because it is above absolute zero, and gases may even condense into liquids at such temperatures, but they do not have zero volume.

Q107. 1 liter of a gas weighs 2 g at 300 K and 1 atm pressure. If the pressure is made 0.75 atm, at which of the following temperatures will 1 L of the same gas weigh 1 g?

• A. 450 K✓
• B. 800 K
• C. 600 K
• D. 900 K

Explanation: So we know that,P₁V₁ / P₂V₂ = W₁T₁ / W₂T₂Substituting in the above formula we get,=> 1 × 1 / 0.75 × 1 = 2 × 300 / 1 × T₂=> 1 / 0.75 = 600 / T₂Cross Multiplying we get,=> T₂ × 1 = 600 × 0.75=> T₂ = 450 K

Q108. Which of the following pairs of gases have the same rate of diffusion?

• A. CO2 and N2O✓
• B. CO2 and CO
• C. NO2 and CO2
• D. CO2 and N2O4

Explanation: According to Graham's Law, the rate of diffusion or effusion is inversely proportional to the square root of molar mass. Both CO2 and N2O have the same mass (44). So, they have a similar rate of diffusion.

Q109. The RMS speed at NTP of a gas can be calculated from the expression:

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D
• E. Option A, B and C✓
• F. Option D, B, and C

Explanation: Correct option is E

Q110. In electrochemical series, elements are arranged in order of their standard electrode potentials, the correct decreasing reactivity order for metals is:

• A. Gold, silver, magnesium, aluminum
• B. Mercury, calcium, sodium, magnesium
• C. Sodium, aluminum, lead, copper✓
• D. Potassium, silver, magnesium, aluminum

Explanation: In the electrochemical series, metals with more negative standard electrode potentials are more reactive. Sodium is highly reactive, followed by aluminum, then lead, and finally the least reactive among them is copper. Thus, the correct decreasing reactivity order is Na > Al > Pb > Cu.

Q111. Shape of the orbital occupied by an electron is defined by:

• A. Azimuthal quantum number✓
• B. Principal quantum number
• C. Magnetic quantum number
• D. Spin quantum number

Explanation: This is the correct answer. The azimuthal quantum number, also known as the angular momentum quantum number, determines the shape of an atomic orbital. It is denoted by the letter l. The possible values of l depend on the principal quantum number (n). For a given n, l can have values from 0 to n-1. Each value of l corresponds to a different orbital shape: l = 0: s orbital (spherical) l = 1: p orbital (dumbbell-shaped) l = 2: d orbital (cloverleaf-shaped)l = 3: f orbital (more complex shapes)

Q112. The oxidation state of “S’ in the (S2O3)-2 is:

• A. +4
• B. +6
• C. -2
• D. +2✓

Explanation: Let the Oxidation number of Sulphur in S2O32- be x. Thus;2x+(-2 x 3)= -2 2x - 6= -2 2x= -2+6 2x=4 x=4\2 x=2 So, the oxidation state of sulphur is +2

Q113. During oxidation process, oxidation number of an element:

• A. Decreases
• B. Increases✓
• C. Remains constant
• D. Both decreases and increases

Explanation: A loss of negatively charged electrons corresponds to an increase in oxidation number, while a gain of electrons corresponds to a decrease in oxidation number. Therefore, the element or ion that is oxidized undergoes an increase in oxidation number.

Q114. The relationship between quantum number n and l is:

• A. n = l - 1
• B. l = n - 2
• C. l = n - 1✓
• D. n = l - 2

Explanation: The principal quantum number, n, describes the energy of an electron and the most probable distance of the electron from the nucleus. In other words, it refers to the size of the orbital and the energy level the electron placed in it. The number of subshells describes the shape of the orbital. The relationship b/w n and l is l=n-1, i.e, if n=1 then l=0.

Q115. Transfer of heat from cold to hot place in refrigerator mechanism is an example of:

• A. Spontaneous reaction
• B. Non-Spontaneous reaction✓
• C. First law of thermodynamics
• D. All of the above options are correct

Explanation: In this case:Heat is being transferred from hot surroundings to the cold interior of a refrigerator, which is against the natural direction of heat flow.This process requires work, done by the refrigerator's compressor, which uses electrical energy to move heat from a colder region to a hotter one.According to the Second Law of Thermodynamics, heat cannot flow from cold to hot spontaneously.It can only happen when external energy is supplied — so the process is non-spontaneous.

Q116. Heat evolved or absorbed in a chemical reaction does not depend upon?

• A. Amount of reactants
• B. Pressure of reaction✓
• C. Physical state of reactants and products
• D. Temperature

Explanation: The correct answer is Pressure of reaction. Enthalpy is a thermodynamic state function that represents the heat content of a system. Under constant pressure conditions, the change in enthalpy (ΔH) reflects the heat evolved or absorbed during a chemical reaction and is independent of the pressure at which the reaction occurs, as long as the initial and final states are the same. This is because enthalpy is determined by the internal energy, pressure, and volume of the system, which are all state properties.Amount of reactants: This affects the total enthalpy change because more reactants generally lead to a larger heat change. Thus, it does affect the heat evolved or absorbed.Physical state of reactants and products: Different physical states have different enthalpy values (e.g., the enthalpy of vaporization or fusion), so this factor also affects the heat change.Temperature: Changes in temperature can affect the enthalpy of a system, as it influences the energy levels and distribution of molecules, thereby affecting the heat evolved or absorbed.

