Fmdc 2016 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Which is not a past from of a verb.

• A. Was
• B. Had
• C. Looked
• D. Spoke
• E. Hear✓

Explanation: A past tense is a tense that is used to talk about something that has happened in the past, or the way something was in the past. It's one of the three main tenses alongside present and future.

Q2. Which contains an adjective?

• A. Old man✓
• B. On Tuesday
• C. She said
• D. And you
• E. Afternoon

Explanation: An adjective is a word that tells us more about a noun, in other words, it describes a noun.

Q3. Which contains an adverb?

• A. Full house
• B. Three women
• C. Was dirty
• D. Very funny✓
• E. Early morning

Explanation: Adverbs are words that usually modify, that is, they limit or restrict the meaning of verbs.

Q4. Which is not correct?

• A. In February
• B. On 5:00 o’clock✓
• C. At my house
• D. Near me
• E. On May 2

Explanation: To state time we always use “At” instead of on

Q5. Choose the incorrect word Shark differ from other fish in that Their skeleton are made of cartilage instead bone

• A. differ from
• B. other fish
• C. are made✓
• D. instead

Explanation: Skeleton is the body's central framework, used in a singular form, which is why it should be “skeleton is made of”

Q6. Choose the incorrect word:The hormone insulin controls over the amount of sugar in the blood which provides energy for the body.

• A. The
• B. control over✓
• C. the amount
• D. which

Explanation: The right statement would be “Insulin controls the amount” instead of controls over.

Q7. Choose the incorrect word:I use a bike both to ride to school and going to market.

• A. I use a bike
• B. both
• C. to ride
• D. and going✓

Explanation: The correct statement should be “and FOR going to the market

Q8. Which one of the following four options is nearest in meaning to the word in capitals? ASTOUND

• A. Shock✓
• B. Confer
• C. Condescend
• D. Strengthen

Explanation: Astound means to be shocked

Q9. Which one of the following four options is nearest in meaning to the word in capitals? WISP?

• A. Tuft✓
• B. Pack
• C. Smell
• D. Spry

Explanation: Wisp means piece of strand or thread, twisted etc.

Q10. Which one of the following four options is nearest in meaning to the word in capitals? WALLOW

• A. Roll about✓
• B. Mock
• C. Protest
• D. Borrow

Explanation: Wallow means to tumble around or lie around

Q11. Which one of the following four options is nearest in meaning to the word in capitals? CONNOISSEUR

• A. Guide
• B. Artist
• C. Expert critic of art✓
• D. Teacher

Explanation: Connoisseur means to be an expert of something.

Q12. Which one of the following four options is nearest in meaning to the word in capitals? ECCENTRIC

• A. Lunatic
• B. Stern
• C. Upset
• D. Odd✓

Explanation: Eccentric means something that is a little unconventional or strange

Q13. Which one of the following four options is nearest in meaning to the word in capitals? BOULDER

• A. Rounded stone/ hill✓
• B. Builder
• C. Magnanimity
• D. Magnitude

Explanation: Boulder is defined as a large rock

Q14. He was?

• A. Robbed✓
• B. Stolen
• C. Pinched
• D. Established

Explanation: No explanation as incomplete question is given

Q15. The presence of armed guards _ from doing anything disruptive?

• A. Defeated
• B. Excited
• C. Irritated
• D. Prevented✓

Explanation: Prevented is the correct word as they were unable to do anything disruptive

Q16. Our flight was _ from Lahore to Islamabad airport?

• A. Diverted✓
• B. Reflected
• C. Deflected
• D. Shifted

Explanation: Divert means to change direction, an airplane can only change its direction from one point to another

Q17. I am _ forward to our picnic scheduled in next month.

• A. Looking✓
• B. Planning
• C. Seeing
• D. Going

Explanation: The correct expression is to “look forward”

Q18. My advice had no _ on him.

• A. Effect✓
• B. Affect
• C. Influence
• D. Impression

Explanation: Effect means as a result which is the right answer

Q19. Do not lose heart, it is just a _ in the tea cup.

• A. Wind
• B. Cyclone
• C. Blast
• D. Storm✓

Explanation: To have storm in a cup is the correct idiom

Q20. Pakistan_from voting against Iran in the United Nations.

• A. Prevented
• B. Detained
• C. Abstained✓
• D. Refused

Explanation: Abstained is followed by “from”, refused is followed by “to” and, detained and prevented, both, are followed by “by”

Q21. The family tree shows the inheritance of a skin condition. What is the genetic basis of the skin condition?

• A. Autosomal dominant
• B. Sex-linked dominant
• C. Autosomal recessive✓
• D. Sex-linked recessive

Explanation: The genetic basis of this skin condition is autosomal recessive. Autosomal recessive traits pass from both parents into the child.

Q22. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate?

• A. Glucose
• B. Lactose
• C. Insulin✓
• D. Starch
• E. Sucrose

Explanation: Insulin is not a carbohydrate.Insulin is a protein chain or peptide hormone. There are 51 amino acids in an insulin molecule.

Q23. An amino acid molecule has the following structure (shown in picture) Which two of the groups combine to form a peptide link?

• A. 1 and 2
• B. 1 and 3✓
• C. 2 and 3
• D. 2 and 4

Explanation: The explanation is given in the image:

Q24. What prevents molecules with a molecular mass greater than 68000 passing from the glomerular capillaries into Bowman’s capsule?

• A. The basement membrane of the epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule✓
• B. The cell surface membrane of the endothelial cells of the capillaries
• C. The cell surface membrane of the epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule
• D. The spaces between the extensions of the podocytes of Bowman’s capsule

Explanation: Filtration occurs through 3 layers: the endothelium of blood capillaries, the basement membrane of the epithelium and the filtration slits of the renal capsule. The endothelium of blood capillaries contains large pores which do not filter out larger molecules The basement membrane consists of a meshwork of collagen fibres that are able to filter them out. The filtration slits are formed by the podocytes and do not hinder the passage of large molecules.

Q25. Molds and yeast are classified as:

• A. Rhodophytes
• B. Bryophytes
• C. Fungi✓
• D. Ciliates
• E. Flagellates

Explanation: Fungi are eukaryotic microorganisms. Fungi can occur as yeasts, molds, or as a combination of both forms.

Q26. A person’s anterior pituitary gland is removed by surgery. Plasma concentrations of which of the following hormones would be LEAST affected?

• A. GH
• B. LH
• C. FSH
• D. Insulin✓
• E. ACTH

Explanation: Insulin is produced by pancreas and has no relationship with the pituitary gland.LH,FSH, AND ACTH are secreted by stimulus from the pituitary gland.

Q27. The rate of breathing is controlled by involuntary centers in the:

• A. cerebrum
• B. cerebellum
• C. medulla oblongata✓
• D. spinal cord
• E. hypothalamus

Explanation: The respiratory center is located in the medulla oblongata and is involved in the minute-to-minute control of breathing.

Q28. A secretion that digests both carbohydrates and proteins is:

• A. Ptyalin
• B. Saliva
• C. Pepsin
• D. Gastric juice
• E. Pancreatic juice✓

Explanation: Pancreatic juices act upon both carbohydrates and proteins.

Q29. If gastric juice is tested with a pH meter, the pH is most likely to be about:

• A. 2✓
• B. 6
• C. 7
• D. 8
• E. 14

Explanation: HCl is an important component in gastric juice. It is a strong acid produced by the parietal cells in the corpus generating a gastric pH of 2-3. Activation of pepsin and absorption of nutrients relies on an acidic pH in the stomach.

Q30. Which of the following does the autonomic nervous system control?

