Fmdc 2013 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Which is not a past form of a verb?

• A. Was
• B. Had
• C. Looked
• D. Spoke
• E. Hear✓

Explanation: The answer is hear. The past form of hear is heard.

Q2. Which contains an adjective?

• A. Old man✓
• B. On Tuesday
• C. She said
• D. And you
• E. Afternoon

Explanation: An adjective is a word that tells us more about a noun, in other words, it describes a noun.

Q3. Which contains an adverb?

• A. Full house
• B. Three women
• C. Was dirty
• D. Very funny✓
• E. Early morning

Explanation: Full house: Full is an adjective here. Three women: Three is adjective, numbers, when used to modify nouns/noun phrases/pronouns, are adjectives. Was dirty: Dirty is adjective. Very funny: Very is used as an adverb. So, this is the correct answer. Early morning: Early is adjective here.

Q4. Which is not correct?

• A. In February
• B. On 5:00 o’clock✓
• C. At my house
• D. Near me
• E. On May 2

Explanation: The phrase "On 5:00 o’clock" is not correct. The correct way to express time would be "At 5:00 o’clock."

Q5. He complains _ headache.

• A. At
• B. From
• C. Of✓
• D. To

Explanation: OPTION A: Using "at" in this context is not grammatically correct. "At" is not the appropriate preposition to use when talking about complaints or symptoms. OPTION B: Using "from" in this context is also not grammatically correct. "From" is not the correct preposition to use when expressing complaints or symptoms. OPTION C: The correct preposition to use in this sentence is "of." "He complains of a headache." When expressing a complaint or symptom, the preposition "of" is commonly used to indicate what the person is complaining about. For example, "complain of a headache," "complain of back pain," "complain of a sore throat," etc. OPTION D: Using "to" in this context is not grammatically correct. "To" is not the appropriate preposition to use when talking about complaints or symptoms.

Q6. Sharks differ from other fish in that Their skeleton are made of cartilage instead bone.

• A. Differ from
• B. Other fish
• C. Are made✓
• D. Instead

Explanation: OPTION A: Differ from: This phrase is used to highlight the contrast or distinction between two or more things. In the sentence, it shows that sharks have a difference compared to other fish. OPTION B: Other fish: Refers to the group of fish that is being compared to sharks. It is used to specify the category of fish from which sharks are distinct. OPTION C: The correct answer is: "Sharks differ from other fish in that their skeleton is made of cartilage instead of bone." Are made: This is the correct verb form to use when referring to the subject "their skeleton," which is plural. OPTION D: Instead of: This phrase is used to indicate an alternative or substitution. It shows that sharks have cartilage as their skeleton material instead of bone.

Q7. Which one of the following four options is nearest in meaning to the word in capitals? STAGNATE

• A. Active
• B. Vegetate✓
• C. Vigorous
• D. Bewilder

Explanation: OPTION A: Active: Engaged in an action or activity. OPTION B: Vegetate: No activity; dull and sluggish, stagnate. OPTION C: Vigorous: Strong, healthy, and full of energy. OPTION D: Bewilder: To perplex or confuse especially by a complexity, variety, or multitude of objects or considerations.

Q8. Which one of the following four options is nearest in meaning to the word in capitals? ASTOUND

• A. Shock✓
• B. Confer
• C. Condescend
• D. Strengthen

Explanation: Astound means shock or great surprise. OPTION A: Shock: Surprising event or experience OPTION B: Confer: To compare views or take counsel, or getting advise. OPTION C: Condescend: Show that one feels superior; be patronizing. OPTION D: Strengthen: Make or become stronger.

Q9. Which one of the following four options is nearest in meaning to the word in capitals? SCORN

• A. Cleans
• B. Mock✓
• C. Scrutinise
• D. Stifle

Explanation: Scorn means the feeling and expression of contempt or disdain for someone or something. OPTION A: Cleans: Make (something, especially the skin) thoroughly clean. OPTION B: Mock: Ease or laugh at in a scornful or contemptuous manner. OPTION C: Scrutinise: Examine or inspect closely and thoroughly. OPTION D: Stifle: Make (someone) unable to breathe properly; suffocate.

Q10. Which one of the following four options is nearest in meaning to the word in capitals?WISP

• A. Tuft✓
• B. Pack
• C. Small
• D. Spry

Explanation: Wisp means a small thin or twisted bunch, piece, or amount of something. OPTION A: Tuft: a bunch or collection of threads, grass, hair, etc. OPTION B: Pack: A group of things wrapped or tied together for easy handling or carrying. OPTION C: Small: of a size that is less than normal or usual. OPTION D: Spry: active; lively.

Q11. A student is trying to determine the type of membrane transport occurring in a cell. She finds that the molecules to be transported are very large and when transported across the membrane, no ATP is used. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of transport?

• A. Active transport
• B. Simple diffusion
• C. Facilitated diffusion✓
• D. Exocytosis

Explanation: This scenario describes facilitated diffusion, which uses a transport protein (or channel) to facilitate the movement of large, polar molecules across the non-polar, hydrophobic membrane. Facilitated diffusion, like simple diffusion, does not require energy, which explains why no ATP was consumed during this transport process.

Q12. In the course of glycolysis:

• A. NADH is reduced to 𝑁𝐴𝐷+
• B. 𝑁𝐴𝐷+ is oxidised to NADH
• C. Glucose is degraded into two molecules✓
• D. Both NADH is reduced to 𝑁𝐴𝐷+ & 𝑁𝐴𝐷+ is oxidised to NADH

Explanation: In the process of glycolysis, NAD+ is reduced to form NADH + H+. If NAD+ is not present, glycolysis will not be able to continue. During aerobic respiration, the NADH formed in glycolysis will be oxidised to reform NAD+ for use in glycolysis again.

