Fmdc 2015 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Fill in the blankThe culpable child _ some words to her mother for pardoning his delinquency.

• A. Mumbled✓
• B. Showy
• C. Rude
• D. Crazy

Explanation: Mumbled: say something indistinctly and quietly, making it difficult for others to hear.Phrase: "he mumbled something she didn't catch".Showy: having a striking appearance or style, typically by being excessively bright, colourful, or ostentatious.Phrase: "showy flowers".Rude: offensively impolite or bad-mannered.Phrase: "she had been rude to her boss".Crazy: mad, especially as manifested in wild or aggressive behaviour.Phrase: "Stella went crazy and assaulted a visitor".

Q2. Fill in the blankThe parents stunned when they saw that children had created complete _ in the bedroom:

• A. Knack
• B. Groggy
• C. Dank
• D. Mayhem✓

Explanation: Mayhem: Violent or extreme disorder; chaos.Phrase: "Complete mayhem broke out"

Q3. Fill in the blankI _ caution in interpreting these results.

• A. Urge✓
• B. Usher
• C. Usurp
• D. Uproot

Explanation: As a noun, urge means a desire. As a verb, it means to strongly encourage. Urge is related to the word, urgent, or 'pressing. ' An urge is a pressing want, one that is almost a compulsion, like when you're so frustrated, you have the urge to scream. If you urge someone to do something, you feel strongly about it.

Q4. Fill in the blankThey sometimes feel a _ for the mountains and the sea.

• A. Yearning✓
• B. Yapping
• C. Yelling
• D. Yielding

Explanation: Yearning: a feeling of intense longing for something.Phrase: "He felt a yearning for the mountains"

Q5. Fill in the blankThe new teacher showed no _ about hitting the students.

• A. Quakes
• B. Qualms✓
• C. Quarrel
• D. Quotation

Explanation: An uneasy feeling of doubt, worry, or fear, especially about one's own conduct; a misgiving.Phrase:"Military regimes generally have no qualms about controlling the press"“Some people have no qualms about correcting other people's grammar."

Q6. Fill in the blankThe accident happened due to the driver’s _

• A. Negligence✓
• B. Reluctance
• C. Regret
• D. Quotation

Explanation: Negligence: failure to take proper care over something.Phrase: "His injury was due to the negligence of his employers"

Q7. In the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. Select the nearest correct meaning of the given word.BOWDLERIZE:

• A. Mesmerize
• B. Cynosure
• C. Censure
• D. Censor✓

Explanation: Censor means to remove or modify parts of a text or speech that are considered to be offensive or objectionable. It comes from the Latin word "censere," which means "to judge." As you can see, the word bowdlerize is most closely related to the word censor. Both words refer to the act of removing or modifying parts of a text or speech. However, bowdlerize is specifically used to refer to the removal of offensive or objectionable material, while censor can also be used to refer to the removal of material for other reasons, such as to protect national security or to prevent the spread of misinformation.

Q8. In the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. Select the nearest correct meaning of the given word.BRASSY:

• A. Tasteful
• B. Brainy
• C. Modesty
• D. Gaudy✓

Explanation: Gaudy means excessively bright, showy, or ornate. A gaudy person or thing would be someone or something that is very flashy and attention-seeking. Gaudy clothing might be covered in sequins or bright colors, and gaudy decor might be very ornate and over-the-top. In the context of the question, the word brassy is being used to describe someone who is loud and confident, but in a way that is not necessarily tasteful or refined. Therefore, the closest meaning of the word brassy in the question is gaudy.

Q9. Choose the right option to complete the following sentence:All the _ and ceremony of the royal marriage was telecast on TV.

• A. Festival
• B. Pomp✓
• C. Happiness
• D. Romp

Explanation: Option A would not fit very well into the given sentence, as a festival in itself is a certain event and would not particularly be used to describe the royal marriage, ‘festivities’ would be a much better fit.Option B means ‘ceremony and splendid display’, and is often used in conjunction with ceremony as a phrase, i.e. ‘pomp and ceremony’ to describe an event such as the royal marriage, hence it is correct.Option C, happiness, would not fit well as it is an emotion which can’t really be directly telecast on TV.Option D describes ‘playing roughly or energetically’.

Q10. Choose the right option to complete the following sentence:A glue produced by bees to _ their hives appears to contain antibiotic substances.

• A. Build✓
• B. Decorate
• C. Collect
• D. Structure

Explanation: The glue in this scenario would be likened to cement in this case, whereby it is used to construct or build the structure in question, hence option A is correct.Options B, decorate and C, collect, would not fit in this context as glue is not a decorating item and nor are hives collected by glue.Option D is similar to A, but it can be used to describe a building in addition to describing the construction of something, so build would be more suitable in this case.

Q11. Identify the underlined segment in the following sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.It should also help you to understand how can you make better use of the scientific method in your everyday living

• A. To understand
• B. Can you✓
• C. Use of
• D. Living

Explanation: If ‘can you’ was altered to ‘you can’, it would enable the sentence to make more sense, as it is a statement one is saying to the other as a suggestion. The remaining three underlined words/phrases do not need to be corrected.

Q12. Identify the underlined segment in the following sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected.We wish today was sunny so that we could spend the day in the country communing with nature.

• A. Was✓
• B. So that
• C. Could spend
• D. In the country

Explanation: Since the question starts off with ‘wish’ instead of ‘wished’, the statement is in present tense, hence, ‘was’ is inappropriate, ‘is’ should have been used instead.

Q13. In the following question four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT option:

• A. Christopher could not taste the drink until he had boiled it
• B. Until he had boiled It, Christopher could not taste the drink✓
• C. Christopher could not taste the drink until he had not boiled it.
• D. Christopher could not taste the drink till he had not boil it

Explanation: Ans: The trick to solving this question is to read each option in your head and determine which one sounds correct. D used the present tense ’boil’ hence that is incorrect. Option C is not factually correct. Relative to option

Q14. Identify errors in the sentence“All is well what ends well”, said the father when he had finished the story.

• A. Is well what✓
• B. Said the
• C. When he had
• D. The story

Explanation: ‘All is well when it end’s well’ is the correct phrase which is used to say that a person can forget about how unpleasant or difficult something was because everything ended in a good way.

Q15. Identify errors in the sentenceRubber tubes upon which children had swing in backyards hung suspended like stopped clock pendulums in the blazing air.

• A. Upon which
• B. Had swing in the backyards✓
• C. Suspended like
• D. In the

Explanation: “Had swing” is wrong. We always use the third form of the verb with has/have/had.

Q16. Identify errors in the sentenceThe child was fully dressed and sitting in her father’s lap near the kitchen table.

• A. Fully
• B. Sitting in
• C. Kitchen table
• D. No error✓

Explanation: There are no errors in the given sentence. All the words and phrases are used correctly and make sense in the context provided.

Q17. Identify errors in the sentenceThe three Abdal Rahman, like his illustrious predecessor, was a young man of twenty-three when he took office.

• A. The three✓
• B. Like his
• C. Was a
• D. When he

Explanation: "The three" is incorrect because it implies that there are three Abdal Rahmans, whereas the sentence is referring to a single Abdal Rahman.

Q18. Identify errors in the sentenceEnlarged and beautified by later Caliphs, Al-Zahra become the nucleus of a royal suburb whose remains partly evacuated in and after 1910, can still be seen.

• A. By later
• B. Become the✓
• C. Whose remains
• D. In and after

Explanation: ‘Enlarged’, ‘beautified’, ‘evacuated’ shows the sentence is in past tense hence ‘became’ should be used instead of ‘become’.

Q19. The division of biology that deals with classification is:

• A. Cytology
• B. Histology
• C. Botany
• D. Morphology
• E. Taxonomy✓

Explanation: Taxanomy is the division of Biology that deals with the classification by dividing organisms into groups and subgroups

Q20. All the following are organelles EXCEPT the:

• A. Endoplasmic reticulum
• B. Mitochondria
• C. Ribosomes
• D. Golgi complex
• E. Ultracentrifuge✓

Explanation: Ultra centrifuge is not an organelle; it is a very fast centrifuge used to precipitate large biological molecules from solution or separate them by their different rates of sedimentation.

Q21. The diagram shows sections through a kidney and associated blood vesselsIn which area is there the greatest movement of fluid from the blood through the wall of blood vessels?

• A. A
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D
• E. E✓

Explanation: The renal cortex is a space between the medulla and the outer capsule. The renal medulla contains the majority of the length of nephrons, the main functional component of the kidney that filters fluid from blood. The renal pelvis connects the kidney with the circulatory and nervous systems from the rest of the body.

