Fmdc 2016 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Which is not a past from of a verb.

• A. Was
• B. Had
• C. Looked
• D. Spoke
• E. Hear✓

Explanation: A past tense is a tense that is used to talk about something that has happened in the past, or the way something was in the past. It's one of the three main tenses alongside present and future.

Q2. Which contains an adjective?

• A. Old man✓
• B. On Tuesday
• C. She said
• D. And you
• E. Afternoon

Explanation: A. Old is an adjective here as it modifies the noun ‘man’.B. On Tuesday is an example of adverb of time.C. She said is an example of an intransitive verb.D. And you is just a sentence.E. Afternoon is a noun.

Q3. Which contains an adverb?

• A. Full house
• B. Three women
• C. Was dirty
• D. Very funny✓
• E. Early morning

Explanation: The correct answer is Very funny because 'very' is an adverb that modifies the adjective 'funny,' enhancing its meaning. In contrast, 'full,' 'three,' 'dirty,' and 'early' are used as adjectives in the other options, each describing a noun or noun phrase.

Q4. Which is not correct?

• A. In February
• B. On 5:00 o’clock✓
• C. At my house
• D. Near me
• E. On May 2

Explanation: The phrase 'On 5:00 o’clock' is incorrect because the preposition 'On' is used for dates and days, not for specific times. The correct preposition for expressing time is 'At,' hence 'At 5:00 o’clock' is appropriate. Other options are correct: 'In February' for months, 'At my house' for specific locations, 'Near me' for proximity, and 'On May 2' for specific dates.

Q5. Choose the incorrect wordSharks differ from other fish in that their skeleton are made of cartilage instead bone

• A. Differ from
• B. Other fish
• C. Are made✓
• D. Instead

Explanation: The correct answer is Option C: Are made. In the sentence, 'skeleton' is a singular noun, so it should be paired with the singular verb 'is' instead of the plural verb 'are.' Therefore, the correct phrase should be 'is made of cartilage.' Options A, B, and D do not present any grammatical errors and are correctly used in the context of the sentence. 'Differ from' appropriately compares sharks to other fish, 'other fish' is a correct noun phrase, and 'instead' is properly used to indicate contrast.

Q6. Choose the incorrect word:The hormone insulin controls over the amount of sugar in the blood which provides energy for the body.

• A. The
• B. Controls over✓
• C. The amount
• D. Which

Explanation: The right statement would be “Insulin controls the amount” instead of controls over.

Q7. Choose the incorrect word:I use a bike both to ride to school and going to market.

• A. I use a bike
• B. Both
• C. To ride
• D. And going✓

Explanation: The correct statement should be “and FOR going to the market

Q8. Which one of the following four options is nearest in meaning to the word in capitals? ASTOUND

• A. Shock✓
• B. Confer
• C. Condescend
• D. Strengthen

Explanation: The word ASTOUND means to cause surprise or shock due to something unexpected or extraordinary. The correct option is Shock as it closely aligns with this meaning, signifying a sudden and intense surprise.Option B: Confer means to discuss or exchange views, which is unrelated to the sense of surprise or shock.Option C: Condescend refers to an attitude of superiority, which does not match the meaning of astound.Option D: Strengthen is about making something stronger, which again does not relate to the concept of causing surprise or shock.

Q9. Which one of the following four options is nearest in meaning to the word in capitals?WISP?

• A. Tuft✓
• B. Pack
• C. Smell
• D. Spry

Explanation: Wisp means piece of strand or thread, twisted etc.

Q10. Which one of the following four options is nearest in meaning to the word in capitals?WALLOW

• A. Roll about✓
• B. Mock
• C. Protest
• D. Borrow

Explanation: Wallow means to tumble around or lie around

Q11. Which one of the following four options is nearest in meaning to the word in capitals?CONNOISSEUR

• A. Guide
• B. Artist
• C. Expert critic of art✓
• D. Teacher

Explanation: Connoisseur means to be an expert of something.

Q12. Which one of the following four options is nearest in meaning to the word in capitals?ECCENTRIC

• A. Lunatic
• B. Stern
• C. Upset
• D. Odd✓

Explanation: Eccentric means something that is a little unconventional or strange

Q13. Which one of the following four options is nearest in meaning to the word in capitals?BOULDER

• A. Rounded stone/ hill✓
• B. Builder
• C. Magnanimity
• D. Magnitude

Explanation: Boulder is defined as a large rock

Q14. He was _:

• A. Robbed✓
• B. Stolen
• C. Pinched
• D. Established

Explanation: Robbed - stolen would be used for an object, pinched means to steal something and established is usually used for a company or organisation."Stolen" is used for material objects "Pinched" is slang for stealing usually inconsequentially "Established" means having existed or done something for a long time and therefore recognized and generally accepted

Q15. The presence of armed guards _ us from doing anything disruptive.

• A. Defeated
• B. Excited
• C. Irritated
• D. Prevented✓

Explanation: Defeated means to be overtaken by an enemy.Excited means to be enthusiastic and cannot be used in this scenario.Irritated means to feel annoyed or slightly angry. Prevented - To be prevented from something means to be completely stopped from doing it. The presence of guards ensures that disruption is prevented

Q16. Our flight was _ from Lahore to Islamabad airport.

• A. Diverted✓
• B. Reflected
• C. Deflected
• D. Shifted

Explanation: To divert something means to change its current path to a different one. In this example the plane lands in a different location compared to its original one due to being diverted.Reflect means for a surface or body to throw back heat, light, or sound without absorbing it.To deflect means for an object to change direction after hitting something. Or for one to cause someone to deviate from an intended purpose.To shift means too change position. The plane can shift from one runway to another but it is more appropriate to say that it diverted its route from one to another.

Q17. I am _ forward to our picnic scheduled in next month.

• A. Looking✓
• B. Planning
• C. Seeing
• D. Going

Explanation: "looking forward" means to be excited for something. In this case the subject is excited or looking forward to a picnic. "Planning forward"is not a correct expression. "Seeing to" is a correct expression but "seeing forward" is not. Speakers in the business world and in the government are fond of saying “going forward” to mean “from now on,” “in the future,” or even “now.”

Q18. My advice had no _ on him.

• A. Effect✓
• B. Affect
• C. Influence
• D. Impression

Explanation: The correct answer is Effect as it is a noun that describes a result or consequence, which is what the sentence is implying about the advice. The sentence structure 'had no _ on him' requires a noun, making 'effect' the correct choice.Affect is incorrect because it is a verb. Influence is a noun but implies a stronger impact than needed here. Impression is also a noun but refers to an opinion or feeling, which doesn't fit the context of discussing the result of advice.

Q19. Do not lose heart, it is just a _ in the tea cup.

• A. Wind
• B. Cyclone
• C. Blast
• D. Storm✓

Explanation: To have storm in a cup is the correct idiom

Q20. Pakistan_from voting against Iran in the United Nations.

• A. Prevented
• B. Detained
• C. Abstained✓
• D. Refused

Explanation: Abstained is followed by “from”, refused is followed by “to” and, detained and prevented, both, are followed by “by”

Q21. The family tree shows the inheritance of a skin condition. What is the genetic basis of the skin condition?

• A. Autosomal dominant
• B. Sex-linked dominant
• C. Autosomal recessive✓
• D. Sex-linked recessive

Explanation: The genetic basis of this skin condition is autosomal recessive. Autosomal recessive traits pass from both parents into the child.

Q22. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate?

• A. Glucose
• B. Lactose
• C. Insulin✓
• D. Starch
• E. Sucrose

Explanation: Insulin is not a carbohydrate.Insulin is a protein chain or peptide hormone. There are 51 amino acids in an insulin molecule.

Q23. An amino acid molecule has the following structure (shown in picture) Which two of the groups combine to form a peptide link?

• A. 1 and 2
• B. 1 and 3✓
• C. 2 and 3
• D. 2 and 4

Explanation: The explanation is given in the image:

Q24. What prevents molecules with a molecular mass greater than 68000 passing from the glomerular capillaries into Bowman’s capsule?

• A. The basement membrane of the epithelial cells of Bowman's capsule✓
• B. The cell surface membrane of the endothelial cells of the capillaries
• C. The cell surface membrane of the epithelial cells of Bowman's capsule
• D. The spaces between the extensions of the podocytes of Bowman's capsule

Explanation: Filtration occurs through 3 layers: the endothelium of blood capillaries, the basement membrane of the epithelium and the filtration slits of the renal capsule. The endothelium of blood capillaries contains large pores which do not filter out larger molecules The basement membrane consists of a meshwork of collagen fibres that are able to filter them out. The filtration slits are formed by the podocytes and do not hinder the passage of large molecules.

Q25. Molds and yeast are classified as:

• A. Rhodophytes
• B. Bryophytes
• C. Fungi✓
• D. Ciliates
• E. Flagellates

Explanation: Fungi are eukaryotic microorganisms. Fungi can occur as yeasts, molds, or as a combination of both forms.

Q26. A person’s anterior pituitary gland is removed by surgery. Plasma concentrations of which of the following hormones would be LEAST affected?

• A. Growth Hormone
• B. LH
• C. Insulin✓
• D. ACTH

Explanation: Growth hormone (GH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) are all secreted by the anterior pituitary, and would therefore be affected by its surgical removal. Insulin is produced by the pancreas.