Q13. The epiglottis is to trachea as the lower esophageal (cardiac) sphincter is to the:

• A. Stomach✓
• B. Heart
• C. Small intestine
• D. Liver

Explanation: The stomach is the organ that food enters after it passes through the esophagus. The LES is located at the junction of the esophagus and the stomach, and it helps to prevent food from entering the lungs. So, the LES is analogous to the epiglottis in that they are both valves that help to prevent food from entering the wrong place.

Q14. Starch is hydrolyzed into maltose by:

• A. Salivary amylase
• B. Maltose
• C. Pancreatic amylase
• D. Both A & C✓

Explanation: During digestion, starch is partially transformed into maltose by the pancreatic or salivary enzymes called amylases; maltase secreted by the intestine then converts maltose into glucose.

Q15. Which of the following best describes the residual volume of the lungs?

• A. The amount of air normally inhaled and exhaled with each breath.
• B. The maximum amount of air that can be forcibly inhaled and exhaled from the lungs.
• C. The volume of air that can still be forcibly exhaled following a normal exhalation .
• D. The volume of air that always remains in the lungs.✓

Explanation: This is called the residual volume. The residual volume is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after a maximal exhalation. This air cannot be expelled from the lungs, even with forceful expiration. The RV is important for maintaining the patency of the alveoli (the small air sacs that make up the lungs) even after maximal forced expiration.

Q16. The diagram shows the sequence of events occurring as an action potential arrives at a synapse. The numbered arrows represent movement of substances across the membranes. What are the substances moving across the membranes?

• A. A
• B. B
• C. C✓
• D. D

Explanation: As the action potential reaches the synapse, the presynaptic membrane is depolarised due to the entry of sodium ions (1). The membrane is subsequently repolarized by the exit of potassium ions (2). The arrival of the action potential cause calcium channels in the membrane to open, thus calcium ions rush into the synaptic knob (3). This causes the synaptic vesicles to fuse with the presynaptic membrane, releasing acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft (4). Acetylcholine binds to specific receptor sites on the post- synaptic membrane, opening ion channels and causing sodium ions to enter (5), depolarising the membrane.

Q17. Arthropods can be characterised by all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. A hard exoskeleton
• B. A Water Vascular System✓
• C. Jointed appendages
• D. Moulting
• E. Segmented Body

Explanation: Only echinoderms have a water vascular system. The water vascular system is not found in any other group of animals.

Q18. The role of decomposers in the nitrogen cycle is to:

• A. Fix Atmospheric Nitrogen Into Ammonia
• B. Incorporate nitrogen into amino acids acids and organic compounds
• C. Convert ammonia to nitrate, which can then be absorbed by plants
• D. Denitrify ammonia, thus returning nitrogen to the atmosphere
• E. Release ammonia from organic compounds, thus returning into the soil✓

Explanation: This is the primary role of decomposers in the nitrogen cycle. They break down dead organic matter, and in doing so, they release ammonia. Ammonia is a form of nitrogen that can be used by plants.

Q19. Black coat colour in horses is caused by a dominant allele, while white coat colour is due to the recessive allele. Two black horses produce a foal with a coat, if they were to produce a second foal, what would be the probability of the second foal having a black coat?

• A. 0
• B. 1/0
• C. 1/2
• D. 3/4✓
• E. 1

Explanation: The allele for the black coat colour is dominant over the allele for white coat colour in horses. A cross between two black horses produces a foal with white coat colour. The white coat colour foal will be having the genotype bb. This shows that the two parents are heterozygous and have the genotypes Bb and Bb.

Q20. Organisms that live in the intertidal zone might have which of the following characteristics? i. Ability to conduct photosynthesis ii. Tolerance of periodic drought iii. Tolerance of wide range of temperatures

• A. I only
• B. II only
• C. I and III only
• D. II and III only
• E. I, II, and III✓

Explanation: Organisms that live in the intertidal zone might have all of these characteristics.

Q21. In floral formula “K” stands for:

• A. Corolla
• B. Calyx✓
• C. Perianth
• D. Androecium
• E. Gynoecium

Explanation: The second major symbol in the floral formula is the number of sepals, with “K” representing “calyx”. Thus, K5 would mean a calyx of five sepals.

Q22. “Hordeum vulgare” is the botanical name of:

• A. Wheat
• B. Oats
• C. Rice
• D. Barley✓
• E. Bajra

Explanation: Barley, also known as Hordeum vulgare, cereal plant of the grass family Poaceae and its edible grain.

Q23. The usual duration of luteal phase in the menstrual cycle of human female is:

• A. 4-6 days
• B. 8-10 days
• C. 12-14 days✓
• D. 10-12 days

Explanation: This is considered to be a normal luteal phase. A luteal phase that is 12-14 days long is long enough for most women to conceive.

Q24. Response to plants to touch is called:

• A. Geotropism
• B. Thigmotropism✓
• C. Nasticism
• D. Mechanoreception

Explanation: Thigmotropism is the response of plants to touch.The word thigm refers to touch.

Q25. Select the false statement:

• A. All fungi are saprophytic
• B. Mycology is the study of fungi
• C. Fungi are non coenocytic✓
• D. Puccinia is a obligate parasite

Explanation: Fungi are not non coenocytic.Hyphae that have walls between the cells are called septate hyphae; hyphae that lack walls and cell membranes between the cells are called non septate or coenocytic hyphae)

Q26. Photosynthetic product from leaves to all parts of plant are disturbed through:

• A. Vascular Bundles
• B. Phloem✓
• C. Xylem
• D. Stomata
• E. None of the above

Explanation: These sugars are transported across the plant by the phloem, a mechanism known as translocation. Sinks are sugar distribution points such as roots, young shoots, and developing plants. The product of photosynthesis is transported from the source of production to the storage organs through Phloem.

Q27. In the 𝐹 generation of a dihybrid cross between yellow, round seeded and green, wrinkled seeded pea plants, 17 out of 254 seeds were green and wrinkled other seeds were: Yellow and round Green and round Yellow and wrinkled What do these results indicate?