Q22. The diagram is taken from an electron of a cell, name the organelle labeled D:

• A. Nucleus
• B. Lysosomes
• C. Golgi complex
• D. Mitochondria✓
• E. Endoplasmic reticulum

Explanation: Mitochondria are bean- shaped membrane bounded organelles. Cristae is the fold in the inner membrane of mitochondria which is visible in the picture.

Q23. Of the following organic compounds, the one that represents a protein is

• A. C12 H22 O33
• B. C6 H12 O6
• C. C17 H14 COOH
• D. (C6 H12 O5 )13
• E. C108 H1130 O224 N180 S4✓

Explanation: Proteins are organic compounds that consist of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and, in some cases, sulfur. Rest of the options only have carbon hydrogen and oxygen.

Q24. In which of the following is the organic compound COOH (carboxyl) group found? (I) Carbohydrate (II) Lipid (III) Protein

• A. I only
• B. II only
• C. I and II only
• D. II and III only✓
• E. I , II and III

Explanation: Carboxyl groups are commonly found in amino acids, fatty acids, and other biomolecules. Whereas carbohydrates only contain atoms of carbon hydrogen and oxygen they don't have any functional group.

Q25. Genes P, Q, R AND S occur on the same chromosome. Investigation of a large population produced the following cross over values in between pairs of genes. P and R 34% P and Q 59% R and S 129% S and Q 37% Which of the following sequence represents the sequence of genes on the chromosome?

• A. PRSQ✓
• B. PSRQ
• C. QSPR
• D. RQSP
• E. SPRQ

Explanation: The higher the crossing over value is the farther the genes are,

Q26. Which of the following kinds of atoms do not occur in carbohydrates?

• A. Carbon
• B. Hydrogen
• C. Nitrogen✓
• D. Oxygen

Explanation: Carbohydrates are composed of carbon, hydrogen and carbon atoms. Nitrogen is found in fatty acids and amino acids.

Q27. Smooth muscle develop from:

• A. Endoderm
• B. Ectoderm
• C. Mesoderm✓
• D. None of above

Explanation: Smooth muscle in the wall of the gut derivatives is derived from the splanchnic layer of lateral plate mesoderm that surrounds these structures. Only the sphincter and dilator muscles of the pupil and muscle tissue in mammary and sweat glands are derived from ectoderm.The endoderm constructs the digestive tube and the respiratory tube.

Q28. Which cell does not carry out oxidative phosphorylation?

• A. Nerve cell
• B. Cardiac cell
• C. Red blood cell✓
• D. None of above

Explanation: Red blood cells lack mitochondria and are therefore unable to carry out oxidative phosphorylation.

Q29. RNA _ a double stranded molecule.

• A. Is
• B. Is not✓
• C. Is always
• D. Depending on its location it is

Explanation: DNA is a double stranded molecule whereas RNA is single stranded.

Q30. In DNA, guanine forms a base pair while adenine forms a pair with _

• A. Cytosine … thymine✓
• B. Thymine … cytosine
• C. Uracil … guanine
• D. Guanine … uracil

Explanation: The four bases in DNA are adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), and thymine (T). These bases form specific pairs (A with T, and G with C).

Q31. An enzyme – substrate is the place where enzyme are

• A. Formed
• B. Deactivated
• C. Active✓
• D. Reduced
• E. Diluted

Explanation: When an enzyme binds its substrate, it forms an enzyme-substrate complex. This complex lowers the activation energy of the reaction and promotes its rapid progression by providing certain ions or chemical groups that actually form covalent bonds with molecules as a necessary step of the reaction process.

Q32. All viruses

• A. Carry DNA
• B. Carry RNA
• C. Lack protein
• D. Have chromosome
• E. Cannot reproduce outside cell✓

Explanation: Viruses cannot replicate unless absorbed by cells in our body. Once a virus is outside the body, its capsid starts to degrade, and the more degraded its capsid is, the less likely it is to survive.Option A and B: some viruses carry DNA while some carry RNA.Option C: There are all sorts of virus shapes and sizes. However, all virus particles have a protein coat that surrounds and protects a nucleic acid genome.Option D: Viruses do not have chromosomes

Q33. The correct sequence of steps in koch’s postulate is (I) Injecting the germ, to produce original disease (II) Isolating the same germ in many cases (III) Obtaining the original germ from infected animals (IV) Growing the germ in pure culture

• A. I –> IV –> II –> III
• B. I –> II –> III –> IV
• C. II –> IV –> I –> III
• D. II –> I –> IV –> III
• E. III –> IV –>I –> II✓

Explanation: In only option E the correct sequence is mentioned.

Q34. The disease caused by bacteria is:

• A. Small pox
• B. Rabies
• C. Polio
• D. The common cold
• E. Tetanus✓

Explanation: Tetanus is a bacterial infection also known as lockjaw. It causes stiffness in various muscles present in different parts of the body. It affects the nervous system. The first affected parts are mostly jaw and neck but it may soon cause muscle contractions in other parts of the body.

Q35. Fungi may be all of the following EXCEPT

• A. Heterotrophic
• B. Autotrophic✓
• C. Saprophytic
• D. Decomposers
• E. Parasitic

Explanation: Autotrophs are known as producers because they are able to make their own food from raw materials and energy. Examples include plants, algae, and some types of bacteria. Fungi are instead A major group of osmotrophic organisms.

Q36. The octopus, calm and snail are alike in:

• A. Having a backbone
• B. Having joined legs
• C. Being classified as mollusks✓
• D. Being Classified as vertebrates
• E. Having a three chambered heart

Explanation: ‘Mollusk’ , also spelled mollusc, any soft-bodied invertebrate of the phylum Mollusca, usually wholly or partly enclosed in a calcium carbonate shell secreted by a soft mantle covering the body.

Q37. Which of the following lacks vertebrates?

• A. The duckbill platypus
• B. The turtle
• C. The Amphioxus✓
• D. The trout
• E. The rabbit

Explanation: Amphioxus, although very vertebrate-like, lacks several key vertebrate innovations including neural crest, bone, and an endoskeleton.

Q38. The notochord is:

• A. Present in adult chordates
• B. Present in all echinoderms
• C. Present in chordates during embryological developments✓
• D. Always a vestigial organ in chordates

Explanation: The notochord is the defining structure of the chordates, and has essential roles in vertebrate development. It serves as a source of midline signals that pattern surrounding tissues and as a major skeletal element of the developing embryo.

Q39. Classification of organization is based on all the following except:

• A. Structure
• B. Development
• C. Evolutionary relationship
• D. Common ancestry
• E. Size✓

Explanation: Classification of organisms is not based on size because The sizes of organisms on Earth vary greatly and are not always easy to estimate. Organisms having the same structure/development may vary in sizes.

Q40. Which type of mammalian cell does not carry out oxidative phosphorylation?

• A. Cardiac muscle cells
• B. Liver cells
• C. Neurons
• D. RBCs✓

Explanation: RBCs have a biconcave shape and it lacks nucleus and mitochondria and hence many metabolic pathways such as oxidative phosphorylation. Instead, RBCs depend on the anaerobic conversion of glucose via pyruvate to lactate.

Q41. At which site does designation of starches begin:

• A. 1✓
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4

Explanation: Starch digestion begins in the mouth with the addition of salivary amylase to food particles. Salivary amylase acts specifically on starch in the food and breaks them down to more simple compounds such as maltose.

Q42. Structure 4 (Liver) is responsible for:

• A. Reduces bile
• B. Produces bile✓
• C. Secretes bile
• D. Secretes bicarbonate
• E. Secretes HCl

Explanation: Bile is a digestive fluid produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder.

Q43. Which structure is primarily responsible for water absorption during digestion?

• A. 5
• B. 6
• C. 7
• D. 14✓
• E. 9

Explanation: Large intestines are responsible for water absorption during digestion.

Q44. Consider the following statements about biological communities (I) Their members share a common gene pool (II) The community remains stable even through some physical aspect of environment may undergo change (III) They possess predictable kinds of species in predictable proportions (IV) Interactions between their frequent within the community than between their members and those of neighboring communities Which two of all the above statements apply to all stable biological communities?

• A. I and II
• B. II and III
• C. I and III
• D. III and IV✓
• E. II and IV

Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect because the members of biological communities do not share a common gene pool; if the environment undergoes certain changes it will affect the community as well and hence the community will not remain stable.

