Federal Mdcat Mock Paper 5 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the word in capital letters: INTERRUPTION

• A. Break
• B. Continuity✓
• C. Injury
• D. Difference
• E. Crack

Explanation: “Interruption” means something which is not continuous, does not have pause or breakage. Hence continuity (Option B) is correct which means unbroken and consistent.

Q2. Choose the correct spelling:

• A. Exantuated
• B. Axantuated
• C. Accenchuated
• D. Accentuated✓

Explanation: To "accentuate" means to “make more noticeable and prominent” and its correct spelling is given in Option D.

Q3. Pick the correct option:

• A. Seven students results are still awaited.
• B. Seven student’s results are still awaited.
• C. Seven students’ results are still awaited.✓
• D. Seven student results are still awaited.

Explanation: Plural nouns that end with 's' only, follow this rule;For example: The two cats' nails have grown long. On other hand:The thieves snatched the two women's bags.

Q4. Select the option which fits appropriately in the blank: Although he studied hard, he couldn't succeed _ getting a high score in his test.

• A. In✓
• B. On
• C. At
• D. To

Explanation: The word 'in' is a preposition. A preposition is, in a sense, a connector. When you use the word 'in' in the sentence, you should notice that it smoothly connects the other words around it. If the word at isn't working as a connector, then it will most likely be working as an adverb.

Q5. Select the option which correctly represents the following word: Who is

• A. Whos
• B. Whose
• C. Who's✓
• D. Whos'

Explanation: The contraction of 'who is' is 'who’s'. The apostrophe is always placed where the letter has been removed. For example couldn't, don't, isn't, you're, she's, it's- which is “it is.”

Q6. We have _ small house in _ village in _ Netherlands.

• A. The...an...a
• B. An...a...the
• C. A...a....the✓
• D. A...an...the

Explanation: Option A : "The...an...a" is incorrect because "the" should only be used for specific nouns, whereas "small house" is non-specific and requires an article "a". The use of "an" is also incorrect because "house" starts with a consonant sound. Option B : "An...a...the" is incorrect because "an" should be used before a word that starts with a vowel sound. "House" starts with a consonant sound and should have "a" before it. Option C: A/an and the are articles. They are types of determiners and they go before a noun. Use "a" before words that start with a consonant sound and "an" before words that start with a vowel sound. The definite article is used before singular and plural nouns when the noun is specific or particular. The signals that the noun is definite, that it refers to a particular member of a group. Option D : "A...an...the" is incorrect because "an" should be used before a word that starts with a vowel sound. However, there is no word in the sentence that requires an article "an".

Q7. I'm now going to give you 10 _ tips for running a really successful website.

• A. Invaluable✓
• B. Valueless
• C. Unworthy
• D. Unprofitable

Explanation: Option A: Invaluable is defined as something extremely useful; indispensable. Since these tips will help create a successful website, they are extremely helpful and thus important, making them invaluable. Option B : Valueless: This answer is incorrect as the tips provided for running a successful website are likely to be valuable and useful for website owners. Option C : Unworthy: This answer is incorrect as the tips provided for running a successful website are likely to be worthy of consideration for website owners looking to improve their website's performance. Option D : Unprofitable: This answer is incorrect as the tips provided for running a successful website may not necessarily be focused on generating profits, but rather on improving the website's overall performance and user experience.

Q8. Choose the correct sentence:

• A. Samar bought an apple, an orange and an pear.
• B. Samar bought an apple a orange and a pear.
• C. Samar bought an apple, an orange, and a pear.✓
• D. Samar bought a apple, an orange and a pear.

Explanation: Option A: This sentence is missing a comma before "and." It should be "an orange, and a pear." The absence of the comma makes the sentence grammatically incorrect.Option B: This sentence is also missing a comma before "and." Similar to option A, it should be "an orange, and a pear." The lack of a comma makes this sentence grammatically incorrect as well.Option C: This sentence is correctly punctuated with commas. It uses the comma before "and" when listing three items. Each item in the list is separated by a comma, and the final comma (known as the Oxford comma) is used before "and." This option is grammatically correct.Option D: Similar to options A and B, this sentence is missing a comma before "and." It should be "an orange, and a pear." The absence of a comma makes this sentence grammatically incorrect.

Q9. _ people know the town better than old Jake here.

• A. Only few
• B. The few
• C. Only the few
• D. Few✓

Explanation: The sentence implies that there are few people who know the town better than Jake, who is old and lives there. We do not need to use any determiner

Q10. It _ (rain) since last night.

• A. Raining
• B. Has been raining✓
• C. Rains
• D. Rained

Explanation: .‘Since’ in the sentence indicates present perfect tense. In present perfect tense, we use the helping verb ‘has/have been’ + ‘ing’ form of verb (present participle

Q11. I have already got a _ at a hotel in Murree. We shall have no problems.

• A. Prescription
• B. Property
• C. Reserve
• D. Reservation✓

Explanation: Reservations are an arrangement to have something (as seating in a restaurant) held for someone's use and are usually made for events or dates at hotels and restaurants.

Q12. Demonstrate the correct use of articles and prepositions: Gold is _ precious metal.

• A. A✓
• B. An
• C. The
• D. No article is needed

Explanation: Articles are used to indicate and define a noun. They are used before nouns or noun equivalents. The definite article (the) is used before a noun to indicate that the identity of the noun is known to the reader. The indefinite article (a, an) is used before a noun that is general or when its identity is not known.

Q13. Demonstrate the correct use of subject-verb agreement:There _ many objections to the plan.

• A. Is
• B. Are✓
• C. Was
• D. Be

Explanation: In the case of a plural subject, the correct helping verb would be ‘are’ or ‘were’. As ‘were’ is in none of the options hence B is the correct answer.

Q14. Select the option which fits appropriately in the blank: A really sophisticated person would never be _ enough, to think that he is always right.

• A. Reverent
• B. Naive✓
• C. Articulate
• D. Humble

Explanation: If someone always thinks they’re right, that is foolish on their behalf, therefore it would be 'naive' for a sophisticated person.

Q15. They will bake the pies. Which tense is used here?

• A. Present
• B. Past
• C. Future✓
• D. Universal

Explanation: Option A : Present tense would be "They bake the pies" or "They are baking the pies." Option B : Past tense would be "They baked the pies." Option C: The word 'will' indicates future tense. Option D : Universal tense is not a grammatical tense.

Q16. Select words that describe the word: Glared

• A. Frown or blaze✓
• B. Shine or sparkle
• C. Grin or extinguish
• D. Frown or eliminate

Explanation: A glare is a a fierce or angry stare.

Q17. Demonstrate the control of tenses and sentence structure:Last Saturday my father _ (take) my friends and me to the circus.

• A. Take
• B. Took✓
• C. Will take
• D. Has taken

Explanation: When mentioning an action that happened in the past, the past tense is used, along with the second form of the verb. Since the father took the children to the circus ‘Last Saturday’, it indicates past tense.

Q18. How many ml of blood is pumped by each contraction of the heart?

• A. 80 ml
• B. 90 ml
• C. 70 ml✓
• D. 60 ml

Explanation: Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped out by the ventricles during one heartbeat. The average stroke volume is 70 ml so that is the amount of blood pumped in each heartbeat so option C is correct.

Q19. Hybrid black Guinea pigs are crossed with each other. The resulting offsprings will be:

• A. All black
• B. All white
• C. 3 black, 1 white✓
• D. 3 white, 1 black

Explanation: When heterozygous (hybrid) guinea pigs are intercrossed the chance of the offspring being black is: 75 % and white is: 25%, giving 3 blacks and 1 white (Option C)

Q20. Antibodies are actually:

• A. Globular proteins✓
• B. Glycoproteins
• C. Fibrous proteins
• D. Glycolipids

Explanation: Antibodies are globular proteins that play a key role in the immune system by binding to antigens. Their compact, three-dimensional structure enables them to specifically recognize and neutralize foreign substances.

Q21. T-Lymphocytes are matured in thymus glands and they are produced in:

• A. Thymus glands
• B. Bone marrow✓
• C. Pancreas
• D. Heart

Explanation: T cells originate from hematopoietic stem cells which are produced in the bone marrow. Some of these multipotent cells will become progenitor cells that leave the bone marrow and travel to the thymus via the blood. In the thymus, these cells mature. T cells are named after their thymus-dependent development.

Q22. Read the passage below to answer the question: Haemophilia is a disorder in which blood fails to clot. Saad, a male haemophiliac, marries Sara, a normal woman and together they have four children, two boys (Ahmed and Ali) and two girls (Alia and Ayesha). None of the children display the symptoms of Haemophilia. Ahmed, Ali, Ayesha, and Ali all marry normal individuals and have children. None of Ahmed's or Ali’s children, male or female, display symptoms of haemophilia, but the sons of Alia and Ayesha display symptoms of haemophilia while the daughters of Alia and Ayesha do not. Which of the following best explains the reason that Ahmed, Ali, Ayesha and Alia do not display symptoms of haemophilia, even though their father, Saad, is a haemophiliac.

• A. Haemophilia is an X-linked disorder, and Saad can only pass on his Y chromosome
• B. Haemophilia is an X-linked disorder, and even though Alia and Ayesha receive a hemophiliac X-chromosome from Saad, Sara gave them a normal X-chromosome.✓
• C. Haemophilia is a Y -linked disorder, and therefore cannot be displayed in females
• D. Haemophilia is a Y-linked disorder ,and Ahmed and Ali must have received an X Chromosome from Saad
• E. Haemophilia is an X-linked disorder, and even though Ahmed and All received a Hemophilia X-chromosome from Saad, Sara gave them a normal X- chromosome.

Explanation: Haemophilia is an X-linked chromosome, not a Y-linked chromosome. Daughters of Sara and Saad, Alia and Ayesha receive an X chromosome from both of their parents. Even though haemophilia X-chromosome is received by these daughters from Saad but they received normal X from their mother, because of which they do not show any symptoms. Option A is wrong because Saad can pass X as well as Y chromosome to his offspring. Options C and D are wrong because it is not a Y-linked but an X-linked disease. Option E is wrong because Ahmed and Ali can not receive an X chromosome from Saad (their father), they should receive a Y chromosome, for them to be male.

Q23. Read the passage below to answer the question: Hemophilia is a disorder in which blood fails to clot. Saad, a male hemophiliac, marries Sara, a normal woman and together they have four children, two boys (Ahmed and Ali) and two girls (Alia and Ayesha). None of the children display the symptoms of Hemophilia. Ahmed, Ali, Ayesha, and Ali all marry normal individuals and have children. None of Ahmeds or Ali’s children, male or female, display symptoms of hemophilia, but the sons of Alia and Ayesha display symptoms of hemophilia while the daughters of Alia and Ayesha do not. If one of Ali's daughters marries a normal man,what is the probability that one of their children will display symptoms of hemophilia:

• A. 0%✓
• B. 25%
• C. 50%
• D. 75%
• E. 100%

Explanation: Ali and Ahmed are normal males because they receive a Y chromosome from their father and Haemophilia is an X-linked disorder. Ali marries a normal female and will therefore have a normal daughter. If this normal daughter marries a normal male, the probability that they will have haemophiliac children is 0%.