• A. Sight
• B. Thinking
• C. Digestion✓
• D. Hearing
• E. Memory

Explanation: Autonomic nervous system is the component of the peripheral nervous system that regulates involuntary physiologic processes including heart rate, blood pressure, respiration, digestion, and sexual arousal.

Q31. Venous blood en route from the kidneys to the heart must pass through the:

• A. Iliac vein
• B. Inferior vena cava✓
• C. Liver
• D. Hepatic vein
• E. Pulmonary vein

Explanation: The kidneys receive unfiltered blood directly from the heart through the abdominal aorta which then branches to the left and right renal arteries. Filtered blood then returns by the left and right renal veins to the inferior vena cava and then the heart.

Q32. All of the following statements about arteries are true except:

• A. They are thick-walled
• B. They pulsate
• C. They contain much elastic fiber tissue
• D. They carry blood away from the heart
• E. They contain valves✓

Explanation: Unlike arteries, veins contain valves that ensure blood flows in only one direction. (Arteries don't require valves because pressure from the heart is so strong that blood is only able to flow in one direction.)

Q33. The rate of breathing is controlled by the:

• A. Lungs
• B. Cerebellum
• C. Pons
• D. Medulla oblongata✓
• E. Diaphragm

Explanation: The respiratory center is located in the medulla oblongata and is involved in the minute-to-minute control of breathing.

Q34. Special structures for the absorption of digested food in the small intestine are called:

• A. Alveoli
• B. Tubules
• C. Mucous glands
• D. Villi✓
• E. Peristalsis

Explanation: The folds form numerous tiny projections which stick out into the open space inside your small intestine (or lumen), and are covered with cells that help absorb nutrients from the food that passes through. Microvilli: The cells on the villi are packed full of tiny hairlike structures called microvilli.

Q35. Which of the following are found in the nose to detect smell?

• A. Olfactory receptors✓
• B. Photoreceptors
• C. Phonoreceptors
• D. Gustatory receptors

Explanation: The olfactory epithelium contains special receptors (called olfactory receptors) that are sensitive to odor molecules that travel through the air. These receptors are very small.

Q36. A nerve cell that transmits impulses from a sense organ to the nervous system is known as a(n):

• A. Sensory neuron✓
• B. Motor neuron
• C. Interneuron
• D. Plexus
• E. Ganglion

Explanation: Sensory neurons transmit nerve impulses from sense organs (eyes, ears, nose, tongue and touch) to the brain. They also carry nerve impulses to the brain and spinal cord.

Q37. Premature birth or miscarriage is usually caused by the disturbance in secretion of which of the following hormone?

• A. Estrogen
• B. Progesterone✓
• C. Lactogen
• D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

Explanation: Progesterone is one of the sex hormones closely associated with pregnancy and the menstrual cycle. It can also play a role in recurrent miscarriages or premature birth.

Q38. Which of the following is an example of feedback inhibition in a metabolic pathway?

• A. A non-competitive inhibitor binds irreversibly to substrate
• B. An enzyme-controlled reaction slows down as the end product accumulates✓
• C. There is competition between two enzymes for a common substrate
• D. Variations in enzyme concentration affect the rate of the reaction it catalyzes

Explanation: Variations in enzyme concentration affect the rate of reaction it catalyzes is an example of feedback inhibition in a metabolic pathway.

Q39. Which of the following substances is non-digestible by man?

• A. Starch
• B. Glycogen
• C. Cellulose✓
• D. Maltose
• E. Sucrose

Explanation: Cellulose is a fibre which is not digestible by the human digestive system.Cellulose is present in plant cell walls.

Q40. Which of the following is NOT an echinoderm?

• A. Starfish
• B. Sea cucumber
• C. Cuttlefish✓
• D. Sea urchin

Explanation: Cuttlefish or cuttles are marine Molluscs of the Phylum Mollusca and not members of echinodermata.

Q41. Earthworm belongs to which of the following phylum?

• A. Nematoda
• B. Annelida✓
• C. Echinodermata
• D. Coelenterate

Explanation: Earthworm, also called angleworm, any one of more than 1,800 species of terrestrial worms of the class Oligochaeta (phylum Annelida)

Q42. Butterfly belongs to which of the following class of Phylum Arthropoda?

• A. Insecta✓
• B. Crustacea
• C. Arachnida
• D. Myriapoda

Explanation: Butterfly belongs to class insecta of the phylum Arthropoda.

Q43. The characteristic feature of sponges is:

• A. Diploblastic nature
• B. Freshwater habitat
• C. Forming link between the living and nonliving
• D. Porous body✓

Explanation: Sponges have a porous body. Full of tiny pores that allow fluids or gasses to pass through. Sponges are porous so they can filter water while trapping food. Concrete is porous, so water will slowly filter through it.

Q44. In mitosis, _ begins when sister chromatids are suddenly separated and pulled towards opposite poles as kinetochore, microtubule shortens, and at the same time polar microtubules elongate.

• A. Anaphase✓
• B. Telophase
• C. Metaphase
• D. Prophase

Explanation: Anaphase in mitosis begins when sister chromatids are suddenly separated and pulled towards opposite poles as kinetochore, microtubule shortens, and at the same time polar microtubules elongate.

Q45. The elasticity of the plasma membrane demonstrates that it is made up of:

• A. Lipids✓
• B. Proteins
• C. Nucleic acids
• D. Carbohydrates

Explanation: This is a book line. According fluid mosaic model, the plasma membrane is composed of lipid bilayer in which the protein molecules are embedded. The fluid nature of lipids enables the lateral movement of protein within the lipid bilayer. This fluid nature of the lipid makes the plasma membrane elastic.

Q46. A mammalian cell is undergoing mitosis; the amount of DNA in its early prophase is X. After completion of mitosis, what should be the amount of DNA in the daughter cell?

• A. X/4
• B. X/2
• C. X✓
• D. 2X

Explanation: The chromosome number is the same in the daughter cells as it was in the parent cell. Because DNA is duplicated during interphase before the cell undergoes mitosis, the amount of DNA in the original parent cell and the daughter cells are the same. There is no reduction occurring in mitosis, so the amount of DNA in the daughter cell is X.

Q47. Which of the following occurs in the cell nucleus?I. RNA synthesisII. Protein synthesisIII. DNA synthesis

• A. I only
• B. II only
• C. III only
• D. II and III
• E. I, II and III
• F. I and III only✓

Explanation: I and III only DNA synthesis and RNA synthesis occurs in the cell nucleus.

Q48. An organelle that is visible only with the aid of an electron microscope is the:

• A. Nucleus
• B. Chloroplast
• C. Cell wall
• D. Ribosome✓
• E. Vacuole

Explanation: Ribosomes are only visible with the electron microscope.

Q49. Epiblast later on develops into:

• A. Megablast & hypoblast
• B. Microblast & hyperblast
• C. Microblast & megablast
• D. Ectoderm & endoderm✓

Explanation: The epiblast gives rise to the three primary germ layers (ectoderm, definitive endoderm, and mesoderm.

Q50. When the muscle is required to contract, then calcium ions bind with which molecule and cause them to move slightly?

• A. Tropomyosin
• B. Actin
• C. Troponin✓
• D. Myosin

Explanation: Calcium is required by two proteins, troponin and tropomyosin, that regulate muscle contraction by blocking the binding of myosin to filamentous actin. In a resting sarcomere, tropomyosin blocks the binding of myosin to actin. Calcium binds to troponin, causing the conformational shift in tropomyosin that reveals myosin-binding sites on actin. ATP then binds to myosin.

Q51. The joints that allow movement in two directions are called:

• A. Ball and Socket joint
• B. Hinge joint✓
• C. Cartilaginous joint
• D. Fibrous joint

Explanation: Hinge joints are the ones that allow the movement in only 2 directions. Elbow and knee joints are the examples of hinge joints.