Q45. The diagram summarizes the pathway a glucose breakdownHexose ↓Triose phosphate↓Pyruvate↓Acetyl CoA↓6C compound↓H2O + CO2Which two steps result in a net increase of ATP.

• A. 1 and 3
• B. 1 and 4
• C. 2 and 4✓
• D. 2 and 5
• E. 3 and 5

Explanation: When 3 carbon triose phosphate is converted into pyruvate 2 molecules of ATP are gained and 2 molecules of ATP are gained in the Krebs cycle.

Q46. Which one of the following enables the mammalian kidney to regulate water reabsorption during states of dehydration?

• A. The cells of the tubules detect the osmotic pressure of the blood
• B. Water is extracted from the glomerular filtrate in the proximal tubule
• C. The kidney produces hyptonic urine
• D. Hormones increase the permeability of the collecting ducts✓
• E. A low solute concentration is maintained around the collecting ducts

Explanation: Water excretion by the kidney is regulated by the peptide hormone vasopressin. Vasopressin increases the water permeability of the renal collecting duct cells, allowing more water to be reabsorbed from collecting duct urine to blood.

Q47. A drug reduces mitochondrial activity in nephrons of the kidney. Which chemical will be present in increased amounts in the urine?

• A. Ammonia
• B. Glucose✓
• C. Hydrogen bicarbonate
• D. Urea

Explanation: This happens because in mitochondria aerobic respiration occurs(breakdown of food in presence of oxygen)The food is glucose.Aerobic respiration:Glucose+o2=CO2 + ATPSo if the mitochondrial activity is reduced then glucose will not be used and will be excreted out through urine.

Q48. Where, in the nephron, is most glucose reabsorbed?

• A. In the ascending loop of henle
• B. In the descending loop of henle
• C. In the proximal (first) convoluted tubule✓
• D. In the distal (second) convoluted tubule

Explanation: Most of the glucose entering the tubular system is reabsorbed along the nephron segments, primarily in the proximal tubule, such that urine is almost free of glucose. This is different in diabetes, where the filtered glucose exceeds the transport capacity of the tubular system for glucose and glucosuria occurs.

Q49. The spinal cord serves as the center of:

• A. Subconscious thought
• B. Reflex actions✓
• C. Habits
• D. Tropism

Explanation: It is the processing unit for reflex actions because all nerves from various parts of the body meet at the spinal cord before reaching the brain.

Q50. The most abundant substance in protoplasm is:

• A. Protein
• B. Fat
• C. Carbohydrate
• D. Water✓
• E. Minerals

Explanation: Protoplasm is a mixture of small molecules such as ions, monosaccharides, amino acids, and macromolecules such as proteins, polysaccharides, lipids, etc.On the average protoplasm contains 84 percent water. Most of the water is present in free unbounded form and provides a medium for metabolic reactions occurring in a cell.

Q51. The placenta releases all of the following hormones EXCEPT:

• A. Progesterone
• B. LH✓
• C. HCG
• D. Estrogen
• E. Minerals

Explanation: LH is made by your pituitary gland, a small gland located underneath the brain. LH plays an important role in sexual development and functioning. In women, LH helps control the menstrual cycle. It also triggers the release of an egg from the ovary. Rest is released by the placenta.

Q52. The diagram below represents the synapse between two mammalian myelinated neurons, X and Y. the arrows shows the direction ofThe transmission of impulses across the synapse is bought about by the:

• A. Breakdown of the terminal membrane of X
• B. Passage of an electric current
• C. Release of sodium ions from X
• D. Buildup of a potential difference between X and Y
• E. Secretion of a chemical from X✓

Explanation: The impulse that reaches the terminal of an axon, stimulates the nerve cell to secrete certain chemicals. These chemicals pass through a minute space, called the synapse, between two adjacent neurons and generate the impulse in the dendrites of the next neuron.

Q53. All the following organs produce hormones involved in the reproductive cycle EXCEPT the:

• A. Testes
• B. Pitituary
• C. Pancreas✓
• D. Ovaries
• E. Uterus

Explanation: Pancreas don't play part in reproduction Instead, the hormones secreted by the endocrine gland in the pancreas are insulin and glucagon, which regulate the level of glucose in the blood, and somatostatin, which prevents the release of insulin and glucagon.

Q54. In human female FSH regulates the concentration of:

• A. Control
• B. Estrogen✓
• C. Cortisol
• D. Aldosterone
• E. None of the above

Explanation: Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) is produced by the pituitary gland in the brain. It is an important hormone for normal functioning of the reproductive system in men and women. In women, FSH helps control the menstrual cycle and the production of eggs by the ovaries. FSH stimulates growth of the granulosa cells of the ovarian follicle and controls their estrogen secretion. At the midpoint of the menstrual cycle, the increasing level of estradiol stimulates a surge of LH secretion, which then triggers ovulation.

Q55. Reduction division occur during the process of:

• A. Reduction
• B. Differentiation
• C. Fertilization
• D. Meiosis✓
• E. Parthenogenesis

Explanation: The first cell division in meiosis, the process by which germ cells are formed. In reduction division, the chromosome number is reduced from diploid (46 chromosomes) to haploid (23 chromosomes). Also known as first meiotic division and first meiosis.Each daughter chromosome is pulled along by its centromere. The two sister chromatids of each chromosome are pulled apart by the spindle and dragged by their kinetochores toward opposite poles of the cell. Hence there is a reduction in the number of chromosomes to half.

Q56. The muscles attached to the bones are:

• A. Voluntary and smooth
• B. Involuntary and smooth
• C. Voluntary and striated✓
• D. Involuntary and striated
• E. Smooth and striated

Explanation: Muscles attached to the bones are called skeletal muscles. Skeletal muscles are voluntary and striated.

Q57. Which of the following statement regarding the periosteum is INCORRECT:

• A. The periosteum serves as the site of attachment of bone to muscle
• B. Cells of the periosteum differentiate into osteoblasts.✓
• C. The periosteum is a fibrous sheath that surrounds long bones
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Your periosteum helps your bones grow and develop.Osteoblasts originate from immature mesenchymal stem cells, which can also differentiate and give rise to chondrocytes. Mesenchymal stem cells undergo several transcription steps to form mature osteoblast cells.

Q58. The most correct statement about muscle contraction is:

• A. Actin moves to shorten the muscle
• B. Cross bridges connecting the two molecule of myofibril is made up of G –Actin
• C. Contraction of myosin molecule results in muscle contraction
• D. Ca+ is necessary for binding of cross bridges✓

Explanation: In muscle contraction, calcium ions (Ca²⁺) play a crucial role in the interaction between myosin and actin, which are the proteins responsible for muscle contraction. When a muscle receives a signal to contract, calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (a specialized type of endoplasmic reticulum) within the muscle cells. The presence of calcium ions allows the binding of myosin heads (cross bridges) to actin filaments. This binding forms cross-bridges between the thick myosin filaments and the thin actin filaments within the muscle fibers. The cross-bridges go through a series of biochemical reactions that result in muscle contraction. When the muscle contraction process is completed, calcium ions are actively transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, and the cross-bridges detach, allowing the muscle to relax. So, calcium ions are indeed necessary for the binding of cross bridges and for the initiation of muscle contraction.

Q59. The absorption and use of calcium are regulated by:

• A. Parathormone✓
• B. Adrenaline
• C. Thyroxin
• D. Thiamin
• E. Prolactin

Explanation: Circulating parathyroid hormone targets the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct, directly increasing calcium reabsorption.

Q60. On a very cold day, a man waits for over an hour at the bus stop. Which of the following structures helps his body set and maintain a normal body temperature:

• A. Hypothalamus✓
• B. Kidneys
• C. Heart
• D. Brain system

Explanation: Our internal body temperature is regulated by a part of our brain called the hypothalamus. The hypothalamus checks our current temperature and compares it with the normal temperature of about 37°C. If our temperature is too low, the hypothalamus makes sure that the body generates and maintains heat.

Q61. Which hormone triggers your body to retain NaCl, especially during periods of excessive heat?

• A. Aldosterone✓
• B. Progesterone
• C. ACTH
• D. Epinephrine
• E. Testosterone

Explanation: Aldosterone signals certain organs, like your kidneys and colon, to increase the amount of sodium they send into your bloodstream or the amount of potassium released in your urine. Aldosterone's effect on sodium increase causes your body to retain water in your blood, which increases blood volume.

Q62. Which of the following is true regarding passive and active immunity?