Q24. Read the passage below to answer the question: Hemophilia is a disorder in which blood fails to clot. Saad, a male hemophiliac, marries Sara, a normal woman and together they have four children, two boys (Ahmed and Ali) and two girls (Alia and Ayesha). None of the children display the symptoms of Hemophilia. Ahmed, Ali, Ayesha, and Ali all marry normal individuals and have children. None of Ahmeds or Ali’s children, male or female, display symptoms of hemophilia, but the sons of Alia and Ayesha display symptoms of hemophilia while the daughters of Alia and Ayesha do not. Which of the following individuals are heterozygous for hemophilia:

• A. Saad, Ahmed, and Ali
• B. Ahmed, Ali, Alia, and Ayesha
• C. Saad and Sara
• D. Alia and Ayesha✓
• E. Ahmed and Ali

Explanation: Male can’t be heterozygous or homozygous because they can only have one allele. Females can possibly be homozygous or heterozygous. Heterozygous are those females that are carriers as we know that Alia and Ayesha do not show any symptoms.

Q25. The causes of Cyanosis include:

• A. Deficiency of vitamin C
• B. Varicella-zoster virus
• C. Degeneration of the cartilage of joints
• D. Ventricular septum defect✓
• E. None of these options

Explanation: Cyanosis occurs when oxygen-depleted (deoxygenated) blood, which is bluish rather than red, circulates through the skin. This occurs when there is the mixing of blood which takes place when there is a septal defect in the heart, e.g Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD).

Q26. The law of dominance is illustrated in the garden pea by:

• A. Homozygous tall x Heterozygous tall
• B. Heterozygous tall x Heterozygous tall
• C. Homozygous tall x Homozygous tall
• D. Pure short x Pure short
• E. Homozygous tall x Pure short✓

Explanation: The law of dominance is illustrated by the cross between homozygous tall and pure short garden pea. This type of cross results in a homozygous trait in phenotype, which is tall in this case.

Q27. Identify the incorrect statement from the following:

• A. Apical growth increases the length of stems and roots
• B. Xylem is situated on the outer side of the cambium ring and the phloem on the inner side✓
• C. Secondary growth increases the diameter of stems and roots
• D. The cells in the elongation phase don't divide
• E. The cells informative regions are closely packed together

Explanation: In a vascular cambium, the xylem is placed on the inner side while the phloem is placed on the outer side, option B states vice versa.

Q28. The massive accumulation of blood within a tissue is called:

• A. Haemorrhage
• B. Haematoma✓
• C. Hepatoma
• D. Haemocoel
• E. Haematemesis

Explanation: The massive accumulation of blood within a tissue is called a hematoma. Hemorrhage is the escape of the blood from the ruptured vessel. Hepatoma is the cancer of liver cells. Hemocoel is a body cavity (as in arthropods or some mollusks) that contains blood or hemolymph and functions as part of the circulatory system. Haematemesis is simply defined as “vomiting blood” .

Q29. Which valve action results from an increase in pressure in the ventricles of the heart?

• A. The closing of all the heart valves
• B. The closing of semilunar valves
• C. The opening of the bicuspid valve
• D. The opening of the semilunar valves✓
• E. The opening of the tricuspid valve

Explanation: When the pressure of the ventricles increases, the bicuspid and tricuspid valves close and semilunar valves open.

Q30. In the human body, blood circulating from the gut to the heart passes through the:

• A. Aorta
• B. Kidneys
• C. Liver✓
• D. Lungs
• E. Spleen

Explanation: Blood circulating from the gut to the heart has to pass through the liver, it is a must(Portal system).

Q31. The diagram represents two liquids, separated by a membrane through which osmosis can occur. What movement of molecules will occur?

• A. Molecules of dissolved substance move from left to right.
• B. Molecules of dissolved substance move from right to left.
• C. Overall, water molecules move from left to right.✓
• D. Overall, water molecules move from right to left.
• E. None of the above

Explanation: Water molecules move from the left to right as water potential is higher on the left side than the right side.

Q32. Number of bones in the skull:

• A. 22✓
• B. 26
• C. 24
• D. 28

Explanation: The skull consists of 22 bones in most adult specimens, which come together via cranial sutures. The function of the skull is both structurally supportive and protective. The skull will harden and fuse through development to protect its inner contents: the cerebrum, cerebellum, brainstem, and orbits. This is a factual recall from the chapter on support and movement, according to which the skull contains 8 cranial bones and 14 facial bones which is a total of 22 bones so option A is correct, making options B, C, D incorrect.

Q33. Which of the following bones are present in the palm of the hand:

• A. Carpals
• B. Metacarpals✓
• C. Phalanges
• D. Tarsal
• E. Radius

Explanation: In the palm of the hand, there are metacarpal bones, as shown below:

Q34. The muscles attached to the bones are:

• A. Voluntary and smooth
• B. Involuntary and smooth
• C. Voluntary and striated✓
• D. Involuntary and striated
• E. Smooth and striated

Explanation: Muscles attached to the bones are called skeletal muscles. Skeletal muscles are voluntary and striated.

Q35. The number of muscles in a human body is about:

• A. 200
• B. 300
• C. 400
• D. 500
• E. 600✓

Explanation: Most sources state that there are over 600 named skeletal muscles in the human body.

Q36. How many metacarpals are present In the hand?

• A. 4
• B. 3
• C. 6
• D. 5✓
• E. 8

Explanation: There are five metacarpal bones in the palm of the hand as shown below(marked red):

Q37. Molluscs have an exoskeleton made up of:

• A. Protein
• B. Silica
• C. CaCO3✓
• D. Cuticles

Explanation: While mollusca exoskeleton does indeed contain proteins as well as calcium carbonate(CaC03) they are composed mostly of calcium carbonate with only a small quantity of protein--no more than 2 percent. These shells, unlike typical animal structures, are not made up of cells (so no cuticle). So option A, B and D are incorrect as it does not contain silica either. Option C is correct.

Q38. Which one of the following are “myogenic” type of muscles?

• A. Glandular muscles
• B. Cardiac muscles✓
• C. Skeletal muscles
• D. Smooth muscles

Explanation: The three muscle types (Cardiac, Smooth, Skeletal) can be further classified into two categories i.e. myogenic and neurogenic. Myogenic means originating in or produced by muscle cells themselves. Neurogenic means originating in or produced by nerve cells or neurons. The contractions of cardiac muscle fibers are described as myogenic, since they are produced spontaneously, without requiring stimulation from nerve cells. This is solely due to the presence of the SA and AV nodes on the heart, capable of producing electrical impulses to stimulate contraction. Single-unit visceral smooth muscle is myogenic; it can contract regularly without input from a motor neuron (as opposed to multiunit smooth muscle, which is neurogenic - that is, its contraction must be initiated by an autonomic nervous system neuron). Skeletal muscle on the contrary is neurogenic since it can contract when stimulated by a motor neuron. Hence, the only correct answer is Option B.

Q39. What do we call the cell surface membrane of a muscle fibre?

• A. Sarcolemma✓
• B. Plasma membrane
• C. Sarcoplasm
• D. Myofibrils

Explanation: 'Sarco-' literally means “muscle”. This prefix is used in terms of normal cell biology to indicate that the term is related to the muscles. On the other hand, '-lemma' means a “confining membrane”; for example, a normal cell’s membrane is simply referred to as the plasma membrane however, a muscle cell’s membrane is referred to as sarcolemma hence we reject option B. The cytoplasm of a striated muscle cell is referred to as 'Sarcoplasm' hence we reject option C as well. Myofibrils are made up of sarcomeres, the functional units of a muscle. The function of the myofibril is to perform muscle contraction via the sliding filament model.

Q40. In roots, the apoplast pathway of water is disrupted when water reaches:

• A. Plasmodesmata
• B. Endodermis✓
• C. Cortex
• D. Pith

Explanation: The cell-to-cell pathway is a continuous flow domain interrupted at the endodermis, which has a cell membrane with lower specific permeability than the rest of the cells.

Q41. Regarding structure of the human heart, Chordae Tendinae are present in:

• A. Atria
• B. Pulmonary valve
• C. Ventricles✓
• D. Aortic valve

Explanation: The chordae tendinae (tendinous cords), colloquially known as the heartstrings, are tendon-resembling fibrous cords of connective tissue that connect the papillary muscles to the tricuspid valve and the mitral valve in the heart. Hence are placed in the ventricles, as shown in the diagram below:

Q42. The diagram shows some of the muscles and bones of the human arm.

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C✓
• D. Option D

Explanation: Please refer to the explanation below:

Q43. Which one of the following types of cell are found in secondary xylem of angiosperms?

• A. Tracheids parenchyma fibres collenchyma but no vessels
• B. Vessels tracheids parenchyma collenchyma but no fibres
• C. Vessels tracheids fibres collenchyma but no parenchyma
• D. Vessels tracheids fibres parenchyma but no collenchyma✓
• E. None of these

Explanation: Option D is the correct answer. Secondary xylem of angiosperms have vessels, tracheids, fibres, parenchyma, but no collenchyma. Conceptual and fact.

Q44. Nutritional deficiency ( vitamin D ) results in softening of the bones. This disease is called?

• A. Rickets✓
• B. Cleft palates
• C. Microcephaly
• D. Down’s syndrome

Explanation: Rickets is a condition that results in weak or soft bones in children. Symptoms include bowed legs, stunted growth, bone pain, large forehead, and trouble sleeping. Complications may include bone fractures, muscle spasms, an abnormally curved spine, or intellectual disability.

Q45. Adaptations of traits to better fill a niche is known as which of the following?

• A. Polymorphism
• B. Gene linkage
• C. Specialization✓
• D. Replication

Explanation: Specialization is the adaptation of an organism or organ to a special function or environment i.e a niche.

Q46. The factory of ribosomal synthesis is:

• A. Cytoplasm
• B. Nucleus
• C. Nucleolus✓
• D. Endoplasmic reticulum

Explanation: The nucleolus acts as a site for the synthesis of ribosomes.

Q47. The complex that forms when a substrate binds to an enzyme is called:

• A. Enzyme-substrate complex✓
• B. Enzyme complex
• C. Substrate complex
• D. Structural complex

Explanation: A substrate enters the active site of the enzyme. This forms the enzyme-substrate complex.

Q48. Covalent modification means change in?

• A. Chemical properties✓
• B. Physical properties
• C. Bonding on amino acids
• D. pH of amino acids

Explanation: Covalent modifications are enzyme-catalyzed alterations of synthesized proteins and include the addition or removal of chemical groups i.e. a change in chemical properties.

Q49. Centrioles are composed of how many triplets of microtubules?

• A. 6
• B. 9✓
• C. 12
• D. 15

Explanation: Animal cells, cells of some microorganisms, and lower plants contain two centrioles located near the exterior surface of the nucleus. In cross-section, each centriole consists of a cylindrical array of nine microtubules. However, each of the nine microtubules is further composed of three tubules. Centrioles are made up of nine microtubule triplets.

Q50. The end or complete stop of the menstrual cycle is called?

• A. Ovulation
• B. Menstruation
• C. Fertilization
• D. Menopause✓

Explanation: Menopause is the time that marks the end of the menstrual cycles of a woman.

