Fmdc 2018 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Select the word with the closest meaning to the given word:Aghast

• A. Critical
• B. Reluctant
• C. Happy
• D. Horrified✓

Explanation: Aghast means to be filled with horror or shock. Hence, the closest word to it would be horrified.

Q2. Select the word with the closest meaning to the given word:Ruminate

• A. Eat greedily
• B. Think carefully✓
• C. Work lazily
• D. Run fast

Explanation: Ruminate means to think deeply or carefully about something. Hence, B is the correct option.

Q3. Select the word with the closest meaning to the given word:Disruption

• A. Comfort
• B. Luxury
• C. Trouble✓
• D. Freedom
• E. Calm

Explanation: Disruption is a disturbance or problem which interrupts an event, process or activity. Therefore, C is the correct option.

Q4. Select the word with the closest meaning to the given word:Unambiguous

• A. Stagnant
• B. Hidden
• C. Clear✓
• D. Muddy

Explanation: Unambiguous is something that is clear or precise. Hence, C is the correct answer.

Q5. Select the word with the closest meaning to the given word:Wrecked

• A. Defined
• B. Developed
• C. Ruined✓
• D. Registered

Explanation: To say something is wrecked means that it is destroyed or severely damaged. Therefore, C is the correct option.

Q6. Select the word with the closest meaning to the given word:Freight

• A. Worries
• B. Luggage✓
• C. Foolish
• D. Instruments

Explanation: Freight is the general term for goods transported from one place to another by any means. Hence, the correct answer is B.

Q7. Select the word with the closest meaning to the given word:Meditative

• A. Selfish
• B. Thoughtful✓
• C. Heedless
• D. Opinion

Explanation: Meditative means to be absorbed in mediation or considered thought. Hence, B is the correct answer.

Q8. Select the word with the closest meaning to the given word:Shabby

• A. Organised
• B. Untidy✓
• C. Reluctant
• D. Sensible

Explanation: Shabby means to be in poor condition through long use or lack of care. Therefore, the correct option would be B.

Q9. Select the word with the closest meaning to the given word:Forbid

• A. Prohibit✓
• B. Chide
• C. Permit
• D. Constraint

Explanation: Forbid means to refuse to allow something. Hence, the answer is A.

Q10. Select the word with the closest meaning to the given word:Prevent

• A. Stop✓
• B. Start
• C. Verify
• D. Confirm

Explanation: To prevent something means to keep (something) from happening. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

Q11. You should stick _ your promise.Choose the best option to fill in the blank.

• A. By
• B. To✓
• C. With
• D. In

Explanation: The preposition “To” is the correct answer here as it is used as an infinitive of purpose.

Q12. Shah Jahan _ the great mosque at Delhi.

• A. Founded✓
• B. Created
• C. Raised
• D. Established

Explanation: Founded is the more appropriate word in this context because it signifies the establishment or initiation of the construction of the mosque. "Created" might imply a more artistic or creative act, which doesn't accurately describe the process of building a mosque.

Q13. Nearly everyone dreams of building _ ideal house.

• A. Its
• B. Their✓
• C. Them
• D. His

Explanation: “Their” will be used here as it is used to show something belongs to or is associated with the people or things previously mentioned.

Q14. Choose the correct option. The injured player was taken _ the field.

• A. Off✓
• B. Of
• C. Out
• D. In

Explanation: “Off” is used here as it shows disconnection from a person, place or object, i.e away from someone or something, in this case the field.

Q15. The box is _ green outside and white inside.

• A. Carved
• B. Created
• C. Painted✓
• D. Molded

Explanation: Since colors are referenced here, it means the correct option is “painted” as colors can only be painted onto things not carved or molded onto something.

Q16. Somebody has not turned the tap_.

• A. Of
• B. Off✓
• C. Over
• D. In
• E. Out

Explanation: The preposition "off" is used here as to turn off something. In this sense it means, to stop using a supply of water, gas, or electricity by turning a tap off, pressing a button, or moving a switch.

Q17. Choose the correct option. The doctor is going _ vaccinate me tomorrow.