Q117. If the difference between electronegativity values between two atoms is less than 1.7 , the bond is necessarily:

• A. Ionic
• B. Covalent✓
• C. Electrovalent
• D. Polar
• E. Non-polar

Explanation: If the electronegative difference is >1.7 then its nature is ionic and <1.7 then its nature is covalent and if its equal to 1.7 then nature of bond will be 50% ionic and 50% covalent. As here, it is less than 1.7, nature is covalent.

Q118. How will the equilibrium of the following reaction be affected if additional nitrogen is added?N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)

• A. It will be shifted to the right.✓
• B. It will be shifted to the left.
• C. It will be unaffected.
• D. The effect on the equilibrium can not be determined without more information.
• E. Less NH3 will be produced.

Explanation: If N2 is added, the equilibrium will be shifted to the right side as N2 is the reactant. According to Le Chatelier, increasing the concentration of the reactants favour the forward reaction.

Q119. What will happen to the KClO3 when KCl is added to its solution in water?

• A. Its solubility increases
• B. Its solubility decreases✓
• C. Concentration of Cl- ion decreases
• D. . Concentration of ClO3- ion increases

Explanation: When KCl is added to a solution of KClO₃, it introduces a common ion (K⁺) into the solution. Due to the common ion effect, the dissociation of KClO₃ is suppressed. As a result, the solubility of KClO₃ decreases, so the correct answer is B.

Q120. A chemical reaction is catalyzed by a catalyst X. Hence, X:

• A. Increases activation energy of the reaction
• B. Does not affect equilibrium constant of the reaction✓
• C. Decreases rate constant of the reaction
• D. Reduces enthalpy of the reaction

Explanation: A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with lower activation energy, increasing the reaction rate. It does not change the energies of reactants or products, so the equilibrium position remains unchanged. Therefore, the correct answer is B .

Q121. For a reaction given below C(s) + O2 (g) -> CO2 (g) -394 kJ / molThe enthalpy of reaction is

• A. 394 kJ / mol
• B. -394 kJ / mol✓
• C. 197 kJ / mol
• D. -197 kJ / mol

Explanation: The formation of carbon dioxide from carbon and oxygen is an exothermic reaction, meaning it releases heat. The enthalpy change, denoted as ΔH, is negative for exothermic reactions. In this case, the reaction releases 394 kJ/mol of energy, so the correct enthalpy change is -394 kJ/mol. The negative sign is crucial as it indicates the direction of heat flow (from the system to the surroundings). Option B correctly reflects this with -394 kJ/mol. The other options are incorrect either due to the wrong sign or incorrect magnitude.

Q122. Molar heat of vaporization is the amount of heat required to convert one mole of:

• A. A liquid into its vapours at its boiling point✓
• B. Liquids into its vapours
• C. Solids into vapours
• D. Solid into liquid at its melting point

Explanation: Molar heat of vapourization refers to the conversion of one mole of a liquid to its vapors at a constant temperature, which is the boiling point of the liquid. That is why option A is correct.Option B is partially correct because vaporization refers to the conversion of a liquid to gas, however, at a constant temperature. Options C and D are incorrect because vaporization does not involve the conversion of solids to liquids.

Q123. Some substances lack definite heats of fusion. These substances are:

• A. Isomorphs
• B. Polymorphs
• C. Amorphous solids✓
• D. Crystalline solids

Explanation: 'Amorphous solids' do not possess any particular heat of fusion thus Option C is correct.'Crystalline solids' consist of atoms, ions, and molecules arranged in a definite and repeating three-dimensional pattern with definite heat of fusion.'Isomorphs' are substances with different chemical compositions, exhibiting the same structure.'Polymorphs' are multiple 3D structural forms of a substance.

Q124. Starting point of Kelvin scale is:

• A. 0 K✓
• B. -400 K
• C. -210 K
• D. -273.15 K

Explanation: A change of one kelvin is the same amount of temperature change as one degree Celsius, but the Kelvin scale is “absolute” in the sense that it starts at absolute zero, or what Kelvin and other scientists called “infinite cold.” (0 K = -273.15 degrees C = -459.67 degrees F.)

Q125. When two moles of H2 and one mole of O2 react to form H2O, -484 KJ heat is evolved. What is Δ Hf for one mole of H2O?