Q51. One of the functions of the neuroglial cells is to protect and support which of the following?

• A. Nephrons
• B. Myoid cells
• C. Neurons✓
• D. None of these options are correct

Explanation: Neuroglia maintain homeostasis, form myelin, and provide support and protection for neurons in the nervous systems.

Q52. The cementing material between adjacent plant cells is:

• A. Cellulose
• B. Hemicellulose
• C. Middle Lamella✓
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Option C is correct since the middle lamella is the layer of material between adjacent plant cells. It cements the cells together and contains pectins, which are also used as gelling agents in food.

Q53. Nephridia are the excretory organs of members of which phylum?

• A. Arthropoda
• B. Cnidaria
• C. Annelida✓
• D. Mollusca

Explanation: Nephridia are the excretory organs in Earthworms, which belong to Phylum Annelida.

Q54. An involuntary and nearly instantaneous movement in response to a stimulus is called?

• A. Reflex✓
• B. Reflex arc
• C. Neuron
• D. Synapse

Explanation: A reflex is an involuntary and nearly instantaneous movement in response to a stimulus.

Q55. Gigantism in human beings is caused due to over secretion of:

• A. Thyrotropin
• B. Corticotropin
• C. Somatotropin✓
• D. Prolactin

Explanation: Gigantism occurs when a child’s pituitary gland makes too much growth hormone, which is also known as somatotropin. Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), also called corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF), is a peptide hormone that activates the synthesis and release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the pituitary gland. In this way, CRH affects our response to stress, addiction and depression, amongst others. Prolactin is a hormone made by the pituitary gland, a small gland at the base of the brain. Prolactin causes the breasts to grow and make milk during pregnancy and after birth. Thyroid-stimulating hormone/Thyrotropin is a hormone produced by anterior pituitary gland that stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine, and then triiodothyronine which stimulates the metabolism of almost every tissue in the body. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Q56. A structure established between the uterine and foetal tissues for the exchange of oxygen, carbon dioxide, waste, nutrients and other materials is:

• A. Amnion
• B. Placenta✓
• C. Endometrium
• D. Uterus

Explanation: The placenta is defined as temporary intimate mechanical and the physiological connection between foetus and maternal tissue for the nutrition, respiration and excretion of the foetus. Human placenta consists of chorion only. The placenta is fully formed by the end of the third month and maintains pregnancy. In the placenta, the foetal blood comes very close to the maternal blood and this permits the exchange of material between the two. Food, water, mineral salt, vitamins, hormone antibodies and oxygen pass from the maternal blood into the foetal blood, and foetal metabolic waste, such as carbon dioxide, and urea, also water and hormones, pass into the maternal blood.

Q57. Retrovirus cause diseases in:

• A. Rodents
• B. Fowls
• C. Cats
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: d) All of these:The correct answer is d) All of these. Retroviruses have been identified to cause diseases in rodents, fowls, and cats. These viruses can have varying effects on different species, but they are known to be pathogenic and can lead to various health issues.

Q58. A man’s right side of the heart has _ type of blood.

• A. Oxygenated
• B. Deoxygenated✓
• C. Oxygenated and Deoxygenated
• D. None

Explanation: The left side pumps oxygenated blood (high in oxygen and low in carbon dioxide) to the organs of the body. Deoxygenated blood enters the right atrium from the vena cava. Blood moves into the right ventricle and is then pumped into the pulmonary artery. Therefore, the right side of the heart has deoxygenated blood.

Q59. Right ventricle connects with lungs by:

• A. Aorta
• B. Pulmonary veins
• C. Pulmonary artery✓
• D. Dorsal aorta

Explanation: The pulmonary artery leaves the right ventricle and takes blood to the lungs. Pulmonary vein brings blood back from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart. Aorta connects the right ventricle to pump blood to the body. The correct answer is, therefore, C.

Q60. The egg-laying birds are called:

• A. Oviparous✓
• B. Viviparous
• C. Monotremes
• D. All of these

Explanation: Oviparous is producing young by means of eggs that are hatched after they have been laid by the parent, as in birds. Viviparous means bringing forth live young who have developed inside the body of the parent. Monotreme is a primitive mammal that lays large yolky eggs and has a common opening for the urogenital and digestive systems.

Q61. Egg-laying mammals are called:

• A. Prototheria
• B. Protozoa
• C. Chordata
• D. Monotremes
• E. Both A and D✓

Explanation: Monotremes lay eggs and prototheria are both egg-laying mammals so the question has two correct answers. Chordata, the classification to which humans belong, are those that do not lay eggs but rather give birth to young ones. Protozoa, on the other hand, are unicellular organisms.

Q62. Treponema pallidum causes:

• A. Syphilis✓
• B. Gonorrhoea
• C. AIDS
• D. Herpes

Explanation: Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infectious (STI) disease caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum.

Q63. What is the commercial method of producing millions of seedlings in limited time?

• A. Parthenogenesis
• B. Parthenocarpy
• C. Cutting✓
• D. Grafting

Explanation: Parthenogenesis is a form of reproduction in which an egg develops into an embryo without fertilization. It is commonly observed in some animal species, where unfertilized eggs can develop into offspring. Parthenogenesis is not a method used in commercial agriculture to produce seedlings. Parthenocarpy is a phenomenon where fruits develop without fertilization. It is a process that results in the formation of seedless fruits. While parthenocarpy can be advantageous in certain fruit crops as it eliminates the need for pollination and seed formation, it does not directly relate to the production of seedlings. Cutting is the correct answer. This method involves taking a portion of a plant, typically a stem or leaf, and propagating it to produce new plants. The selected portion called a cutting, is treated with rooting hormones and planted in a suitable growing medium until it develops roots and grows into a new plant. This technique allows for rapid and efficient production of identical clones of the parent plant. It is commonly used in commercial agriculture and horticulture to produce large numbers of seedlings in a relatively short period. Grafting is a technique used to combine tissues from different plants, typically a scion (the upper part of one plant) and a rootstock (the lower part of another plant), to create a new plant with desirable traits. Grafting is primarily used to transfer specific characteristics, such as disease resistance or superior fruit quality, onto a compatible rootstock. While grafting is an important method in plant propagation and crop improvement, it is not typically employed to produce millions of seedlings in a limited time.

Q64. Hepatic and Pancreatic secretions are also stimulated by a hormone called:

• A. Gastrin
• B. Secretin✓
• C. Insulin
• D. Glucagon

Explanation: Secretin is a hormone that regulates water homeostasis throughout the body and influences the environment of the duodenum by regulating secretions in the stomach, pancreas, and liver.

Q65. Deficient production of hormones by adrenal glands results in:

• A. Cushing's syndrome
• B. Addison's disease✓
• C. Diabetes Mellitus
• D. Goiter
• E. Epilepsy

Explanation: When adrenal glands don't produce enough hormones, this can lead to adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease).

Q66. The phase of meiosis during which the non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes may exchange their segments:

• A. Leptotene
• B. Pachytene✓
• C. Diplotene
• D. Zygotene

Explanation: Leptotene is the first stage of the prophase of meiosis, during which each chromosome becomes visible as two fine threads. Pachytene is the third stage of the prophase of meiosis, following zygotene, during which the paired chromosomes shorten and thicken, the two chromatids of each separate, and exchange of segments between chromatids may occur. Diplotene is the fourth stage of the prophase of meiosis, following pachytene, during which the paired chromosomes begin to separate into two pairs of chromatids. Zygotene is the second stage of the prophase of meiosis, following leptotene, during which homologous chromosomes begin to pair. The correct answer is, therefore, B.

Q67. In mitochondria, UGA codon act to specify _ instead stop codon.

• A. Arginine
• B. Valine
• C. Glutamic acid
• D. Tryptophan✓

Explanation: In mitochondria UGA codon is assigned to tryptophan (Trp) instead of being a signal for translational termination.

Q68. In aerobic respiration most of the ATP is synthesized during:

• A. Oxidation of pyruvic acid
• B. Electron transport chain✓
• C. Krebs cycle
• D. Glycolysis

Explanation: The maximum ATP yield for a molecule of glucose is around 30-32 ATP. During glycolysis, from one glucose molecule, net 2 ATP molecules are produced. During oxidation of Pyruvic acid, no ATPs are produced. During Krebs cycle, for one glucose molecule, 2 ATPs are produced. Beyond those four, the remaining ATP all come from ETC during oxidative phosphorylation. The correct answer is, therefore, B.

Q69. Number of bones in skull is:

• A. 8
• B. 14
• C. 22✓
• D. 33

Explanation: The cranium has 8 bones. 14 bones are found in the fingers of each hand and also in the toes of each foot. The spine is made up of 33 vertebrae. Vertebrae are the 33 individual bones that interlock with each other to form the spinal column. The human skull contains 22 bones. The correct answer is, therefore, C.

Q70. The name of the opening at the posterior part skull through which spinal cord passes is:

• A. Foramen Triosseum
• B. Foramen Magnum✓
• C. Acetabulum
• D. Ischia Pubic Foramen

Explanation: The foramen magnum is a large opening in the occipital bone of the human skull. The spinal cord, an extension of the medulla, passes through the foramen magnum.

Q71. Fundography is relevant to:

• A. Heart
• B. Liver
• C. Stomach
• D. Eyes✓

Explanation: Fundography uses a photograph of the inside surface of your eye – including the retina, optic disc, macula and posterior pole (fundus) – to diagnose or monitor the progression of eye disease.

Q72. Bile is used in:

• A. Protein digestion
• B. Starch digestion
• C. Fat emulsification✓
• D. Both A and B

Explanation: Bile juice (containing bile salts) is secreted from the liver, stored in gallbladder and secreted into intestine via bile duct.

Q73. Which of the following have both internal and external digestion?

• A. Hydra
• B. Jellyfish
• C. Flatworms
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: Internal digestion occurs when food is digested within the body of the organism while external digestion is when an organism secretes digestive enzymes outside its body to digest food material and then absorb the digestive nutrients. Hydra, jellyfish, and flatworms all show a combination of these methods where they secrete enzymes, ingest partially digested food then internally digest the remaining.

Q74. Which process takes place during the movement of glucose from the body fluid to the blood?

• A. Endosmosis
• B. Osmosis
• C. Active transport✓
• D. Facilitated diffusion

Explanation: Glucose can travel across membranes by both active and passive transport.

Q75. Thyroid gland requires high amount of:

• A. Phosphate
• B. Calcium
• C. Iodine✓
• D. Sodium

Explanation: Iodine is essential to maintain a healthy thyroid. Iodine is the critical 'ingredient' for the production of thyroid hormones.

Q76. Which of the following is not the function of the cerebrum?

• A. Voluntary digestion✓
• B. Thinking
• C. Intelligence
• D. Skeletal muscles

Explanation: Functions of the cerebrum include initiation of movement, coordination of movement, temperature, touch, vision, hearing, judgment, reasoning, problem-solving, emotions, and learning, which do not involve digestion. Digestion is controlled by the autonomic nervous system- it is not a voluntary function!

Q77. Which of the following is the function of adrenaline?

• A. To increase the rate of breathing
• B. To increase the heart rate
• C. To increase the level of calcium in blood
• D. Both A and B✓

Explanation: Adrenaline is released in a fight or flight situation. In flight or fight conditions, both the breathing rate and the heart rate increase in order to increase alertness.