• A. Crossing-over has occurred
• B. Green and wrinkled are both recessive characters✓
• C. The alleles for green and wrinkled are linked
• D. The allele for green is recessive but not the allele for wrinkled
• E. The allele for wrinkled is recessive but not the allele for green

Explanation: This option suggests that both the green seed color and wrinkled seed texture are expressed only when an individual has two copies of the recessive allele (gg for green, rr for wrinkled). The given data shows that 17 out of 254 seeds were green and wrinkled, which means these traits are indeed recessive.

Q28. Duckbill platypus and spiny anteater have internal fertilisation and are:

• A. Ovoviviporous
• B. Viviparous
• C. Oviporous✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The duck billed platypus and the spiny anteater exhibit internal fertilisation. These are the only mammals who are oviparous. Duckbill platypus and spiny anteater (echidna) are both mammals that have internal fertilization, but they are not viviparous (giving birth to live offspring) like most mammals. Instead, they are oviparous. These animals lay eggs after internal fertilization, and the eggs hatch outside the mother's body. So, the correct option is "Oviparous."

Q29. Nematocysts are characteristics of:

• A. Porifera
• B. Protozoa
• C. Cnidarians✓
• D. Annelida
• E. Echinodermata

Explanation: A nematocyst is a specialized cell in the tentacles of a jellyfish or other coelenterate, containing a venous coiled thread that can be projected in self-defense or to capture prey. These are minute, elongated, or spherical capsules produced exclusively by members of phylum cnidaria (jellyfish, corals, sea anemones, etc).

Q30. Which of the following is an acceptable nitrogen base composition for double stranded:

• A. 31% A, 19%T, 31%C, 19%G
• B. 36% A, 36%U, 24%C, 24%G
• C. 48% A, 48%T, 52%C, 52%G
• D. 31% A, 31%T, 19%C, 19%G✓
• E. 24% A, 24%U, 36%C, 19%G

Explanation: DNA base pairs are of 4 types which together gives a ladder form of structure. Adenine with Thymine and Guanine with Cytosine together pairs up with each other. Adenine is 31% then Thymine is also 31%, then Cytosine is (50-31=19%), Guanine is also 19%.

Q31. The correct order of the structures through which air passes is I. Nasal cavity II. Bronchi III. Larynx IV. Air sacs V. Trachea

• A. I,V,III,II,IV
• B. I,V,III,IV,II
• C. I,III,IV,V,II
• D. I,III,V,IV,II
• E. I,III,V,II,IV✓

Explanation: The correct order of the structures through which air passes is nasal cavity, larynx, trachea, bronchi air sacs.

Q32. Which of the following pathways outlines the order of events during aerobic cellular respiration? First ———-> Last

• A. Glucose -> Triose Phosphate -> Pyruvate -> Krebs Cycle -> CO2 + H2O + ATP✓
• B. Glucose -> Triose Phosphate -> Pyruvate -> Krebs Cycle -> CO2 + H2O + ADP + Pi
• C. Glucose -> Hexose Phosphate -> Pyruvate -> Krebs Cycle -> CO2 + H2O + ADP + Pi
• D. Glucose -> Hexose Phosphate -> Pyruvate -> Krebs Cycle -> Ethanol + CO2 + ATP

Explanation: Glucose is converted to hexose phosphate, which is broken down to triose phosphate, which is subsequently converted to pyruvate. Pyruvate enters the Krebs cycle, producing carbon dioxide, reduced NAD and ATP. Reduced NAD enters the electron transport chain, where oxygen is reduced to water and ATP is produced.

Q33. The diameter of a tree is reduced slightly during the day and increased at night . Which of the following changes in environmental condition cause the greatest reduction in diameter?

• A. Increase in wind velocity, temperature, humidity and light intensity
• B. Increases in temperature, humidity and light intensity
• C. Increases in wind velocity, humidity and light intensity
• D. Increases in wind velocity, temperature and light intensity
• E. Increases is wind velocity, temperature and humidity✓

Explanation: The diameter of a tree is reduced slightly during the day and increased at night. Increases in wind velocity, temperature and humidity cause the greatest reduction in diameter.

Q34. Why is there no glucose present in the distal of a nephron?

• A. Glucose molecules are too large to pass cross the basement membrane.
• B. Glucose removed by osmosis from the tubule.
• C. Glucose is passively absorbed by the cells lining the descending loop of Henle.
• D. Glucose is reabsorbed by the proximal tubule cells.✓

Explanation: Glucose is filtered through the glomerulus into the Bowman's capsule. Proteins do not filter through the glomerulus under normal circumstances. They are simply too large to do so. If proteins are found in the urine, there is serious problem at the level of filters in the nephrons.

Q35. Which of the following is the stage of meiosis during which pairs of homologous chromosomes align at the centre of the cell?

• A. Anaphase II
• B. Metaphase I✓
• C. Prophase II
• D. Metaphase II
• E. Prophase I

Explanation: During metaphase I, the homologous chromosomes are arranged in the center of the cell with the kinetochores facing opposite poles. The homologous pairs orient themselves randomly at the equator.

Q36. The tricuspid valve prevent backflow of blood from the:

• A. Left ventricle into the left atrium
• B. Aorta into the left ventricle
• C. Pulmonary artery into the right ventricle
• D. Right ventricle into the right atrium✓

Explanation: Tricuspid valve: Allows blood to pass from the right atrium to the right ventricle; prevents blood from flowing back into the right atrium as the heart pumps (systole).

Q37. The liver:

• A. Decreases blood glucose levels
• B. Increase blood glucose levels
• C. Synthesizes glucose✓
• D. All of the above are function of the liver

Explanation: The liver synthesises glucose de novo from precursors such as fructose, lactate, alanine and glycerol via the gluconeogenesis pathway. Glutamine is a predominant precursor of gluconeogenesis in the kidney.

Q38. At which two points of the menstrual cycle are the levels of oestrogen heights?