• A. -484 KJmol-1
• B. -242 KJmol-1✓
• C. -121 KJmol-1
• D. +242 KJmol-1

Explanation: To determine the enthalpy change of formation (ΔHf) for one mole of H2O, we can use the given information about the heat evolved in the reaction.The balanced equation for the reaction is:2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(g)According to the given information, when two moles of H2 and one mole of O2 react, 484 kJ of heat is evolved. This heat change represents the enthalpy change of the reaction.Since two moles of H2O are formed in the reaction, we need to find the enthalpy change for one mole of H2O. To do that, we divide the heat evolved by the stoichiometric coefficient of H2O:ΔHf (H2O) = (484 kJ) / 2ΔHf (H2O) = 242 kJTherefore, the enthalpy change of formation for one mole of H2O is 242 kJ.Firstly, since heat is evolved, the formation of water is an exothermic reaction and so the sign of enthalpy change will be negative. Secondly, enthalpy of formation is the change in enthalpy when one mole of a substance is formed from its constituent elements under standard conditions.When 2 moles of H2 and 1 mole of O2 react, 2 moles of H2O will be formed:2H2 + O2 —------------------------> 2H2O ΔH=-484 kJ/mol (given)Now, for the formation of one mole of H2O, we can simply divide the entire equation by 2:H2 + ½ O2 —-----------------------> H20 ΔH= -242 kJ/molSo, the enthalpy change of formation is –242 kJ/mol, which corresponds to option B, hence that is the correct answer.

Q126. Anything under test or observation in laboratory is called

• A. Surrounding
• B. System✓
• C. Confined space
• D. None of these

Explanation: A system is the set of substances and energy that is being studied. If, for example, reactions are occurring in a jar, everything inside the jar is the system, and everything outside the jar is the surroundings. The surroundings are everything not in the system, which means the rest of the universe.

Q127. Through what phenomenons does heat flow?

• A. Conduction
• B. Convection
• C. Radiation
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: Heat always flows from a region of higher temperature to a region of lower temperature. It flows by conduction, convection, and radiation. Often we are interested in regulating the rate at which the thermal energy is transferred.

Q128. Lattice Energy of ionic compounds are found by:

• A. Hess' law
• B. Born Habers Cycle✓
• C. Law of Mass action
• D. Law of conservation of mass

Explanation: The Born Haber cycle is a cycle of enthalpy change of process that leads to the formation of a solid crystalline ionic compound from the elemental atoms in their standard state and of the enthalpy of formation of the solid compound such that the net enthalpy becomes zero.

Q129. Which enthalpy change is relevant in the following process:Na(s) -> Na (g) ΔH = +107

• A. Enthalpy of atomization✓
• B. Enthalpy of fusion
• C. Enthalpy of vaporization
• D. Enthalpy of formation

Explanation: Option A, enthalpy of atomization, is the energy required to completely separate all the atoms in a chemical substance. The separated atoms are in a gaseous state and get separated from the corresponding substance in its standard state. Sodium is solid in its standard state, and after atomization, the atoms are in their gaseous state. Hence, this is the correct answer.Option B is the enthalpy change when a solid substance melts into a liquid. Here, the state change is from a solid to a gas, no liquid state involved.Option C is the enthalpy change when a liquid is vaporized into a gas. Here, a solid is atomized to its gaseous state so, vaporization does not apply here.Option D is the enthalpy change when one mole of a substance is formed from its constituent elements. This does not describe the given reaction.

Q130. The given diagram shows the enthalpy changes during a chemical reaction.

• A. An endothermic reaction
• B. An exothermic reaction✓
• C. An isothermic process
• D. A non-spontaneous process

Explanation: This diagram shows a reaction in which the reactants are at a greater energy level than the products, indicating that energy is released during the reaction, i.e. change in enthalpy or (H2-H1) would be negative, indicating that it is an exothermic reaction so, option B is correct.Option A describes an endothermic reaction which would have a diagram depicting products, at a higher energy level than the reactants.Option C indicates a process in which the heat energy of the system does not change, but the diagram itself shows a change in enthalpy.Option D cannot be determined from a mere energy diagram as shown.

Q131. When N2+ is form N2 bond-order ......... and when O2+ is formed from O2 bond-order:

• A. Increases increases
• B. Decreases decreases
• C. Increases decreases
• D. Decrease increase✓

Explanation: Molecular orbital configuration of N2 is 1s2 2s2 2p3 Molecular orbital configuration of O2 is 1s2 2s2 2p4. When n2+ is formed from n2 electron is removed from sigma- bonding and hence boiling point decreases while o2+ is formed from o2, electron is removed from pie bonding and boiling point increases.

Q132. A solution of 500 ml of 0.2 KOH and 500ml of 0.2M HCl is mixed and stirred; the rise in temperature is T1. The experiment is repeated using 250ml of each of the solution: the temperature rise is T2. Which of the following is true?

• A. T1 = T2✓
• B. T1 = 2T2
• C. T1 = 4T2
• D. T2 = 9T1

Explanation: The reaction involved here is: KOH+ HCL= KCL + H20For finding moles the equation used will be: NO. of mole= molarity x volume.NO. of mole= 0.2 x 500 = 100As in the question, CV is not given we eliminate the term and rewrite the equation as;Q=nΔTFor Q1, Q1=nΔT=100×T1=100T1Molarity of the solution is 0.2M and the volume of the solution is 250ml.No. of moles = 0.2×250 = 50ForQ2,Q2 =nΔT=50×T2=50T2From the equations obtained we can say that theQ1 = 2Q2100T1 = 2 × 50T2100T1 = 100T2T1=T2

Q133. Matter changes from one state to another state on change in _.