Q27. The rate of breathing is controlled by involuntary centers in the:

• A. cerebrum
• B. Cerebellum
• C. Medulla oblongata✓
• D. Spinal cord
• E. Hypothalamus

Explanation: The respiratory center is located in the medulla oblongata and is involved in the minute-to-minute control of breathing.

Q28. A secretion that digests both carbohydrates and proteins is:

• A. Ptyalin
• B. Saliva
• C. Pepsin
• D. Pancreatic Juice✓
• E. Gastric Juice

Explanation: Option A: Ptyalin is a form of amylase found in the saliva of humans and some other animals. It digests only carbohydrates, not proteins. Hence, Option A is incorrect.Option B: Saliva consists of Water and mucus, Sodium bicarbonate and other salts, and Ptyalin or amylase. Saliva contains the enzyme amylase, also called ptyalin, which is capable of breaking down starch into simpler sugars such as maltose that can be further broken down in the small intestine. But saliva does not contain enzymes for protein digestion. Hence, Option B is incorrect. Option C: Pepsin is an enzyme responsible for protein digestion and is released in the form of pepsinogen in the stomach. Option D: The Pancreas makes pancreatic juices called enzymes. It contains enzymes to break down proteins, carbohydrates and lipids. It contains: Amylase or amylopsin(for starch digestion), Lipase(for lipid digestion), Trypsin in the form of trypsinogen(for protein breakdown). Hence, Option D is correct. Option E: Gastric juice comprises water, mucus, hydrochloric acid, pepsin, and intrinsic factor. Of these five components, pepsin is the principal enzyme involved in protein digestion. There are no enzymes in gastrin for carbohydrate digestion. Hence, Option E is incorrect.

Q29. If gastric juice is tested with a pH meter, the pH is most likely to be about:

• A. 2✓
• B. 6
• C. 7
• D. 8
• E. 14

Explanation: HCl is an important component in gastric juice. It is a strong acid produced by the parietal cells in the corpus generating a gastric pH of 2-3. Activation of pepsin and absorption of nutrients relies on an acidic pH in the stomach.

Q30. Which of the following does the autonomic nervous system control?

• A. Sight
• B. Thinking
• C. Digestion✓
• D. Hearing
• E. Memory

Explanation: Autonomic nervous system is the component of the peripheral nervous system that regulates involuntary physiologic processes including heart rate, blood pressure, respiration, digestion, and sexual arousal.

Q31. Venous blood enter route from the kidneys to the heart must pass through the:

• A. Iliac vein
• B. Inferior vena cava✓
• C. Liver
• D. Hepatic vein
• E. Pulmonary vein

Explanation: The kidneys receive unfiltered blood directly from the heart through the abdominal aorta which then branches to the left and right renal arteries. Filtered blood then returns by the left and right renal veins to the inferior vena cava and then the heart.

Q32. All of the following statements about arteries are true except:

• A. They are thick-walled
• B. They pulsate
• C. They contain much elastic fiber tissue
• D. They carry blood away from the heart
• E. They contain valves✓

Explanation: Unlike arteries, veins contain valves that ensure blood flows in only one direction. (Arteries don't require valves because pressure from the heart is so strong that blood is only able to flow in one direction.)

Q33. The rate of breathing is controlled by the:

• A. Lungs
• B. Cerebellum
• C. Pons
• D. Medulla oblongata✓
• E. Diaphragm

Explanation: The respiratory center is located in the medulla oblongata and is involved in the minute-to-minute control of breathing.

Q34. Special structures for the absorption of digested food in the small intestine are called:

• A. Alveoli
• B. Tubules
• C. Mucous glands
• D. Villi✓
• E. Peristalsis

Explanation: The folds form numerous tiny projections which stick out into the open space inside your small intestine (or lumen), and are covered with cells that help absorb nutrients from the food that passes through.Microvilli: The cells on the villi are packed full of tiny hairlike structures called microvilli.

Q35. Which of the following are found in the nose to detect smell?

• A. Olfactory receptors✓
• B. Photoreceptors
• C. Phonoreceptors
• D. Gustatory receptors

Explanation: The olfactory epithelium contains special receptors (called olfactory receptors) that are sensitive to odor molecules that travel through the air. These receptors are very small.

Q36. A nerve cell that transmits impulses from a sense organ to the nervous system is known as a(n):

• A. Sensory neuron✓
• B. Motor neuron
• C. Interneuron
• D. Plexus
• E. Ganglion

Explanation: Sensory neurons transmit nerve impulses from sense organs (eyes, ears, nose, tongue and touch) to the brain. They also carry nerve impulses to the brain and spinal cord.

Q37. Premature birth or miscarriage is usually caused by the disturbance in secretion of which of the following hormone?

• A. Estrogen
• B. Progesterone✓
• C. Lactogen
• D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

Explanation: Progesterone is one of the sex hormones closely associated with pregnancy and the menstrual cycle. It can also play a role in recurrent miscarriages or premature birth.

Q38. Which of the following is an example of feedback inhibition in a metabolic pathway?

• A. A non-competitive inhibitor binds irreversibly to the substrate
• B. An enzyme-controlled reaction slows down as the end product accumulates✓
• C. There is competition between two enzymes for a common substrate
• D. Variations in enzyme concentration affect the rate of the reaction it catalyzes

Explanation: Variations in enzyme concentration affect the rate of reaction it catalyzes is an example of feedback inhibition in a metabolic pathway.

Q39. Which of the following substances is non-digestible by man?

• A. Starch
• B. Glycogen
• C. Cellulose✓
• D. Maltose
• E. Sucrose

Explanation: Cellulose is a fibre which is not digestible by the human digestive system. Cellulose is present in plant cell walls.

Q40. Which of the following is NOT an echinoderm?

• A. Starfish
• B. Sea cucumber
• C. Cuttlefish✓
• D. Sea urchin

Explanation: Cuttlefish or cuttles are marine Molluscs of the Phylum Mollusca and not members of echinodermata.

Q41. Earthworm belongs to which of the following phylum?

• A. Nematoda
• B. Annelida✓
• C. Echinodermata
• D. Coelenterate

Explanation: Earthworm, also called angleworm, any one of more than 1,800 species of terrestrial worms of the class Oligochaeta (phylum Annelida)

Q42. Butterfly belongs to which of the following class of Phylum Arthropoda?

• A. Insecta✓
• B. Crustacea
• C. Arachnida
• D. Myriapoda

Explanation: Butterfly belongs to class insecta of the phylum Arthropoda.

Q43. The characteristic feature of sponges is:

• A. Diploblastic nature
• B. Freshwater habitat
• C. Forming link between the living and nonliving
• D. Porous body✓

Explanation: Sponges have a porous body. Full of tiny pores that allow fluids or gasses to pass through. Sponges are porous so they can filter water while trapping food. Concrete is porous, so water will slowly filter through it.

Q44. In mitosis, _ begins when sister chromatids are suddenly separated and pulled towards opposite poles as kinetochore, microtubule shortens, and at the same time polar microtubules elongate.

• A. Anaphase✓
• B. Telophase
• C. Metaphase
• D. Prophase

Explanation: Anaphase in mitosis begins when sister chromatids are suddenly separated and pulled towards opposite poles as kinetochore, microtubule shortens, and at the same time polar microtubules elongate.

Q45. The elasticity of the plasma membrane demonstrates that it is made up of:

• A. Lipids✓
• B. Proteins
• C. Nucleic acids
• D. Carbohydrates

Explanation: This is a book line.According fluid mosaic model, the plasma membrane is composed of lipid bilayer in which the protein molecules are embedded. The fluid nature of lipids enables the lateral movement of protein within the lipid bilayer. This fluid nature of the lipid makes the plasma membrane elastic.

Q46. A mammalian cell is undergoing mitosis; the amount of DNA in its early prophase is X. After completion of mitosis, what should be the amount of DNA in the daughter cell?

• A. X/4
• B. X/2
• C. X✓
• D. 2X

Explanation: The chromosome number is the same in the daughter cells as it was in the parent cell. Because DNA is duplicated during interphase before the cell undergoes mitosis, the amount of DNA in the original parent cell and the daughter cells are the same. There is no reduction occurring in mitosis, so the amount of DNA in the daughter cell is X.

Q47. Which of the following occurs in the cell nucleus?I. RNA synthesisII. Protein synthesisIII. DNA synthesis

• A. I only
• B. II only
• C. III only
• D. II and III
• E. I, II and III
• F. I and III only✓

Explanation: I and III onlyDNA synthesis and RNA synthesis occurs in the cell nucleus.

Q48. An organelle that is visible only with the aid of an electron microscope is the:

• A. Nucleus
• B. Chloroplast
• C. Cell wall
• D. Ribosome✓
• E. Vacuole

Explanation: Ribosomes are only visible with the electron microscope.

Q49. Epiblast later on develops into:

• A. Megablast & hypoblast
• B. Microblast & hyperblast
• C. Microblast & megablast
• D. Ectoderm & endoderm✓

Explanation: The epiblast gives rise to the three primary germ layers (ectoderm, definitive endoderm, and mesoderm.

Q50. When the muscle is required to contract, then calcium ions bind with which molecule and cause them to move slightly?