Q52. Which of the following is mismatched?

• A. Slightly moveable joint - vertebrae
• B. Hinge joint – hip✓
• C. Synovial joint – elbow
• D. Immovable joint – sutures in cranium

Explanation: Elbow and knee are examples of hinge joints. The hip is a ball and socket joint.

Q53. Match the hormones listed in Column I with the roles given under Column II. Choose the answer which gives the correct combination of alphabets of the two columns.

• A. A= t, B = s, C = p, D = q✓
• B. A = r, B = t, C = s, D = q
• C. A = t, B = p, C = s, D = q
• D. A = q, B = s, C = p, D = r

Explanation: FSH is involved in the maturation of the Graafian follicle. LH is involved in the development of the corpus luteum. Progesterone is involved in the preparation of the endometrium for implantation. Estrogen is involved in the development of female sexual characteristics. So, A is the correct answer.

Q54. Which change contributes to the lowering of the blood sugar level, if a person is injected with insulin?

• A. Decrease in the permeability of cells to glucose
• B. Decrease in the rate of absorption of glucose from the gut
• C. Increase in the rate of excretion of glucose✓
• D. Increase in the synthesis of glycogen

Explanation: When you take insulin, it helps to move glucose out of your bloodstream and into cells. Your cells use some of that sugar for energy and then store any leftover sugar in your fat, muscle, and liver for later. Once the sugar moves into your cells, your blood glucose level should go back to normal. If the glucose gets excreted it goes into the cell and the blood glucose level is maintained.

Q55. _ accepts hydrogen from malate.

• A. COQ
• B. FMN
• C. FAD✓
• D. NAD

Explanation: Succinate is a correct answer. It is a 4-carbon compound.

Q56. If 2 kilojoules of heat are added to 500 grams of water at 100 C and standard pressure, after 2 minutes, the temperature of the water will be:

• A. 100 C✓
• B. 110 C
• C. 115 C
• D. 120 C
• E. 125 C

Explanation: 100°C is the correct answer and is solved as follows. Q = 2kJ = 2000J m = 500g T1 = 100oC Q = mxcx 𐤃T Where 𐤃T = (T2-100) 2000J = 500g x 4.186J x (T2-100)/gC 2000J/500 x 4.186J = T2-100 4000/4186 = T2-100 0.95 + 100= T2 100.95 = T2

Q57. A vibrating diaphragm sets up strong vibrations at the mouth of a horizontal tube containing air and a small amount of fine powder. The powder becomes arranged in piles 1 cm apart, and the speed of sound in air is 330 meters.The wavelength of this sound in air is:

• A. 0.02 m✓
• B. ½ cm
• C. 1 cm
• D. 2cm
• E. 4cm

Explanation: The distance between two adjacent piles of powder is equal to half of the wavelength of the sound wave. In this case, the distance between piles is given as 1 cm. Wavelength (λ) = 2 * Distance between piles Convert the distance between piles from centimeters to meters: 1 cm = 0.01 meters So, the wavelength of the sound wave is: λ = 2 * 0.01 meters = 0.02 meters The wavelength of this sound in air is 0.02 meters.

Q58. A candle 2 cm long is placed upright in front of a concave spherical mirror whose focal length is 10 cm. The distance of the candle from the mirror is 30 cm.The radius of curvature of the mirror is:

• A. 5 cm✓
• B. 10 cm
• C. 15 cm
• D. 20 cm
• E. 6 cm

Explanation: The explanation for this question will be added soon.

Q59. When 1 gram of atmospheric water vapor condenses in the air, it results in:

• A. Always cooling the surrounding air
• B. Always heating the surrounding air✓
• C. Always leaving the surrounding air temperature unchanged
• D. Heating the surrounding air only if the change occurs below 100 C
• E. Cooling the surrounding air only if the change occurs below 11 C

Explanation: The vapors are hot and these vapors when condense, cool the area in which this happens and transfers the heat to the surrounding air and the temperature there increases.

Q60. A student is trying to determine the type of membrane transport occurring in a cell. Shefinds that the molecules to be transported are very large and when transported across the membrane, no ATP is used. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of transport?

• A. Active transport
• B. Simple diffusion
• C. Facilitated diffusion✓
• D. Exocytosis

Explanation: We are asked to identify the type of transport that would allow a large, polar molecule to cross the membrane without any energy expenditure. This scenario describes facilitated diffusion, which uses a transport protein to facilitate the movement of large, polar molecules across the non-polar, hydrophobic membrane. Facilitated diffusion, like simple diffusion, does not require energy, which explains why no ATP was consumed during this transport process.

Q61. In the course of glycolysis

• A. NADH is oxidized to 𝑁𝐴𝐷+
• B. 𝑁𝐴𝐷+ is reduced to NADH
• C. Glucose is degraded into two molecules
• D. Both A & B✓

Explanation: In the process of glycolysis, NAD+ is reduced to form NADH+H+. If NAD+ is not present, glycolysis will not be able to continue. During aerobic respiration, the NADH formed in glycolysis will be oxidized to reform NAD+ for use in glycolysis again.

Q62. The epiglottis is to trachea as the lower esophageal (cardiac) sphincter is to the:

• A. Stomach✓
• B. Heart
• C. Small intestine
• D. Liver

Explanation: The cardiac sphincter is a sphincter between the esophagus and the stomach, opening at the approach of food that can then be swept into the stomach by rhythmic peristaltic waves.

Q63. Starch is hydrolyzed into maltose by:

• A. Salivary amylase
• B. Maltose
• C. Pancreatic amylase
• D. Both A & C✓

Explanation: During digestion, starch is partially transformed into maltose by the pancreatic or salivary enzymes called amylases; maltase secreted by the intestine then converts maltose into glucose.

Q64. Which of the following best describes the residual volume of the lungs?

• A. The amount of air normally inhaled and exhaled with each breath.
• B. The maximum amount of air that can be forcibly inhaled and exhaled from the lungs.
• C. The volume of air that can still be forcibly exhaled following a normal exhalation.
• D. The volume of air that always remains in the lungs.✓

Explanation: This is also a book line. The volume of air that always remains in the lungs. Residual volume is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximum forceful expiration. In other words, it is the volume of air that cannot be expelled, thus causing the alveoli to remain open at all times. The residual volume remains unchanged regardless of the lung volume at which expiration was started.

Q65. Arthropods can be characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. A hard exoskeleton
• B. A water vascular system✓
• C. Jointed appendages
• D. Molting
• E. Segmented body

Explanation: All are the characteristics of the phylum Arthropoda except option B. A water vascular system is a characteristic of the phylum Echinodermata, the "spinny-skinned" animals such as sea stars and sea urchins. Their water vascular system ends in tube feet that play a role in locomotion.

Q66. The role of decomposers in the nitrogen cycle is to:

• A. Fix atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia
• B. Incorporate nitrogen into amino acids acids and organic compounds
• C. Convert ammonia to nitrate, which can then be absorbed by plants
• D. Denitrify ammonia, thus returning nitrogen to the atmosphere
• E. Release ammonia from organic compounds, thus returning into the soil✓

Explanation: The decomposers in the nitrogen cycle reduce the organic nitrogen present in organic detritus and nitrogenous animal waste into ammonia.

Q67. Black coat color in horses is caused by a dominant allele, while white coat color is due to the recessive allele. Two black horses produce a foal with a coat, if they were to produce a second foal, what would be the probability of the second foal having a black coat?

• A. 0
• B. 1/4
• C. ½
• D. 3/4✓
• E. 1

Explanation: If the black coat color in horses is the dominant phenotype, and both parental horses are black, then they must have at least one allele for the black coat color. Because the white coat color is the recessive phenotype, it can be caused only by a homozygous recessive genotype. The probability of these horses producing a foal with a black coat is 75%, or 3 out of 4.