• A. Immediately before and after ovulation
• B. At ovulation and during the menstrual flow✓
• C. During the menstrual flow and pregnancy
• D. Pregnancy and after menopause

Explanation: Oestrogen levels rise during the mid-follicular phase and then drop precipitously after ovulation. This is followed by a secondary rise in oestrogen levels during the mid-luteal phase with a decrease at the end of the menstrual cycle.

Q39. Herpes is a virus that enters the human body and remains dormant in the nervous system until it produces an outbreak, without any particular reason. Which of the following statements correctly describes herpes?

• A. While it remains dormant in the nervous system, the virus in its lysogenic cycle
• B. During an outbreak the virus is in the lytic cycle
• C. Herpes integrates itself into the DNA of the cell
• D. All of the above✓

Explanation: Herpes simplex virus (HSV) can enter the human body through skin contact or through contact with infected body fluids. Once the virus enters the body, it can either remain dormant in the nervous system or it can cause an outbreak. During the lytic cycle, the virus replicates rapidly and causes the infected cell to burst, releasing new viruses that can infect other cells. This is the stage of the infection that causes the characteristic symptoms of herpes, such as blisters, sores, and pain. During the lysogenic cycle, the virus integrates its DNA into the DNA of the host cell. The virus can remain dormant in this state for years, or even decades. However, it can reactivate and enter the lytic cycle at any time, for no apparent reason. The fact that herpes can integrate itself into the DNA of the host cell is what allows it to remain dormant for long periods of time. The virus is protected from the immune system's attack while it is in this state. Therefore, the correct answer is all of the above.

Q40. Which of the following statements could not be used to describe a species?

• A. A group of organism showing distinctly similar autosomes
• B. A group of organism showing analogues body structures
• C. A group of organism capable of mating to produce viable offspring
• D. A group of organisms sharing the same ecological niche✓
• E. A group of organisms sharing unique structural and functional characteristics

Explanation: Ecological niche refers to the role that an organism plays in its environment. Two species can share the same ecological niche and still be different species. For example, two species of birds might both live in the same forest and eat the same type of fruit, but they might have different beak shapes that allow them to eat different parts of the fruit.

Q41. Which gaseous hydride most readily decomposes into its elements on contact with a hot glass rod?

• A. Ammonia
• B. Hydrogen Chloride
• C. Hydrogen iodide✓
• D. Steam

Explanation: Hydrogen iodide (HI) is a gaseous hydride that is made up of one hydrogen atom and one iodine atom. It is the most reactive of the hydrogen halides, and will decompose on contact with a hot glass rod more readily than any of the other options.

Q42. A hydrocarbon, which is a liquid at a room temperature, decolourises aqueous bromine. What could be the molecular formula of the compound?

• A. C2H2✓
• B. C2H4
• C. C7H16
• D. C10H20
• E. C12H26

Explanation: Due to unsaturated aliphatic double bonds it decolourises and undergoes an additional reaction and undergoes polymerization.

Q43. Bleaching powder is a good:

• A. Hydrating agent
• B. Oxidising agent✓
• C. Dehydrating agent
• D. Reducing agent

Explanation: Bleaching powder is a good oxidizing agent. It can oxidize other substances by removing electrons from them. This is why it is used as a bleaching agent, as it can oxidize the colored pigments in fabrics and other materials. It is also used as a disinfectant, as it can oxidize bacteria and other microorganisms.

Q44. The value of the enthalpy change for the process represented by the equation:Na(s) —-> Na+(g) + e- is equal to:

• A. The first ionisation energy of sodium.
• B. The enthalpy change of vaporisation of sodium.
• C. The sum of the enthalpy change of the atomization and the first ionisation energy of sodium.✓
• D. The sum of the enthalpy change of atomization and the electron affinity of sodium.

Explanation: The sum of the enthalpy change of the atomization and the first ionisation energy of sodium is the sum of the energy required to break a mole of a solid into its gaseous atoms and the energy required to remove an electron from a gaseous sodium atom. The equation Na(s) —-> Na+(g) + e-represents the process of atomizing sodium and then ionizing it by removing an electron. The enthalpy change for this process is equal to the sum of the enthalpy change of atomization and the first ionisation energy.

Q45. Which statement about one mole of metal is always correct?

• A. It contains the same number of atoms as 1 mole of hydrogen atoms.✓
• B. It contains the same number of atoms as 1/12 mole of 12 C.
• C. It has the same mass as 1 mole of carbon atoms
• D. It is liberated by 1 mole electrons

Explanation: 1 mole of every substance contains same no: of atoms, ions or molecules that is 6.02×1023.

Q46. As the atomic number increases in a group, the chemical properties:

• A. Change✓
• B. Stay roughly the same
• C. Decrease
• D. Increase

Explanation: From top to bottom down a group, electronegativity decreases. This is because atomic number increases down a group, and thus there is an increased distance between the valence electrons and nucleus, or a greater atomic radius.

Q47. The crystals formed as a result of Van der waals interactions are:

• A. Molecular crystals✓
• B. Covalent crystals
• C. Metallic crystals
• D. Ionic crystals

Explanation: Van der Waals forces are responsible for the formation of molecular crystals

Q48. All the following are the true statement concerning catalyst EXCEPT:

• A. A catalyst will speed up the rate determining step
• B. A catalyst will be used up in a reaction✓
• C. A catalyst may induce steric strain in a molecule to make it react more readily
• D. A catalyst will lower the activation energy of reaction

Explanation: A catalyst doesn't get used up in the reaction, though. Like a wingman, it encourages other molecules to react. Once they do, it bows out. Enzymes are biology's natural catalysts.

Q49. Which of the following processes is endothermic?

• A. The condensation of steam
• B. The electrolysis of water✓
• C. The freezing of the water
• D. 𝐶𝑎(𝑠) + 2𝐻2O (I) -> 𝐶𝑎2 (aq) + 𝐻2 (g)
• E. 𝐻+ (aq) + OH (aq) -> 𝐻2O (I)

Explanation: During electrolysis, heat is given to the water which gets absorbed by water to give oxygen and hydrogen and so the reaction is an endothermic reaction.