• A. A: Tropomyosin
• B. B: Actin
• C. C: Troponin✓
• D. D: Myosin

Explanation: Calcium is required by two proteins, troponin and tropomyosin, that regulate muscle contraction by blocking the binding of myosin to filamentous actin. In a resting sarcomere, tropomyosin blocks the binding of myosin to actin. Calcium binds to troponin, causing the conformational shift in tropomyosin that reveals myosin-binding sites on actin. ATP then binds to myosin.

Q51. The joints that allow movement in two directions are called:

• A. Ball and Socket joint
• B. Hinge joint✓
• C. Cartilaginous joint
• D. Fibrous joint

Explanation: Hinge joints are the ones that allow the movement in only 2 directions. Elbow and knee joints are the examples of hinge joints.

Q52. Which of the following is mismatched?

• A. Slightly moveable joint - vertebrae
• B. Hinge joint – hip✓
• C. Synovial joint – elbow
• D. Immovable joint – sutures in cranium

Explanation: Elbow and knee are examples of hinge joints. The hip is a ball and socket joint.

Q53. Match the hormones listed under column I with their functions listed under the column. Choose the answer which gives the correct combination of the alphabets of the II columns.

• A. A = s, B = r, C = p, D = q✓
• B. A = t, B = p, C = s, D = r
• C. A = s, B = q, C = r, D = t
• D. A = t, B = r, C = p, D = s

Explanation: One of the functions of oxytocin is to stimulate uterine contractions in labor and childbirth, so the correct letter is S for A (A=S), so options B and D are incorrect. Prolactin causes the breasts to grow and make milk during pregnancy and after birth, so the correct letter is R for B (B=R), so option C is also incorrect. LH triggers the release of an egg from the ovary i.e. ovulation. Progesterone helps to prepare the body for pregnancy by stimulating glandular development and the development of new blood vessels. This provides a good environment for implantation by a fertilized egg, so it aids in implantation. So option A is correct.

Q54. Which change contributes to the lowering of the blood sugar level, if a person is injected with insulin?

• A. Decrease in the permeability of cells to glucose
• B. Decrease in the rate of absorption of glucose from the gut
• C. Increase in the rate of excretion of glucose
• D. Increase in the synthesis of glycogen✓

Explanation: When you take insulin, it helps to move glucose out of your bloodstream and into cells. Your cells use some of that sugar for energy and then store any leftover sugar in your fat, muscle, and liver for later. Once the sugar moves into your cells, your blood glucose level should go back to normal. If the glucose gets excreted it goes into the cell and the blood glucose level is maintained.

Q55. _ accepts hydrogen from malate

• A. COQ
• B. FMN
• C. FAD
• D. NAD✓

Explanation: Oxidation(Dehydrogenation -IV) is one of the steps of Krebs cycle, in which Malate is oxidized by removal of hydrogen and oxalo-acetate gets regenerated. The hydrogen removed in this reaction is taken up by the coenzyme NAD to form NADH2.

Q56. If 2 kilojoules of heat are added to 500 grams of water at 100 C and standard pressure, after 2 minutes, the temperature of the water will be:

• A. 100 C✓
• B. 110 C
• C. 115 C
• D. 120 C
• E. 125 C

Explanation: 100°C is the correct answer and is solved as follows.Q = 2kJ = 2000Jm = 500gT1 = 100oCQ = mxcx 𐤃T Where 𐤃T = (T2-100)2000J = 500g x 4.186J x (T2-100)/gC2000J/500 x 4.186J = T2-1004000/4186 = T2-1000.95 + 100= T2100.95 = T2

Q57. A vibrating diaphragm sets up strong vibrations at the mouth of a horizontal tube containing air and a small amount of fine powder. The powder becomes arranged in piles 1 cm apart, and the speed of sound in air is 330 meters.The wavelength of this sound in air is:

• A. 0.02 m✓
• B. ½ cm
• C. 1 cm
• D. 2 cm
• E. 4 cm

Explanation: The distance between two adjacent piles of powder is equal to half of the wavelength of the sound wave. In this case, the distance between piles is given as 1 cm.Wavelength (λ) = 2 * Distance between pilesConvert the distance between piles from centimeters to meters:1 cm = 0.01 metersSo, the wavelength of the sound wave is:λ = 2 * 0.01 meters = 0.02 metersThe wavelength of this sound in air is 0.02 meters.

Q58. A candle 2 cm long is placed upright in front of a concave spherical mirror whose focal length is 10 cm. The distance of the candle from the mirror is 30 cm.The radius of curvature of the mirror is:

• A. 5 cm
• B. 10 cm
• C. 15 cm✓
• D. 20 cm
• E. 6 cm

Explanation: The radius of curvature is twice the focal length of the mirror.

Q59. When 1 gram of atmospheric water vapor condenses in the air, it results in:

• A. Always cooling the surrounding air
• B. Always heating the surrounding air✓
• C. Always leaving the surrounding air temperature unchanged
• D. Heating the surrounding air only if the change occurs below 100°C
• E. Cooling the surrounding air only if the change occurs below 11°C

Explanation: The vapors are hot and these vapors when condense, cool the area in which this happens and transfers the heat to the surrounding air and the temperature there increases.

Q60. A student is trying to determine the type of membrane transport occurring in a cell. She finds that the molecules to be transported are very large and when transported across the membrane, no ATP is used. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of transport?

• A. Active transport
• B. Simple diffusion
• C. Facilitated diffusion✓
• D. Exocytosis

Explanation: The correct answer is facilitated diffusion. This process involves the passive movement of molecules across the cell membrane via specific transport proteins. It does not require energy, which is consistent with the observation that no ATP was used. Large molecules typically cannot pass through the membrane without assistance, which is why facilitated diffusion is necessary. Active transport is incorrect because it requires ATP to move molecules against their concentration gradient. Simple diffusion is not suitable for large molecules as it involves the movement of small or non-polar molecules directly through the lipid bilayer. Lastly, exocytosis is a process for expelling substances from the cell rather than bringing them in.

Q61. In the course of glycolysis:

• A. NADH is reduced to 𝑁𝐴𝐷+
• B. 𝑁𝐴𝐷+ is oxidized to NADH
• C. Glucose is degraded into two molecules of pyruvate✓
• D. Both NADH is reduced to 𝑁𝐴𝐷+ & 𝑁𝐴𝐷+ is oxidized to NADH

Explanation: In glycolysis, glucose is broken down into two molecules of pyruvate. This process involves the reduction of NAD+ to NADH, capturing energy released from glucose. The production of NADH is crucial for maintaining the flow of electrons needed for further energy-releasing reactions. Option A is incorrect because NADH is not reduced to NAD+ during glycolysis; instead, NAD+ is reduced. Option B is incorrect because NAD+ is reduced to NADH, not oxidized. Option D is incorrect because it inaccurately describes the processes occurring within glycolysis. The reduction of NAD+ to NADH happens in glycolysis, but oxidation back to NAD+ occurs in different stages of cellular respiration.

Q62. The epiglottis is to trachea as the lower esophageal (cardiac) sphincter is to the:

• A. Stomach✓
• B. Heart
• C. Small intestine
• D. Liver

Explanation: The cardiac sphincter is a sphincter between the esophagus and the stomach, opening at the approach of food that can then be swept into the stomach by rhythmic peristaltic waves.

Q63. Starch is hydrolyzed into maltose by:

• A. Salivary amylase
• B. Maltose
• C. Pancreatic amylase
• D. Both A & C✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Option D: Both A & C. During digestion, starch is initially broken down into maltose by salivary amylase in the mouth. This process is further continued by pancreatic amylase in the small intestine. Option A, salivary amylase, alone is not sufficient as it only begins the process. Option C, pancreatic amylase, alone does not account for the initial breakdown that occurs in the mouth. Option B, maltose, is incorrect because it is the product of the reaction, not an enzyme that facilitates it.

Q64. Which of the following best describes the residual volume of the lungs?

• A. The amount of air normally inhaled and exhaled with each breath.
• B. The maximum amount of air that can be forcibly inhaled and exhaled from the lungs.
• C. The volume of air that can still be forcibly exhaled following a normal exhalation.
• D. The volume of air that always remains in the lungs.✓

Explanation: This is also a book line.The volume of air that always remains in the lungs. Residual volume is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximum forceful expiration. In other words, it is the volume of air that cannot be expelled, thus causing the alveoli to remain open at all times. The residual volume remains unchanged regardless of the lung volume at which expiration was started.

Q65. Arthropods can be characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. A hard exoskeleton
• B. A water vascular system✓
• C. Jointed appendages
• D. Molting
• E. Segmented body

Explanation: All are the characteristics of the phylum Arthropoda except option B. A water vascular system is a characteristic of the phylum Echinodermata, the "spinny-skinned" animals such as sea stars and sea urchins. Their water vascular system ends in tube feet that play a role in locomotion.

Q66. The role of decomposers in the nitrogen cycle is to:

• A. Fix Atmospheric Nitrogen Into Ammonia
• B. Incorporate nitrogen into amino acids and organic compounds
• C. Convert ammonia to nitrate, which can then be absorbed by plants
• D. Denitrify ammonia, thus returning nitrogen to the atmosphere
• E. Release ammonia from organic compounds, thus returning it into the soil✓

Explanation: The primary role of decomposers in the nitrogen cycle is to break down dead organic matter and release ammonia into the soil. This ammonia can then be used directly by plants or further converted into nitrates by other bacteria for plant absorption. This process is crucial for recycling nitrogen within ecosystems, ensuring a continuous supply of nitrogen for plant growth.Option A is incorrect because nitrogen fixation is not performed by decomposers. Option B is misleading because while decomposers break down nitrogen-containing compounds, their role is not to synthesize new ones. Option C refers to nitrification, a process carried out by other bacteria, not decomposers. Option D involves denitrification, which is not a function of decomposers but of denitrifying bacteria.