• A. Density
• B. Pressure✓
• C. Viscosity
• D. All

Explanation: The state of matter changes primarily due to variations in temperature and pressure. For instance, when solids are heated, they can melt into liquids, and liquids can vaporize into gases with further heating. Conversely, increasing pressure can compress gases into liquids and solids by reducing the space between particles. Therefore, pressure is a key factor in changing states of matter. Density and viscosity are properties of matter but they do not directly change its state.

Q134. Quantum number values for 2p are

• A. n=2 l=1✓
• B. n=1 l=2
• C. n=2 l=0
• D. n=1 l=1

Explanation: For the 2p orbital, the principal quantum number (n) is 2, indicating that the electron is in the second energy level or shell. The azimuthal quantum number (l) is 1, which corresponds to the p orbital shape. So this answer is correct. It is incorrect because the principal quantum number (n) cannot be smaller than the azimuthal quantum number (l). The value of n must be equal to or greater than l. It is incorrect because for the p orbital, the azimuthal quantum number (l) must have a value of 1, 0, or -1. It cannot be 0.It is incorrect because for the 2p orbital, the principal quantum number (n) must be 2, not 1.

Q135. Which of the following are the fundamental ways of transferring energy?

• A. Pressure and work
• B. Volume and pressure
• C. Heat and work✓
• D. Pressure and heat

Explanation: Correct answer is 'Heat and work'.

Q136. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the Newton's third law of motion?

• A. To every action there is always an equal and opposite reaction
• B. Action and reaction act on the same body✓
• C. There is no cause-effect relation action and reaction
• D. Action and reaction forces are simultaneous forces

Explanation: Action and reaction act on the same body is not true regarding Newton's third law of motion. Action and reaction pairs always act on different bodies.Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Q137. A mass has constant acceleration, what is true about the force applied on it?

• A. Constantly increasing
• B. Constant but not zero✓
• C. Is directly proportional to square of displacement
• D. Is directly proportional to velocity

Explanation: According to F=ma, acceleration and force are both directly proportional to each other. If acceleration is constant then the force applied on the object will also be constant.

Q138. Third law of Newton is also called:

• A. Law of Inertia
• B. Equilibrium
• C. Law of action and reaction✓
• D. None

Explanation: Newton's third law states that when two bodies interact, they apply forces to one another that are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction. The third law is also known as the law of action and reaction.

Q139. A car starts from rest and moves with a constant acceleration. During the 5th second of its motion, it covers a distance of 36 meters. What is the acceleration of the car?

• A. 12.5 m/s2
• B. 8 m/s2✓
• C. 15 m/s2
• D. 16 m/s2
• E. 14 m/s2
• F. 2.88 m/s2

Explanation: You will find the distance traveled in 5 and 4 seconds individually. After subtracting these two terms and equating it to 36 meters, all variables are fulfilled other than a which we can solve for.In the below equations, s is distance, a is acceleration, and t is time.In 4 seconds, the truck covers:s = 1/2 at2s = 1/2 (a) 42s = 1/2 (a) (16)s = 8 (a) metersIn 5 seconds, the truck coverss = 1/2 a t2s = 1/2 (a) 52s = 1/2 (a) 25s = 12.5 (a) metersThe distance covered in 5 seconds minus the distance covered in 4 seconds is the distance (36 meters) covered in the 5th second.36 = 12.5 a - 8 a36 meters = 4.5 seconds2 (a)a = acceleration = 8 m/s2

Q140. A block with a mass of 0.1 kg is attached to a spring and placed on a horizontal frictionless table. The spring is stretched 20 cm when a force of 5 N is applied, the spring constant is:

• A. 50 Nm-1
• B. 25 Nm-1✓
• C. 75 Nm-1
• D. 100 Nm-1
• E. 125 Nm-1

Explanation: To find the spring constant k, use Hooke's Law: F = kx. Given that F = 5 N and the extension x = 0.2 m, the equation becomes:5 = k(0.2)Solving for k gives k = 5 / 0.2 = 25 Nm-1.Option B is correct because it accurately reflects this calculation.Options A, C, D, and E are incorrect because they do not match the calculated value of the spring constant. They either overestimate or underestimate the spring constant due to incorrect application of the formula.

Q141. Magnetic force on a moving charge depends upon:

• A. Magnetic field and charge only
• B. Magnetic field and speed of the charge only
• C. Charge and speed of the charge only
• D. Magnetic field, charge, and speed of the charge✓

Explanation: The magnitude of the magnetic force between them depends on how much charge is in how much velocity in each of the two objects and magnetic field.

Q142. Name the pulmonary disease in which alveolar surface area involved in gas exchange is drastically reduced due to damage in the alveolar walls.