Q68. Organisms that live in the intertidal zone might have which of the following characteristics? i.Ability to conduct photosynthesisii.Tolerance of periodic droughtiii. Tolerance of wide range of temperatures

• A. I only
• B. II only
• C. I and III only
• D. II and III only
• E. I, II, and III✓

Explanation: The organisms in the intertidal zone can conduct photosynthesis, have a tolerance to drought as well have a tolerance for a wide range of temperatures.

Q69. In floral formula “K” stands for:

• A. Corolla
• B. Calyx✓
• C. Perianth
• D. Androecium
• E. Gynoecium

Explanation: The second major symbol in the floral formula is the number of sepals, with “K” representing “calyx”. Thus, K5 would mean a calyx of five sepals.

Q70. “Hordeum vulgare” is the botanical name of:

• A. Wheat
• B. Oats
• C. Rice
• D. Barley✓
• E. Bajra

Explanation: Hordeum vulgare is the botanical name of Barley.

Q71. The usual duration of luteal phase in the menstrual cycle of human female is:

• A. 4-6 days
• B. 8-10 days
• C. 12-14 days✓
• D. 10-12 days

Explanation: The usual duration of luteal phase in the menstrual cycle for the human female is 12-14 days.The luteal phase lasts from the day after ovulation until the day before your period starts. Experts say the average length of the luteal phase is 14 days, but there is a little difference that varies from one person to another.

Q72. Response to plants to touch is called:

• A. Geotropism
• B. Thigmotropism✓
• C. Nasticism
• D. Mechanoreception

Explanation: Thigmotropism is the response of plants to touch.The word thigm refers to touch.

Q73. Select the false statement:

• A. All fungi are saprophytic
• B. Mycology is the study of fungi
• C. Fungi are non coenocytic✓
• D. Puccinia is a obligate parasite

Explanation: Fungi are not non coenocytic.Hyphae that have walls between the cells are called septate hyphae; hyphae that lack walls and cell membranes between the cells are called non septate or coenocytic hyphae)

Q74. Photosynthetic product from leaves to all parts of plant are disturbed through:

• A. Vascular bundles
• B. Phloem✓
• C. Xylem
• D. Stomata
• E. None of the above

Explanation: Sugars produced in sources, such as leaves, need to be delivered to growing parts of the plant via the phloem in a process called translocation, or movement of sugar. Hence, phloem is the correct answer.

Q75. In the 𝐹2 generation of a dihybrid cross between yellow, round seeded and green, wrinkled seeded pea plants, 17 out of 254 seeds were green and wrinkled other seeds were:Yellow and roundGreen and roundYellow and wrinkledWhat do these results indicate?

• A. Crossing-over has occurred
• B. Green and wrinkled are both recessive characters✓
• C. The alleles for green and wrinkled are linked
• D. The allele for green is recessive but not the allele for wrinkled
• E. The allele for wrinkled is recessive but not the allele for green

Explanation: The characters green as well as wrinkled are recessive as both occur in less number and the dominant trials are yellow and round.

Q76. Duckbill platypus and spiny anteater have internal fertilization and are:

• A. Ovoviviparous
• B. Viviparous
• C. Oviparous✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Oviparous mammals are duckbill platypus and spiny anteaters. Viviparous is opposite to oviparous.

Q77. Nematocysts are characteristics of:

• A. Porifera
• B. Protozoa
• C. Cnidarians✓
• D. Annelida
• E. Echinodermata

Explanation: A nematocyst is a specialized cell in the tentacles of a jellyfish or other coelenterate, containing a venous coiled thread that can be projected in self-defense or to capture prey. These are minute, elongated, or spherical capsules produced exclusively by members of phylum cnidaria (jellyfish, corals, sea anemones, etc).

Q78. Which of the following is an acceptable nitrogen base composition for double stranded DNA?

• A. 31% A; 19% T; 31% C; 19% G
• B. 36% A; 36% U; 24% C; 24% G
• C. 48% A; 48% T; 52% C; 52% G
• D. 31% A; 31% T; 19% C; 19% G✓
• E. 24% A; 24% U; 36% C; 19% G

Explanation: The correct answer is 31%A, 31%T,19%C, 19%G. (Cytosine and guanine are always equal and adenine and thymine are also equal and give an answer 100% total if added together)

Q79. The correct order of the structures through which air passes isI. Nasal cavityII. BronchiIII. LarynxIV. Air sacsV. Trachea

• A. I, V, III, II, IV
• B. I, V, III, IV, II
• C. I, III, IV, V, II
• D. I, III, V, IV, II
• E. I, III, V, II, IV✓

Explanation: Air enters the nose through nasal cavity,after this goes to the larynx and then to the trachea also called the windpipe and then it does to the bronchi that are cartilaginous,then to the bronchioles and at the end to the air sacs or alveoli.

Q80. The diameter of a tree is reduced slightly during the day and increased at night. Which of the following changes in environmental conditions cause the greatest reduction in diameter?

• A. Increase in wind velocity, temperature, humidity and light intensity
• B. Increases in temperature, humidity and light intensity✓
• C. Increases in wind velocity, humidity and light intensity
• D. Increases in wind velocity, temperature and light intensity
• E. Increases is wind velocity temperature and humidity

Explanation: The absence of light actually stimulates plants to grow fastest at night. Plant phytochromes detect darkness, encouraging growth hormone production, causing the plant to elongate in search of light. The same process helps plants orientate their foliage to light and helps seedlings stretch in search of light.Wind velocity decreases at night.

Q81. Why is there no glucose present in the distal of a nephron?

• A. Glucose molecules are too large to pass cross the basement membrane.
• B. Glucose removed by osmosis from the tubule.
• C. Glucose is passively absorbed by the cells lining the descending loop of Henle.
• D. Glucose is reabsorbed by the proximal tubule cells.✓

Explanation: Glucose is filtered through the glomerulus into the Bowman's capsule. Proteins do not filter through the glomerulus under normal circumstances. They are simply too large to do so. If proteins are found in the urine, there is serious problem at the level of filters in the nephrons.

Q82. Which of the following is the stage of meiosis during which pairs of homologous chromosomes align at the center of the cell?

• A. Anaphase II
• B. Metaphase II
• C. Prophase II
• D. Metaphase I✓
• E. Prophase I

Explanation: At the end of prometaphase I, meiotic cells enter metaphase I. Here, in sharp contrast to mitosis, pairs of homologous chromosomes line up opposite each other on the metaphase plate, with the kinetochores on sister chromatids facing the same pole. Pairs of sex chromosomes also align on the metaphase plate.Just remember it as the fact that alignment in Meiosis of homologous means formation of Metaphase plates and this occurs during Metaphase 1.

Q83. The tricuspid valve prevent backflow of blood from the:

• A. Left ventricle into the left atrium
• B. Aorta into the left ventricle
• C. Pulmonary artery into the right ventricle
• D. Right ventricle into the right atrium✓

Explanation: Tricuspid valve: Allows blood to pass from the right atrium to the right ventricle; prevents blood from flowing back into the right atrium as the heart pumps (systole).

Q84. The liver:

• A. Decreases blood glucose levels
• B. Increase blood glucose levels
• C. Synthesizes glucose
• D. All of the above are function of the liver✓

Explanation: All of the above are functions of liver.The most important role of the liver in glucose homeostasis is to maintain a stable fast blood glucose level in the fasting state through gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis and glycogen synthesis.

Q85. At which two points of the menstrual cycle are the levels of estrogen highest?