Q67. Black coat color in horses is caused by a dominant allele, while white coat color is due to the recessive allele. Two black horses produce a foal with a coat, if they were to produce a second foal, what would be the probability of the second foal having a black coat?

• A. 0
• B. 1/4
• C. ½
• D. 3/4✓
• E. 1

Explanation: If the black coat color in horses is the dominant phenotype, and both parental horses are black, then they must have at least one allele for the black coat color. Because the white coat color is the recessive phenotype, it can be caused only by a homozygous recessive genotype. The probability of these horses producing a foal with a black coat is 75%, or 3 out of 4.

Q68. Organisms that live in the intertidal zone might have which of the following characteristics?i.Ability to conduct photosynthesisii.Tolerance of periodic droughtiii. Tolerance of wide range of temperatures

• A. I only
• B. II only
• C. I and III only
• D. II and III only
• E. I, II, and III✓

Explanation: The organisms in the intertidal zone can conduct photosynthesis, have a tolerance to drought as well have a tolerance for a wide range of temperatures.

Q69. In floral formula “K” stands for:

• A. Corolla
• B. Calyx✓
• C. Perianth
• D. Androecium
• E. Gynoecium

Explanation: The floral formula uses standard symbols to denote different parts of a flower. 'K' stands for calyx, which is the collective term for the sepals that encase and protect the flower, especially during the bud stage. This is why K5 would indicate a calyx composed of five sepals. The other options refer to different parts of the flower: 'C' for corolla (petals), 'P' for perianth (when sepals and petals are indistinguishable), 'A' for androecium (male reproductive parts), and 'G' for gynoecium (female reproductive parts).

Q70. “Hordeum vulgare” is the botanical name of:

• A. Wheat
• B. Oats
• C. Rice
• D. Barley✓
• E. Bajra

Explanation: Hordeum vulgare is the botanical name of Barley.

Q71. The usual duration of luteal phase in the menstrual cycle of human female is:

• A. 4-6 days
• B. 8-10 days
• C. 12-14 days✓
• D. 10-12 days

Explanation: The usual duration of luteal phase in the menstrual cycle for the human female is 12-14 days.The luteal phase lasts from the day after ovulation until the day before your period starts. Experts say the average length of the luteal phase is 14 days, but there is a little difference that varies from one person to another.

Q72. Response to plants to touch is called:

• A. Geotropism
• B. Thigmotropism✓
• C. Nasticism
• D. Mechanoreception

Explanation: The correct answer is Thigmotropism. This term describes the movement or growth of a plant in response to touch or physical contact. 'Thigm' means touch, and plants like vines exhibit thigmotropism by wrapping around objects they come into contact with. Geotropism, on the other hand, deals with gravity, while nastic movements are non-directional and involve stimuli like light or temperature. Mechanoreception is more about detecting mechanical changes and is typically associated with animal responses.

Q73. Select the false statement:

• A. All fungi are saprophytic
• B. Mycology is the study of fungi
• C. Fungi are non coenocytic✓
• D. Puccinia is an obligate parasite

Explanation: The correct answer is Option C: Fungi are non coenocytic. This is false because many fungi, such as those in the group Zygomycetes, have coenocytic hyphae, which are characterized by a lack of septa, allowing cytoplasmic streaming and multinucleate cells.Option A is incorrect because not all fungi are saprophytic; some are parasitic (requiring a living host) or symbiotic, forming mutualistic relationships.Option B is a true statement; mycology is indeed the scientific study of fungi.Option D is also true; Puccinia species are obligate parasites, meaning they cannot complete their life cycle without a host organism.

Q74. Photosynthetic product from leaves to all parts of plant are disturbed through:

• A. Vascular bundles
• B. Phloem✓
• C. Xylem
• D. Stomata
• E. None of the above

Explanation: Sugars produced in sources, such as leaves, need to be delivered to growing parts of the plant via the phloem in a process called translocation, or movement of sugar. Hence, phloem is the correct answer.

Q75. In the 𝐹 generation of a dihybrid cross between yellow, round seeded and green, wrinkled seeded pea plants, 17 out of 254 seeds were green and wrinkled other seeds were:Yellow and roundGreen and roundYellow and wrinkledWhat do these results indicate?

• A. Crossing-over has occurred
• B. Green and wrinkled are both recessive characters✓
• C. The alleles for green and wrinkled are linked
• D. The allele for green is recessive but not the allele for wrinkled
• E. The allele for wrinkled is recessive but not the allele for green

Explanation: The correct answer is that both green and wrinkled are recessive characters. This conclusion is based on the fact that recessive traits appear only when both alleles are recessive (homozygous recessive). The observation of 17 green and wrinkled seeds out of 254 suggests these traits follow Mendel's laws of inheritance for recessive traits. Other options are incorrect because they either suggest genetic phenomena not supported by the data (crossing-over, linkage) or propose incorrect inheritance patterns for the traits involved.

Q76. Duckbill platypus and spiny anteater have internal fertilization and are:

• A. Ovoviviparous
• B. Viviparous
• C. Oviparous✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Oviparous mammals are duckbill platypus and spiny anteaters. Viviparous is opposite to oviparous.

Q77. Nematocysts are characteristics of:

• A. Porifera
• B. Protozoa
• C. Cnidarians✓
• D. Annelida
• E. Echinodermata

Explanation: Nematocysts are specialized stinging cells unique to the phylum Cnidaria, which includes jellyfish, corals, and sea anemones. These cells contain venomous coiled threads that can be deployed for protection or capturing prey. Porifera, Protozoa, Annelida, and Echinodermata do not possess these specialized structures, distinguishing Cnidarians as the correct group.

Q78. Which of the following is an acceptable nitrogen base composition for double stranded DNA?

• A. 31% A; 19% T; 31% C; 19% G
• B. 36% A; 36% U; 24% C; 24% G
• C. 48% A; 48% T; 52% C; 52% G
• D. 31% A; 31% T; 19% C; 19% G✓
• E. 24% A; 24% U; 36% C; 19% G

Explanation: The correct answer is 31%A, 31%T,19%C, 19%G.(Cytosine and guanine are always equal and adenine and thymine are also equal and give an answer 100% total if added together)

Q79. The correct order of the structures through which air passes isI. Nasal cavityII. BronchiIII. LarynxIV. Air sacsV. Trachea

• A. I, V, III, II, IV
• B. I, V, III, IV, II
• C. I, III, IV, V, II
• D. I, III, V, IV, II
• E. I, III, V, II, IV✓

Explanation: Air enters the nose through nasal cavity,after this goes to the larynx and then to the trachea also called the windpipe and then it does to the bronchi that are cartilaginous,then to the bronchioles and at the end to the air sacs or alveoli.

Q80. The diameter of a tree is reduced slightly during the day and increased at night. Which of the following changes in environmental conditions cause the greatest reduction in diameter?

• A. Increase in wind velocity, temperature, humidity, and light intensity
• B. Increases in temperature, humidity, and light intensity
• C. Increases in wind velocity, humidity, and light intensity
• D. Increases in wind velocity, temperature, and light intensity✓
• E. Increases in wind velocity, temperature, and humidity

Explanation: The correct answer is Option D, which includes increases in wind velocity, temperature, and light intensity. Higher wind velocity increases the rate of transpiration, leading to more water loss from the plant and thus a reduction in diameter during the day. Additionally, increased temperature and light intensity can elevate metabolic rates, further intensifying water loss. In contrast, the other options either include humidity, which counteracts water loss, or do not combine the factors effectively enough to maximize diameter reduction.

Q81. Why is there no glucose present in the distal of a nephron?

• A. Glucose molecules are too large to pass across the basement membrane.
• B. Glucose is removed by osmosis from the tubule.
• C. Glucose is passively absorbed by the cells lining the descending loop of Henle.
• D. Glucose is reabsorbed by the proximal tubule cells.✓

Explanation: Glucose is initially filtered through the glomerulus into the nephron, but it is actively reabsorbed by transport proteins in the proximal tubule cells. This mechanism ensures that glucose does not reach the distal parts of the nephron, making it absent there. Option A is incorrect because glucose is small enough to be filtered. Option B is incorrect because osmosis does not apply to glucose reabsorption. Option C is incorrect because glucose reabsorption does not occur in the descending loop of Henle.

Q82. Which of the following is the stage of meiosis during which pairs of homologous chromosomes align at the center of the cell?

• A. Anaphase II
• B. Metaphase II
• C. Prophase II
• D. Metaphase I✓
• E. Prophase I

Explanation: At the end of prometaphase I, meiotic cells enter metaphase I. Here, in sharp contrast to mitosis, pairs of homologous chromosomes line up opposite each other on the metaphase plate, with the kinetochores on sister chromatids facing the same pole. Pairs of sex chromosomes also align on the metaphase plate.Just remember it as the fact that alignment in Meiosis of homologous means formation of Metaphase plates and this occurs during Metaphase 1.