• A. Pneumonia
• B. Asthma
• C. Pleurisy
• D. Emphysema✓

Explanation: Note:The correct option is d) Emphysema.Explanation of each option:a)Pneumonia: Pneumonia is an inflammatory lung condition primarily caused by infection, not by damage to the alveolar walls. It typically results in the air sacs (alveoli) filling with fluid or pus due to infection, rather than damage to alveolar walls.b)cAsthma: Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by airway inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and excess mucus production. It does not primarily involve damage to the alveolar walls but rather affects the airways.c)Pleurisy: Pleurisy, or pleuritis, is inflammation of the pleura, the lining around the lungs. It does not directly involve damage to the alveolar walls or impact the alveolar surface area responsible for gas exchange.d)Emphysema: This is the correct answer. Emphysema is a pulmonary disease characterized by the gradual destruction of the alveolar walls. This damage reduces the surface area available for gas exchange, leading to impaired lung function, shortness of breath, and other respiratory symptoms. Smoking is a common cause of emphysema. The destruction of the alveolar walls leads to the enlargement of the air sacs and loss of elasticity in the lungs. As a result, the surface area available for gas exchange is drastically reduced, impairing the lung's ability to efficiently transfer oxygen to the bloodstream and remove carbon dioxide. Summary: The correct answer is "Emphysema." Emphysema is a pulmonary disease characterized by damage to the alveolar walls, which drastically reduces the alveolar surface area involved in gas exchange. The other options, pneumonia, asthma, and pleurisy, do not primarily involve damage to the alveolar walls and are distinct conditions with different characteristics.

Q143. If modulated signal frequency is represented by fm, carrier frequency by fc, fmin and fmax represent minimum and maximum values respectively, then the lower sideband refers to the range:

• A. fc - fmax to fc - fmin✓
• B. fc + fmin to fc + fmax
• C. fc - fm
• D. fm - fc

Explanation: Lower sidebands (LSB) range from fc-fmax to fc-fmin.

Q144. How many types of modulations are possible with sinusoidal carrier?

• A. Only one
• B. Two
• C. Three✓
• D. Four

Explanation: The carrier signal is a sine wave at the carrier frequency. The sine wave has three characteristics that can be altered. The term that may be varied is the carrier voltage Ec, the carrier frequency FC, and the carrier phase angle θ. So three forms of modulations are possible.

Q145. The range of wavelengths for visible light is between _.

• A. 4.6 x 107 to 7.8 x 10 -7 m
• B. 4.0 x 10 -7 to 7.6 x 10 -7 m✓
• C. 4.0 x 10 -6 to 7.6 x 10 -6 m
• D. 4.0 x 10 -8 to 7.6 x 10 -8 m

Explanation: The range of visible light is from 400nm to 760nm. Conversion of 400nm to meters will be 400x10-9=4x10-7. Conversion of 760 nm to meters will be 760x10-9=7.6x10-7.Hence the answer is B.

Q146. A stone dropped from the roof of a building takes 4 seconds to reach the ground. The height of the building is:

• A. 9.8 m
• B. 19.6 m
• C. 39.2 m
• D. 78.4 m✓

Explanation: We can use the 2nd equation of motion: s = ut + 1/2at2 = (0)(4) + (1/2)(9.8)(4)(4) = 78.4m So, the height of the building is 78.4 m.

Q147. The range of the projectile depends upon the velocity of the projection and the angle of the projection i.e. 45. For a fixed velocity, when the angle of projection is larger than 45. Which of the following is correct?

• A. The height attained by the projectile will be more but the range is less.✓
• B. Both the height and the range attained by the projectile will be more.
• C. The height attained by the projectile will be less but the range is more.
• D. Both the height and the range attained by the projectile will be less.

Explanation: In the formula for range, it is maximum when the value of sin(2θ) is maximum. This value occurs when 2θ is equal to 90 therefore θ = 45. Beyond θ = 45, the Range decreases. The height increases beyond θ = 45 because it is calculated using Sin(θ).

Q148. For projectile motion, in the absence of air resistance:

• A. Horizontal acceleration is zero✓
• B. Vertical acceleration is zero
• C. Horizontal force is constant
• D. Vertical speed is constant

Explanation: Air resistance acts on horizontal component, mainly. In the absence of air resistance, there will be no horizontal acceleration. Vertical acceleration is due to gravity, hence options B and D are wrong. In the absence of air resistance, no horizontal force will be applied and thus, option C is wrong.

Q149. Which of the given motion is a type of 2D motion?

• A. Circular
• B. Pendulum motion
• C. Projectile motion
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: Correct option is D. All these are examples of 2D motion. Two-dimensional (2D) motion means motion that takes place in two different directions or axis (or coordinates) at the same time.

Q150. A stone is thrown from a bridge at an angle of 30o with the horizontal in the downward direction with a speed of 25m/s. If the stone strikes the water after 2.5 sec, then calculate the height of the bridge from the water surface (g=9.8m/s2)

• A. 61.9 m✓
• B. 35 m
• C. 70 m
• D. None

Explanation: Correct option is A The correct solution is given as: As this is numerical thus it can only have one answer.

Q151. Which of the following is the angle of projection of a projectile if its range is equal to its height?

• A. 48
• B. 60
• C. 90
• D. 76✓

Explanation: This value should be learned for the exam because of the unavailability of calculators during the exam.There is a neat formula for the ratio of height to range:h/r=tanθ/4So whatever angle has a tangent of 4, that’s the angle that sets the ratio of height to range equal to exactly 1.tan−1(4)=75.96°

Q152. Damping is the process whereby _ is _ from the oscillating system.

• A. Energy ; dissipated✓
• B. Energy ; generated
• C. Energy ; conserved
• D. Energy ; stored

Explanation: In undamped motion, energy remains constant since there is no work done against the damping force. In damped oscillatory motion, there is work done against the damping force (friction) , hence, the overall energy is dissipated.