Q50. Which reagent gives a colourless homogeneous solution when added to phenol?

• A. Aqueous Bromine
• B. Aqueous Sodium Carbonate
• C. Aqueous sodium hydroxide✓
• D. Aqueous sodium hydroxide and benzoyl chloride

Explanation: Phenol reacts with sodium hydroxide solution to give a colourless solution containing sodium phenoxide. In this reaction, the hydrogen ion has been removed by the strongly basic hydroxide ion in the sodium hydroxide solution.

Q51. Which substance has tetrahedral geometry?

• A. Benzene
• B. Methane
• C. Cyclohexane
• D. Both B and C✓

Explanation: Molecules of methane (CH4) and cyclohexene both have four electron groups around their central atom, so they all have a tetrahedral shape and bond angles of about 109.5°.

Q52. The _ free radical takes part in the destruction of the ozone layer.

• A. Chlorine✓
• B. Helium
• C. Neon
• D. Xenon

Explanation: Chlorofluorocarbons are chemicals which contain carbon, chlorine and fluorine. Ozone layer breaks when these CFCs are released into the atmosphere.So.Cl is one of the radical which belongs to CFC's family, responsible for breakdown.

Q53. How many atoms of carbon are present in 18 g of glucose (𝐶6𝐻12𝑂6)?

• A. 6.0 x 1022
• B. 3.6 x 1023✓
• C. 6.0 x 1023
• D. 3.6 x 1024
• E. 6.0 x 1024

Explanation: 0.6 mol C atoms = 0.6×6.022×10²³ = 3.6×10²³ C atoms.

Q54. Which property of a gas affects the rate at which it spreads throughout a laboratory?

• A. Boiling point
• B. Molecular Mass✓
• C. Reactivity
• D. Solubility in water

Explanation: The property of a gas that affects the rate at which it spreads throughout a laboratory is molecular mass. The rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular mass. This means that gases with a lower molecular mass will diffuse more quickly than gases with a higher molecular mass. For example, hydrogen (H2) has a molecular mass of 2, while oxygen (O2) has a molecular mass of 32. This means that hydrogen will diffuse 4 times faster than oxygen.

Q55. The bonding in sulphuric acid can be represented by the structure shown: What is the total number of electrons in the covalent bonds surrounding the sulphur atom?

• A. 4
• B. 6
• C. 8
• D. 12✓

Explanation: Now sulphur has 6 unpaired electrons which means it can form 6 covalent bonds to give a total of 12 electrons around its valence shell.

Q56. One mole of an organic compound is completely burnt in oxygen. Which compound produces exactly three moles of water?

• A. Butane 𝐶4𝐻20
• B. Butanol 𝐶4𝐻9OH
• C. Ethanol 𝐶2 𝐻5OH✓
• D. Propane 𝐶3 𝐻8

Explanation: 6H are needed for 2 moles of water and ethanol has 6H.

Q57. Which pair of structures are isomers of each other?

• A. Ethane, Ethanol
• B. Ethanoic Acid, Ethanol
• C. Propanol, 2-Propanol✓
• D. Ethene, Butene

Explanation: Geometric isomers are isomers in which the order of atom bonding is the same but the arrangement of atoms in space is different.

Q58. When must a substance be an alkane?

• A. When it burns in air or in oxygen
• B. When it contains carbon and hydrogen only
• C. When it has the general formula 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛+2✓
• D. When it is generally unreactive

Explanation: Alkanes are organic compounds that consist entirely of single-bonded carbon and hydrogen atoms and lack any other functional groups. Alkanes have the general formula CnH2n+2 and can be subdivided into the following three groups: the linear straight-chain alkanes, branched alkanes, and cycloalkanes.

Q59. Which statement shows that diamond and graphite are allotropes of carbon?

• A. Both Have Giant Molecular Structures✓
• B. Complete combustion of equal masses of carbon dioxide as the only product
• C. Graphite conducts electricity, whereas diamond does not
• D. Under suitable conditions, graphite can be converted into diamond

Explanation: Graphite and diamond both have the giant structure. Diamond and graphite are different forms of elemental carbon. They both have giant structures of carbon atoms, joined together by covalent bonds. Each carbon atom is joined to three other carbon atoms by covalent bonds in graphite and 4 atoms in the case of a diamond.

Q60. If Aufbau rule is not followed in filling of the sub shell then the block of which elements will change in the periodic table.

• A. K (19)✓
• B. Se (21)
• C. V (23)
• D. Ni (28)

Explanation: If Aufbau rule is not followed, electronic configuration is K: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d1. Last electron is in 3d(instead of 4s). Hence d block (but it is of s block) in all other cases valence electron does not change its position so block does not change in those cases.

Q61. Which gas shows real behaviour?

• A. 8 g O2 at 5.T.P occupies a volume of 5.6 liters.
• B. 1g H2 in 0.5 liters flask exerts pressure of 24.63 atm at 3.. K.
• C. 1 mole NH3 at 300K and 1atm occupies volume 22.4 litre.✓
• D. 5.6 lit of 𝐶𝑂2 at STP is equal to 11 g

Explanation: NH3 at 300 K and 1 atm occupies a volume of 22.4 liters, which is the expected volume for an ideal gas. However, NH3 is a polar molecule, and polar molecules tend to interact with each other more than non-polar molecules. This interaction between the molecules of NH3 causes it to deviate from ideal gas behavior. Therefore, NH3 shows real behavior.

Q62. Heat of neutralisation of strong acid by strong base is constant value because:

• A. Salts formed does not hydrolyze
• B. Only 𝐻+ and OH- ions react in every case
• C. Strong base and strong acid react completely✓
• D. Strong base and strong acid react in aqueous solution

Explanation: The heat of neutralization of a strong acid by a strong base is constant because both the strong acid and strong base react completely during the neutralization process. This means that all the acid molecules and base molecules present in the reaction mixture fully participate in the reaction, and there are no significant side reactions or incomplete reactions. As a result, the heat released or absorbed during neutralization is consistent and constant. This is a fundamental principle of acid-base neutralization reactions involving strong acids and strong bases.