Q83. The tricuspid valve prevents backflow of blood from the

• A. Left ventricle into the left atrium
• B. Aorta into the left ventricle
• C. Pulmonary artery into the right ventricle
• D. Right ventricle into the right atrium✓

Explanation: The tricuspid valve is one of the heart's atrioventricular valves, situated between the right atrium and the right ventricle. Its primary function is to prevent the backflow of blood from the right ventricle into the right atrium when the ventricle contracts. This distinguishes it from other valves like the mitral valve on the left side, which prevents backflow from the left ventricle into the left atrium, the aortic valve, which prevents backflow into the left ventricle from the aorta, and the pulmonary valve, which prevents backflow into the right ventricle from the pulmonary artery. Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it accurately describes the function of the tricuspid valve.

Q84. The liver:

• A. Decreases blood glucose levels
• B. Increases blood glucose levels
• C. Synthesizes glucose✓
• D. All of the above are functions of the liver

Explanation: The correct answer is that the liver synthesizes glucose. The liver plays a key role in glucose metabolism through processes like glycogenolysis, where it breaks down glycogen into glucose, and gluconeogenesis, where it creates glucose from non-carbohydrate sources. While the liver can release glucose into the bloodstream, it does not directly decrease or increase blood glucose levels like the pancreas does through insulin and glucagon. Thus, options A and B are incorrect as they describe functions related to pancreatic hormones more than liver functions. Option D is incorrect because not all the listed functions are roles of the liver.

Q85. At which two points of the menstrual cycle are the levels of oestrogen heights?

• A. Immediately before and after ovulation
• B. At ovulation and in the mid-luteal phase✓
• C. During the menstrual flow and pregnancy
• D. Pregnancy and after menopause

Explanation: Oestrogen levels peak twice during the menstrual cycle: first at ovulation (around day 12-14) and again in the mid-luteal phase. At ovulation, the surge in oestrogen triggers the release of luteinizing hormone (LH), leading to ovulation. The second peak during the mid-luteal phase occurs due to the corpus luteum's activity, which supports a potential pregnancy. Options mentioning pregnancy and menopause are not relevant to the menstrual cycle's regular hormonal patterns.

Q86. The stage of meiosis at which sperm cell precursors contain two sister chromatids.

• A. Anaphase II
• B. Metaphase I
• C. Prophase II✓
• D. Metaphase II
• E. Prophase I

Explanation: The first stage of meiosis divides the diploid set of chromosomes into two haploid sets. Homologous chromosomes separate in anaphase I, and at the beginning (prophase) of stage 2, each cell contains a haploid set. However, the chromosomes are still replicated and still consist of joined sister chromatids. These separate in anaphase II. Thus, the correct answer is option C.

Q87. Which of the following electronic transitions would result in the greatest loss in energy for a single hydrogen electron, assuming that its ground state is n = 1?

• A. An electron moves from n = 6 to n = 2.✓
• B. An electron moves from n = 2 to n = 6.
• C. An electron moves from n = 3 to n = 4.
• D. An electron moves from n = 4 to n = 3.

Explanation: An atom changes from a ground state to an excited state by taking on energy from its surroundings in a process called absorption. The electron absorbs the energy and jumps to a higher energy level. In the reverse process, emission, the electron returns to the ground state by releasing the extra energy it absorbed.

Q88. The following reaction is first order with respect [P] and zero order with respect to [Q].P + Q -> productsIf the rate constant doubles for each 10 C rise in temperature, which of the following sets of conditions will give the greatest rate of reaction?Choose correct option.

• A. Option A: 40 °C, [P] = 0.1 M
• B. Option B: 30 °C, [P] = 0.2 M
• C. Option C: 30 °C, [P] = 0.4 M✓
• D. Option D: 20 °C, [P] = 0.3 M

Explanation: Part D: At 20 C, the rate constant is k and the rate is 0.3k.Part B: At 30 C, rate constant is 2k and rate is 0.2k.Part C: At 30 C, the rate constant is 2k and the rate is 0.4k.Part E: At 30 C, the rate constant is 2k and the rate is 0.6k.Part A: At 40 C, the rate constant is 4k and the rate is 0.4k.

Q89. When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to aqueous solution of a compound X, a colourless gas is evovled which rapidly decolourises acidified, aqueous potassium manganate (VII). Which of the following compounds could be X?

• A. Sodium carbonate
• B. Sodium chlorate (I)
• C. Sodium nitrite
• D. Sodium sulphate
• E. Sodium sulphite✓

Explanation: Sodium sulfite (NaSO3) and hydrochloric acid (HCl) are mixed to create sulphur dioxide gas (SO2). SO2​ readily decolourises acidified KMnO4​ solution. KMnO4​ has a purple colour. Sulphur dioxide gas acts as a reducing agent whereas KMnO4​ is an oxidising agent and gets decolourized.

Q90. What is the product of the reaction between benzaldehyde and an excess of ethanol (C2H5OH) in the presence of anhydrous HCl? Choose correct option.

• A. A
• B. B
• C. C✓
• D. D

Explanation: Aldehydes react with one equivalent of monohydric alcohol in the presence of dry hydrogen chloride to yield alkoxy alcohol intermediate, known as hemiacetals, which further react with one more molecule of alcohol to give a compound known as acetal.

Q91. Under appropriate conditions, NH4Br and KNH2 react as follows:NH4Br + KNH2 -> KBr + 2NH3 How is the reaction best classified?

• A. Acid-base✓
• B. Condensation
• C. Disproportionation
• D. Oxidation-reduction

Explanation: The reaction NH4Br + KNH2 → KBr + 2NH3 can be classified as an acid-base reaction. In this reaction, NH4Br donates a proton (H+) to NH2-, forming NH3. Hence, NH4+ acts as an acid and NH2- acts as a base. The other options are incorrect as they describe different types of chemical reactions that do not match the characteristics of the given reaction.

Q92. One mole of an organic compound X is reacted with an excess of PCl and two moles of hydrogen chloride are formed. Which of the following compounds could be X?

• A. CH3CH=CHCH3
• B. C6H5CH2Cl
• C. HOCH2CO2H✓
• D. CH3OH
• E. CH3COOH

Explanation: HOCH2CO2H +PCl = ClCH2COCL + 2HCl

Q93. The haloform test is not given by:

• A. Formaldehyde✓
• B. Acetaldehyde
• C. Acetone
• D. Alpha-phenylethyl alcohol
• E. B, C and D

Explanation: Substrates that successfully undergo the haloform reaction are methyl ketones and secondary alcohols oxidizable to methyl ketones, such as isopropanol. The only primary alcohol and aldehyde to undergo this reaction are ethanol and acetaldehyde, respectively.

Q94. An alcohol on oxidation is found to give CH3COOH and CH3CH2COOH. The alcohol is:

• A. (CH3)CH(OH)CH2CH3✓
• B. CH3(CH2)2CHOH
• C. CH3CH2CH2OH
• D. CH3CH(OH)CH2CH2CH3

Explanation: Two acids are produced from the oxidation of a ketone produced by the oxidation of a Secondary alcohol.

Q95. Which of the following is most acidic?

• A. H2O✓
• B. CH3OH
• C. C2H5OH
• D. CH3CH2CH2OH

Explanation: The reported pKas of these compounds areH-OH - pKa = 14CH3-OH - pKa = 15.5CH3CH2-OH - pKa = 16.0CH3-CH2-CH2-OH - pKa = 16.85If you increase the alkyl chain length attached to the -OH group, the pKa increases. This is due to the electron-donating properties of alkyl groups which, in turn, destabilizes the negative charge on oxygen when the H on the OH ionizes:R-OH = RO- + H+

Q96. Which of the following has two significant figures?I.0.034II.0.0034III.0.00034

• A. I only
• B. II only
• C. III only
• D. I, II, and III✓

Explanation: Rules:Digits other than zero are always significant. (ii) Zeros between significant digits are also significant. (iii) Final zero or zeros after decimal are significant. (iv) Zeros used for spacing the decimal point are not significant. (v) In whole numbers that end in one or more zeros without a decimal point. These zeros may or may not be significant.I, II, III all have 2 significant figures. So, D is correct.

Q97. When formaldehyde is heated with concentrated ammonia a solid substance is formed. What is it?

• A. Paraldehyde
• B. Meta-formaldehyde
• C. Methylol
• D. Hexamethylene tetramine✓

Explanation: Formaldehyde reacts with ammonia to form hexamethylenetetramine which is used as urinary antiseptic under the nate urotropine.6HCHO+4NH3⟶(CH2)6N4+6H2O

Q98. The reaction between fat and NaOH is known as:

• A. Esterification
• B. Fermentation
• C. Hydrogenation
• D. Hydrolysis
• E. Saponification✓

Explanation: Caustic soda or Sodium hydroxide reacts with oil/ fat to undergo a hydrolysis reaction called saponification leading to the formation of soap and glycerol.

Q99. Select one which is alcohol.