• A. To✓
• B. On
• C. At
• D. With

Explanation: The expression, "going to", followed by a verb in the infinitive, allows us to express an idea in the near future as in this case the doctor is going to vaccinate me tomorrow.

Q18. Choose the correct option. I prefer fruits _ sweets.

• A. Then
• B. On
• C. Over✓
• D. From

Explanation: We use prefer to say we like one thing or activity more than another. Over is used when there are two clear choices in the phrase. Think of over as setting a list of preferences and putting one over top the other. I prefer jogging over running and walking or as in this case, I prefer fruits over sweets.

Q19. Ahmed _ me for a long time.

• A. Know
• B. Has known✓
• C. Knows
• D. Knew

Explanation: The most appropriate word to fill in the blank would be "has known."The complete sentence would be: "Ahmed has known me for a long time."Using the present perfect tense "has known" indicates that Ahmed developed knowledge or familiarity with the speaker in the past and that this knowledge or familiarity has continued up until the present time.

Q20. Did anyone do the work _?Fill in the blank.

• A. Themselves✓
• B. Himself
• C. Himselves
• D. None of the above

Explanation: They are all known as reflexive pronouns. Myself, yourself, himself, herself, itself are all singular - they refer to one person (or a 'thing' for itself). Ourselves, yourselves and themselves are all plural - they refer to more than one person, hence “Themselve” is used here as multiple people are being referred to in the question.

Q21. The diagram given below shows the stages of mitosis. What is the order of these stages during mitosis?

• A. 1 2 4 3
• B. 2 3 1 4
• C. 3 4 1 2
• D. 2 1 4 3✓

Explanation: 2= prophase 1= metaphase 4= anaphase 3= telophase Explanation: These phases are prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. These are the steps that take place in common cellular division. During anaphase, splitting of centromeres of chromosome takes place and hence separation of two chromatids of each chromosome occurs at anaphase and we can see the chromatids at two separate poles. During metaphase, all chromosome form a single plate. On the equatorial plate, chromosome appears two threaded. Prophase is a short phase and there is no pairing of homologous chromosome. We can see the degeneration of the chromatin material. During telophase, the two daughter cell start showing here and paves the way for cytokinesis.

Q22. Most bacteria require vitamins for which purpose?

• A. Source of energy
• B. Growth factors✓
• C. Source of carbon
• D. Source of electron donors

Explanation: Growth factors are organic compounds such as amino acids, purines, pyrimidines and vitamins that a cell must have for growth but cannot synthesizr itself. Typically a vitamin or a specific carbon source must be added to a growth medium in order to grow a specific organism.

Q23. Germ Theory of disease was proposed by:

• A. Leeuwenhoek
• B. Louis Pasteur
• C. Walther Flemming
• D. Robert Koch✓
• E. Edward Jenner

Explanation: Option A: Antonie van Leeuwenhoek, a Dutch microscopist, was the first person to observe microorganisms in the 17th century. Option B: Louis Pasteur, a French chemist and microbiologist, conducted experiments that showed that microorganisms can cause fermentation and spoilage. He also developed vaccines for rabies and anthrax. Option C: Walther Flemming, a Danish biologist, discovered chromosomes and showed that they are made up of DNA. Option D: The germ theory of disease was proposed by Robert Koch. He is a German physician and microbiologist who is considered the "father of bacteriology". In the late 19th century, Koch developed four criteria, now known as Koch's postulates, to establish that a specific microorganism causes a specific disease. These criteria are still used today to confirm the cause of a disease. The germ theory of disease has revolutionized the way we understand and treat disease. It has led to the development of vaccines, antibiotics, and other treatments that have saved millions of live Option E: Edward Jenner, an English physician, developed the first vaccine against smallpox.

Q24. Freeing of an object from all living organism, bacteria and their spores, fungi and their species is called:

• A. Sterilization✓
• B. Disinfection
• C. Decontamination
• D. Immunization

Explanation: Sterilization refers to the process in which all living cells, spores, and viruses are completely destroyed or removed from an object or environment. Once something is sterilized, it will remain sterile if properly sealed.