Q153. When frequency of applied periodic Force is equal to the natural frequency of harmonic oscillator then the _ of oscillator _.

• A. amplitude : decreases
• B. Amplitude : increases✓
• C. Frequency : increases
• D. Frequency : decreases

Explanation: This question refers to the phenomenon of resonance. During resonance, the amplitude keeps on increasing after every subsequent oscillation, provided the system is undamped.

Q154. Maximum acceleration with zero velocity is possible only for:

• A. Non inertial frame of reference
• B. Rotational motion
• C. Simple Harmonic Motion✓
• D. Random Motion

Explanation: In Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM), the object experiences maximum acceleration at the points of maximum displacement from the equilibrium position, even as its velocity reaches zero. This is due to the restoring force being greatest at these points, leading to maximum acceleration. In contrast, non-inertial frames involve fictitious forces that don't naturally create this scenario. Rotational and random motions do not inherently provide a clear link between maximum acceleration and zero velocity.

Q155. A particle is projected from the ground with a kinetic energy E at an angle of 60 degrees with the horizontal. Its kinetic energy at the highest point of its motion will be:

• A. E
• B. E/2
• C. E/4✓
• D. E/8

Explanation: At the highest point, the vertical component of velocity will be zero. The horizontal component Vx is given by , Vx= V cosθ Vx = V cos 60= V/2 The kinetic energy will be given by: K.E = ½ mv2 K.E’ = ½ m(V/2)2 K.E’ = ½ m(v2/4) K.E’ = ¼(K.E)

Q156. The total energy of a block, executing simple harmonic motion is:

• A. Independent of ‘x’✓
• B. Proportional to ‘x’
• C. Proportional to ‘x2’
• D. Proportional to '√x'

Explanation: The total energy in SHM is independent of x.Because E=1/2(kA2), it stays constant no matter where the block is in its motion. Only kinetic and potential energy change with x, but their sum (total energy) does not.

Q157. For a stiff spring, the value of spring constant is:

• A. Higher✓
• B. Lower
• C. Intermediate
• D. Zero

Explanation: According to Hooke's law, the force F required to extend or compress a spring by some distance x is directly proportional to that distance, with the constant of proportionality being the spring constant k. Mathematically, we can write:F = kxFrom this equation, we can see that if the force required to extend or compress the spring is high for a given distance, then the value of k must also be high. Therefore, for a stiff spring, the spring constant is higher.

Q158. If a pendulum is oscillating with a frequency f then what is the frequency at which it’s K.E. changes?

• A. 2f✓
• B. f/2
• C. F
• D. None of these

Explanation: In a simple pendulum, the potential energy is maximum when the displacement is maximum, and the kinetic energy is maximum when the velocity is maximum. At the mean position, the displacement is zero, and the velocity is maximum. Thus, the kinetic energy is maximum at the mean position. The pendulum passes through the mean position twice in each complete oscillation cycle, once while moving from left to right and once while moving from right to left. Therefore, the frequency at which the kinetic energy changes is twice the frequency of oscillation, which is given by 2f.

Q159. Two bodies are projected at an angle of ɑ and (90 - θ) to the horizontal with the same speed. The ratio between their time of flight is:

• A. Cos θ : 1
• B. Sin θ : 1
• C. Sin θ : cos θ✓
• D. Cos θ : sin θ
• E. Sin θ : tan θ

Explanation: Let the initial velocity be u and the angle of projection be θ.The time of flight for a body projected at an angle θ with the horizontal is given by:T = 2usinθ/gFor the first body projected at an angle θ, the time of flight is:T1 = 2usinθ/gFor the second body projected at an angle (90-θ), the time of flight is:T2 = 2ucosθ/g [ As sin(90-θ)= cosθ ]Taking the ratio of T1 and T2, we get:T1/T2 = (2usinθ/g) / (2ucosθ/g)T1/T2 = sinθ/cosθTherefore, the ratio of time of flight for the two bodies is sinθ: cosθ.

Q160. A force F = 0.12 N is applied to a spring and the spring elongates by 3 cm. The specific constant of the spring is?

• A. 0.4 Nm-2
• B. 40 Nm-1
• C. 400 Nm-1
• D. 4 Nm-1✓

Explanation: When a spring is stretched/compressed by the application of a force, the relationship between the magnitude of the force applied and the elongation of the spring is given by Hooke's law: F=kx Where F is the magnitude of the spring applied k is the spring constant x is the elongation of the spring relative to its equilibrium position For the spring in this problem, we have: F = 0.12 N (force applied) x = 3 cm = 0.03 m (elongation of the spring) Therefore, we can solve the formula for k to find the spring constant: k=F/x k= 0.12/0.03 k= "4N/m"

Q161. The force applied on unit area to produce any change in the volume or length of a body is called:

• A. Strain
• B. Stress✓
• C. Elasticity
• D. Equilibrium

Explanation: When the force applied produces a change in length or volume of the object then is it called stress, otherwise the term strain is used.

Q162. The oscillating object overshoots the rest position due to:

• A. Restoring force
• B. Inertia✓
• C. Gravitational potential energy
• D. Elastic potential energy

Explanation: To get oscillations, a body is pulled away from its resting or equilibrium position and then released. The body oscillates due to a restoring force. Under the action of this restoring force, the body accelerates and overshoots the rest position due to inertia.