• A. Immediately before and after ovulation
• B. At ovulation and during the menstrual flow✓
• C. During the menstrual flow and pregnancy
• D. Pregnancy and after menopause

Explanation: Estrogen levels rise during the mid-follicular phase and then drop precipitously after ovulation.

Q86. The stage of meiosis at which sperm cell precursors contain two sister chromatids.

• A. Anaphase II
• B. Metaphase I
• C. Prophase II✓
• D. Metaphase I
• E. Prophase 1

Explanation: The first stage of meiosis divides the diploid set of chromosomes into two haploid sets. Homologous chromosomes separate in anaphase I, and at the beginning (prophase) of stage 2, each cell contains a haploid set. However, the chromosomes are still replicated and still consist of joined sister chromatids. These separate in anaphase II. Thus, the correct answer is option C.

Q87. Which of the following electronic transitions would result in the greatest loss in energy for a single hydrogen electron, assuming that its ground state is n = 1?

• A. An electron moves from n = 6 to n = 2.✓
• B. An electron moves from n = 2 to n = 6.
• C. An electron moves from n = 3 to n = 4.
• D. An electron moves from n = 4 to n = 3.

Explanation: An atom changes from a ground state to an excited state by taking on energy from its surroundings in a process called absorption. The electron absorbs the energy and jumps to a higher energy level. In the reverse process, emission, the electron returns to the ground state by releasing the extra energy it absorbed.

Q88. The following reaction is first order with respect [P] and zero order with respect to [Q].P + Q -> productsIf the rate constant doubles for each 10 C rise in temperature, which of the following sets of conditions will give the greatest rate of reaction?Choose correct option.

• A. A✓
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: Part D: At 20 C, the rate constant is k and the rate is 0.3k. Part B: At 30 C, rate constant is 2k and rate is 0.2k. Part C: At 30 C, the rate constant is 2k and the rate is 0.4k. Part E: At 30 C, the rate constant is 2k and the rate is 0.6k. Part A: At 40 C, the rate constant is 4k and the rate is 0.4k.

Q89. Iron has a proton (atomic) number 26. What is the electronic configuration of the iron cation which can form the complex ion? [Fe(CN)6]4?[|Ar| = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6]

• A. [Ar] 3d3 4s2
• B. [Ar] 3d4 4s2
• C. [Ar] 3d5 4s0✓
• D. [Ar] 3d6 4s0
• E. [Ar] 3d6 4s2

Explanation: Electronic configuration of Fe is [Ar]4s²3d⁶ As iron has lost 2 electrons so remove 2 electrons from the valence shell. Electronic configuration becomes [Ar]4s03d5

Q90. When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to aqueous solution of a compound X, a colourless gas is evovled which rapidly decolourises acidified, aqueous potassium manganate (VII). Which of the following compounds could be X?

• A. Sodium carbonate
• B. Sodium chlorate (I)
• C. Sodium nitrite
• D. Sodium sulphate
• E. Sodium sulphite✓

Explanation: Sodium sulfite (NaSO3) and hydrochloric acid (HCl) are mixed to create sulphur dioxide gas (SO2). SO2​ readily decolourises acidified KMnO4​ solution. KMnO4​ has a purple colour. Sulphur dioxide gas acts as a reducing agent whereas KMnO4​ is an oxidising agent and gets decolourized.

Q91. What is the product of the reaction between benzaldehyde and an excess of ethanol (C2H5OH) in the presence of anhydrous HCl? Choose correct option.

• A. A✓
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: Aldehydes react with one equivalent of monohydric alcohol in the presence of dry hydrogen chloride to yield alkoxy alcohol intermediate, known as hemiacetals, which further react with one more molecule of alcohol to give a compound known as acetal.

Q92. Under appropriate conditions, NH4Br and KNH2 react as follows:NH4Br + KNH2 -> KBr + 2NH3 How is the reaction best classified?

• A. Acid-base✓
• B. Condensation
• C. Disproportionation
• D. Oxidation-reduction

Explanation: the reaction is basically NH4+ + NH2- → NH3+ NH3 NH4+serves as an acid (proton donor) while NH2- serves as a base (proton acceptor)

Q93. One mole of an organic compound X is reacted with an excess of PCl and two moles of hydrogen chloride are formed. Which of the following compounds could be X?

• A. CH3CH=CHCH3✓
• B. C6H5CH2Cl
• C. HOCH2CO2H
• D. D
• E. E

Explanation: HOCH2CO2H +PCl = ClCH2COCL + 2HCl

Q94. The haloform test is not given by:

• A. Formaldehyde✓
• B. Acetaldehyde
• C. Acetone
• D. Alpha-phenylethyl alcohol
• E. B, C and D

Explanation: Substrates that successfully undergo the haloform reaction are methyl ketones and secondary alcohols oxidizable to methyl ketones, such as isopropanol. The only primary alcohol and aldehyde to undergo this reaction are ethanol and acetaldehyde, respectively.

Q95. An alcohol on oxidation is found to give CH3COOH and CH3CH2COOH. The alcohol is:

• A. (CH3)2C(OH)CH2CH3
• B. CH3(CH2)2CHOH
• C. CH3CH2CH2OH
• D. CH3CH(OH)CH2CH2CH3✓

Explanation: Two acids are produced from oxidation ketone which is produced by the oxidation of Secondary alcohol.

Q96. Which of the following is most acidic?

• A. H2O✓
• B. CH3OH
• C. C2H5OH
• D. CH3CH2CH2OH

Explanation: The reported pKas of these compounds are H-OH - pKa = 14 CH3-OH - pKa = 15.5 CH3CH2-OH - pKa = 16.0 CH3-CH2-CH2-OH - pKa = 16.85 If you increase the alkyl chain length attached to the -OH group, the pKa increases. This is due to the electron-donating properties of alkyl groups which, in turn, destabilizes the negative charge on oxygen when the H on the OH ionizes: R-OH = RO- + H+

Q97. Which of the following has two significant figures?I.0.034II.0.0034III.0.00034

• A. I only
• B. II only
• C. III only
• D. I, II and III✓

Explanation: Rules: Digits other than zero are always significant. (ii) Zeros between significant digits are also significant. (iii) Final zero or zeros after decimal are significant. (iv) Zeros used for spacing the decimal point are not significant. (v) In whole numbers that end in one or more zeros without a decimal point. These zeros may or may not be significant. I, II, III all have 2 significant figures. So, D is correct.

Q98. When formaldehyde is heated with concentrated ammonia a solid substance is formed. What is it?

• A. Paraldehyde
• B. Meta-formaldehyde
• C. Methylol
• D. Hexamethylene tetramine✓

Explanation: Formaldehyde reacts with ammonia to form hexamethylenetetramine which is used as urinary antiseptic under the nate urotropine. 6HCHO+4NH3⟶(CH2)6N4+6H2O

Q99. The reaction between fat and NaOH is known as:

• A. Esterification
• B. Fermentation
• C. Hydrogenation
• D. Hydrolysis
• E. Saponification✓

Explanation: Caustic soda or Sodium hydroxide reacts with oil/ fat to undergo a hydrolysis reaction called saponification leading to the formation of soap and glycerol.

Q100. Select from the following the one, which is alcohol:

• A. CH3 - CH2 - OH✓
• B. CH3 - O - CH3
• C. CH3COOH
• D. CH3 - CH2 - Br

Explanation: An alcohol is an organic compound with a hydroxyl (OH) functional group on an aliphatic carbon atom. Because OH is the functional group of all alcohols, we often represent alcohols by the general formula ROH, where R is an alkyl group

Q101. Aldehydes and ketone react with primary amines to form:

• A. Schiff’s base✓
• B. Tertiary amine
• C. No reaction takes place
• D. Acid

Explanation: The reaction of aldehydes and ketones with ammonia or 1º-amines forms imine derivatives, also known as Schiff bases (compounds having a C=N function). Water is eliminated in the reaction, which is acid-catalysed and reversible in the same sense as acetal formation.