• A. CH3 - CH2 - Br
• B. CH3 - O - CH3
• C. CH3COOH
• D. CH3 - CH2 - OH✓

Explanation: An alcohol is an organic compound that carries at least one hydroxyl functional group (−OH) bound to a saturated carbon atom, hence CH3-CH2-OH is an alcohol. CH3-CH2-Br is an example of an alkyl halide (also known as haloalkanes) which are compounds in which one or more hydrogen atoms in an alkane have been replaced by halogen atoms (fluorine, chlorine, bromine or iodine). Ethers are a class of organic compounds that contain an ether group—an oxygen atom connected to two alkyl or aryl groups. They have the general formula R–O–R′, where R and R′ represent the alkyl or aryl groups. Therefore CH3-O-CH3 is an ether. CH3COOH is a carboxylic acid that is an organic acid which contains a carboxyl group (C(=O)OH) attached to an R-group. The general formula of a carboxylic acid is R–COOH, with R referring to the alkyl, alkenyl, aryl, or other group.

Q100. Aldehydes and ketone react with primary amines to form:

• A. Schiff’s base✓
• B. Tertiary amine
• C. No reaction takes place
• D. Acid

Explanation: The reaction of aldehydes and ketones with ammonia or 1º-amines forms imine derivatives, also known as Schiff bases (compounds having a C=N function). Water is eliminated in the reaction, which is acid-catalysed and reversible in the same sense as acetal formation.

Q101. Common name of the following compound is:

• A. p-Toluidine✓
• B. N-methylaniline
• C. N, N-dimethylaniline
• D. N, N-dimethyl p-toluidine

Explanation: p-toluidine is an aminotoluene in which the amino substituent is para to the methyl group.

Q102. The following system obeys second-order kinetics.2NO2 -> NO3 -> +NO (slow)NO3 + CO -> NO2 + CO2 (fast)What is the rate law for this reaction?

• A. Rate = k [NO3] [CO]
• B. Rate = k [NO2]2 [CO]
• C. Rate = k [NO2] [NO3]
• D. Rate = k [NO2]2✓

Explanation: Rate of reaction depends upon slow step.slow step is given asNO2+NO2→NO3+NO2the total number of molecules of REACTING SPECIE taking part in slow step appear in rate equation so rate is given asRATE=k[NO2]²

Q103. At 100 C, 0.1 mole of N2O4 is heated in a one dm3 flask. At equilibrium concentration of NO2 was found to be 0.12 moles. Calculate Kc for the reaction.

• A. 0.36✓
• B. 0.50
• C. 0.083
• D. 0.91
• E. 1

Explanation: 1. The balanced chemical equation:N₂O₄(g) ⇌ 2NO₂(g)2. Initial conditions:Moles of N₂O₄ = 0.1 molMoles of NO₂ = 0 molVolume = 1 dm³3. Equilibrium conditions:Moles of NO₂ = 0.12 mol4. Calculating moles of N₂O₄ at equilibrium:Since 1 mole of N₂O₄ produces 2 moles of NO₂, the moles of N₂O₄ that reacted are half the moles of NO₂ produced:Moles of N₂O₄ reacted = 0.12 mol / 2 = 0.06 molMoles of N₂O₄ at equilibrium = Initial moles - Moles reacted = 0.1 mol - 0.06 mol = 0.04 mol5. Calculating concentrations at equilibrium:Since the volume is 1 dm³, the concentration is equal to the number of moles.[N₂O₄] = 0.04 mol/dm³[NO₂] = 0.12 mol/dm³6. Calculating Kc:Kc = ([NO₂]²) / [N₂O₄]Kc = (0.12 mol/dm³)² / (0.04 mol/dm³)Kc = 0.0144 / 0.04Kc = 0.36Therefore, Kc for the reaction is 0.36.

Q104. In which of the following situations is it impossible to predict how the pressure will change for a gas sample?

• A. The gas is cooled at a constant volume.
• B. The gas is heated at a constant volume.
• C. The gas is heated, and the volume is simultaneously increased.✓
• D. The gas is cooled, and the volume is simultaneously increased.

Explanation: Choice (C), on the other hand, presents too vague a scenario for us to predict definitively the change in pressure. Heating the gas would amplify the pressure, while increasing the volume would decrease it. Without knowing the magnitude of each influence, it's impossible to say whether the pressure would increase, decrease, or stay the same.

Q105. Which of the following combinations of liquids would be expected to have a vapor pressure higher than the vapor pressure that would be predicted by Raoult’s law?

• A. Ethanol and hexane✓
• B. Acetone and water
• C. Isopropanol and methanol
• D. Nitric acid and water

Explanation: Mixtures that have a higher vapor pressure than predicted by Raoult's law have stronger solvent-solvent and solute-solute interactions than solvent-solute interactions. Therefore, particles do not want to stay in solution and more readily evaporate, creating a higher vapor pressure than an ideal solution

Q106. Which gaseous hydride most readily decomposes into its elements on contact with a hot glass rod?

• A. Ammonia
• B. Hydrogen chloride
• C. Hydrogen iodide✓
• D. Steam

Explanation: It is the answer because again the strength or thermal stability of hydrogen halides decrease down the group iodine is below both chlorine and bromine therefore its hydrogen halide thermal stability is the weakest because hydrogen iodide bond length is long and therefore less polar than HCl therefore decompose more readily , more easily.

Q107. Bleaching powder is a good:

• A. Hydrating agent
• B. Oxidizing agent✓
• C. Dehydrating agent
• D. Reducing agent

Explanation: Bleaching powder is a good oxidizing agent because it can remove electrons from other substances. This property allows it to break down the chemical bonds of colored pigments, making it effective for bleaching fabrics. Additionally, it oxidizes and kills microorganisms, making it useful as a disinfectant. The other options are incorrect because:Hydrating agents add water to substances, which is not a function of bleaching powder.Dehydrating agents remove water, which is not relevant to the function of bleaching powder.Reducing agents donate electrons, which is opposite to the electron-removing function of an oxidizing agent like bleaching powder.

Q108. The value of the enthalpy change for the process represented by the equation Na--->Na+1 + e is equal to :

• A. The first ionization energy of sodium✓
• B. The enthalpy change of vaporization of sodium
• C. The sum of the enthalpy change of the atomization and the first ionization energy of sodium
• D. The sum of the enthalpy change of atomization and the electron affinity of sodium

Explanation: Option A is represented by the equation as it shows the first loss of electron.

Q109. Which statement about one mole of metal is always correct?

• A. It contains the same number of atoms as 1 mole of hydrogen atoms.✓
• B. It contains the same number of atoms as 1/12 mole of 12 C.
• C. It has the same mass as 1 mole of carbon atoms.
• D. It is liberated by 1 mole electrons.

Explanation: One mole of any elememt contain same(Avagadro number)of particles1mol of Cu=6.02×10²³particles1mol of H=6.02×10²³particles

Q110. As the atomic number increases in a group, the chemical properties:

• A. Change
• B. Stay roughly the same✓
• C. Decrease
• D. Increase

Explanation: Chemical properties depend upon no. Of electrons in valance shell.All the elements of a group have similar chemical properties because they have same number of valence electrons in their outermost shell.

Q111. The crystals formed as a result of vander der Waals interactions are:

• A. Molecular crystals✓
• B. Covalent crystals
• C. Metallic crystals
• D. Ionic crystals
• E. None of these

Explanation: Molecular crystals have Vander Waal forces between them. Covalent crystals have strong covalent bonds between its structure. Ionic crystals are bound by ionic bonding. Metallic bonds are bound by strong electrostatic attraction between positively charged ions and electrons dispersed in the matrix.

Q112. Which of the following processes is endothermic?

• A. The condensation of steam
• B. The electrolysis of water✓
• C. The freezing of water
• D. 𝐶𝑎(𝑠)+ 2𝐻2O (I)---> 𝐶𝑎2 (aq)+ 𝐻2 (g)
• E. 𝐻+(aq) + OH(aq) ---->𝐻2O (I)

Explanation: During electrolysis, heat is given to the water which gets absorbed by water to give oxygen and hydrogen and so the reaction is an endothermic reaction.

Q113. Which reagent gives a colorless homogeneous solution when added tp phenol?

• A. Aqueous bromine
• B. Aqueous sodium carbonate
• C. Aqueous sodium hydroxide✓
• D. Aqueous sodium hydroxide and benzoyl chloride

Explanation: Phenol reacts with sodium hydroxide solution to give a colourless solution containing sodium phenoxide. In this reaction, the hydrogen ion has been removed by the strongly basic hydroxide ion in the sodium hydroxide solution

Q114. Which substances has tetrahedral geometry?

• A. Benzene
• B. Methane✓
• C. Cyclohexene
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Methane show sp³ hybridization thus possess Tetrahedral geometry.

Q115. How many atoms of carbon are present in 18 g of glucose, 𝐶6 𝐻12 𝑂6?

• A. 6.0 x 1022
• B. 3.6 x 1023✓
• C. 6.0 x 1023
• D. 3.6 x 1024
• E. 6.0 x 1024

Explanation: •18g of glucose =0 1 mol•No of moles of C in = 6mol1mol of glucose•moles of C in 0.1 =0.6molMol of glucose •no.of atoms of C = 0.6×6.02×10²³=3.6×10²³In 0.1 mol of Glucose ACCORDING TO ABOVE CALCULATION OPTION B is only correct

Q116. Which property of a gas affects the rate at which it spreads throughout a laboratory?