Q63. Compared with alkaline earth metals the alkali metals exhibit:

• A. Smaller Ionic Radii
• B. Greater hardness
• C. High boiling point
• D. Lower ionisation energy✓

Explanation: The alkali metals are larger in size and have smaller nuclear charge thus they have lower ionisation energy in comparison to alkaline earth metals.

Q64. The number and types of bonds between two carbons atoms in 𝐶𝑎𝐶2 are:

• A. One sigma and one pi bonds
• B. One sigma and two pi bonds✓
• C. Two sigma two bonds
• D. One sigma bond

Explanation: The number and type of bonds between two carbon atoms in CaC2 are one sigma (σ) and two pi (π) bonds and ionic bonds between Ca+2 ion and carbide ion.

Q65. The alloy of copper and tin is called:

• A. Brass
• B. Bronze✓
• C. German silver
• D. Metal

Explanation: Bronze is an alloy traditionally composed of copper and tin.

Q66. Which of the following is not an electrophile?

• A. 𝑁𝐻3✓
• B. 𝐵𝑙3
• C. AlCl3
• D. 𝐻𝑔2+

Explanation: In ammonia, nitrogen atoms have lone pair electrons which work as electron donors so the ammonia molecule is a nucleophile. All else are electrophile here.

Q67. How many isomers are possible for the compound having molecular having molecular formula C3H5Br.

• A. 2
• B. 4✓
• C. 6
• D. 8

Explanation: The correct answer is 4. There are four possible isomers for the compound with the molecular formula C3H5Br: CH3CH2CHBr CH3CH(Br)CH2 H2C=CHCH2Br HC≡CCH2Br Each of these isomers represents a different arrangement of the atoms in the compound C3H5Br.

Q68. Which xylene is most easily sulphonated:

• A. Ortha
• B. Para
• C. Meta✓
• D. All at the same rate

Explanation: The correct option is m-xylene. This is because the -CH3 group on m-xylene is in the meta position, which is the most reactive position for electrophilic aromatic substitution. The -CH3 group donates electrons to the ring, which makes it more electron-rich and therefore more reactive to electrophiles.

Q69. Which one of the following is likely to give a precipitate with 𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3 solution?

• A. 𝐶𝐶𝑙4
• B. 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝑙3
• C. 𝐶𝐻2=CHCl
• D. (𝐶𝐻3)3𝐶𝐶𝑙✓

Explanation: (CH3)3CCl is the only compound in the list that is likely to give a precipitate with AgNO3 solution. This is because (CH3)3CCl contains a chloride ion, which can react with AgNO3 to form a white precipitate of silver chloride.

Q70. In 𝑆𝑝3𝑑 hybridization, the o orbital that participates in hybridization is:

• A. 𝑑𝑥2−𝑦2✓
• B. 𝑑𝑧2
• C. dxy
• D. Dxz

Explanation: When hybridisation involving d-orbitals is considered all the five d-orbitals are not degenerate, rather dx2−y2,d2z and dxy, dyz, dzx form two different sets of orbitals and orbitals of appropriate set are involved in the hybridisation.

Q71. A frictionless heat engine can be 100% efficient only its exhaust temperatures is:

• A. Double of its input temperature
• B. Half of its input temperature
• C. Equal of its input temperature
• D. 100%
• E. 0 K✓

Explanation: AThe answer is 0 Kelvin. The efficiency of a heat engine is given by the following equation: η = 1 - T2/T1 where η is the efficiency, T2 is the exhaust temperature, and T1 is the input temperature. For the efficiency to be 100%, the exhaust temperature must be 0 Kelvin. This is because as the exhaust temperature approaches 0 Kelvin, the efficiency approaches 100%.

Q72. The vector which only specifies the direction of a given vector is called:

• A. Free vector
• B. Position vector✓
• C. Null vector
• D. Until vector

Explanation: A position vector is defined as a vector that indicates either the position or the location of any given point with respect to any arbitrary reference point like the origin.

Q73. A ball is thrown vertically upward with velocity of 196 m/s. How high does the ball rise?

• A. 1960 metres✓
• B. 2960 metres
• C. 1000 metres
• D. 1100 metres

Explanation: v^2-u^2 = 2gh here, u=19.6m/sec, v= 0m/sec, g=-9.8m/sec^2 . (-ve sign because ‘g’ directed towards earth) 0-u^2=-2*9.8*h -u^2 = -19.6*h 19.6*19.6 = 19.6*h h = 19.6m. This is a numerical so it can only have one answer so option A is correct.

Q74. “If there is no external force applied to a system, then the total momentum of that system remains constant”. This known as:

• A. Law Of Conservation of Mass
• B. Elastic collision
• C. Law of Conservation of momentum✓
• D. Momentum of body

Explanation: Law of conservation of momentum states that: If there is no external force applied to a system, then the total momentum of that system remains constant.

Q75. A car travelling at a constant speed of 90 km/h rounds a curve of a radius 100m. What is its acceleration?

• A. 4.0m/𝑠𝑒𝑐2
• B. 6.25m/𝑠𝑒𝑐2✓
• C. 6.5m/𝑠𝑒𝑐2
• D. 4.5m/𝑠𝑒𝑐2
• E. 7.5m/𝑠𝑒𝑐2

Explanation: R=100 m, v =90 km/h = 90 x 5/18= 25 a=v^2/R=(25 x 25)/100= 6.25 m/sec^2 This is a numerical so it can only have one answer so option B is correct.

Q76. A boy on a 20 m high cliff drops a stone. One second later, he throws down another stone. Both the stones hit the ground simultaneously. Find the initial velocity of the second stone. (g=10/𝑠^2)

• A. 5 m/𝑠2
• B. 10m/𝑠2
• C. 15m/𝑠2✓
• D. 20m/𝑠2
• E. 30m/𝑠2

Explanation: t=0.5 x g x t x t t=(2*20/10)^0.5 = 2 2-1 = 1 h=ut +0.5gt^2 h= 20 m, g = 10 20 = u*1+5*1 u = 15 m/s This is a numerical so it can only have one answer so option C is correct.