Q102. Common name of the following compound is:

• A. p-Toluidine✓
• B. N-methyl aninline
• C. N, N-dimethyl aniline
• D. N, N-dumethyl p-toluidine

Explanation: p-toluidine is an aminotoluene in which the amino substituent is para to the methyl group.

Q103. The following system obeys second-order kinetics.2NO2 -> NO3 -> +NO (slow)NO3 + CO -> NO2 + CO2 (fast)What is the rate law for this reaction?

• A. Rate = k [NO3] [CO]
• B. Rate = k [NO2]2 [CO]
• C. Rate = k [NO2] [NO3]
• D. Rate = k [NO2]2✓

Explanation: Rate of reaction depends upon slow step.slow step is given as NO2+NO2→NO3+NO2 the total number of molecules of REACTING SPECIE taking part in slow step appear in rate equation so rate is given as RATE=k[NO2]²

Q104. At 100 C, 0.1 mole of N2O4 is heated in a one dm3 flask. At equilibrium concentration of NO2 was found to be 0.12 moles. Calculate Kc for the reaction.

• A. 0.36✓
• B. 0.50
• C. 0.083
• D. 0.91
• E. 1

Explanation: N2O4 DECOMPOSES AS FOLLOWS N2O4(g)⇌2NO2(g) Kc=[NO2]² /[N204] Concentration of P=0.12moles (NO2) Concentration of R=0.1 moles (N204) Kc=(0.12)²/(0.1)

Q105. In which of the following situations is it impossible to predict how the pressure will change for a gas sample?

• A. The gas is cooled at a constant volume.
• B. The gas is heated at a constant volume
• C. The gas is heated, and the volume is simultaenously increased✓
• D. The gas is cooled, and the volume is simultaneously increased.

Explanation: Choice (C), on the other hand, presents too vague a scenario for us to predict definitively the change in pressure. Heating the gas would amplify the pressure, while increasing the volume would decrease it. Without knowing the magnitude of each influence, it's impossible to say whether the pressure would increase, decrease, or stay the same.

Q106. Which of the following combinations of liquids would be expected to have a vapor pressure higher than the vapor pressure that would be predicted by Raoult’s law?

• A. Ethanol and hexane✓
• B. Acetone and water
• C. Isopropanol and methanol
• D. Nitric acid and water

Explanation: Mixtures that have a higher vapor pressure than predicted by Raoult's law have stronger solvent-solvent and solute-solute interactions than solvent-solute interactions. Therefore, particles do not want to stay in solution and more readily evaporate, creating a higher vapor pressure than an ideal solution

Q107. Which gaseous hydride most readily decomposes into its elements on contact with a hot glass rod?

• A. Ammonia
• B. Hydrogen chloride
• C. Hydrogen iodide✓
• D. Steam

Explanation: It is the answer because again the strength or thermal stability of hydrogen halides decrease down the group iodine is below both chlorine and bromine therefore its hydrogen halide thermal stability is the weakest because hydrogen iodide bond length is long and therefore less polar than HCl therefore decompose more readily , more easily.

Q108. Bleaching powder is a good:

• A. Hydrating agent
• B. Oxidizing agent✓
• C. Dehydrating agent
• D. Reducing agent

Explanation: Bleaching powder is a very good oxidising agent this means that this can easily oxidise other compounds and elements. It can easily add oxygen to other compounds and elements.

Q109. The value of the enthalpy change for the process represented by the equation Na(s)--->Na+(g) + e is equal to :

• A. The first ionization energy of sodium✓
• B. The enthalpy change of vaporization of sodium
• C. The sum of the enthalpy change of the atomization and the first ionization energy of sodium
• D. The sum of the enthalpy change of atomization and the electron affinity of sodium

Explanation: Option A is represented by the equation as it shows the first loss of electron.

Q110. Which statement about one mole of metal is always correct?

• A. It contains the same number of atoms as 1 mole of hydrogen atoms.✓
• B. It contains the same number of atoms as 1/12 mole of 12 C.
• C. It has the same mass as 1 mole of carbon atoms.
• D. It is liberated by 1 mole electrons.

Explanation: One mole of any elememt contain same(Avagadro number)of particles1mol of Cu=6.02×10²³particles1mol of H=6.02×10²³particles

Q111. As the atomic number increases in a group, the chemical properties:

• A. Change
• B. Stay roughly the same✓
• C. Decrease
• D. Increase

Explanation: Chemical properties depend upon no. Of electrons in valance shell.All the elements of a group have similar chemical properties because they have same number of valence electrons in their outermost shell.

Q112. The crystals formed as a result of Van der waals interactions are:

• A. Molecular crystals✓
• B. Covalent crystals
• C. Metallic crystals
• D. Ionic crystals

Explanation: Van der Waals forces are responsible for the formation of molecular crystals

Q113. Which of the following processes is endothermic?

• A. The condensation of steam
• B. The electrolysis of water✓
• C. The freezing of the water
• D. 𝐶𝑎(𝑠)+ 2𝐻2O (I)---> 𝐶𝑎2 (aq)+ 𝐻2 (g)
• E. 𝐻+(aq) + OH(aq) ---->𝐻2O (I)

Explanation: During electrolysis, heat is given to the water which gets absorbed by water to give oxygen and hydrogen and so the reaction is an endothermic reaction.

Q114. Which reagent gives a colorless homogeneous solution when added tp phenol?

• A. Aqueous bromine
• B. Aqueous sodium carbonate
• C. Aqueous sodium hydroxide✓
• D. Aqueous sodium hydroxide and benzoyl chloride

Explanation: Phenol reacts with sodium hydroxide solution to give a colourless solution containing sodium phenoxide. In this reaction, the hydrogen ion has been removed by the strongly basic hydroxide ion in the sodium hydroxide solution

Q115. Which substances has tetrahedral geometry?

• A. Benzene
• B. Methane✓
• C. Cyclohexene
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Methane show sp³ hybridization thus possess Tetrahedral geometry.

Q116. How many atoms of carbon are present in 18 g of glucose, 𝐶6 𝐻12 𝑂6?

• A. 6.0 x 1022
• B. 3.6 x 1023✓
• C. 6.0 x 1023
• D. 3.6 x 1024
• E. 6.0 x 1024

Explanation: •18g of glucose =0 1 mol •No of moles of C in = 6mol 1mol of glucose •moles of C in 0.1 =0.6mol Mol of glucose •no.of atoms of C = 0.6×6.02×10²³=3.6×10²³ In 0.1 mol of Glucose ACCORDING TO ABOVE CALCULATION OPTION B is only correct

Q117. Which property of a gas affects the rate at which it spreads throughout a laboratory?

• A. Boiling point
• B. Molecular mass✓
• C. Reactivity
• D. Solubility in water

Explanation: Gas spread through the laboratory by diffusion and rate of diffusion depends upon several factors including molecular mass of gas.

Q118. One mole of an organic compound is completely burnt in oxygen. Which compound produces exactly three moles of water?

• A. Butane 𝐶4 𝐻20
• B. Butanol 𝐶4 𝐻9OH
• C. Ethanol 𝐶2 𝐻5OH✓
• D. Propane 𝐶3 𝐻8

Explanation: C2H5OH + 3O2 = 2CO2 + 3H2O

Q119. Which statement shows that diamond and graphite are allotropes of carbon?