• A. Boiling point
• B. Molecular Mass✓
• C. Reactivity
• D. Solubility in water

Explanation: The correct answer is molecular mass. According to Graham's law of diffusion, the rate at which a gas spreads is inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular mass. This means lighter gases diffuse faster than heavier gases. For example, hydrogen (H2) with a molecular mass of 2, diffuses faster than oxygen (O2) with a molecular mass of 32.Other options, such as boiling point, reactivity, and solubility in water, pertain to different physical properties and chemical behaviors of substances and do not directly influence the rate of gas diffusion in air.

Q117. One mole of an organic compound is completely burnt in oxygen. Which compound produces exactly three moles of water?

• A. Butane C4H10
• B. Butanol C4H9OH
• C. Ethanol C2H5OH✓
• D. Propane C3H8

Explanation: C2H5OH + 3O2 = 2CO2 + 3H2O

Q118. Which statement shows that diamond and graphite are allotropes of carbon?

• A. Both have giant molecular structures
• B. Complete combustion of equal masses of carbon dioxide as the only product
• C. Graphite conducts electricity, whereas diamond does not
• D. Under suitable conditions, graphite can be converted into diamond✓

Explanation: This statement directly proves they are allotropes because it shows they are two different physical forms of the same element that can be interconverted. Allotropes differ in the arrangement of atoms but are made of the same element. The ability to change from graphite to diamond under high temperature and pressure is clear evidence that both are pure carbon in different structural forms.

Q119. How many isomers are possible for the compound having molecular having molecular formula C3H5Br.

• A. 2
• B. 4✓
• C. 6
• D. 8

Explanation: The correct answer is 4. The compound with the molecular formula C3H5Br can form four isomers, which are structural isomers due to variations in the placement of the bromine atom and the types of carbon-carbon bonds:1-bromopropene: CH2=CH-CH2Br2-bromopropene: CH3-CH=CHBr3-bromopropene: CH3-CBr=CH21,2-dibromopropane: BrCH2-CH=CH2Each of these isomers represents a unique structural arrangement of the atoms in C3H5Br. The other options (2, 6, and 8) are incorrect because they either underestimate or overestimate the possible isomers based on the molecular structure constraints.

Q120. A frictionless heat engine can be 100% efficient only its exhaust temperatures is:

• A. Double of its input temperature
• B. Half of its input temperature
• C. Equal to its input temperature
• D. 100%
• E. 0 K✓

Explanation: The correct answer is 0 Kelvin. The efficiency of a heat engine is given by the equation:η = 1 - T2/T1 where η is the efficiency, T2 is the exhaust temperature, and T1 is the input temperature. For a heat engine to be 100% efficient, the exhaust temperature (T2) must be 0 Kelvin. This is because the efficiency equation approaches 1 (or 100%) as T2 approaches 0. None of the other options reach 100% efficiency because their exhaust temperatures are not low enough to maximize the efficiency ratio.

Q121. The vector which only specifies the direction of a given vector is called:

• A. Free vector
• B. Position vector
• C. Null vector
• D. Unit vector✓

Explanation: Option A:Free vectors refers to a vector which is neither a point nor a line, and something that can move freely around the space though it has a fixed magnitude and fixed direction.Option B: Position vector specifies the given direction of a vector.Option C: A null vector is a vector having magnitude equal to zero. A null vector has no direction or it may have any direction. Generally a null vector is either equal to the resultant of two equal vectors acting in opposite directions or multiple vectors in different directions.Option D: A unit vector is one whose magnitude is equal to one. The "cap" symbol(^) is used to indicate unit vectors.

Q122. A ball is thrown vertically upward with velocity of 196 m/s. How high does the ball rise?

• A. 1960 metres✓
• B. 2960 metres
• C. 1000 metres
• D. 1100 metres

Explanation: As the ball is thrown upward the final velocity (vf) will be zero.2gh=vf2-vi2 =>h=0-(196)2/2×10 => h= 1920 m which is closer to 1960 m.

Q123. ‘’If there is no external force applied to a system, then the total momentum of that system remains constant”. This known as:

• A. Law of conservation of mass
• B. Elastic collision
• C. Law of conservation of momentum✓
• D. Momentum of a body

Explanation: This is the statement of the law of conservation of momentum.Option A: The mass in an isolated system can neither be created nor be destroyed but can be transformed from one form to another.Option B: Elastic collision is an elastic collision is an encounter between two bodies in which the total kinetic energy of the two bodies remains the same.Option D:The momentum of the body is the product of the mass and velocity of the body. The factors on which the momentum of the body depends are mass and velocity.

Q124. A car travelling at a constant speed of 90 km/h rounds a curve of a radius 100m. What is its acceleration?

• A. 4.0 m/s2
• B. 6.25 m/s2✓
• C. 6.5 m/s2
• D. 4.5 m/s2
• E. 7.5 m/s2

Explanation: Centripetal acceleration=v2/r first convert 90 km/h to m/s,90×1000m /3600 sec = 25 m/sac=252/100 = 6.25 ms-2.

Q125. A boy on a 20 m high cliff drops a stone. One second later, he throws down another stone. Both the stones hit the ground simultaneously. Find the initial velocity of the second stone. (g=10/𝑠 2)

• A. 5 m/s2
• B. 10 m/s2
• C. 15 m/s2✓
• D. 20 m/s2
• E. 30 m/s2

Explanation: In case of drop initial velocity= 0Time will be given by h=1/2gt2t=√2h/g =√2×20/10 = 2 sec.Since both stones hit the ground simultaneously and the 2nd one was dropped 1 sec later, the time taken by the 2nd stone will be t' =2sec -1sec = 1sec .H'=vi×t+1/2gt'2 =>20= vi×1+½ ×10×1vi= 15 ms-1.

Q126. An elevator, in which a man is standing is moving upward with a constant speed of 10 m/𝑠 2. If the an of the drops a coin from a height of 2.5 m, find the time taken by it to reach the floor of the elevation (g=9.8 m/𝑠 2)

• A. 0.707 s✓
• B. 1.9 s
• C. 3.1 s
• D. 6.17 s
• E. 7.15 s

Explanation: Initial speed of the coin u=0 m/sAcceleration a=9.8 ms-2Initial height of coin from the floor of elevator h=2.5 m , vi=0H=vit+1/2gt2 => t=√2H/gt=√2×2.5/10 = 0.707 sec.

Q127. A 100 kg man runs up a hill through a height of 4m in seconds. How much work does he do against gravitational force?

• A. 2060 J
• B. 3920 J✓
• C. 5000 J
• D. 5290 J

Explanation: Work done = mghW= 100×9.8×4 =3920 J.

Q128. Which statement describes the electrical potential difference between two points in a wire carrying a current?

• A. The force required to move a unit positive charge between the points
• B. The ratio of the energy dissipated between the points to the current
• C. The ratio of the power dissipated between the points to the current✓
• D. The ratio of the power dissipated between the points to the charge moved
• E. None of the above

Explanation: As, P=VIV= P/I. Hence option C is correct.

Q129. Find the time period of a simple pendulum whose length is 88.2 cm. The value acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/𝑠 2 at the place where experiments is performed?

• A. 1.885 sec✓
• B. 1.233 sec
• C. 2.05 sec
• D. 4 sec

Explanation: The formula to calculate the time period of simple pendulum is T=2π √l/g where l=length of pendulum, g=acceleration due to gravity.By putting valuesFirst convert length from cm to m by dividing by 100 and we get 0.882 m. By putting values T=2(3.14) √0.882/9.8 = 1.88 sec.

Q130. A light bulb has resistance of 150 ohm, find the voltage while the current is 1.5A?

• A. 250 V
• B. 300 V
• C. 224 V
• D. 225 V✓

Explanation: Ohm's Law is given byV=IRBy putting valuesV= (1.5)(150) = 225 V.

Q131. An object that’s moving with constant speed travels around a circular path. Which of the following is/are true concerning this motion?I The displacement is zeroII. The average speed is zeroIII. The circulation is zero

• A. I only✓
• B. I and II only
• C. I and III only
• D. III only
• E. II and III only

Explanation: I-Travelling once around a circular path means that the final position coincides with the initial position. Therefore, the displacement is zero. II-The average speed, which is total distance travelled divided by elapsed time, cannot be zero.III-Circulation is the amount of force that pushes along a closed boundary or path. It's the total "push" you get when going along a path, such as a circle.Circulation will be zero when the body passes through the origin which in the given case is not true.Therefore, only I is correct.

Q132. A system absorbs 80 J through heating while doing 100 J of external work, what is the change in the internal energy of the system?

• A. -100 J
• B. -20 J✓
• C. +80 J
• D. +180 J

Explanation: Since the work is done by the system it is positive.And heat is absorbed by the system so it is also positive.As, Q=∆U+W where ∆U is change in internal energy.∆U=Q-W =80-100 = -20 J

Q133. A region around a charge body in which another charge experiences an electric force is called:

• A. Electric flux
• B. Electric field✓
• C. Electric potential
• D. Capacitance

Explanation: Option A: [17/12, 10:07 am] mariam: Electric flux is 'the total number of electric field lines passing a given area in a unit of time'.Option B: This is the definition of electric field.Option C: Electric potential is defined as work done in moving a charged particle from infinity( where potential is zero) to that point. It is basically a potential difference between two points.Option D:Capacitance is the ability of a capacitor to store charge.