Q78. The process of swallowing is controlled by:

• A. Hypothalamus
• B. Hormones
• C. Medulla oblongata✓
• D. Sympathetic nervous system

Explanation: The swallowing CPG is located within the medulla oblongata. Swallowing is indeed a primitive reflex, which means that it is present in all animals with organs serving differentiated functions and that it emerges early during development.

Q79. A major constituent of contraceptive pills is:

• A. Estrogen
• B. Progesterone✓
• C. Prolactin
• D. Testosterone

Explanation: The most commonly prescribed contraceptive pill is the combined hormonal pill with progesterone. Progesterone is primarily responsible for preventing pregnancy. The main mechanism of action is the prevention of ovulation; they inhibit follicular development and prevent ovulation. Progestogen-negative feedback works at the hypothalamus to decrease the pulse frequency of the gonadotropin-releasing hormone. This, in turn, will reduce the secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and decrease the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH). If the follicle isn’t developing, there is no increase in the estradiol levels (the follicle makes estradiol). The progestogen-negative feedback and lack of estrogen-positive feedback on LH secretion stop the mid-cycle LH surge. With no follicle developed and no LH surge to release the follicle, ovulation is prevented.

Q80. The propulsive movement of the gastrointestinal tract (GI tract) is:

• A. Peristalsis✓
• B. Epiglottis
• C. Antiperistalsis
• D. Anus
• E. None of these options

Explanation: Peristalsis is the contraction of muscle tissue that helps move and break down foodstuffs. The walls of the alimentary canal include layers of smooth muscle controlled by the autonomic nervous system. The alternating contraction and relaxation of these muscles is called peristalsis.

Q81. The prolactin hormone, responsible for the activation of mammary glands to start producing milk, is a hormone of the:

• A. Pituitary gland✓
• B. Pancreas
• C. Thyroid gland
• D. Thymus gland
• E. Adrenal gland

Explanation: In humans, prolactin is produced both in the front portion of the pituitary gland (anterior pituitary gland) and in a range of sites elsewhere in the body. Lactotroph cells in the pituitary gland produce prolactin, where it is stored and then released into the bloodstream.

Q82. Ileum is about _ long:

• A. 3.6 centimeters
• B. 3.6 mllimeters
• C. 3.6 inches
• D. 3.6 meters✓
• E. 3.6 klometers

Explanation: The ileum is about 3.6 meters (11.5 feet) long (or about three-fifths the length of the small intestine) and extends from the jejunum (the middle section of the small intestine) to the ileocecal valve, which empties into the colon (large intestine).

Q83. A woman can be bald only when she is

• A. Homozygous dominant
• B. Heterozygous
• C. Homozygous recessive✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: Pattern baldness is a sex influenced trait. It is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait in males but as an autosomal recessive trait in females. A heterozygous male is bald but a heterozygous female is not. A woman can only be bald when she is homozygous recessive.

Q84. An enzyme – substrate is the place where enzyme are

• A. Formed
• B. Deactivated
• C. Active✓
• D. Reduced
• E. Diluted

Explanation: When an enzyme binds its substrate, it forms an enzyme-substrate complex. This complex lowers the activation energy of the reaction and promotes its rapid progression by providing certain ions or chemical groups that actually form covalent bonds with molecules as a necessary step of the reaction process.

Q85. Fungi may be all of the following EXCEPT

• A. Heterotrophic
• B. Autotrophic✓
• C. Saprophytic
• D. Decomposers
• E. Parasitic

Explanation: Autotrophs are known as producers because they are able to make their own food from raw materials and energy. Examples include plants, algae, and some types of bacteria. Fungi are instead A major group of osmotrophic organisms.

Q86. The chemical analysis of a compound having molecular mass 188 gives, C=12.8%, H=2.1% and Br=85.1%. Its molecular formula is:

• A. CH2Br
• B. C2H4Br2✓
• C. C2H4Br
• D. CH2(Br)2
• E. C2H2(Br)3

Explanation: This is the following solution:

Q87. 106 gram of Na2CO3 per dm3 of the solution of Na2CO3 in water, the concentration of the solution will be:

• A. 1N
• B. 0.1 M
• C. 1M✓
• D. 0.02M

Explanation: Na2CO3=23(2)+12+16(3)=46+12+48= 106Concentration=Given mass/molar massConcentration= 106/106 = 1M.

Q88. What volume in dm3 of KCl is obtained in the following equation if the volume of KCIO3 at the beginning of the reaction is 20 dm3? 2KClO3 -> 2KCl + 3O2

• A. 2 dm3
• B. 74.5 dm3
• C. 50 dm3
• D. 40 dm3
• E. 20 dm3✓

Explanation: Solution we will use volume to volume ratio 2. 22.414dm3 of kclo3 reacts with 2. 22.414dm3 of KClSo, 20 dm3 gives —-- 2 . 22.414 . 20/2 . 22.414 = 20 dm3

Q89. The efficiency of chemical reaction can be expressed as:

• A. Theoretical yield
• B. Actual yield
• C. % yield✓
• D. Maximum yield

Explanation: % yield is typically referred to as a percentage yield. This is determined by dividing the number of moles of the product obtained by the number of moles of the 'limiting' reactant (the one present in the smallest amount), then multiplying by 100.

Q90. In a vessel, 10 g N2, 10 g H2 and 10g O2 are present. Which one will have least number of atoms?

• A. H2
• B. N2
• C. O2✓
• D. Both H2 and N2

Explanation: The number of atoms in the element is proportional to the number of moles of that element. The number of moles can be calculated using the formula n=Mass/Molecular Mass nNitrogen=10/28=0.4 mol nHydrogen=10/2=5 mol nOxygen=10/32=0.3 mol The number of moles are highest for hydrogen and lowest for oxygen, out of the given options.

Q91. Which of the following substances has giant covalent structure?

• A. Iodine crystal
• B. Solid CO2
• C. Silica✓
• D. White phosphorus

Explanation: Silica has tendency to form long chain covalent structure such as carbon so it has giant covalent structure.Diamond and graphite (forms of carbon) and silicon dioxide (silica) are examples of giant covalent structures (lattices) of atoms. All the atoms in these structures are linked to other atoms by strong covalent bonds and so they have very high melting points.

Q92. A solid melts sharply just above 100 degree centigrade. It does not conduct electricity even when molten. It has weak Vander waal's forces. What is the structure of the solid most likely to be?

• A. An atomic crystal
• B. ionic crystal
• C. a molecular crystal✓
• D. metallic

Explanation: The structure mentioned above is a molecular crystal because molecular crystals have low melting points as the one mentioned above, have weak intermolecular forces like Vander waal forces and can not conduct electricity due to unavailability of free moving charge. Ionic crystals can not be the answer because it has a lot higher melting point, same goes for metallic crystals and atomic crystals which are not held by weak forces but much stronger forces. Atomic crystals, in fact, have strong covalent bonds that hold them together.

Q93. For a given mass of gas, if the pressure is reduced to half and its temperature is doubled, then volume V will become?

• A. 4V✓
• B. 2V2
• C. V/4
• D. 8V

Explanation: According to the formula PV=nRT, The pressure becomes p/2 and the temperature becomes 2T. Therefore the increase in volume will be 4V.

Q94. What assumptions are made in the Kinetic Theory about an ideal gas? There are no forces of attraction between molecules the molecules are in a state of continuous random motion the size of the molecule is negligible

• A. I ONLY
• B. II ONLY
• C. I AND II ONLY
• D. II AND III ONLY
• E. I, II, III✓

Explanation: According to Kinetic Molecular Theory , there are no attractive forces between the molecules of a gas because the distance between them is very large. The gaseous molecules are in continuous random, zigzag motion called Brownian motion. Gaseous molecules have negligible sizes as compared to liquids and solids. As all the three statements are true hence , option E is the correct answer.

Q95. A mole of a substance contains _ particles.

• A. 6.2x1022
• B. 6.22x1022
• C. 6.02x1023✓
• D. 6.5x1022

Explanation: Answer: C One mole contains an Avogadro’s number of particles i.e. 6.02x1023

Q96. Spectrometry is used when reactants and products absorb _.

• A. Ultraviolet radiations
• B. Visible radiation
• C. Infrared radiation
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: Spectroscopy is a method of understanding molecules by measuring the interaction of light and matter. By analyzing the amount of light absorbed or emitted by a sample, we can determine the sample's components, characteristics and volume.It can absorb UV radiations, visible radiations and infrared radiations

Q97. Find the mass in grams of 1.69 mol of phosphoric acid.

• A. 165.6 g✓
• B. 157 g
• C. 148 g
• D. 138 g

Explanation: Moles = Mass / molar mass Moles x molar mass = mass in grams Molar mass of phosphoric acid H₃PO₄ = 98 g / mol 1.69 mol x 98 g /mol = mass in grams Mass = 165.6 g

Q98. Natural gas in homes burns in excess of oxygen, what is the limiting reactant in this case?

• A. Oxygen
• B. Natural gas✓
• C. Air
• D. There is no limiting reactant

Explanation: Natural gas is obviously the limiting reactant when the gas is burning in excess of oxygen.

Q99. The atomic mass, molecular mass, ionic mass or formula mass of a substance expressed in grams is called:

• A. Mole of a substance✓
• B. Weight of substance
• C. Mass of substance
• D. Molar mass of substance

Explanation: The atomic mass, molecular mass, ionic mass or formula mass of a substance expressed in grams is called mole of substance. Mole of the substance is expressed in grams. Molar mass is exrpressed in grams per mole.

Q100. Nitrogen and phosphorus have 3 of their valence electrons unpaired because of:

• A. Auf bau principle
• B. Heisenberg's principle
• C. Hund’s rule✓
• D. Planck’s statement
• E. None of these

Explanation: Hund's rule states that every orbital in a subshell is singly occupied with one electron before any one orbital is doubly occupied, and all electrons in singly occupied orbitals have the same spin.

Q101. The atomic number Z of an atom represents the:

• A. Number of protons✓
• B. Number of electrons and protons
• C. Number of neutrons
• D. Sum of protons and neutrons

Explanation: The atomic number (Z) of an element is the number of protons in the nucleus of each atom of that element.Together, the number of protons and the number of neutrons determine an element's mass number:mass number = protons + neutrons.

Q102. The Neutron was discovered by:

• A. Goldstein
• B. Rutherford
• C. J.J Thomson
• D. Chadwick✓

Explanation: Thomson discovered electrons in 1897, Chadwick discovered neutrons in 1932 and Goldstein discovered canal ray in 1886.

Q103. J.J Thomson determined the:

• A. Charge of an electron
• B. Mass of an electron
• C. e/m value of an electron✓
• D. Charge of a proton
• E. Mass of a proton

Explanation: Thomson was able to deflect the cathode ray towards a positively charged plate deduce that the particles in the beam were negatively charged. Then Thomson measured how much various strengths of magnetic fields bent the particles. Using this information Thomson determined the mass to charge ratio of an electron.All other options are incorrect because those were not discovered by j.j thomson.