• A. Active immunity requires weeks to build, where as passive immunity is acquired immediately✓
• B. Active immunity is short lived, whereas passive immunity is long lived
• C. Active immunity may be acquired during pregnancy through placenta
• D. Passive immunity may be acquired through vaccination

Explanation: Option A is the correct answer.Option B: Passive immunity lasts only for a few weeks or months. Only active immunity is long-lasting.Option C: During the last 3 months of pregnancy, antibodies from mothers are passed to their unborn babies through the placenta. This type of immunity is called passive immunity because the baby has been given antibodies rather than making them itself.Option D: Vaccines provide active immunity to disease.

Q63. Which of the following is NOT an example of a non –specific defense mechanism?

• A. Skin provides a physical barrier against invasion
• B. Macrophages engulf and destroy foreign particles
• C. An inflammatory response to physical damage
• D. Cytotoxic T cells destroy foreign antigens✓

Explanation: The cytotoxic T cells destroy foreign antigens is a specific defense mechanismSpecific defense : (sometimes called adaptive immunity) recognizes and coordinates attacks against specific pathogens. The system can also remember pathogens and produce a powerful response the next time a pathogen enters the body.The cytotoxic T cells bind to the infected cells and secrete cytotoxins that induce apoptosis (cell suicide) in the infected cell and perforins that cause perforations in the infected cells. Both of these mechanisms destroy the pathogen in the infected body cell.

Q64. When B –cells are presented with antigen they differentiate into:

• A. T cells
• B. Helper T cells
• C. Plasma cells✓
• D. Bursa cells

Explanation: In the latter, typically activated B cells acquire cognate signals from T helper cells in the germinal center of lymphoid follicles to differentiate into plasma cells (PCs), which generate protective antibodies.

Q65. During which of the following processes ATP is produced? (I) Photosynthesis(II) Aerobic respiration(III) Anaerobic respiration

• A. I only
• B. II only
• C. I and II only
• D. II and III only
• E. I, II and III only✓

Explanation: ATP is produced during photosynthesis as well as aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

Q66. Structures that conduct materials throughout a plant are called?

• A. Lenticels
• B. Meristem
• C. Fibrovascular bundles✓
• D. Cambium
• E. Epidermis

Explanation: The vascular cambium are unspecialised meristematic tissues that are found in between the primary xylem and primary phloem. Since it is a meristematic tissue, it gives rise to secondary xylem and secondary phloem.

Q67. Given plants carry on respiration:

• A. Only during the day
• B. Only at day
• C. During both day and night✓
• D. Only when photosynthesis is going on
• E. Only when photosynthesis is not going on

Explanation: Respiration occurs all through the day, but the photosynthesis process occurs in the daytime, in the presence of sunlight only. Consequently, respiration becomes evident at night time in plants.

Q68. Photophosphorylation during photosynthesis results in the formation of:

• A. ATP✓
• B. NAD
• C. FAD
• D. ADP

Explanation: Photophosphorylation is the process of utilizing light energy from photosynthesis to convert ADP to ATP.

Q69. Which of the following has evolved mainly as a result of artificial selection?

• A. Darker coloring of prepared moth near industrial areas
• B. Increased production of antibiotics by the fungus penicillium species✓
• C. Increased resistance of houseflies to the insecticide DDT
• D. Increased resistance of lichens to the heavy metals on tree bark around mine workings

Explanation: Artificial selection is an evolutionary process in which humans consciously select for or against particular features in organisms. Increased production of antibiotics by the fungus penicillium species has evolved as a result of artificial selection.

Q70. The technique of DNA fingerprinting has been used to identify people in crime, accidents, and family relationships. To analyze the DNA of members of the same family, it is necessary to examine samples of their tissues for:

• A. Similarities in the nucleotide uracil
• B. Similarities in the deoxyribose sugar
• C. Similarities in nucleotide base pairs✓
• D. RNA differences

Explanation: Similarities in the nucleotide base pairs is the correct answer. Uracil is not related to DNA and is a nucleotide of RNA.The structure of deoxyribose sugar is the same in all.

Q71. Five stages in the production of human insulin by genetic engineering techniques are given1. DNA cut with restriction enzymes 2. DNA copy made using reverse transcriptase 3. Messenger RNA extracted from cells 4. Plasmid RNA joined to donor DNA using a ligase enzyme5. Recombinant plasmid inserted into bacterial cellWhich sequence is correct? First ------ Last

• A. 1->3->2->5->4.
• B. 1->3->4->2->5.
• C. 2->1->3->2->5.
• D. 3->2->1->4->5.✓

Explanation: First step is extraction of mRNA, in second step same mRNA is reversed to make a copy of DNA, in step 3 restriction enzyme is used to cut DNA, is step 4 ligase enzyme is to join donor DNA to plasmid RNA, in step 5 recombinant plasmid is inserted into the cell.

Q72. All of the following statements about tropical rain forests are true EXCEPT:

• A. They regulate the global climate of entire planet
• B. Through photosynthesis they give off great quantities of carbon dioxide✓
• C. They contribute perhaps 50% of the rainfall in the amazon area
• D. They contain countless thousands of species of plants and animals
• E. Their soil is comparatively infertile

Explanation: Tropical rainforests encompass approximately 1.2 billion hectares (3 billion acres) of vegetation and are sometimes described as the Earth's thermostat. Rainforests produce about 20% of our oxygen and store a huge amount of carbon dioxide, drastically reducing the impact of greenhouse gas emissions.

Q73. What are edaphic factors in the environment concerned with:

• A. Animals
• B. The soil✓
• C. Climate
• D. Wave action
• E. Fire

Explanation: These edaphic factors are related to the structure and composition of the soil. It includes the physical, chemical, and biological properties of soil. The soil composition, organic matter content, soil moisture, humidity, and microorganisms all constitute edaphic factors.

Q74. A cross in which three fourths of the offspring appear dominant is:

• A. Tt x TT
• B. TT x tt
• C. Tt x tt
• D. Tt xTt✓
• E. TT x TT

Explanation: Option D is the correct answer.Results are TT, Tt, Tt, tt.3/4 is dominant, 1/4 is recessive (tt).

Q75. Which of the following is the combination of bases that cannot be present in DNA is:

• A. AUCG✓
• B. ATCG
• C. ATTA
• D. CGTA
• E. GCAT

Explanation: DNA is composed of 4 base pairs 1) Adinine, 2)Thymine 3)Guanine 4)Cytosine. Uracil is present in RNA which differentiate RNA and DNA.

Q76. Plants and animals cells are alike in processing:

• A. Chlorophyll
• B. Chloroplast
• C. Cell wall
• D. Cellulose
• E. Cell membrane✓

Explanation: Cell membrane is present in both plant and animal cells. Rest are all present in plant cells and not animal cells.

Q77. Which of the following choices correctly shows structures which are found in eukaryotic cells? (√= present , x= absent)

• A. A
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D
• E. E✓

Explanation: Eukaryotic cells have all three things.

Q78. Which one of the following types of bond is principally concerned in maintaining the alpha helix shape of secondary protein structure?

• A. Disulphide bonds
• B. Peptide bonds
• C. Ester bonds
• D. Phosphate bonds
• E. Hydrogen bonds✓

Explanation: α-helices are formed and maintained by backbone interactions parallel to the primary axis of the helix. These interactions are hydrogen bonds between the carbonyl oxygen and amino nitrogen of the ith and i + 4th amino acids.

Q79. Which class of molecule is the major component of cell membrane?

• A. Phospholipid✓
• B. Cellulose
• C. Wax
• D. Triglyceride

Explanation: The fundamental building blocks of all cell membranes are phospholipids, which are amphipathic molecules, consisting of two hydrophobic fatty acid chains linked to a phosphate-containing hydrophilic head group.

Q80. Energy can be made available to the body in the following ways :(I) Conversion of surplus amino acids and glycerol to blood glucose and mobilization of fat deposits which pass to the tissue for oxidation .(II) Breakdown of liver and muscle glycogen to form glucose .(III) Tissue protein to release aminoacids which are then converted into glucose in which order does the body draw on potential energy when it is being starved of food?

• A. I -> II -> III
• B. I -> III -> II
• C. II -> I -> III✓
• D. II -> III -> I
• E. III -> I -> II

Explanation: This energy comes from the food we eat. Our bodies digest the food we eat by mixing it with fluids (acids and enzymes) in the stomach. When the stomach digests food, the carbohydrate (sugars and starches) in the food breaks down into another type of sugar, called glucose.