Q134. A convex lens of focal length 40 cm is in contact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. the power of the combination in dioptres is:

• A. -1.5✓
• B. -6.5
• C. +6.5
• D. +6.67
• E. -7.7

Explanation: Given,f1=40cm , f2=-25cmPower, P=1/fThe power of combination is, P=1/f1+1/f2P=1/40+ 1/-25 = -1.5 D

Q135. A simple pendulum suspended from the ceiling of a train has a period ‘T’ when the train is at rest. When the train is accelerating with a uniform acceleration, the time period of simple pendulum will:

• A. Decrease✓
• B. Increase
• C. Remain unchanged
• D. Become infinite
• E. Insufficient information

Explanation: Understanding the concept:The time period of a simple pendulum is given by T = 2π√(L/g), where L is the length of the pendulum and g is the acceleration due to gravity. When the train accelerates, an additional pseudo force acts on the pendulum bob in the opposite direction of the train's acceleration. This pseudo force effectively increases the "effective gravity" experienced by the pendulum. 2. Calculating effective gravity:When the train accelerates horizontally with acceleration 'a', the pendulum bob experiences two accelerations: 'g' vertically downwards and 'a' horizontally. The effective acceleration (g_eff) is the vector sum of these two accelerations.g_eff = √(g² + a²) 3. Calculating the new time period:The new time period (T') will be:T' = 2π√(L/g_eff) = 2π√(L/√(g² + a²))4. Comparing T' and T:Since g_eff > g, the denominator in the equation for T' is larger than the denominator in the equation for T. Therefore, T' < T.Conclusion:When the train accelerates, the time period of the simple pendulum decreases.

Q136. Lenz’s law states that:

• A. The flow of a fluid in a medium under the same applied force experiences some sort of friction or resistance in its path
• B. A body remains at rest or continues to move with uniform velocity unless acted upon by an unbalanced force
• C. The induced current always flows in such a direction as to oppose the change which is giving rise to it✓
• D. When a particle bearing a charge q and moving with a velocity V enters the region of a uniform magnetic field of induction B, it is acted upon by a force

Explanation: This is the core of Lenz's Law. It's a consequence of the conservation of energy. If the induced current aided the change, you'd get a runaway effect, creating energy from nothing.

Q137. Two cars are travelling towards each other on a straight road at velocities 15 m/s and 16 m/s respectively. When they are 150 m apart, both the drivers apply the brakes and the cars decelerate at 3 m/s 2 and 4 m/s2 until they stop. Separation between the cars when they come to rest is:

• A. 86.5 m
• B. 89.5 m
• C. 85.5 m
• D. 80.5 m✓

Explanation: Given is the solution:

Q138. Two capacitors 𝐶1 = 2𝑢 F and 𝐶1 = 4𝑢 F are connected series across a 100 V supply. Find the effective capacitance.

• A. 1/2𝑢 F
• B. 3/2𝑢 F
• C. 4/3𝑢 F✓
• D. 7/2𝑢 F
• E. 9/2𝑢 F

Explanation: The total capacitance of capacitors in series is found using the formula: 1/Ctotal = 1/C1 + 1/C2. For C1 = 2μF and C2 = 4μF, we get:1/Ctotal = 1/2 + 1/4 = 2/4 + 1/4 = 3/4So, Ctotal = 4/3 μF.This shows that the correct answer is 4/3 μF, making Option C correct. The other options result from incorrect calculations or misunderstandings of the series capacitor formula.

Q139. Consider two equal resistors wired in parallel. What is the equivalent resistance of the two?

• A. 3R/2
• B. R/2✓
• C. R/3
• D. R/5
• E. R/7

Explanation: In order to find the equivalent resistance of resistors with identical resistances connected in parallel, we useReq= R/n , where n is number of resistors Req= R/2

Q140. A detector with a surface area of 1 square meter is placed 1 meter from an operating jackhammer. It measures the power of the jackhammer’s sounds as being 10−3 W and finds the intensity of the jackhammer.

• A. 10 W/m2
• B. 10-3 W/m2✓
• C. 10-9 W/m2
• D. 10-7 W/m2
• E. 10-9 W/m2

Explanation: Sound Intensity (SI) is defined as the power carried by sound waves per unit area in a direction perpendicular to that area. The units associated with SI is the watt per square metre (W/m2).I = P/A =10-3/1 I = 10-3 Wm-2.

Q141. Ultraviolet light is more likely to cause a photoelectric effect than visible light. This is because photons of ultraviolet light:

• A. Have a longer wavelength
• B. Have a higher velocity
• C. Are not visible
• D. Have a higher energy✓

Explanation: Photoelectric effect: When the light of a particular frequency is focused on metal, it ejects an electron from the metal's surfaceFor ejection of metal, the light should be of greater frequency than the threshold (minimum) frequency and it is different for different metals.From the electromagnetic spectrum, we know that the wavelength of UV light is low.Wavelength and frequency are inversely proportional.Therefore, UV light has more frequency and energy than visible light which makes it suitable for use in photoelectric effect.

Q142. If an object is released 19.6 metres above the ground, how long does it take the object to reach the ground? (g=9.8 𝑚/𝑠^2)

• A. 1 second
• B. 2 seconds✓
• C. 6 seconds
• D. 8 seconds
• E. 10 seconds

Explanation: To find the time it takes for an object to fall to the ground from a height of 19.6 meters with an acceleration due to gravity of 9.8 m/s2, we use the formula for distance in free fall: h = (1/2)gt2. Solving for t, we get:t = sqrt(2h/g) = sqrt(2 * 19.6 / 9.8) = sqrt(4) = 2 seconds.Therefore, the correct answer is 2 seconds. The other options are incorrect as they do not satisfy the equation derived from the physics of free fall motion.

Q143. Two tuning forks are sounded, one has a frequency of 250 Hz while the other has a frequency of 245 Hz. What is the frequency of the beats?

• A. 250 Hz
• B. 245 Hz
• C. 5 Hz✓
• D. 10 Hz
• E. 235 Hz

Explanation: Beat frequency i.e,number of beats per second is equal to the difference between the two combining frequencies. Hence, there will be 250-245= 5 Hz.

Q144. A rock is dropped from a high bridge at the end of 3 seconds of free fall the speed of the rock in cm/s:

• A. 30
• B. 100
• C. 500
• D. 1000
• E. 2940✓

Explanation: As, vf= vi+atIn case of drop initial velocity=0 vf=0+9.8×3vf=29.4m/s => vf=29.4×100 cm/svf= 2940 cm/s.

Q145. A body rolling freely on the surface of the earth eventually comes to rest because:

• A. It has mass
• B. It suffers friction✓
• C. It has inertia of rest
• D. It has momentum
• E. It is gravitation less because it is already on the surface

Explanation: The correct answer is: It suffers friction.When a body rolls on a surface, friction acts between the contact points of the body and the surface. This force opposes the body's motion, gradually converting its kinetic energy into heat, which slows it down until it comes to rest.Other options are incorrect because:Mass is not responsible for stopping the body; it influences inertia but not the cessation of motion.Inertia of rest only applies to objects initially at rest, not moving ones.Momentum describes motion but does not explain why an object stops; external forces like friction are required to change it.The notion of being "gravitation-less" is irrelevant; gravity acts on all objects on Earth's surface.

Q146. A 1000 kg car can accelerate from rest to a speed of 25 m/s in 10s. what average power (in kilowatts) must the engine of the car produce in order to cause this acceleration? Neglect the friction loss.

• A. 33.25
• B. 3625
• C. 48.44
• D. 3125
• E. 31.25✓

Explanation: Kinetic energy gained by the car is equal to (1/2mv2)K.E=½ x 1000 x 252 = 312500 JMinimum power required by the car = K.E/t P= 312500/10=31250 watt.And in kilowatt, it is 31.25 kwatt. So E is correct.

Q147. The kinetic energy of a projectile at the highest point is half of its kinetic energy. The angle of projection is

• A. 00
• B. 300
• C. 600
• D. 450✓
• E. 900

Explanation: Let K.Ei and K.Eh be the initial kinetic energy and kinetic energy at the highest point respectively.Let v be the initial velocity of the projectile.At highest point, the velocity of projectile =vcosθAccording to question(KE)h=1/2(KE)i=>1/2mv2 cos2θ = ½(½ mv^)=>cos2θ=1/2=>cos θ=1/√2=>θ =45°.

Q148. A small and a large raindrops are falling through air

• A. The small drop will evaporate
• B. The large drop moves faster✓
• C. The small drop moves faster
• D. Both move with the same speed
• E. No conclusion can be drawn unless the exact sizes of the drops are known

Explanation: vt=2r2ρg/9ηWhere ρ is the density of water and η the viscosity of air. As the terminal velocity of the sphere is directly proportional to the square of radius. So a larger drop will have larger terminal velocity and hence will move faster.

Q149. A container is divided into two equal portions. One portion contains an ideal gas at pressure P and temperature T while the other portion is a perfect vacuum. If a hole is opened between two portions:

• A. There will be a change in internal energy.
• B. There will be a change in temperature.
• C. There will be no change in internal energy.✓
• D. The external pressure will increase
• E. The external pressure will decrease.

Explanation: This is correct. Because the gas expands into a vacuum with no heat exchange and no work done, internal energy remains unchanged. This is a key characteristic of free expansion for ideal gases.