• A. Both have giant molecular structures✓
• B. Complete combustion of equal masses of carbon dioxide as the only product
• C. Graphite conducts electricity, whereas diamond does not
• D. Under suitable conditions, graphite can be converted into diamond

Explanation: Graphite and diamond both have a giant structure. Diamond and graphite are different forms of elemental carbon. They both have giant structures of carbon atoms, joined together by covalent bonds Each carbon atom is joined to three other carbon atoms by covalent bonds in graphite and 4 atoms in the case of a diamond.

Q120. How many isomers are possible for the compound having molecular having molecular formula C3H5Br

• A. 5✓
• B. 4
• C. 6
• D. 8

Explanation: C3H5Br3 has 5 possible isomers. It is a value that must be memorised.

Q121. A frictionless heat engine can be 100% efficient only its exhaust temperatures is:

• A. Double of its input temperature
• B. Half of its input temperature
• C. Equal of its input temperature
• D. 100%
• E. 0K✓

Explanation: Efficiency of heat engine can be calculated by using the formula E=1-T2/T1 It can only be 100% if T2(exhaust temperature) is 0 Kelvin.

Q122. The vector which only specifies the direction of a given vector is called:

• A. Free vector
• B. Position vector✓
• C. Null vector
• D. Until vector

Explanation: Option A:Free vectors refers to a vector which is neither a point nor a line, and something that can move freely around the space though it has a fixed magnitude and fixed direction. Option B: Position vector specifies the given direction of a vector. Option C: A null vector is a vector having magnitude equal to zero. A null vector has no direction or it may have any direction. Generally a null vector is either equal to the resultant of two equal vectors acting in opposite directions or multiple vectors in different directions. Option D: A unit vector is one whose magnitude is equal to one. The "cap" symbol(^) is used to indicate unit vectors.

Q123. A ball is thrown vertically upward with velocity of 196 m/s. How high does the ball rise?

• A. 1960 metres✓
• B. 2960 metres
• C. 1000 metres
• D. 1100 metres

Explanation: As the ball is thrown upward the final velocity (vf) will be zero. 2gh=vf2-vi2 =>h=0-(196)2/2×10 => h= 1920 m which is closer to 1960 m.

Q124. ‘’If there is no external force applied to a system, then the total momentum of that system remains constant”. This known as:

• A. Law of conservation of mass
• B. Elastic collision
• C. Law of conservation of momentum✓
• D. Momentum of body

Explanation: This is the statement of the law of conservation of momentum. Option A: The mass in an isolated system can neither be created nor be destroyed but can be transformed from one form to another. Option B: Elastic collision is an elastic collision is an encounter between two bodies in which the total kinetic energy of the two bodies remains the same. Option D:The momentum of the body is the product of the mass and velocity of the body. The factors on which the momentum of the body depends are mass and velocity.

Q125. A car travelling at a constant speed of 90 km/h rounds a curve of a radius 100m. What is its acceleration?

• A. 4.0 m/𝑠𝑒𝑐2
• B. 6.25 m/𝑠𝑒𝑐2✓
• C. 6.5 m/𝑠𝑒𝑐2
• D. 4.5 m/𝑠𝑒𝑐2
• E. 7.5 m/𝑠𝑒𝑐2

Explanation: Centripetal acceleration=v2/r first convert 90 km/h to m/s, 90×1000m /3600 sec = 25 m/s ac=252/100 = 6.25 ms-2.

Q126. A boy on a 20 m high cliff drops a stone. One second later, he throws down another stone. Both the stones hit the ground simultaneously. Find the initial velocity of the second stone. (g=10/𝑠 2)

• A. 5 m/𝑠2
• B. 10 m/𝑠2
• C. 15 m/𝑠2✓
• D. 20 m/𝑠2
• E. 30 m/𝑠2

Explanation: In case of drop initial velocity= 0 Time will be given by h=1/2gt2 t=√2h/g =√2×20/10 = 2 sec. Since both stones hit the ground simultaneously and the 2nd one was dropped 1 sec later, the time taken by the 2nd stone will be t' =2sec -1sec = 1sec . H'=vi×t+1/2gt'2 =>20= vi×1+½ ×10×1 vi= 15 ms-1.

Q127. An elevator, in which a man is standing is moving upward with a constant speed of 10 m/𝑠 2. If the an of the drops a coin from a height of 2.5 m, find the time taken by it to reach the floor of the elevation (g=9.8 m/𝑠 2)

• A. 0.707 s✓
• B. 1.9 s
• C. 3.1 s
• D. 6.17 s
• E. 7.15 s

Explanation: Initial speed of the coin u=0 m/s Acceleration a=9.8 ms-2 Initial height of coin from the floor of elevator h=2.5 m , vi=0 H=vit+1/2gt2 => t=√2H/g t=√2×2.5/10 = 0.707 sec.

Q128. A 100 kg man runs up a hill through a height of 4m in seconds. How much work does he do against gravitational force?

• A. 2060 J
• B. 3920 J✓
• C. 5000 J
• D. 5290 J

Explanation: Work done = mgh W= 100×9.8×4 =3920 J.

Q129. Which statement describes the electrical potential difference between two points in a wire carrying a current?

• A. The force required to move a unit positive charge between the points
• B. The ratio of the energy dissipated between the points to the current
• C. The ratio of the power dissipated between the points to the current✓
• D. The ratio of the power dissipated between the points to the charge moved
• E. None of the above

Explanation: As, P=VI V= P/I. Hence option C is correct.

Q130. Find the time period of a simple pendulum whose length is 88.2 cm. The value acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/𝑠 2 at the place where experiments is performed?

• A. 1.885 sec✓
• B. 1.233 sec
• C. 2.05 sec
• D. 4 sec

Explanation: The formula to calculate the time period of simple pendulum is T=2π √l/g where l=length of pendulum, g=acceleration due to gravity. By putting values First convert length from cm to m by dividing by 100 and we get 0.882 m. By putting values T=2(3.14) √0.882/9.8 = 1.88 sec.

Q131. A light bulb has resistance of 150 ohm, find the voltage while the current is 1.5A?

• A. 250 v
• B. 300 v
• C. 224 v
• D. 225 v✓

Explanation: Ohm's Law is given by V=IR By putting values V= (1.5)(150) = 225 V.

Q132. An object that’s moving with constant speed travels around a circular path. Which of the following is/are true concerning this motion?I The displacement is zeroII. The average speed is zeroIII. The circulation is zero

• A. I only✓
• B. I and II only
• C. I and III only
• D. III only
• E. II and III only

Explanation: I-Travelling once around a circular path means that the final position coincides with the initial position. Therefore, the displacement is zero. II-The average speed, which is total distance travelled divided by elapsed time, cannot be zero. III-Circulation is the amount of force that pushes along a closed boundary or path. It's the total "push" you get when going along a path, such as a circle.Circulation will be zero when the body passes through the origin which in the given case is not true.Therefore, only I is correct.

Q133. A system absorbs 80 J through heating while doing 100 J of external work, what is the change in the internal energy of the system?

• A. -100 J
• B. -20 J✓
• C. +80 J
• D. +180 J

Explanation: Since the work is done by the system it is positive.And heat is absorbed by the system so it is also positive. As, Q=∆U+W where ∆U is change in internal energy. ∆U=Q-W =80-100 = -20 J

Q134. A region around a charge body in which another charge experiences an electric force is called:

• A. Electric flux
• B. Electric field✓
• C. Electric potential
• D. Capacitance

Explanation: Option A: [17/12, 10:07 am] mariam: Electric flux is 'the total number of electric field lines passing a given area in a unit of time'. Option B: This is the definition of electric field. Option C: Electric potential is defined as work done in moving a charged particle from infinity( where potential is zero) to that point. It is basically a potential difference between two points. Option D:Capacitance is the ability of a capacitor to store charge.