Q77. An elevator, in which a man is standing is moving upward with a constant speed of 10 m/𝑠 2. If the an of the drops a coin from a height of 2.5 m. Find the time taken by it to reach the floor of the elevation (g=9.8 m/𝑠^2)?

• A. 0.707 s✓
• B. 1.9 s
• C. 3.1 s
• D. 6.17 s
• E. 7.15 s

Explanation: u= 0 m/s a= 9.8 m/s^2 t=(2*2.45/9.8)^0.5 = 0.707 sec This is a numerical so it can only have one answer so option A is correct.

Q78. A 100 kg man runs up a hill through a height of 4m in seconds. How much work does he do against gravitational force?

• A. 2060 J
• B. 3920 J✓
• C. 5000 J
• D. 5290 J

Explanation: Work done = mass x gravity x height = 100*9.8*4 =3920 J This is a numerical so it can only have one answer so option B is correct.

Q79. Which statement describes the electrical potential difference between two points in a wire carrying a current?

• A. The force required to move a unit positive charge between the points✓
• B. The ratio of the energy dissipated between the points to the current
• C. The ratio of the power dissipated between the points to the current
• D. The ratio of the power dissipated between the points to the charge moved
• E. None of the above

Explanation: The electrical potential difference between two points in a wire carrying current may be defined as: A force required to move a unit positive charge between two points.

Q80. Find the time period of a simple pendulum whose length is 88.2 cm. The value acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/𝑠^2 at the place where experiments is performed?

• A. 1.885 sec✓
• B. 1.233 sec
• C. 2.05 sec
• D. 4 sec

Explanation: l=88.2 cm g=9.8 T=2*pi*(l/g)^0.5 t=2*22/7*(0.882/9.8)^0.5=1.885 sec This is a numerical so it can only have one answer so option A is correct.

Q81. A light bulb has resistance of 150, find the voltage while the current is 1.5A?

• A. 250 v
• B. 300 v
• C. 224 v
• D. 225 v✓

Explanation: V = IR = 1.5*150 = 225 V This is a numerical so it can only have one answer so option D is correct.

Q82. An object that’s moving with constant speed travels around a circular path. Which of the following is/are true concerning this motion? I. The displacement is zero II. The average speed is zero III. The circulation is zero

• A. I only✓
• B. I and II only
• C. I and III only
• D. III only
• E. II and III only

Explanation: Travelling once around a circular path means that the final position coincides with the initial position. Therefore, the displacement is zero. The average speed, which is total distance travelled divided by elapsed time, cannot be zero. And since the velocity changed (because its direction changed), there was a non-zero acceleration.

Q83. A system absorbs 80 J through heating while doing 100 J of external work, what is the change in the internal energy of the system?

• A. -100 J
• B. -20J✓
• C. +80J
• D. +180 J

Explanation: internal energy = 80 - 100 = 20 J This is a numerical so it can only have one answer so option B is correct.

Q84. A region around a charge body in which another charge experiences an electric force is called:

• A. Electric flux
• B. Electric field✓
• C. Electric potential
• D. Capacitance

Explanation: An electric field is a region around a charged object where electric forces can be exerted on another charged object.

Q85. A convex lens of focal length 40 cm is in contact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. the power of the combination in dioptres is:

• A. -1.5✓
• B. -6.5
• C. +6.5
• D. +6.67
• E. -7.7

Explanation: P =1/f = 1/f1 + 1/f2 =1/0.4 + 1/-0.25 = -1.5 This is a numerical so it can only have one answer so option A is correct.

Q86. A simple pendulum suspended from the ceiling of a train has a period ‘T’ when the train is at rest. When the train is accelerating with a uniform acceleration, the time period of simple pendulum will:

• A. Decrease✓
• B. Increase
• C. Remain unchanged
• D. Become infinite
• E. Insufficient information

Explanation: When a train is moving with acceleration, the pendulum is exerted by a pseudo acceleration opposite to the direction of the train. As a result, there will be an increase in effective acceleration on the pendulum. The time period will decrease as the time period is inversely proportional to the square root of effective acceleration.

Q87. Lenz’s law states that:

• A. The flow of a fluid in a medium under same applied force experiences some sort of friction or resistance in its path
• B. A body remains at rest of continuous to move with uniform velocity unless acted upon by an unbalanced force
• C. The induced current always flows in such a direction as to oppose the change which is giving rise to it✓
• D. When a particle bearing a charge q and moving with a velocity V enters the region of a uniform magnetic field of induction B, it is acted upon by a force.

Explanation: Lenz's law states that the induced electromotive force with different polarities induces a current whose magnetic field opposes the change in magnetic flux through the loop in order to ensure that the original flux is maintained through the loop when current flows in it.

Q88. Two rail cargo cars are being hitched together. The first car has a mass of 15,750 kg and is moving at a speed of 4 m/s. What is the final velocity of the two cars? m2 is 19250

• A. 1.8m/s✓
• B. 1.9m/s
• C. 5.8 m/s
• D. 7.8 m/s
• E. 9.8m/s

Explanation: m1v1i + m2v2i = (m1 + m2)vf vf= m1v1i + m2v2i/ (m1 + m2) vf= 15,750(4)+19,250(0)/(15,750 + 19,250)= 1.8 m/s This is a numerical so it can only have one answer so option A is correct.

Q89. Two capacitors 𝐶1 = 2𝑢 F and 𝐶1 = 4𝑢 F are connected series across a 100 V supply. Find the effective capacitance.

• A. 1/2𝑢 F
• B. 3/2𝑢 F
• C. 4/3𝑢 F✓
• D. 7/2𝑢 F
• E. 9/2𝑢 F

Explanation: C = ½ + ¼ =6/8 1/C = 8/6 =4/3 uF This is a numerical so it can only have one answer so option C is correct.