Q104. The number of electrons present in n=2 , l = 1 and m = 1, 0, -1 are:

• A. 2
• B. 6✓
• C. 8
• D. 10
• E. 18

Explanation: l=1 refers to the p subshell, which can accommodate a maximum number of 6 electrons.

Q105. The radius of the third Bohr orbit is:

• A. 0.529 Å
• B. 0.529 / 4 Å
• C. 0.529 x 2 Å
• D. 0.529 x 32 Å✓

Explanation: Radius of the 3rd Bohr Orbit, r = 0.529n2 Å = 0.529×32 Å

Q106. The Unit cell with crystallographic dimensions a = b ≠ c , α = β = γ = 90 degrees is:

• A. Cubic
• B. Tetragonal✓
• C. Monoclinic
• D. Hexagonal

Explanation: a = b ≠ c , α = β = γ = 90 degrees is for tetragonal crystallographic structures.

Q107. What is the temperature at which the volume of gas is said to be zero?

• A. 0°C
• B. 4°C
• C. -273.16˚C✓
• D. -173.16 ˚C

Explanation: This point, with a temperature of –273.15 ˚C, is the theoretical point where the samples would have “zero volume”. This temperature, -273.15 ˚C, is called absolute zero.

Q108. Matter changes from one state to another state on change in _.

• A. Density
• B. Pressure✓
• C. Viscosity
• D. All

Explanation: Matter changes from one state to another by change in temperature and pressure. For e.g. solids on heating changes to liquid, liquid on further heating changes to gases. In same manner gases on compression means on applying pressure changes to liquid again.

Q109. 1 liter of a gas weighs 2 g at 300 K and 1 atm pressure. If the pressure is made 0.75 atm, at which of the following temperatures will 1 L of the same gas weigh 1 g?

• A. 450 K✓
• B. 800 K
• C. 600 K
• D. 900 K

Explanation: So we know that, P₁V₁ / P₂V₂ = W₁T₁ / W₂T₂ Substituting in the above formula we get, => 1 × 1 / 0.75 × 1 = 2 × 300 / 1 × T₂ => 1 / 0.75 = 600 / T₂ Cross Multiplying we get, => T₂ × 1 = 600 × 0.75 => T₂ = 450 K

Q110. Which of the following pairs of gases have same rate of diffusion:

• A. CO2 and N2O✓
• B. CO2 and CO
• C. NO2 and CO2
• D. CO2 and N2O4

Explanation: According to Graham's Law , rate of diffusion or effusion is inversely proportional to square root of molar mass. As both CO2 and N2O have the same mass (44). So, they have a similar rate of diffusion

Q111. The RMS speed at NTP of a gas can be calculated from the expression:

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D
• E. Option A, B and C✓
• F. Option D, B, and C

Explanation: Correct option is E

Q112. When electricity is passed through water in the presence of an acid, oxygen and _ is produced.

• A. Carbon
• B. CO
• C. CO2
• D. Hydrogen✓

Explanation: When electric current is passed through water, water dissociates into hydrogen and oxygen. Hydrogen is deposited over negative pole and oxygen is deposited over positive pole. Deposition of hydrogen and oxygen at different poles is visible in the form of bubbles.

Q113. In electrochemical series, elements are arranged in order of their standard electrode potentials, the correct decreasing reactivity order for metals is:

• A. Gold, silver, magnesium, aluminum
• B. Mercury, calcium, sodium, magnesium
• C. Sodium, aluminum, lead, copper✓
• D. Potassium, silver, magnesium, aluminum

Explanation: In order to learn reactivity we have to memorize the electrochemical series.

Q114. The ground state of an atom corresponds to a state of :

• A. Maximum energy
• B. Minimum energy✓
• C. Negative energy
• D. Positive energy

Explanation: The nucleus of an atom is surrounded by electrons that occupy shells, or orbitals of varying energy levels. The ground state of an electron, the energy level it normally occupies, is the state of lowest energy for that electron.

Q115. Shape of the orbital occupied by an electron is defined by:

• A. Principal quantum number
• B. Azimuthal quantum number✓
• C. Spin quantum number
• D. Magnetic quantum number

Explanation: The shape of the orbital can be s,p,d, or f. This shape is determined by the azimuthal quantum number.The spin quantum number tells us about the type of spin electron possessed in an orbital. The principal quantum number tells us about the no.of the shell, not the shape of the orbital.

Q116. The oxidation state of “S’ in the (S2O3)-2 is:

• A. +4
• B. +6
• C. -2
• D. +2✓

Explanation: Let the Oxidation number of Sulfur in S2O32- be x. Thus; 2x+(-2 x 3)= -2 2x - 6= -2 2x= -2+6 2x=4 x=4\2 x=2 So, the oxidation state of sulfur is +2

Q117. The common oxidation number of halogens is:

• A. -1✓
• B. +1
• C. -2
• D. 0

Explanation: The most common oxidation state of halogens is -1. Halogens are the most electronegative elements of the periodic table. Their outer electron configuration is ns2, np5. If chlorine, for example, gains one more electron, the outer p orbitals are completely filled (resulting in a full octet). Since halogens are electronegative, they can easily remove an electron from nearby atoms to add into their own valence p orbital achieving a full octet.

Q118. During oxidation process, oxidation number of an element:

• A. Decreases
• B. Increases✓
• C. Remains constant
• D. Both decreases and increases

Explanation: A loss of negatively-charged electrons corresponds to an increase in oxidation number, while a gain of electrons corresponds to a decrease in oxidation number. Therefore, the element or ion that is oxidized undergoes an increase in oxidation number.

Q119. The relationship between quantum number n and l is:

• A. n = l - 1
• B. l = n - 2
• C. l = n - 1✓
• D. n = l - 2

Explanation: The principal quantum number, n, describes the energy of an electron and the most probable distance of the electron from the nucleus. In other words, it refers to the size of the orbital and the energy level the electron placed in it. The number of subshells or I describes the shape of the orbital.

Q120. Quantum number values for ‘2p’ orbitals are:

• A. n=2, l=1✓
• B. n=1, l=2
• C. n=1, l=0
• D. n=2, l=0

Explanation: n(principal quantum number)= 2 because it is in second shell. l(azimuthal quantum number)=1 because l is fixed for subshells like for s it is 0,for p it is 1,for d it is 2 and for f it is 3. m(magnetic quantum number)= +1 to -1 as there are 3 orbitals in p sub shell.

Q121. Transfer of heat from hot surroundings to a cold refrigerator is an example of:

• A. Spontaneous reaction✓
• B. Non-Spontaneous reaction
• C. First law of thermodynamics
• D. All of the above options are correct

Explanation: Spontaneous heat transfer from hot to cold is also known as the second law of thermodynamics. The second law of thermodynamics states that the total entropy of an isolated system (the thermal energy per unit temperature that is unavailable for doing useful work) can never decrease.A spontaneous reaction is a reaction that favors the formation of products at the conditions under which the reaction is occurring. A bonfire is an example of a spontaneous reaction, since it is exothermic (there is a decrease in the energy of the system as energy is released to the surroundings as heat).

Q122. Which of the following are the fundamental ways of transferring energy?

• A. Pressure and work
• B. Volume and pressure
• C. Heat and work✓
• D. Pressure and heat

Explanation: Correct answer is 'Heat and work'.

Q123. Heat evolved or absorbed in a chemical reaction does not depend upon?

• A. Amount of reactants
• B. Pressure of reaction✓
• C. Physical state of reactants and products
• D. Temperature

Explanation: The statement "the heat evolved or absorbed in a chemical reaction is independent of the pressure of the reaction" is related to the concept of enthalpy (H), which represents the heat content of a system. Enthalpy is a state function, meaning that its value depends only on the initial and final states of the system, regardless of the pathway taken. Under constant pressure conditions, the change in enthalpy of a reaction denoted as ΔH, represents the heat evolved or absorbed during the reaction. This change in enthalpy is typically determined experimentally using calorimetry. According to the principle of conservation of energy, the heat evolved or absorbed in a reaction is independent of the pressure of the reaction, as long as the temperature and composition of the reactants and products remain the same. This is because the change in enthalpy (ΔH) is a property of the system and is not affected by external pressure changes.

Q124. If the difference between electronegativity values between two atoms is less than 1.7 , the bond is necessarily:

• A. Ionic
• B. Covalent✓
• C. Electrovalent
• D. Polar
• E. Non - polar

Explanation: If the electronegative difference is >1.7 then its nature is ionic and <1.7 then its nature is covalent and if its equal to 1.7 then nature of bond will be 50% ionic and 50% covalent.

Q125. How will the equilibrium of the following reaction be affected if additional nitrogen is added? N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)

• A. It will be shifted to the right.✓
• B. It will be shifted to the left.
• C. it will be unaffected.
• D. The effect on the equilibrium cannot be determined without more information.
• E. More NH3 will be produced.

Explanation: If N2 is added the equilibrium will be shifted to the right side as N2 is the reactant. According to Le Chatelier, increasing the concentration of the reactants favor the forward reaction.

Q126. Common Ion effect is a useful application in?

• A. Qualitative salt analysis✓
• B. Quantitative salt analysis
• C. None of the above
• D. Both A and B

Explanation: The common ion effect is an effect that suppresses the ionisation of an electrolyte when another electrolyte (which contains an ion which is also present in the first electrolyte, i.e. a common ion) is added. It is considered to be a consequence of Le Chatelier's principle (or the Equilibrium Law).Qualitative analysis of a salt Analysis is a chemical technique used to identify the ions present in a salt by analysing its physical and chemical properties and hence determine the identity of the salt. It determines only the presence or absence of a particular ion in a given salt. Common ion effect is a practical application of qualitative salt analysis in chemistry.

Q127. A correct formula must:

• A. Be balanced with proper coefficients
• B. Always have subscripts
• C. Always conform to the valency rules
• D. Always conforms to the law of multiple proportions✓

Explanation: A correct formula must follow the law of multiple proportions(OPTION D) i.e that when two elements combine with each other to form more than one compound, the weights of one element that combine with a fixed weight of the other are in a ratio of small whole numbers. Option A is wrong because formulas do not have coefficients. Option B is wrong because not all formulas have subscripts. Option C is also wrong because sometimes there are certain formulas made exclusive of valency rules.

Q128. For a reaction given below C(s) + O2 (g) -> CO2 (g) + 394 kJ / mol The enthalpy of reaction is

• A. 394 kJ / mol
• B. -394 kJ / mol✓
• C. 197 kJ / mol
• D. -197 kJ / mol

Explanation: Formation of Carbon dioxide from Carbon and Oxygen is an exothermic reaction. Almost 394kJ of heat is produced or given off.From the equation it is seen that since it is an exothermic reaction-1 mole of CO2 releases 394kJ of heat and when energy is released enthalpy change is negative.(Please note that the"+394" in the question is NOT enthalpy change. It is simply the energy released with the reaction. The question requires us to determine the enthalpy change based on this information).

Q129. Molar heat of vaporization is the amount of heat required to convert one mole of:

• A. A liquid into its vapours at its boiling point✓
• B. Liquids into its vapours
• C. Solids into vapours
• D. Solid into liquid at its melting point

Explanation: Molar heat of vapourization refers to the conversion of one mole of a liquid to its vapors at a constant temperature, which is the boiling point of the liquid. That is why option A is correct. Option B is partially correct because vaporization refers to the conversion of a liquid to gas, however, at a constant temperature. Options C and D are incorrect because vaporization does not involve the conversion of solids to liquids.