Q81. The autonomic nervous system controls all of the following activities EXCEPT:

• A. Secretion of digestive juices
• B. Peristalsis
• C. Sweating
• D. Thought✓

Explanation: The autonomic nervous system manages body processes you don't think about. Those processes include heartbeat, blood pressure, digestion and more.

Q82. The nucleus contains all of the following structures except:

• A. Mitochondria✓
• B. Chromatin
• C. Genes
• D. Nucleolus
• E. Nuclear membrane

Explanation: Nucleus contains nuclear envelope, nuclear lamina, nucleolus, chromosomes, nucleoplasm. Numerous Mitochondria are present in cell but not in nucleus.

Q83. Which of the following choices INCORRECTLY pairs a digestive enzyme with its secretion?

• A. Pancreatic amylase -> pancreas
• B. Aminopeptidase -> stomach✓
• C. Enterokinase -> intestinal glands
• D. Maltase -> intestinal glands

Explanation: Aminopeptidases catalyze the cleavage of amino acids from the amino terminus of protein or peptide substrates.It is produced and secreted by glands of the small intestine.

Q84. Macromolecules are of types:

• A. 3
• B. 4✓
• C. 5
• D. 6

Explanation: Macro molecules are of 4 types.1. Proteins2. Lipids3. Carbohydrates 4. Nucleic acids.

Q85. The long chains of amino acids are called:

• A. Oils
• B. Polypeptide✓
• C. Monopeptide
• D. Protein

Explanation: The primary structure of proteins is made up of long-chain amino acids known as the polypeptide chain.

Q86. The general formula for carbohydrates is:

• A. Nn(H2O)n
• B. Pn(H2O)n
• C. Cn(H2O)n✓
• D. Hn(H2O)n
• E. Hn(C2O)n

Explanation: All carbohydrates have the general formula Cn(H2O)n. Carbohydrates, more commonly known as sugars, are made up of carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen atoms. The smallest unit of a carbohydrate is a monosaccharide. Two monosaccharides make up a disaccharide, and many monosaccharides make up a polysaccharide.

Q87. Lipids are generally defined in terms of:

• A. Solubility✓
• B. Structure
• C. Molarity
• D. All of the above

Explanation: Lipids are defined by Solubility and Intermolecular Forces. lipids are a class of naturally occurring molecules that are soluble in nonpolar organic solvents, and are not soluble in water.

Q88. As a result of increased CO2 in the atmosphere, oceans will become more:

• A. Alkaline
• B. Acidic✓
• C. Saline
• D. Cooler

Explanation: Oceans absorb about 30 percent of carbon dioxide (CO2) we produce, reducing the pH of seawater. This process is known as ocean acidification.

Q89. FIX THIS: Infrared lamps are used in restaurants and cafeterias to keep food warm. The infrared radiation is strongly absorbed by water, raising its temperature and that of the food... if the wavelength of infrared radiation is assumed to be 1500mm, then the number of protons per second of infrared radiation is produced by an infrared lamp that consumes energy of the rate of 100 watt and is 12% efficient will be:

• A. 4 x 1010
• B. 9 x 1019✓
• C. 11 x 1012
• D. 15 x 104

Explanation: The correct option is B.Consider E= hc/lamdaWhere, E= energy per photonh= Planks constant= 6.626-34 J/sec.c = speed of light = 3 x 108 m/sE = hc/lamda E = hc/ 1500mm0.12 x 100= n x 6.6 x 10-34 x 3 x 108/1500 x 1019n= 9 x 1019.As it is a numerical, so i has only one answer.

Q90. When N2+ is form N2 bond-order ......... and when O2+ is formed from O2 bond-order:

• A. Increases increases
• B. Decreases decreases
• C. Increases decreases
• D. Decrease increase✓

Explanation: Molecular orbital configuration of N2 is 1s2 2s2 2p3 Molecular orbital configuration of O2 is 1s2 2s2 2p4. When n2+ is formed from n2 electron is removed from sigma- bonding and hence boiling point decreases while o2+ is formed from o2, electron is removed from pie bonding and boiling point increases.

Q91. FIX THIS:The process requiring absorption of energy is:

• A. F→ F
• B. Cl→ Cl
• C. O→ O
• D. H→H✓

Explanation: The amount of energy released when an electron is added to an atom is termed as electron affinity. Here for all the options other than D, the reaction is exothermic. The addition of a second electron to the O-ve ion requires more energy. The repulsion between the electron and the ion makes O-O2(negative) endothermic.

Q92. A solution of 500 ml of 0.2 KOH and 500ml of 0.2M HCl is mixed and stirred; the rise in temperature is T1. The experiment is repeated using 250ml of each of the solution: the temperature rise is T2. Which of the following is true?

• A. T1 = T2✓
• B. T1 = 2T2
• C. T1 = 4T2
• D. T2 = 9T1

Explanation: The reaction involved here is: KOH+ HCL= KCL + H20For finding moles the equation used will be: NO. of mole= molarity x volume.NO. of mole= 0.2 x 500 = 100As in the question, CV is not given we eliminate the term and rewrite the equation as; Q=nΔTFor Q1, Q1=nΔT=100×T1=100T1Molarity of the solution is 0.2M and the volume of the solution is 250ml.No. of moles = 0.2×250 = 50ForQ2,Q2 =nΔT=50×T2=50T2From the equations obtained we can say that the Q1 = 2Q2100T1 = 2 × 50T2100T1 = 100T2T1=T2

Q93. An aqueous solution of TI(H2O) 6] 3+] appears:

• A. Greenish yellow in colour
• B. Blue in colour
• C. Violet in colour
• D. Purple in colour✓

Explanation: Purple color due to d-d transition.

Q94. Amongst the following ions whish has the highest paramagnetism?

• A. [Cr(H2O) 6] 3+]
• B. [Fe(H2O) 6] 2+]✓
• C. [Cu(H2O) 6] 2+]
• D. [Zn(H2O) 6] 2+]

Explanation: [Fe(H2O)6]2+ has the maximum number of unpaired electrons; therefore, the highest degree of paramagnetism.

Q95. FIX THIS:For A gaseous reaction. A2+2B → 2AB, the following rate data are obtained at 250k. Calculate the rate of formation of AB when [A2] = 0.02M and [B] = 0.01M at 250K.

• A. 4.8 x 10-5 mole-1 s -1✓
• B. 4.8 x 10-6 mole -1 s -1
• C. 5.8 x 10-6 mole -1 s -1
• D. 5.8 x 10-5 mole -1 s -1

Explanation: Rate of reaction isa way to measure how fast reactants are being turned into products. It is defined as the relationship between how a chemical is being created/used to the time elapsed to do so, in the form of Rate of reaction Rate of reaction is way to measure how fast reactants are being turned into products. It is defined as the relationship between how a chemical is being created/used to the time elapsed to do so, in the form of Rate of reaction

Q96. Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Cu(s) + Zn2+(aq) at 300 K Ecell is 1.12V. what is the entropy change (ΔS) for the above cell reaction?

• A. 386 JK-1✓
• B. 486 JK-1
• C. 286 JK-1
• D. 586 JK-1

Explanation: The entropy change (ΔS) can be calculated using the equation:ΔS = q/T, where q is the heat transferred and T is the temperature.Since the reaction occurs at constant temperature, the change in entropy is equal to the heat transferred divided by the temperature.From the given equation, Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) -> Cu(s) + Zn2+(aq), we know that one mole of electrons is transferred.The Faraday constant (F) is 96,485 C/mol, so the heat transferred (q) is equal to the product of the Faraday constant and the cell potential (Ecell).q = F * Ecell = 96,485 C/mol * 1.12 V Now we can substitute the values into the equation to calculate the entropy change:ΔS = q / T = (96,485 C/mol * 1.12 V) / 300 K = 386 J/KTherefore, the entropy change (ΔS) for the given cell reaction is 386 J/K.

Q97. Which of the following alkyl halides will undergo SN1 reaction most readily?

• A. (CH3)3 - F
• B. (CH3)3 - Cl
• C. (CH3)3 - Br
• D. (CH3)3 - I✓

Explanation: All options given are alkyl halide (tertiary) so all will form tertiary carbocation. But order of leaving group ability Is I− > Br− > Cl− > F− SN1 mechanism goes through formation of carbocation. More easily leaving group leaves more easily the carbocation will form. Option D is correct.

Q98. FIX THIS:If 2-amino 3-methylbutane were treated with excess methyl iodide, silver oxide and water, what would be the major reaction products?