Q90. Consider two equal resistors wired in parallel. What is the equivalent resistance of the two?

• A. 3R/2
• B. R/2✓
• C. R/3
• D. R/5
• E. R/7

Explanation: Two identical resistors in parallel have an equivalent resistance half the value of either resistor. The current splits equally between the two.

Q91. A detector with a surface area of 1 square metre is placed 1 metre from an operating jackhammer. It measures the power of jackhammer’s sounds as being 10−3 W finds the intensity of the jackhammer.

• A. 10 W/m
• B. 10−3 𝑊 / 𝑚2
• C. 10−9 𝑊 / 𝑚2
• D. 10−7𝑊 / 𝑚2
• E. 10−9 𝑊 / 𝑚2✓

Explanation: The intensity of a sound wave is defined as the power of the sound wave per unit area. In this problem, the power of the sound wave is 10^-3 W and the surface area of the detector is 1 square meter, so the intensity of the sound wave is intensity = power / area = 10-3 W / 1 m2 = 10-9 W / m2

Q92. Ultraviolet light is more likely to cause a photoelectric effect than visible light. This is because photons of ultraviolet light:

• A. Have a longer wavelength
• B. Have a higher velocity
• C. Are not visible
• D. Have a higher energy✓

Explanation: Energy of ultraviolet light photons is more than that of visible light. So photoelectric emission can take place easily.

Q93. If an object is released 19.6 metres above the ground, how long does it take the object to reach the ground? (g=9.8 𝑚/𝑠^2)

• A. 1 seconds
• B. 2 seconds✓
• C. 6 seconds
• D. 8 seconds
• E. 10 seconds

Explanation: In the present event a ball is being dropped (the term means that initial velocity=0) from a height h = 19.6 m = 2 times the numerical value of g, the acceleration due to gravity we know how accelerations operate ..it will add per sec the value of g to the velocity. v = g.t but the time taken to cover h =19.6 m using h = (1/2) g . t^2 t = sqrt ( 2.h /g) = 2 seconds This is a numerical so it can only have one answer so option B is correct.

Q94. Two tuning forks are sounded, one has a frequency of 250 Hz while the other has a frequency of 245 Hz. What is the frequency of the beats?

• A. 250 Hz
• B. 245 Hz
• C. 5 Hz✓
• D. 10Hz
• E. 235 Hz

Explanation: Beat frequency = f2 - f1 = 250 - 245 =5 Hz This is a numerical so it can only have one answer so option C is correct.

Q95. A rock is dropped from a high bridge at the end of 3 seconds of free fall the speed of the rock in cm/s:

• A. 30
• B. 100
• C. 500
• D. 3000✓
• E. 2940

Explanation: Speed = acceleration x time = 10m/s² x 3 = 30m/s² = 3000 cm/s² This is a numerical so it can only have one answer so option D is correct.

Q96. A body rolling freely on the surface of the earth eventually comes to rest because:

• A. It has mass
• B. It suffers friction✓
• C. It has inertia of rest
• D. It has a momentum
• E. It is gravitation less because it is already on the surface

Explanation: The correct answer is: It suffers friction. A body rolling freely on the surface of the earth eventually comes to rest primarily because it experiences friction with the surface. Friction is the force that opposes the relative motion between two surfaces in contact. When a body is rolling on a surface, there are microscopic irregularities and imperfections on both the body's surface and the surface it is rolling on. As the body moves, these irregularities create frictional forces that act opposite to the direction of motion, gradually slowing down the body's movement. Friction is a force that dissipates energy, converting the body's kinetic energy (motion) into heat. As a result, the body's speed decreases over time, and it eventually comes to rest.

Q97. A 1000 kg car can accelerate from rest to a speed of 25 m/s in 10s. what average power (in kilowatts) must the engine of the car produce in order to cause this acceleration? Neglect the friction loss.

• A. 33.25 KW
• B. 3625 KW
• C. 48.44 KW
• D. 31250 KW✓
• E. 31.25 KW

Explanation: The kinetic energy gained by the car in 10 sec. = (1/2)*m*v² = (1/2)*1000*25² = 3,12,500 Joules Minimum power required of the car = 312500 /10 = 31250 Watts. This is a numerical so it can only have one answer so option D is correct.

Q98. The kinetic energy of a projectile at the highest point is half of its kinetic energy. The angle of projection is:

• A. 0 degrees
• B. 30 degrees
• C. 60 degrees
• D. 45 degrees✓
• E. 90 degrees

Explanation: The kinetic energy of a projectile at the highest point is half of the initial kinetic energy when theta = 45 degree.

Q99. A small and a large raindrops are falling through air:

• A. The small drop will evaporate
• B. The large drop moves faster✓
• C. The small drop moves faster
• D. Both move with the same speed
• E. No conclusion can be drawn unless the exact sizes of the drops are known

Explanation: This option is correct because the terminal velocity of a raindrop is proportional to the square of its radius. This means that a large raindrop will have a much higher terminal velocity than a small raindrop. As a result, the large raindrop will fall faster than the small raindrop.

Q100. A container is divided into two equal portions. One portion contains an ideal gas at pressure P and temperature T while the other portion is a perfect vacuum. If a hole is opened between the two portions:

• A. There will be a change in internal energy
• B. There will be a change in temperature
• C. There will be no change in internal energy✓
• D. The external pressure will increase
• E. The external pressure will decrease

Explanation: When the hole is opened between the two portions of the container, allowing the ideal gas to expand and mix with the vacuum, there is no change in the internal energy of the gas. Internal energy is a state function, which means it depends only on the initial and final states of the system and not on the path taken. In this case, since the gas is an ideal gas and the process is isothermal (constant temperature), the internal energy remains constant. Additionally, there is no exchange of heat with the surroundings because the gas remains at a constant temperature, so there is no change in the gas's internal energy during this process. So, the correct answer is There will be no change in internal energy.