Q130. Some substances lack definite heats of fusion. These substances are:

• A. Isomorphs
• B. Polymorphs
• C. Amorphous solids✓
• D. Crystalline solids

Explanation: 'Amorphous solids' do not possess any particular heat of fusion thus Option C is correct. 'Crystalline solids' consist of atoms, ions, and molecules arranged in a definite and repeating three-dimensional pattern with definite heat of fusion. 'Isomorphs' are substances with different chemical compositions, exhibiting the same structure. 'Polymorphs' are multiple 3D structural forms of a substance.

Q131. Starting point of Kelvin scale is:

• A. 0 K✓
• B. -400 K
• C. -210 K
• D. -273.15 K

Explanation: A change of one kelvin is the same amount of temperature change as one degree Celsius, but the Kelvin scale is “absolute” in the sense that it starts at absolute zero, or what Kelvin and other scientists called “infinite cold.” (0 K = -273.15 degrees C = -459.67 degrees F.)

Q132. When two moles of H2 and one mole of O2 react to form H2O, -484 KJ heat is evolved. What is Δ Hf for one mole of H2O?

• A. -484 KJmol-1
• B. -242 KJmol-1✓
• C. -121 KJmol-1
• D. +242 KJmol-1

Explanation: To determine the enthalpy change of formation (ΔHf) for one mole of H2O, we can use the given information about the heat evolved in the reaction.The balanced equation for the reaction is:2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(g)According to the given information, when two moles of H2 and one mole of O2 react, 484 kJ of heat is evolved. This heat change represents the enthalpy change of the reaction.Since two moles of H2O are formed in the reaction, we need to find the enthalpy change for one mole of H2O. To do that, we divide the heat evolved by the stoichiometric coefficient of H2O:ΔHf (H2O) = (484 kJ) / 2ΔHf (H2O) = 242 kJTherefore, the enthalpy change of formation for one mole of H2O is 242 kJ.Firstly, since heat is evolved, the formation of water is an exothermic reaction and so the sign of enthalpy change will be negative. Secondly, enthalpy of formation is the change in enthalpy when one mole of a substance is formed from its constituent elements under standard conditions.When 2 moles of H2 and 1 mole of O2 react, 2 moles of H2O will be formed:2H2 + O2 —------------------------> 2H2O ΔH=-484 kJ/mol (given)Now, for the formation of one mole of H2O, we can simply divide the entire equation by 2:H2 + ½ O2 —-----------------------> H20 ΔH= -242 kJ/molSo, the enthalpy change of formation is –242 kJ/mol, which corresponds to option B, hence that is the correct answer.

Q133. Anything under test or observation in laboratory is called

• A. Surrounding
• B. System✓
• C. Confined space
• D. None of these

Explanation: A system is the set of substances and energy that is being studied. If, for example, reactions are occurring in a jar, everything inside the jar is the system, and everything outside the jar is the surroundings. The surroundings are everything not in the system, which means the rest of the universe.

Q134. Through what phenomenons does heat flow?

• A. Conduction
• B. Convection
• C. Radiation
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: Heat always flows from a region of higher temperature to a region of lower temperature. It flows by conduction, convection, and radiation. Often we are interested in regulating the rate at which the thermal energy is transferred.

Q135. Lattice Energy of ionic compounds are found by

• A. Hess' law
• B. Born Habers Cycle✓
• C. Law of Mass action
• D. Law of conservation of mass

Explanation: Hess’ Law states that the total energy change that takes place for a reaction is always the same, regardless of how many intermediate steps are involved. The Born-Haber cycle uses this concept to find out the lattice energy for an ionic compound.

Q136. Which enthalpy change is relevant in the following process Na(s) -> Na (g) ΔH = +107

• A. Enthalpy of atomization✓
• B. Enthalpy of fusion
• C. Enthalpy of vaporization
• D. Enthalpy of formation

Explanation: Option A, enthalpy of atomization, is the energy required to completely separate all the atoms in a chemical substance. The separated atoms are in a gaseous state and get separated from the corresponding substance in its standard state. Sodium is solid in its standard state, and after atomization, the atoms are in their gaseous state. Hence, this is the correct answer. Option B is the enthalpy change when a solid substance melts into a liquid. Here, the state change is from a solid to a gas, no liquid state involved.Option C is the enthalpy change when a liquid is vaporized into a gas. Here, a solid is atomized to its gaseous state so, vaporization does not apply here.Option D is the enthalpy change when one mole of a substance is formed from its constituent elements. This does not describe the given reaction.

Q137. The given diagram shows the enthalpy changes during a chemical reaction.

• A. An endothermic reaction
• B. An exothermic reaction✓
• C. An isothermic process
• D. A non-spontaneous process

Explanation: This diagram shows a reaction in which the reactants are at a greater energy level than the products, indicating that energy is released during the reaction, i.e. change in enthalpy or (H2-H1) would be negative, indicating that it is an exothermic reaction so, option B is correct. Option A describes an endothermic reaction which would have a diagram depicting products, at a higher energy level than the reactants. Option C indicates a process in which the heat energy of the system does not change, but the diagram itself shows a change in enthalpy. Option D cannot be determined from a mere energy diagram as shown.

Q138. When N2+ is form N2 bond-order ......... and when O2+ is formed from O2 bond-order.

• A. Increases increases
• B. Decreases decreases
• C. Increases decreases
• D. Decrease increase✓

Explanation: Molecular orbital configuration of N2 is 1s2 2s2 2p3 molecular orbital configuration of O2 is 1s2 2s2 2p4. when n2+ is formed from n2 electron is removed from sigma- bonding and hence boiling point decreases while o2+ is formed from o2, electron is removed from pie bonding and boiling point increases.

Q139. A solution of 500 ml of 0.2 KOH and 500ml of 0.2M HCl is mixed and stirred; the rise in temperature is T1. The experiment is repeated using 250ml of each of the solution: the temperature rise is T2. Which of the following is true?

• A. T1 = T2✓
• B. T1 = 2T2
• C. T1 = 4T2
• D. T2 = 9T1

Explanation: The reaction involved here is: KOH+ HCL= KCL + H20For finding moles the equation used will be: NO. of mole= molarity x volume.NO. of mole= 0.2 x 500 = 100As in the question, CV is not given we eliminate the term and rewrite the equation as; Q=nΔTFor Q1, Q1=nΔT=100×T1=100T1Molarity of the solution is 0.2M and the volume of the solution is 250ml.No. of moles = 0.2×250 = 50ForQ2,Q2 =nΔT=50×T2=50T2From the equations obtained we can say that the Q1 = 2Q2100T1 = 2 × 50T2100T1 = 100T2T1=T2

Q140. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the Newton's third law of motion?

• A. To every action there is always an equal and opposite reaction
• B. Action and reaction act on the same body✓
• C. There is no cause-effect relation action and reaction
• D. Action and reaction forces are simultaneous forces

Explanation: Action and reaction act on the same body is not true regarding Newton's third law of motion. Action and reaction pairs always act on different bodies. Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Q141. A mass has constant acceleration, what is true about the force applied on it?

• A. Constantly increasing
• B. Constant but not zero✓
• C. Is directly proportional to square of displacement
• D. Is directly proportional to velocity

Explanation: According to F=ma, acceleration and force are both directly proportional to each other. If acceleration is constant then the force applied on the object will also be constant.

Q142. Third law of Newton is also called:

• A. Law of Inertia
• B. Equilibrium
• C. Law of action and reaction✓
• D. None

Explanation: Newton's third law states that when two bodies interact, they apply forces to one another that are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction. The third law is also known as the law of action and reaction.

Q143. A car starts from rest and moves with a constant acceleration. During the 5th second of its motion, it covers a distance of 36 meters. What is the acceleration of the car?

• A. 12.5 m/s2
• B. 8 m/s2✓
• C. 15 m/s2
• D. 16 m/s2
• E. 14 m/s2

Explanation: since s = 1/2 at2, then during 4 <=t <=5 (the 5th second)36 = 1/2 a 52 - 1/2 a 42 = 9/2 aa = 8

Q144. A block with a mass of 0.1 kg is attached to a spring and placed on a horizontal frictionless table. The spring is stretched 20 cm when a force of 5 N is applied, the spring constant is:

• A. 50 Nm-1
• B. 25 Nm-1✓
• C. 75 Nm-1
• D. 100 Nm-1
• E. 125 Nm-1

Explanation: The extension of spring is 20cm which is 0.2mF=ke5=k(0.2)k=25Nm-1

Q145. Magnetic force on a moving charge depends upon:

• A. Magnetic field and charge only
• B. Magnetic field and speed of the charge only
• C. Charge and speed of the charge only
• D. Magnetic field, charge and speed of the charge✓

Explanation: The magnitude of the magnetic force between them depends on how much charge is in how much velocity in each of the two objects and magnetic field.

Q146. Transformer works on the principle of:

• A. Self induction
• B. Mutual magnetic induction✓
• C. Electrostatics
• D. Mutual charging

Explanation: The transformer works based on the mutual induction principle between two coils. When a voltage is applied to the primary winding, a current passes through it and sets up a magnetic flux in the core. This flux induces an emf in the primary coil which must be exactly equal and opposite to applied voltage.

Q147. If modulated signal frequency is represented by fm, carrier frequency by fc, fmin and fmax represent minimum and maximum values respectively, then the lower sideband refers to the range:

• A. fc - fmax to fc - fmin✓
• B. fc + fmin to fc + fmax
• C. fc - fm
• D. fm - fc

Explanation: Lower sidebands (LSB) range from fc-fmax to fc-fmin.

Q148. How many types of modulations are possible with sinusoidal carrier?

• A. Only one
• B. Two
• C. Three✓
• D. Four

Explanation: The carrier signal is a sine wave at the carrier frequency. The sine wave has three characteristics that can be altered. The term that may be varied is the carrier voltage Ec, the carrier frequency FC, and the carrier phase angle θ. So three forms of modulations are possible.

Q149. The range of wavelengths for visible light is between _.

• A. 4.6 x 107 to 7.8 x 10 -7 m
• B. 4.0 x 10 -7 to 7.6 x 10 -7 m✓
• C. 4.0 x 10 -6 to 7.6 x 10 -6 m
• D. 4.0 x 10 -8 to 7.6 x 10 -8 m

Explanation: The range of visible light is from 400nm to 760nm. Conversion of 400nm to meters will be 400x10-9=4x10-7. Conversion of 760 nm to meters will be 760x10-9=7.6x10-7.Hence the answer is B.

Q150. A stone dropped from the roof of a building takes 4 s to reach the ground. The height of the building is:

• A. 9.8 m
• B. 19.6 m
• C. 39.2 m
• D. 78.4 m✓

Explanation: Alternatively, we can also use the 2nd equation of motion: s = ut + 1/2at2 = (0)(4) + (1/2)(9.8)(4)(4) = 78.4m So, the height of the building is 78.4 m.

Q151. The range Of the projectile depends upon the velocity of the projection and the angle of the projection i.e 45. For a fixed velocity, when the angle of projection is larger than 45. Which of the following is correct?