• A. Ammonia and 2 methyl – 2- butane
• B. Trimethylamine and 3 methyl-1-butane
• C. Trimethylamine and 2 methyl-2-butane✓
• D. Ammonia and 3 methyl - 1- butane

Explanation: The correct option is C. When 2-amino 3-methylbutane reacts with excess methyl iodide, silver oxide, and water, the major reaction products are trimethylamine and 2 methyl-2-butane.

Q99. FIX THIS:If an amino acid (PH=9.74) in water acidic solution is completely titrated with sodium hydroxide, what will be its charge at PH 3, 7 and 11 respectively?

• A. Positive , neutral , negative
• B. Negative , neutral , positive
• C. Neutral , positive , positive
• D. Positive , positive , negative✓

Explanation: So, the charges at pH 3, 7, and 11 will be positive, positive, and negative, respectively. The correct answer is D.

Q100. Amino acids with non-polar R-groups have which of the following characteristics is aqueous solution?

• A. They are hydrophilic and found buried within the protein
• B. They are hydrophobic and found buried within the protein✓
• C. They are hydrophobic and found on protein surface
• D. They are hydrophilic and found on protein surface

Explanation: Amino acids with non-polar R-groups are hydrophobic in nature. In an aqueous solution, they tend to avoid interactions with water molecules and therefore are typically found buried within the interior of proteins. This helps to shield their hydrophobic R-groups from the surrounding water, as water molecules tend to form hydrogen bonds with each other rather than with hydrophobic molecules. So, the correct statement is: They are hydrophobic and found buried within the protein.

Q101. FIX THIS:Part of periodic table is shown; the letters are not symbol of the elements.Which statement is correct?

• A. V is more relative than Y
• B. W has more metallic character than Y
• C. Y has a lower melting point than V
• D. Option a and c both are correct✓

Q102. FIX THIS:The bar chart shows the period of elements from lithium to neon.Which property of these elements is shown in the chart?

• A. The number of electron is used in bonding✓
• B. The number of orbits holding electrons
• C. The (protons) electronic number
• D. The relative atomic number

Explanation: Option A is correct because the bar chart is arranged based on the chemical properties of the elements, specifically their bonding behavior. The elements are grouped according to the number of electrons they have in their outermost shell, which directly influences their bonding behavior with other elements. This number is known as the valence electron count. Elements with similar numbers of valence electrons tend to exhibit similar chemical properties and form similar types of bonds.

Q103. FIX THIS:Alpha helices are secondary structures characterized by:

• A. Intramolecular hydrogen bonds✓
• B. Disulphide bonds
• C. A rippled effect
• D. Intermolecular hydrogen bonds

Explanation: Option A is correct because alpha helices are stabilized by intramolecular hydrogen bonds between the carbonyl oxygen of one amino acid and the amide hydrogen of another amino acid, forming a helical structure in proteins.

Q104. A metal sulphate contains 9.87% of M. This sulphate is isomorphous with ZnSO4, 7H2O. Determine the atomic weight of metal M.

• A. 24.31✓
• B. 34.31
• C. 25.25
• D. 44.41
• E. 50.75

Explanation: Let x be the molar mass of M.Molar mass of M = 100 / 9.87 * xMolar mass of Zn = 65.38 g/molSince they are isomorphous, equate the molar masses:100 / 9.87 * x = 65.38Solve for x:x = 65.38 * 9.87 / 100x = 6.46 g/molThe molar mass of M is 6.46 g/mol, but it is a metal, so the atomic mass is approximately 24.31 g/mol.

Q105. FIX THIS:100 cc of oxygen is collected over water at 20oC and 800ml pressure. If vapour pressure of water vapours at 20oC is 21.00mm, then calculate volume of the Gas NTP.

• A. 100 cc✓
• B. 94.53 cc
• C. 150 cc
• D. 90.0 cc

Explanation: Volume of gas at NTP = Volume of gas collected - Volume of water vaporVolume of water vapor = Vapour pressure of water at 20oC * Volume of water (800ml) / Total pressureVolume of gas at NTP = 100cc - (21.00mm * 800ml / 800mm) = 100cc (approx.)

Q106. FIX THIS:Y G of non-volatile substance (molecular mass M) is dissolved into 50 G of Benzene. If Kb is the metal elevation constant, the value of T , is given by

• A. 4 M/Kb.Y✓
• B. 4 Kb.Y/M
• C. Kb.Y /4M
• D. Kb.Y /M

Explanation: The equation to calculate the boiling point elevation (ΔTb) is ΔTb = Kb * m Where m is the molality of the solute. Molality (m) is calculated by Dividing the moles of the solute (Y g / M) by the mass of the solvent (50 g / 78.11 g/mol). Hence, ΔTb = Kb * (Y / (M * 50 / 78.11)), which Simplifies to ΔTb = 4Y / (M * Kb). Therefore, T (boiling point) is given by: T = Tb + ΔTb = Tb + (4Y / (M * Kb)), which can be written as T = 4M / Kb * Y.

Q107. A mixture of ethanol and propanol has vapour pressure of 290mm at 29oC. If mole fraction of ethanol is 0.65, then what will be its vapour pressure if vapour pressure of pure propanol is 210mm?

• A. 333.1 mm✓
• B. 441.5 mm
• C. 890.2 mm
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Vapour pressure of ethanol (P₁) = 290 mm, mole fraction of ethanol (X₁) = 0.65, vapour pressure of propanol (P₂) = 210 mm.Using Raoult's law: P₁ = X₁ * P°₁ and P₂ = X₂ * P°₂, where P°₁ and P°₂ are the vapour pressures of pure ethanol and propanol, respectively.Since the mixture contains only ethanol and propanol: X₁ + X₂ = 1.Solving for X₂: X₂ = 1 - X₁ = 1 - 0.65 = 0.35.Now, calculate P₁ using the formula: P₁ = X₁ * P°₁ = 0.65 * P°₁.Similarly, calculate P₂ using the formula: P₂ = X₂ * P°₂ = 0.35 * 210 mm.Finally, calculate the total vapour pressure of the mixture: P_total = P₁ + P₂ = (0.65 * P°₁) + (0.35 * 210 mm) = 333.1 mm.

Q108. FIX THIS:At 25oC, the equilibrium constants K1 and K2 of two reactions are 2NH3 ↔ N2 + 3H2 and 1/2N2 + 3/2H2 ↔ NH3; K1 and .K2 are related as:

• A. K1 = K2
• B. K1 = 1 / K22✓
• C. K1 = 1 / K1 2
• D. K2 = 1 / K1

Explanation: .

Q109. For the reaction N2 + O2 ↔ 2NO, the value of K is 0.0842 at 3500 K. Calculate the fraction of equilibrium mixture of N2 and O2 converted into NO.

• A. 15.0 %✓
• B. 16.3 %
• C. 16.5 %
• D. 16.9 %

Explanation: Using the given equilibrium constant (K = 0.0842), we can set up the expression for the equilibrium constant:K = [NO]^2 / ([N2] * [O2])Let x be the fraction of N2 and O2 converted to NO. At equilibrium:[NO] = 2x[N2] = (1 - x)[O2] = (1 - x)Substitute these values into the equilibrium constant expression and solve for x:0.0842 = (2x)^2 / ((1 - x) * (1 - x))x = 0.15 or 15.0% (rounded to one decimal place).

Q110. FIX THIS:Chlorine in Vinyl chloride is not very reactive because:

• A. C−Cl bond develops partial double bonds✓
• B. Of resonance
• C. Sp2 hybridized carbon has more acidic character than sp3 hybridized carbon
• D. All of the above

Explanation: The explanation for this question will be added soon

Q111. FIX THIS:One of the isomers of C6 H12 (A) has chiral carbon but on hydrogenation it losses is chirality. A is:

• A. 2- methyl -2- pentene✓
• B. 2,3-Dimethyl -2-butene
• C. 3-methyl-1-pentene
• D. 3,3 Di methyl-1- butane

Explanation: Option A is correct because 2-methyl-2-pentene (A) contains a chiral carbon (marked with an asterisk) in its structure, but upon hydrogenation (addition of H2), the double bond breaks, resulting in a symmetrical structure without any chiral carbon.