Q135. A convex lens of focal length 40 cm is in contact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. the power of the combination in dioptres is:

• A. -1.5✓
• B. -6.5
• C. +6.5
• D. +6.67
• E. -7.7

Explanation: Given, f1=40cm , f2=-25cm Power, P=1/f The power of combination is, P=1/f1+1/f2 P=1/40+ 1/-25 = -1.5 D

Q136. A simple pendulum suspended from the ceiling of a train has a period ‘T’ when the train is at rest. When the train is accelerating with a uniform acceleration, the time period of simple pendulum will:

• A. Decrease✓
• B. Increase
• C. Remain unchanged
• D. Become infinite
• E. Insufficient information

Explanation: When the train is at rest the time period of simple pendulum is T=2π√l/g When the train is accelerating the net acceleration is = g+a. So,T=2π √l/g+a. Hence the time period decreases.

Q137. Lenz’s law states that:

• A. The flow of a fluid in a medium under same applied force experiences some sort of friction or resistance in its path
• B. A body remains at rest of continuous to move with uniform velocity unless acted upon by an unbalanced force
• C. The induced current always flows in such a direction as to oppose the change which is giving rise to it✓
• D. When a particle bearing a charge q and moving with a velocity V enters the region of a uniform magnetic field of induction B, it is acted upon by a force

Explanation: Option A: It is the frictional force faced by the flowing liquid. Option B: It is the statement of 1st Law of motion. Option C: It is the correct statement of Lenz's law. Option D: The charge carrier in the conductor experiences force under the influence of magnetic field.

Q138. Two cars are travelling towards each other on a straight road at velocities 15 m/s and 16 m/s respectively. When they are 150 m apart, both the drivers apply the brakes and the cars decelerate at 3 m/s 2 and 4 m/s2 until they stop. Separation between the cars when they come to rest is:

• A. 86.5m
• B. 89.5m
• C. 85.5m
• D. 80.5m✓

Explanation: Given information is complete.

Q139. Two capacitors 𝐶1 = 2𝑢 F are connected series across a 100 V supply. Find the effective capacitance.

• A. 1/2𝑢 F✓
• B. 3/2𝑢 F
• C. 4/3𝑢 F
• D. 7/2𝑢 F
• E. 9/2𝑢 F

Explanation: Given information is incomplete.

Q140. Consider two equal resistors wired in parallel. What is the equivalent resistance of the two?

• A. 3R/2
• B. R/2✓
• C. R/3
• D. R/5
• E. R/7

Explanation: In order to find the equivalent resistance of resistors with identical resistances connected in parallel, we use Req= R/n , where n is number of resistors Req= R/2

Q141. A detector with a surface area of 1 square meter is placed 1 meter from an operating jackhammer. It measures the power of the jackhammer’s sounds as being 10−3 W and finds the intensity of the jackhammer.

• A. 10 W/m
• B. 10−3 𝑊/𝑚2✓
• C. 10 −9 𝑊/𝑚2
• D. 10−7 𝑊/𝑚2
• E. 10−9 𝑊/𝑚2

Explanation: Sound Intensity (SI) is defined as the power carried by sound waves per unit area in a direction perpendicular to that area. The units associated with SI is the watt per square metre (W/m2). I = P/A =10-3/1 I = 10-3 Wm-2.

Q142. Ultraviolet light is more likely to cause a photoelectric effect than visible light. This is because photons of ultraviolet light:

• A. Have a longer wavelength
• B. Have a higher velocity
• C. Are not visible
• D. Have a higher energy✓

Explanation: Photoelectric effect: When the light of a particular frequency is focused on metal, it ejects an electron from the metal's surface For ejection of metal, the light should be of greater frequency than the threshold (minimum) frequency and it is different for different metals.From the electromagnetic spectrum, we know that the wavelength of UV light is low.Wavelength and frequency are inversely proportional.Therefore, UV light has more frequency and energy than visible light which makes it suitable for use in photoelectric effect.

Q143. If an object is released 19.6 metres above the ground, how long does it take the object to reach the ground? (g=9.8 𝑚/𝑠2)

• A. 1 seconds
• B. 2 seconds✓
• C. 6 seconds
• D. 8 seconds
• E. 10 seconds

Explanation: Given that the object is released from height, the initial velocity is zero. The equation becomes h= ½g t2 19.6 ×2=9.8 t2 (19.6x2)/9.8= t2 4 = t2 t = 2 sec.

Q144. Two tuning forks are sounded, one has a frequency of 250 Hz while the other has a frequency of 245 Hz. What is the frequency of the beats?

• A. 250 Hz
• B. 245 Hz
• C. 5 Hz✓
• D. 10 Hz
• E. 235 Hz

Explanation: Beat frequency i.e,number of beats per second is equal to the difference between the two combining frequencies. Hence, there will be 250-245= 5 Hz.

Q145. A rock is dropped from a high bridge at the end of 3 seconds of free fall the speed of the rock in cm/s:

• A. 30
• B. 100
• C. 500
• D. 1000
• E. 2940✓

Explanation: As, vf= vi+at In case of drop initial velocity=0 vf=0+9.8×3 vf=29.4m/s => vf=29.4×100 cm/s vf= 2940 cm/s.

Q146. A body rolling freely on the surface of the earth eventually comes to rest because

• A. It has mass
• B. It suffers friction✓
• C. It has inertia of rest
• D. It has a momentum
• E. It is gravitation less because it is already on the surface.

Explanation: Friction is the force acting between two surfaces in contact, or the force of a medium acting on a moving object (e.g., air on aircraft) to resist the relative motion.Frictional forces may also exist between surfaces when there is no relative motion.Frictional forces arise due to molecular interactions.Force of friction always opposes relative motion.Due to friction on the surface of the Earth, a body comes to a state of rest after some time. Hence, the body rolling on the surface of the Earth comes to a state of rest after some time due to friction.

Q147. A 1000 kg car can accelerate from rest to a speed of 25 m/s in 10s. what average power (in kilowatts) must the engine of the car produce in order to cause this acceleration? Neglect the friction loss.

• A. 33.25
• B. 3625
• C. 48.44
• D. 3125
• E. 31.25✓

Explanation: Kinetic energy gained by the car is equal to (1/2mv2) K.E=½ x 1000 x 252 = 312500 J Minimum power required by the car = K.E/t P= 312500/10=31250 watt. And in kilowatt, it is 31.25 kwatt. So E is correct.

Q148. The kinetic energy of a projectile at the highest point is half of its kinetic energy. The angle of projection is

• A. 00
• B. 300
• C. 600
• D. 450✓
• E. 900

Explanation: Let K.Ei and K.Eh be the initial kinetic energy and kinetic energy at the highest point respectively.Let v be the initial velocity of the projectile. At highest point, the velocity of projectile =vcosθ According to question(KE)h=1/2(KE)i =>1/2mv2 cos2θ = ½(½ mv^) =>cos2θ=1/2 =>cos θ=1/√2 =>θ =45°.

Q149. A small and a large raindrops are falling through air

• A. The small drop will evaporate
• B. The large drop moves faster✓
• C. The small drop moves faster
• D. Both move with the same speed
• E. No conclusion can be drawn unless the exact sizes of the drops are known

Explanation: vt=2r2ρg/9η Where ρ is the density of water and η the viscosity of air. As the terminal velocity of the sphere is directly proportional to the square of radius. So a larger drop will have larger terminal velocity and hence will move faster.

Q150. A container is divided into two equal portions. One portion contains an ideal gas at pressure P and temperature T while the other portion is a perfect vacuum. If a hole is opened between the two portions

• A. There will be a change in internal energy
• B. There will be a change in temperature
• C. There will be no change in internal energy✓
• D. The external pressure will increase
• E. The external pressure will decrease

Explanation: The explanation is given as an image.