• A. The height attained by the projectile will be more but the range is less✓
• B. Both the height and the range attained by the projectile will be more.
• C. The height attained by the projectile will be less but the range is more.
• D. Both the height and the range attained by the projectile will be less.

Explanation: In the formula for range, it is maximum when the value of sin(2θ) is maximum. This value occurs when 2θ is equal to 90 therefore θ = 45. Beyond θ = 45, the Range decreases. The height increases beyond θ = 45 because it is calculated using Sin(θ).

Q152. For projectile motion, in the absence of air resistance:

• A. Horizontal acceleration is zero✓
• B. Vertical acceleration is zero
• C. Horizontal force is constant
• D. Vertical speed is constant

Explanation: Air resistance acts on horizontal component, mainly. In the absence of air resistance, there will be no horizontal acceleration. Vertical acceleration is due to gravity, hence options B and D are wrong. In the absence of air resistance, no horizontal force will be applied and thus, option C is wrong.

Q153. Which of the given motion is a type of 2D motion?

• A. Circular
• B. Pendulum motion
• C. Projectile motion
• D. All of these✓

Explanation: Correct option is D All these are examples of 2D motion. Two-dimensional (2D) motion means motion that takes place in two different directions or axis (or coordinates) at the same time.

Q154. A stone is thrown from a bridge at an angle of 30o with the horizontal in the downward direction with a speed of 25m/s. If the stone strikes the water after 2.5 sec, then calculate the height of the bridge from the water surface (g=9.8m/s2)

• A. 61.9 m✓
• B. 35 m
• C. 70 m
• D. None

Explanation: Correct option is A The correct solution is given as: As this is numerical thus it can only have one answer.

Q155. Which of the following is the angle of projection of a projectile if its range is equal to its height?

• A. 48
• B. 60
• C. 90
• D. 76✓

Explanation: This value should be learned for the exam because of the unavailability of calculators during the exam. There is a neat formula for the ratio of height to range: h/r=tanθ/4 So whatever angle has a tangent of 4, that’s the angle that sets the ratio of height to range equal to exactly 1. tan−1(4)=75.96°

Q156. Damping is the process whereby _ is _ from the oscillating system.

• A. Energy ; dissipated✓
• B. Energy ; generated
• C. Energy ; conserved
• D. Energy ; stored

Explanation: In undamped motion, energy remains constant since there is no work done against the damping force. In damped oscillatory motion, there is work done against the damping force (friction) , hence, the overall energy is dissipated.

Q157. When frequency of applied periodic Force is equal to the natural frequency of harmonic oscillator then the _ of oscillator _.

• A. amplitude : decreases
• B. Amplitude : increases✓
• C. Frequency : increases
• D. Frequency : decreases

Explanation: This question refers to the phenomenon of resonance. During resonance, the amplitude keeps on increasing after every subsequent oscillation, provided the system is undamped.

Q158. In S.H.M the K.E. at the equilibrium position is:

• A. Zero as the acceleration is zero
• B. Minimum as the instantaneous displacement is zero
• C. Minimum as the instantaneous displacement is zero
• D. Maximum as the velocity is maximum✓

Explanation: The correct option is Maximum because the velocity of the particle is maximum at the equilibrium position. The velocity is proportional to the square root of the kinetic energy, so the kinetic energy is also maximum at this point.

Q159. Maximum acceleration with zero velocity is possible only for:

• A. Non inertial frame of reference
• B. Rotational motion
• C. Simple Harmonic Motion✓
• D. Random Motion

Explanation: In SHM, when the pendulum is at the extreme displacement points, the acceleration is maximum meanwhile velocity is zero. Both the quantities are then inversely related as the pendulum moves toward the mean displacement position where velocity is maximum and acceleration is zero.

Q160. A particle is projected from the ground with a kinetic energy E at an angle of 60 degree with the horizontal. Its kinetic energy at the highest point of its motion will be:

• A. E
• B. E/2
• C. E/4✓
• D. E/8

Explanation: At the highest point of its motion, the projectile will only have the horizontal component of its initial velocity. The vertical component will be zero. Therefore, the kinetic energy at this point will be equal to the kinetic energy associated with the horizontal component of its initial velocity.The horizontal component of the initial velocity can be found as:v₀x = v₀ cos θwhere v₀ is the initial velocity magnitude, and θ is the angle with the horizontal.Therefore, the kinetic energy at the highest point can be found as:E° = (1/2) m v₀x² = (1/2) m (v₀ cos θ)² = (1/2) m v₀² cos² θSince θ = 60°, we have:E° = (1/2) m v₀² (1/4) = (1/4) EThus, the kinetic energy at the highest point is E/4.

Q161. The total energy of a block, executing simple harmonic motion is:

• A. Independent of ‘x’✓
• B. Proportional to ‘x’
• C. Proportional to ‘x2’
• D. Proportional to ‘x-2’
• E. Proportional to '√x'

Explanation: The explanation is given below:

Q162. For a stiff spring, the value of spring constant is:

• A. Higher✓
• B. Lower
• C. Intermediate
• D. Zero

Explanation: According to Hooke's law, the force F required to extend or compress a spring by some distance x is directly proportional to that distance, with the constant of proportionality being the spring constant k. Mathematically, we can write: F = kx From this equation, we can see that if the force required to extend or compress the spring is high for a given distance, then the value of k must also be high. Therefore, for a stiff spring, the spring constant is higher.

Q163. If a pendulum is oscillating with a frequency f then what is the frequency at which it’s K.E. changes?

• A. 2f✓
• B. f/2
• C. F
• D. None of these

Explanation: In a simple pendulum, the potential energy is maximum when the displacement is maximum, and the kinetic energy is maximum when the velocity is maximum. At the mean position, the displacement is zero, and the velocity is maximum. Thus, the kinetic energy is maximum at the mean position. The pendulum passes through the mean position twice in each complete oscillation cycle, once while moving from left to right and once while moving from right to left. Therefore, the frequency at which the kinetic energy changes is twice the frequency of oscillation, which is given by 2f.

Q164. Two bodies are projected at an angle of ɑ and (90 - θ) to the horizontal with the same speed. The ratio between their time of flight is:

• A. Cos θ : 1
• B. Sin θ : 1
• C. Sin θ : cos θ✓
• D. Cos θ : sin θ
• E. Sin θ : tan θ

Explanation: Let the initial velocity be u and the angle of projection be θ. The time of flight for a body projected at an angle θ with the horizontal is given by: T = 2usinθ/g For the first body projected at an angle θ, the time of flight is: T1 = 2usinθ/g For the second body projected at an angle (90-θ), the time of flight is: T2 = 2ucosθ/g [ As sin(90-θ)= cosθ ] Taking the ratio of T1 and T2, we get: T1/T2 = (2usinθ/g) / (2ucosθ/g) T1/T2 = sinθ/cosθ Therefore, the ratio of time of flight for the two bodies is sinθ: cosθ.

Q165. A force F = 0.12 N is applied on a spring and the spring elongates by 3 cm. The specific constant of the spring is?

• A. 0.4 Nm-2
• B. 40 Nm-1
• C. 400 Nm-1
• D. 4 Nm-1✓

Explanation: k=F/e k=0.12/(3x10-2) k=4 Nm-1

Q166. The force applied on unit area to produce any change in the volume or length of a body is called:

• A. Strain
• B. Stress✓
• C. Elasticity
• D. Equilibrium

Explanation: When the force applied produces a change in length or volume of the object then is it called stress, otherwise the term strain is used.

Q167. The oscillating object overshoots the rest position due to:

• A. Restoring force
• B. Inertia✓
• C. Gravitational potential energy
• D. Elastic potential energy

Explanation: To get oscillations, a body is pulled away from its resting or equilibrium position and then released. The body oscillates due to a restoring force. Under the action of this restoring force, the body accelerates and overshoots the rest position due to inertia.

Q168. In case of harmonic oscillator total energy remains

• A. variable
• B. infinity
• C. constant✓
• D. zero

Explanation: During the oscillations, the total energy is constant and equal to the sum of the potential energy and the kinetic energy of the system, ETotal=12kx2+12mv2=12kA2. Hence total energy of the particle performing SHM is conserved.

Q169. An electric rod of 2000 watts rating boils a certain quantity of water in 10 minutes, the heat which generated for boiling this water is:

• A. 8 x 10^4 Joules
• B. 12 x 10^5 Joules✓
• C. 19 x 10^5 Joules
• D. 23 x 10^5 Joules
• E. 37 x 10^5 Joules

Explanation: Energy=Power x time Energy=2000 x 10 x 60 Energy=12 x 10^5 J

Q170. A sphere of charge +Q is fixed in a position. A smaller sphere of +q is placed near the larger sphere and released from the rest. The small sphere will move away from the large sphere with?

• A. Decreasing velocity and decreasing acceleration
• B. Decreasing velocity and increasing acceleration
• C. Decreasing velocity and constant acceleration
• D. Increasing velocity and decreasing acceleration✓
• E. Increasing velocity and increasing acceleration

Explanation: Since both the charges have the same charges they have the force of repulsion, so they move away from one another. Because the force is acting on them it does provide acceleration, causing the velocity to increase. But since the distance between the two charges is increasing the magnitude of the force acting on both of the objects decreases, causing the acceleration to decrease.

Q171. A 10 nanofarad (10 x 10-9 F) parallel plate capacitor holds a charge of magnitude 50 µC on each plate.If the plates are separated by a distance of 0.885mm, what is the area of each plate?

• A. 1.0 m2✓
• B. 3.0 m2
• C. 5.5 m2
• D. 7.5 m2

Explanation: C = 10 x 10^-9 q=50 x10^-6 d= 0.885 × 10^-3 C = eA / d A= 10 X 10^-9 x 0.885 x10^-3 / 8.85 x 10^-12 A= 8.85 / 8.85 A = 1 m^2

Q172. If a dielectric material is placed between two plates of a capacitor, the net capacitance of the capacitor:

• A. Decreases
• B. Increases✓
• C. Remains constant
• D. Zero

Explanation: ○The strength of the electric field is reduced due to the presence of dielectric. If the total charge on the plates is kept constant, then the potential difference is reduced across the capacitor plates. In this way, dielectric increases the capacitance of the capacitor. So, option A,C,D is wrong .

Q173. Two capacitors C1 ( 12 uf ) and C2 (24 uf) are in series connected across a 360 volts d.c. supply. Calculate the charges on C1 and C2 respectively.

• A. 2880 x 10-6 C , 2880 x 10-6✓
• B. 4770 x 10-6 C, 4770 x 10-6
• C. 5810 x 10-6 , 6610 x 10-6
• D. 7170 x 10-6 , 8140 x 10-6
• E. 9090 x 10-6 , 8880 x 10-6

Explanation: Charge throughout the circuit is the same so either the answer is A or B,as only these options have the same charge throughout. Q=CV Capacitance in series can be calculated as: 1/C=1/C1 + 1/C2 1/C=1/12 + 1/24 1/C=2+1/24 1/C=⅛ C=8 microfarads. ->Q=CV Q=(8x10^-6)(360) Q=2880x0^-6 C

Q174. Which one of the following properties is not exhibited by the longitudinal waves?