Q112. An equimolar quantities of ethanol and methanol are heated with conc: H2SO4. The product formed is:

• A. CH3OCH3
• B. C2H5OCH3
• C. C2H5OC2H5
• D. All of the Above✓

Explanation: D is the correct answer

Q113. Which one of the following phenol is more soluble in aq: NaCHO3

• A. 2,4-Dihydrox acetophenone✓
• B. 2,4,6-Tricyano phenol
• C. 3,4- Dicyano phenol
• D. P-Cyano phenol

Explanation: Option A, 2,4-Dihydroxy acetophenone, is more soluble in aqueous NaCHO3. The hydroxyl groups in this compound form hydrogen bonds with NaCHO3, increasing its solubility. In contrast, options B, C, and D lack such polar functional groups to facilitate significant solubility.

Q114. A water soluble compound of molecular formula C3H6O gives yellow crystalline solid on heating with I and Na2CO3 , the compound is:

• A. CH3CH2 CHO
• B. CH2 OCH = CH2
• C. CH3 COCH3✓
• D. CH2 =CHCH2 OH

Explanation: When the conditions are alkaline,ketones containing methyl group (CH3CO−) give yellow crystalline solid with I2 And Na2CO3. This is known as the Iodoform reaction.

Q115. FIX THIS: Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing reactivity towards the addition of HCN. Acetaldehyde (I) , Acetone (II) , methy t-butyl ketone (III) , di-t-butyl ketone (IV):

• A. IV < I < II < III
• B. I < II < III < IV✓
• C. IV < III < I < III
• D. II < I < IV < III

Explanation: Option B is correct . Option C is incorrect because it places IV before I, which is also wrong. Option D is incorrect because it places II before I, which is again wrong.

Q116. The reaction CH3COOAg + Br2 → CH3 Br + CO2 + AgBr is known as:

• A. Reformatshky reaction
• B. Hunsdicker reaction✓
• C. Decarboxylation
• D. Hell- Vollhard- Zellinsky reaction

Explanation: Hunsdicker reaction, the silver salt of a carboxylic acid produces Alkyl halide on heating with Bromine.

Q117. FIX THIS:ϒ- butyrolactone (ester) does not react with:

• A. NH✓
• B. LiAIH4
• C. EtOH , H+
• D. NaBH4 / EtOH

Explanation: γ-butyrolactone (ester) can react with NH (ammonia) under certain conditions. The reaction involves the nucleophilic attack of ammonia on the ester carbonyl carbon, leading to the formation of an amide and regenerating the hydroxyl group. The reaction is known as ammonolysis or aminolysis of the ester. The mechanism involves the nucleophilic attack of the nitrogen lone pair on the carbonyl carbon, followed by the elimination of the leaving group (OH) as an alcohol.

Q118. Electric cookers have a coating that protects them against fire:

• A. Heavy lead
• B. Magnesium oxide✓
• C. Zinc oxide
• D. Sodium sulphate

Explanation: Magnesium Oxide (MgO) has a high melting point that makes it so that it doesn't burn under low pressure and high temperature.

Q119. Numbers are expressed in a standard form called scientific notation, which employs powers of:

• A. 2
• B. 8
• C. 10✓
• D. 16

Explanation: A number is written in scientific notation when a number between 1 and 10 is multiplied by a power of 10.So the correct option is C.

Q120. A 1500kg vehicle has its velocity reduced from 20m/s to 15m/s in 3.0 seconds. How large was the average retarding force?

• A. -500 N
• B. -1500N
• C. -2500N✓
• D. -3500 N

Explanation: Using the formula; Average force = mass × change in velocity / time F = ma = mass × change in velocity / time Average force = 1500 × 9(15 - 20) / 3 = -2500N The negative sign indicates that the force act opposite to the directon of motion.Therefore, the average retarding force is -2500 N.

Q121. An object moving through a fluid experiences a retarding force known as drag force. The drag force _ as the speed of the object _

• A. Decreases _ Decreases
• B. Decreases _ Increases
• C. Increases _ Decreases
• D. Increases_ Increases✓

Explanation: Drag is a force acting opposite to the relative motion of any object moving with respect to a surrounding fluid.You feel the drag force when you move your hand through the water. You might also feel it if you move your hand during a strong wind. The faster you move your hand, the harder it is to move.Drag force FD is propotional to the square of the speed of the objects. Mathematically,FD = 1/2 C p Av2, Drag force is directly proportional to the square of velocity, so as the speed of the body increases drag force increases.

Q122. The property of bending of light around obstacles and spreading of light waves into a geometrical shadow of an obstacle is known as:

• A. Diffraction✓
• B. Interference
• C. Polarization
• D. Optical rotation

Explanation: Diffraction, the spreading of waves around obstacles.Diffraction is the slight bending of light as it passes around the edge of an object. The amount of bending depends on the relative size of the wavelength of light to the size of the opening.So the correct option is A.

Q123. FIX THIS:The distance between the slits in young’s double slit experiment is 0.25cm. Interference fringes are formed on a screen placed at a distance of 100cm from slits. The distance of the third dark fringe from the central bright fringe is 0...59cm. What is the wavelength of the incident light?

• A. 390nm
• B. 590nm✓
• C. 690nm
• D. 790nm
• E. 990nm

Explanation: The question is not correct.

Q124. The ratio of the angles subtended by the image as seen through the optical device to the subtended by the object at the unaided eye is known as:

• A. Magnifying power
• B. Angular magnification✓
• C. Simple magnification
• D. Both Magnifying power and Angular Magnification

Explanation: The ratio of the angle subtended at the eye by an image to the angle subtended at the eye by an object is known as the angular magnification of a lens.

Q125. Those waves in which the particle of medium have displacement along the direction of propagation of waves are known as:

• A. Longitudinal waves✓
• B. Transverse waves
• C. Simple waves
• D. Electromagnetic waves

Explanation: A longitudinal wave is a type of wave that travels in the direction of the medium, but a transverse wave is another type of wave that travels in the direction of the medium.So the correct option is A.

Q126. A pipe has a length of 1m. determine the frequencies of the fundamental and the first two harmonic if the pipe is opened at both end.(speed of sound in air is =340m/s)

• A. 170hz, 340hz, 510hz✓
• B. 120hz, 220hz, 390hz
• C. 90hz, 230hz, 440hz
• D. 210hz, 410hz, 510hz

Explanation: The frequencies of the fundamental and the first two harmonics for a pipe open at both ends are 170 Hz, 340 Hz, and 510 Hz, respectively as per the given formulas in the explanation below.

Q127. At the point where the displacement of two waves cancels each other’s effect. The path difference is an odd integral multiple of half of the wavelength. This effect is known as:

• A. Constructive interference
• B. Destructive interference✓
• C. Stationary interference
• D. Simple interference

Explanation: Destructive interference occurs when waves come together so that they completely cancel each other out and when the path difference between the two waves is an odd integral multiple of half the wavelength of the wave.So the correct option is B.

Q128. A steel wire 12mm in diameter is fastened to a log and then pulled by a tractor. The length of the steel wire between the log and the tractor is 11m. A force of 10000N is required to pull the log. What is the stress in the wire?

• A. 33.12 MPa
• B. 44.12 MPa
• C. 66.15 MPa
• D. 77.29 MPa
• E. 88.46 MPa✓

Explanation: Stress (σ) = Force (F) / Area (A)Area (A) = π * (diameter/2)^2Area (A) = π * (12mm/2)^2Area (A) = π * (6mm)^2σ = 10000/ 3.14 (6 * 10-3)2σ = 88.46 MPa

Q129. FIX THIS:Identify the postulate /s which help to formulate a mathematical model of gases. i) A finite volume of gas consists of very large number of molecules ii) The size of the molecules in much smaller than the separation between molecules. iii) Molecules do not exert force on each other except during a collision

• A. I only
• B. II only
• C. III only
• D. I and II only
• E. I, II and III✓

Explanation: Explanation:i) Postulate I states that a finite volume of gas is composed of a very large number of molecules. This assumption allows us to treat gases as continuous media, even though they are composed of discrete particles.ii) Postulate II states that the size of gas molecules is much smaller than the separation between them. This assumption is essential for treating gas molecules as point particles and simplifies the mathematical modeling of their behavior.iii) Postulate III states that gas molecules do not exert force on each other except during collisions. This assumption is fundamental in the kinetic theory of gases and is crucial for developing the mathematical models that describe gas behavior.

Q130. The turbine in a system power takes steam from a boiler at 427C° and exhaust into a low temperature reservoir at 77 C°. What is the maximum possible efficiency?