Q163. A sphere of charge +Q is fixed in a position. A smaller sphere of +q is placed near the larger sphere and released from the rest. The small sphere will move away from the large sphere with?

• A. Decreasing velocity and decreasing acceleration
• B. Decreasing velocity and increasing acceleration
• C. Decreasing velocity and constant acceleration
• D. Increasing velocity and decreasing acceleration✓
• E. Increasing velocity and increasing acceleration

Explanation: When two spheres with like charges are placed near each other, they exert a repulsive force on one another. The small sphere with charge +q experiences a repulsive force due to the stationary sphere with charge +Q, causing it to move away. According to Coulomb's Law, this force is given by: F = kQq/r² where r is the distance between the charges. As the sphere moves away, the distance r increases, causing the force and consequently the acceleration to decrease. However, the velocity of the small sphere continues to increase because it is still under the influence of a repulsive force—albeit a diminishing one. Thus, the correct answer is Option D: Increasing velocity and decreasing acceleration. The other options incorrectly describe either the velocity or the acceleration as decreasing or constant, which does not align with the physical principles governing the motion of charged particles under electrostatic forces.

Q164. Two capacitors C1 ( 12 uf ) and C2 (24 uf) are in series connected across a 360 volts d.c. supply. Calculate the charges on C1 and C2 respectively.

• A. 2880 x 10-6 C , 2880 x 10-6✓
• B. 4770 x 10-6 C, 4770 x 10-6
• C. 5810 x 10-6 , 6610 x 10-6
• D. 7170 x 10-6 , 8140 x 10-6
• E. 9090 x 10-6 , 8880 x 10-6

Explanation: Charge throughout the circuit is the same so either the answer is A or B, as only these options have the same charge throughout.Q=CVCapacitance in series can be calculated as:1/C=1/C1 + 1/C21/C=1/12 + 1/241/C=2+1/241/C=⅛C=8 microfarads.->Q=CVQ=(8x10^-6)(360) Q=2880 x 10-6 C

Q165. Which one of the following properties is not exhibited by the longitudinal waves?

• A. Interference
• B. Reflection
• C. Diffraction
• D. Polarization✓

Explanation: In a transverse wave, the oscillations of the particles occur perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. This allows for the possibility of aligning the vibrations in a specific direction, a property known as polarization.In contrast, longitudinal waves involve oscillations of particles parallel to the direction of wave propagation. Because of this parallel oscillation, longitudinal waves do not exhibit polarization. Sound waves, which are longitudinal waves, do not have a preferred direction for particle oscillations.

Q166. The speed of sound in air is 332 m/s. The speed of sound at 22 degrees centigrade will be:

• A. 345 m/s✓
• B. 340 m/s
• C. 350 m/s
• D. 330 m/s

Explanation: Use the shortcut formula: Vx = Vs + 0.61( T)Vx= 332+ 0.61 (22)Vx= 345

Q167. In a ripple tank, 40 waves pass through a certain point in 1 second. If the wavelength of the wave is 5 cm, then speed of the wave is:

• A. 0.5 ms-1
• B. 1 ms-1
• C. 1.5 ms-1
• D. 2 ms-1✓

Explanation: Use the formula “v=fλ”As it is known that 40 waves pass through the point in 1 second so frequency is 40.Wavelength is 5cm which can be converted to 0.05m as all options are having units in ms-1(metres per second).v=(0.05)(40)v=2ms-1

Q168. The SI unit for intensity of sound is:

• A. Joule per second
• B. Watt per metre square✓
• C. Watt metre square
• D. Joule per metre square
• E. Joule metre

Explanation: Intensity is the amount of sound power passing through a unit area, and is measured in watts per square meter (W/m²). The correct answer is Option B: Watt per metre square. Other options do not represent intensity: Option A, Joule per second, measures power; Option C, Watt metre square, is not a recognized unit; Option D, Joule per metre square, measures energy density; and Option E, Joule metre, is not a standard physical unit.

Q169. A traveling wave, in which the particles of the disturbed medium move perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave is called:

• A. Transverse wave✓
• B. Longitudinal wave
• C. Standing wave
• D. shock wave

Explanation: Longitudinal waves are those waves in which particles of the disturbed medium move parallel to the direction of propagation of the wave. Transverse waves are those waves in which the particles of the disturbed medium move perpendicular to the direction of progagation of the wave. A shock wave is considered to be a longitudinal wave and a standing waves are not progressive or travelling waves as they do not transfer energy.

Q170. Two sitar strings, A and B, are playing the note 'Ga,' are slightly out of tune and produce beats of frequency 6 Hz. The tension in the string A is slightly reduced, and the beat frequency is found to reduce to 3 Hz. If the original frequency of A is 324 Hz, what is the frequency of B?