• A. Interference
• B. Reflection
• C. Diffraction
• D. Polarization✓

Explanation: Longitudinal waves can’t undergo polarization. Polarization is the property exhibited by transverse waves only. Longitudinal waves however can undergo interference, reflection, and diffraction.

Q175. The speed of sound in air is 332 m/s. The speed of sound at 22 degrees centigrade will be:

• A. 345.2 m/s✓
• B. 340 m/s
• C. 350 m/s
• D. 330 m/s

Explanation: Use the shortcut formula: Vx = Vs + 0.61( T)Vx= 332+ 0.61 (22)Vx= 345.2

Q176. Astronomers calculate speed of distant stars and galaxies using which of the following phenomena:

• A. Beats
• B. Interference
• C. Superposition principle
• D. Doppler effect✓

Explanation: Astronomers can measure the rotation speed in spiral galaxies by obtaining spectra of either stars or gas, and looking for wavelength shifts produced by the Doppler effect. Remember that the faster something is moving toward or away from us, the greater the shift of the lines in its spectrum.

Q177. In a ripple tank, 40 waves pass through a certain point in 1 second. If the wavelength of the wave is 5 cm, then speed of the wave is:

• A. 0.5 ms-1
• B. 1 ms-1
• C. 1.5 ms-1
• D. 2 ms-1✓

Explanation: Use the formula “v=fλ” As it is known that 40 waves pass through the point in 1 second so frequency is 40.Wavelength is 5cm which can be converted to 0.05m as all options are having units in ms-1(metres per second). v=(0.05)(40)v=2ms-1

Q178. The SI unit for intensity of sound is:

• A. Joule per second
• B. watt per metre square✓
• C. watt metre square
• D. joule per metre square
• E. joule metre

Explanation: Intensity is defined as sound power per unit area :I = power / area

Q179. A traveling wave, in which the particles of the disturbed medium move perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave is called:

• A. Transverse wave✓
• B. Longitudinal wave
• C. Standing wave
• D. shock wave

Explanation: Longitudinal waves are those waves in which particles of the disturbed medium move parallel to the direction of propagation of the wave. Transverse waves are those waves in which the particles of the disturbed medium move perpendicular to the direction of progagation of the wave. A shock wave is considered to be a longitudinal wave and a standing waves are not progressive or travelling waves as they do not transfer energy.

Q180. The path difference for the constructive interference is:

• A. (n-1)λ
• B. (n+1)λ
• C. n λ / 2
• D. 2n λ
• E. n λ✓

Explanation: This solution is as follows

Q181. Two sitar strings, A and B, are playing the note 'Ga,' are slightly out of tune and produce beats of frequency 6 Hz. The tension in the string A is slightly reduced, and the beat frequency is found to reduce to 3 Hz. If the original frequency of A is 324 Hz, what is the frequency of B?

• A. 405
• B. 402
• C. 395
• D. 318✓
• E. 401

Explanation: The beat frequency is given by the difference in frequency between the two strings:f_beat = |fA - fB|We are given that the original beat frequency is 6 Hz and that when the tension in string B is reduced, the beat frequency is reduced by 3 Hz. This means that the new beat frequency is 6 - 3 = 3 Hz.Using the above equation, we can set up the following system of equations:6 = |324 - fB|3 = |324 - (fB - x)|where x is the change in frequency caused by the reduction in tension in string B.Solving the first equation for |324 - fB|, we get:|324 - fB| = 6which gives us two possible values for f_B:fB = 330 Hz or fB = 318 HzNext, we can use the second equation to determine which value of f_B is correct. Substituting in the first possible value, we get:|324 - 330| = 6 = |324 - (330 - x)|Simplifying, we get:x = 12This means that the original frequency of string B was:fB = 324 - 6 = 318 HzTherefore, the correct answer is D) 318.

Q182. A cathode ray oscilloscope is displaying an AC signal. If one wave is completed in 2 cm along X- axis and time-base setting is 10 ms/cm, then frequency of AC signal will be:

• A. 100 Hz
• B. 50 Hz✓
• C. 20 Hz
• D. 10 Hz
• E. 200 Hz

Explanation: The distance traveled by the wave along the X-axis in one complete cycle is the wavelength, which is given as 2 cm in the problem. The time-base setting is given as 10 ms/cm, which means that one centimeter along the X-axis represents a time of 10 ms. Therefore, the time taken for one complete cycle is: Time = (2 cm) x (10 ms/cm) = 20 ms The frequency, f, is given by the formula: f = 1/T Where T is the time taken for one complete cycle. Substituting the value of T, we get: f = 1/20 ms = 50 Hz Therefore, the frequency of the AC signal is 50 Hz. The correct answer is B.

Q183. An electric bulb is rated at 220 V, 100 W. What is its resistance?

• A. 250 Ohms
• B. 350 Ohms
• C. 450 Ohms
• D. 484 Ohms✓

Explanation: The correct answer is 484 Ohms.

Q184. The fractional change in resistance per kelvin is known as:

• A. Temperature coefficient of resistance✓
• B. Thermal coefficient
• C. Linear coefficient of expansion
• D. Volumetric coefficient of expansion

Explanation: The fractional change in resistance per kelvin is called the temperature coefficient. The resistance coefficient, abbreviated as K, a dimensionless number, is how much resistance to the flow an obstacle has. The volumetric coefficient increases in volume per unit original volume per Kelvin rise in temperature is called the coefficient of volumetric expansion. The ratio increase in length original length for the 1-degree rise in temperature is called the coefficient of linear expansion

Q185. A proton is about 1840 times heavier than an electron. When it is accelerated by a potential difference of 1kV, its kinetic energy will be:

• A. 1840 keV
• B. 1/1840 keV
• C. 1keV✓
• D. 920 keV

Explanation: Kinetic Energy= eV Energy depends upon charge not mass so same for proton and electron K.E. = eV = 1 KVe = 1 keV

Q186. When a charged particle is projected perpendicularly in a magnetic field its trajectory is

• A. Hyperbola
• B. Helix
• C. Parabola
• D. Circular✓

Explanation: If a charged particle is projected perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field, then the particle revolves in a circular path and its kinetic energy remains constant since there is no work done by magnetic force. Since a circular path direction of a particle changes, momentum also changes.

Q187. How fast an H+ ion should move in magnetic field 2.5x10-3 T such that magnetic force equal its weight?

• A. 6 x 10-5 m/s
• B. 4.5 x 10-5 m/s
• C. 3.3 x 10-6 m/s
• D. 4 x 10-5 m/s✓

Explanation: According to given condition Force = Weight evB = mg v = mg/eB Putting the values, we obtain

Q188. A battery has an e.m.f of 6.0 volts and an internal resistance of 0.4 ohm. It is connected to a 2.6 ohm resistor through a SPST (single pole, single throw switch): When the switch is closed, the potential difference between the terminal Is, in volts is:

• A. 0
• B. 0.8
• C. 2.6
• D. 5.2✓
• E. 6.0

Explanation: Total current = V/R= 6/3= 2V = IR2.6 x 2 = 5.2

Q189. The amount of heat at constant volume is called as:

• A. Internal energy✓
• B. Enthalpy
• C. Entropy
• D. Temperature
• E. Pressure

Explanation: At constant volume, the heat of the reaction is equal to the change in the internal energy of the system. Meanwhile, the heat of reaction at constant PRESSURE is known as enthalpy

Q190. The temperature of a body at 100 °C is increased by Δ𝛉 as measured on the Celsius scale. How is this temperature change expressed on the Kelvin scale?

• A. Δ𝛉 + 373
• B. Δ𝛉 + 273
• C. Δ𝛉 + 100
• D. Δ𝛉✓
• E. Δ𝛉 + 212

Explanation: The change in temperature in the kelvin and Celsius scale is the same hence the answer will be D.

Q191. Kelvin, the unit of thermodynamic temperature is _ of the thermodynamic temperature of the triple point of water.

• A. 1/100
• B. 1/212
• C. 1/273.16✓
• D. 1/32
• E. 1/98

Explanation: The triple point of water is 1/273.16.This is a factual recall from the textbook.

Q192. A steel rod has a length of 15 m at a temperature of 30°C. If the temperature is raised to 45°C. The increase in its length is: (α= 1.1 x 10-5 K-1)

• A. 537.1 x 10-5 m
• B. 447.5 x 10-5 m
• C. 327.5 x 10-5 m
• D. 247.5 x 10-5 m✓
• E. 127.5 x 10-5 m

Explanation: We know that change in length ΔL=LαΔTΔT=45−30=15 , L=15m ΔL=15×α×15ΔL=15×1.1×10−5×15=247.5×10−3=247.5mm

Q193. The emission of electrons from a metal surface when exposed to light of suitable frequency is known as:

• A. Compton's effect
• B. Photoelectric effect✓
• C. Coulomb's law
• D. Faraday's law
• E. Ohm's law

Explanation: Explanation: photoelectric effect, is a phenomenon in which electrically charged particles are released from or within a material when it absorbs electromagnetic radiation. The effect is often defined as the ejection of electrons from a metal plate when light falls on it.

Q194. Complete the sequence: 2, 15, 41, 80, _

• A. 111
• B. 120
• C. 121
• D. 132✓

Explanation: Multiples of 13 are being added + 13 +26 +39 so now you'll add 52

Q195. Children go to school because:

• A. they want to learn poems.
• B. they want to be away from home.
• C. They want to look beautiful.
• D. they want to gain knowledge.✓
• E. they want to tease the teacher.

Explanation: The question is asking for the purpose of schooling.

Q196. Statements: Cats are mammals. Tigers are mammals.Conclusion: Tigers are cats.

• A. Moderate Argument
• B. Invalid Argument✓
• C. Weak Argument
• D. Strong Argument

Explanation: Cat= mammals Tigers aren’t the only mammals so it’s not certain that tigers are cats.

Q197. On the day Bilal is born,Jamila weighs more than Javed.Javed weighs less than Junaid.Of the three babies, Junaid weighs the most.If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

• A. True
• B. FALSE
• C. Uncertain✓
• D. None of these

Explanation: If junaid weighs more than javed there are two possiblities; junaid could weigh more or less than jamila hence its uncertain.

Q198. Statement:The Management of School M has decided to give free breakfast from next academic year to all the students in its primary section through its canteen even though they will not get any government grant.Courses of Action: I. The school will have to admit many poor students who will seek admission for the next academic year.II. The canteen facilities and utensils have to be checked and new purchases to be made to equip it properly.III. Funds will have to be raised to support the scheme for years to come.

• A. Only II and III follows✓
• B. Only III and I follow
• C. Only I and II follow
• D. Only I follows

Explanation: Since the school has introduced the scheme without receiving any grant, it needs to pool up the funds and make adequate arrangements to keep the scheme going. So, only II and III follow.

Q199. "Statement I: The private medical colleges have increased the tuition fees in the current year by 200 per cent over the last year's fees to meet the expenses. Statement II: The government medical colleges have not increased their fees in spite of price escalation."

• A. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
• B. Both the statements I and II are independent causes✓
• C. Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause
• D. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

Explanation: When the given two statements are logically analyzed, it is understood that both of them are independent statements and have no cause-effect relationship. Hence, B is the answer.