• A. 10%
• B. 20%
• C. 30%
• D. 50%✓
• E. 70%

Explanation: η=1−TH/​TC​​427+273=700K77+273=350K1-350/7000.5×100=50%

Q131. If a process cannot be retracted in the backward direction by reversing the controlling factors. It is a/an:

• A. Reversible process
• B. Irreversible process✓
• C. Efficient process
• D. Entropic process

Explanation: An irreversible process can be defined as a process in which the system and the surroundings do not return to their original condition once the process is initiated.So the correct option is B.

Q132. A digital system deals with quantities or variables which have only two discrete values or states. Identify examples of such quantities. i) A switch can be either open or closed ii) A bulb can b wither off or on iii) A certain statement can be either true or false

• A. I only
• B. II only
• C. I and II only
• D. III only
• E. I, II and III only✓

Explanation: All options are incorrect because the correct answer is E: I, II, and III only. All three examples (i, ii, and iii) represent quantities or variables with only two discrete values or states in a digital system.

Q133. The potential difference between the terminals of the battery in an open circuit is 2.2V. When it is connected across a resistor of 5.0 ohm, the potential falls to 1.8V. What is the current in the battery?

• A. 0.36A✓
• B. 2.36A
• C. 3.39A
• D. 4.49A
• E. 9.71A

Explanation: When the resistance is connected the potential difference drops from 2.2V to 1.8V. The current remains same in series So R=V / I5=1.8 / II=1.8 / 5I=0.36AHence A is the correct answer.

Q134. A platinum wire has resistance of 10ohm at 0c° and 20ohm at 273c°. What is the value of temperature coefficient of resistance of platinum?

• A. 3.66 x 10 ̄3 k ̄1✓
• B. 4.66 x 10 ̄3 k ̄1
• C. 6.31 x 10 ̄3 k ̄1
• D. 7.42 x 10 ̄3 k ̄1
• E. 9.49 x 10 ̄3 k ̄1

Explanation: Formula for the temperature coefficient is as follows:= (20-10) / (10 x (273-0))=10/(10 x 273)=1 / 273=3.66 x 10-3 K-1

Q135. What resistance must be connected across a galvanometer of 50.0 ohm resistance which gives full scale deflection with 2.0MA current to convert it into an ammeter of range 10.0A?

• A. 105 Ω
• B. 0.01 Ω✓
• C. 2.5 Ω
• D. 3.9 Ω
• E. 4.7 Ω

Explanation: Following formula is use to calculate shunt resistance:=(2 x 10-3 x 50)/(10 - 2 x 10-3)=0.1 / 9.998=0.01 ohmSo the correct option is B.

Q136. Find the radius of an orbit of an electron moving at a rate of 2.0 x 10² m/s in a uniform magnetic field of 1.20 x 10 ̄³ T.

• A. 3.15 x 10 ̄² m
• B. 4.25 x 10 ̄² m
• C. 9.48 x 10 ̄² m✓
• D. 17.77 x 10 -2 m
• E. 19.91 x 10 ̄² m

Explanation: The formula for the radius isr = mv/qB= (9.11 x 10-31) (2 x 102) / (1.6 x 10-19) (1.2 x 10-3)=9.48 x 10-7mHence the correct option is C.

Q137. The time period of pendulum is measured to be 3.0 seconds in the inertial reference frame of the pendulum. What is the period when measured by an observer moving at the speed of 0.95 c relative to the pendulum

• A. 1.2 s
• B. 3.4 s
• C. 7.7 s
• D. 8.1 s
• E. 9.6 s✓

Explanation: We will use the concept of time dilation for this question. The calculations are given below

Q138. FIX THIS:What is mass “m” of a moving object with speed 0.8c?

• A. 1.67m✓
• B. 3.67m
• C. 4.67m
• D. 6.67m
• E. 7.67m

Explanation: The question is incomplete but according to the question following is the answer. According to Einstein's theory of relativity, the change in mass of a particle is given as:

Q139. The emission of electrons from a metal surface when exposed to light of suitable frequency is known as:

• A. Compton’s effect
• B. Photoelectric effect✓
• C. Coulomb’s effect
• D. Faraday’s law
• E. Ohm’s law

Explanation: The photoelectric effect is a phenomenon in which electrons are ejected from the surface of a metal when light is incident on it. These ejected electrons are called photoelectrons. The correct option is B.

Q140. The special theory of relativity is based upon I) The laws of physics are same in all inertial frame .II) The speed of light in free space has the same value for all observers, regardless of their state of motion.

• A. I only
• B. II only
• C. I and II only✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Einstein's special theory of relativity states that the same laws of physics hold true in all inertial reference frames and that the speed of light is the same for all observers, even those moving with respect to one another

Q141. What is the energy of a photon in a beam of infrared radiation of wavelength 1240nm?

• A. 1.0 eV✓
• B. 3.0 eV
• C. 5.0 eV
• D. 7.0 eV

Explanation: Photon velocity equals the speed of light. Photons are massless, but they have energy E = hf = hc/λ. Here h = 6.626*10-34 Js is called Planck's constant. The photon energy is inversely proportional to the wavelength of the electromagnetic wave.E=6.626×10−34 × 3×108​/1240×10-9 ≈ 1.00 eV.

Q142. A nucleus consists of nucleons comprising of protons and neutrons. A proton has a positive charge equal to and has a mass:

• A. 2.6 x 10-19C; 3.6 x 10-28kg
• B. 1.6 x 10-19C; 1.637 x 10-27kg✓
• C. 3.6 x 10-19C; 2.111 x 10-27kg
• D. 4.6 x 10-19C; 9.111 x 10-27kg
• E. 5.6 x 10-19C; 8.111 x 10-27kg

Explanation: You have to memorise the following table.

Q143. Identify the isotope/s of Helium:

• A. 32He
• B. 42He
• C. 15He
• D. 37He
• E. Both 32He and 42He✓

Explanation: Helium has two stable isotopes.

Q144. The half-life T of a radioactive element is that period in which _ of the atoms decay.

• A. Nine times
• B. Double
• C. Half✓
• D. 4 times
• E. 7 times

Explanation: The half-life of a radioactive isotope is the amount of time it takes for one half of the radioactive isotope to decay.So the correct option is C.

Q145. Fluorescence is the property of absorbing radiant energy of _ frequency and re-emitting energy of _ in the visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum.

• A. Low; high
• B. High; low✓
• C. High; high
• D. Low; low

Explanation: A fluorescent lamp usually a tubular electric lamp has a coating of fluorescent material on its inner surface and containing mercury vapor whose bombardment by electrons from the cathode provides ultraviolet light which causes the material to emit visible light.Ultraviolet light has a high frequency and re-emitting energy, as it in the visible region has a low frequency. So the correct option is B.

Q146. A reaction in which a heavy nucleus like that of uranium splits up into two nuclei of roughly equal size along with the emission of energy during the reaction is called a:

• A. Fission reaction✓
• B. Fusion reaction
• C. Counter reaction
• D. Chemical reaction

Explanation: Nuclear fission is a reaction in which the nucleus of an atom splits into two or more smaller nuclei. The fission process often produces gamma photons, and releases a very large amount of energy even by the energetic standards of radioactive decay.So the correct option is A.

Q147. Identify the main type(s) of nuclear reactors:

• A. Slow reactors
• B. Fast reactors
• C. Thermal reactors
• D. Both Slow and Fast reactors✓

Explanation: In thermal reactors, moderator is used to slow down the prompt neutrons to continue chain reaction with low enriched fuel; while in fast reactors, prompt neutrons are directly used to continue chain reaction with high enriched fuel.

Q148. What is the average translational kinetic energy of molecules in a gas at 27°C temperature?

• A. 3.23 x 10-21J
• B. 4.11 x 10-21J
• C. 6.21 x 10-21J✓
• D. 7.71 x 10-21J
• E. 9.11 x 10-21J

Explanation: =(3/2) x 1.38 x 10-23x (27=273)=6.21 x 10-21 JSo the correct option is C.

Q149. Fill in the blankShe was feeling _ even after five hours of the surgery.

• A. Mumbled
• B. Haggard✓
• C. Pally
• D. Grope

Explanation: A. Mumbled means to say something indistinctly and quietly, making it difficult for others to hear.B. Haggard means looking exhausted and unwell, especially from fatigue, worry, or suffering.C. Pally means having a close, friendly relationship.D. Grope means to search blindly or uncertainly by feeling with the hands

Q150. Utilization of the products of digestion for production of energy or synthesis of cellular material is termed as:

• A. Egestion
• B. Ingestion
• C. Absorption
• D. Assimilation✓

Explanation: Assimilation is the utilization of the products of digestion for production of energy or synthesis of cellular material.