• A. 405
• B. 402
• C. 395
• D. 318✓
• E. 401

Explanation: The beat frequency is given by the difference in frequency between the two strings:f_beat = |fA - fB|We are given that the original beat frequency is 6 Hz and that when the tension in string B is reduced, the beat frequency is reduced by 3 Hz. This means that the new beat frequency is 6 - 3 = 3 Hz.Using the above equation, we can set up the following system of equations:6 = |324 - fB|3 = |324 - (fB - x)|where x is the change in frequency caused by the reduction in tension in string B.Solving the first equation for |324 - fB|, we get:|324 - fB| = 6which gives us two possible values for f_B:fB = 330 Hz or fB = 318 HzNext, we can use the second equation to determine which value of f_B is correct. Substituting in the first possible value, we get:|324 - 330| = 6 = |324 - (330 - x)|Simplifying, we get:x = 12This means that the original frequency of string B was:fB = 324 - 6 = 318 HzTherefore, the correct answer is D) 318.

Q171. A proton is about 1840 times heavier than an electron. When it is accelerated by a potential difference of 1kV, its kinetic energy will be:

• A. 1840 keV
• B. 1/1840 keV
• C. 1keV✓
• D. 920 keV

Explanation: Kinetic Energy= eVEnergy depends upon charge not mass so same for proton and electronK.E. = eV = 1 KVe = 1 keV

Q172. Complete the sequence:2, 15, 41, 80, _

• A. 111
• B. 120
• C. 121
• D. 132✓

Explanation: Find the differences between consecutive terms:15 - 2 = 1341 - 15 = 2680 - 41 = 39Notice the pattern in the differences: The differences are increasing by 13 each time (13, 26, 39).Find the next difference: The next difference would be 39 + 13 = 52.Find the next term in the sequence: Add the next difference to the last term: 80 + 52 = 132.Therefore, the next number in the sequence is 132.

Q173. Children go to school because:

• A. They want to learn poems.
• B. They want to be away from home.
• C. They want to look beautiful.
• D. They want to gain knowledge.✓
• E. They want to tease the teacher.

Explanation: The question is asking for the purpose of schooling.

Q174. Statements: Cats are mammals. Tigers are mammals.Conclusion: Tigers are cats.

• A. Moderate Argument
• B. Invalid Argument✓
• C. Weak Argument
• D. Strong Argument

Explanation: The first statement "Cats are mammals" means that all cats belong to the category of mammals.The second statement "Tigers are mammals" means that tigers also belong to the category of mammals.However, this does not imply that tigers are cats. Both cats and tigers are mammals, but they are different species within the mammal category.

Q175. On the day Bilal is born,Jamila weighs more than Javed.Javed weighs less than Junaid.Of the three babies, Junaid weighs the most.If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

• A. True
• B. FALSE
• C. Uncertain✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: If junaid weighs more than javed there are two possiblities; junaid could weigh more or less than jamila hence its uncertain.

Q176. Statement:The Management of School M has decided to give free breakfast from next academic year to all the students in its primary section through its canteen even though they will not get any government grant.Courses of Action:I. The school will have to admit many poor students who will seek admission for the next academic year.II. The canteen facilities and utensils have to be checked and new purchases to be made to equip it properly.III. Funds will have to be raised to support the scheme for years to come.

• A. Only II and III follows✓
• B. Only III and I follow
• C. Only I and II follow
• D. Only I follows

Explanation: Since the school has introduced the scheme without receiving any grant, it needs to pool up the funds and make adequate arrangements to keep the scheme going. So, only II and III follow.

Q177. Statement I: The private medical colleges have increased the tuition fees in the current year by 200 percent over the last year's fees to meet the expenses. Statement II: The government medical colleges have not increased their fees in spite of price escalation.

• A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
• B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
• C. Both statements I and II are independent causes.✓
• D. Both statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Explanation: The increase in the fees of the private colleges and no increase in the fees of Government colleges seem to be policy matters undertaken by the individual decisive boards at the two levels.

Q178. Pick the odd word out:

• A. Just
• B. Fair
• C. Equitable
• D. Biased✓

Explanation: The words "just," "fair," and "equitable" are all synonyms related to impartiality and justice. "Biased" is an antonym, meaning to show prejudice for or against something, making it the odd one out.

Q179. Statements: 1. Tanya is older than Eric. 2. Cliff is older than Tanya. 3. Eric is older than Cliff. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is:

• A. True
• B. False✓
• C. Uncertain
• D. None of these

Explanation: If Cliff is older than Tanya, and Tanya is older than Eric, then the age order is Cliff > Tanya > Eric. Therefore, the statement "Eric is older than Cliff" must be false.

Q180. Each problem consists of three statements. Based on the first two statements, the third statement may be true, false, or uncertain.Blueberries cost more than strawberries.Blueberries cost less than raspberries.Raspberries cost more than both strawberries and blueberries.If the first two statements are true, the third statement is:

• A. True✓
• B. False
• C. Uncertain
• D. None of these
• E. None of these

Explanation: The first two statements provide a clear hierarchy of fruit prices: blueberries are more expensive than strawberries, and raspberries are more expensive than blueberries. Therefore, raspberries must be more expensive than both strawberries and blueberries, making the third statement true. Option A is correct as it accurately reflects this deduction. Options B and C are incorrect because the cost relationships provided lead to a definite conclusion about the third statement. Option D is also incorrect as it suggests there is no correct option, which contradicts the evidence given.