Q25. The process by which various components of cells including its organelle can be isolated is called:

• A. Homogenization
• B. Cell Fractionation✓
• C. Cell Fixation
• D. Gel Electrophoresis
• E. Ultracentrifugation

Explanation: Option A: Homogenization is a process used in cell fractionation where cells are broken open to release their contents. It involves methods like mechanical disruption, sonication, or enzymatic digestion. Homogenization helps in breaking down the cell structure to release cellular components for further separation and analysis. Option B: Cell fractionation describes the process which is used to to separate individual cell components while maintaining the individual functions of each component. This enables each of the components or organelles to be isolated separately and examined. It involves homogenization first so that the organelles are released from the cells, and the organelles are separated via centrifugation. Hence, this term covers the entire process involved in isolating organelles, so it is the correct answer.Option C: Cell fixation is the preservation of cells or tissues using chemical agents. It involves treating cells with fixatives to immobilize their structures and preserve their components. Fixation helps maintain cellular morphology and prevents degradation or changes in cellular components during subsequent processing steps. Option D: Gel electrophoresis is a technique used to separate and analyze biomolecules, such as proteins or nucleic acids, based on their size and charge. The molecules are placed in a gel matrix and subjected to an electric field. They migrate through the gel at different rates based on their size and charge, allowing for their separation.Option E: Ultracentrifugation is a high-speed centrifugation method used to separate particles based on their density or size. Samples are spun at very high speeds using ultracentrifuges, generating high centrifugal forces. This causes particles to sediment based on their density or size gradients. Ultracentrifugation is commonly used in cell fractionation to separate cellular components, like organelles, based on their density. This is a step involved in the whole cell fractionation process, so option B is the preferred answer over this.

Q26. Which of the following correctly shows structures which are found in a eukaryotic cell? (Yes = present ; No = absent)

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D
• E. Option E✓

Explanation: The question asks for eukaryotic cells, which possess a nucleus as well as other membrane bound organelles such as mitochondria, lysosomes, golgi apparatus, endoplasmic reticulum in addition to (80S) ribosomes. Only option E fulfills this criteria, as all other options have one or more of the components missing.

Q27. Which of the following terms is used to describe the membrane of central vacuole?

• A. Tonoplast✓
• B. Myoplast
• C. Periplast
• D. Epi Tonoplast

Explanation: Option A: Tonoplast is the membrane that surrounds the central vacuole in plant cells. It is a single layer of phospholipids that is selectively permeable, allowing certain molecules to pass through while preventing others from doing so. This allows the central vacuole to maintain a different composition of solutes than the rest of the cell. Option B: Periplast is the outer membrane of a cell. It maintains the cell's shape and protects it from the environment. Option C: Myoplast is a term used to refer to the mitochondria in muscle cells. It produces energy for the cell. Option D: Epitonoplast is a non-existent term. There is no membrane that sits on top of the tonoplast.

Q28. The major portion of (NH)2CO is secreted by:

• A. Sweat
• B. Saliva
• C. Urine✓
• D. Stool

Explanation: Urine is the primary way that urea is excreted from the body. It contains a high concentration of urea, as well as other waste products.

Q29. In White Blood Cells, Monocytes have a short life period of _ hours.

• A. 10 - 20✓
• B. 21 - 30
• C. 31 - 35
• D. 36 - 40

Explanation: Option A: 10-20 hours: This is the lifespan of monocytes, a type of white blood cell that fights infection.Option B: 21-30 hours: This is the lifespan of neutrophils, another type of white blood cell that fights infection.Option C: 31-35 hours: This is the lifespan of lymphocytes, another type of white blood cell that fights infection.Option D: 36-40 hours: This is not a typical lifespan for any type of white blood cell. White blood cells typically have a lifespan of hours to days.

Q30. The Fungal Cell wall contains:

• A. Peptidoglycan
• B. Chitin✓
• C. Suberin
• D. Cutin
• E. Proteins

Explanation: Option A: Peptidoglycan: A type of polysaccharide found in the cell walls of bacteria and some archaea. Made up of repeating units of N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid, which are linked together by peptide bonds. Option B: Chitin: A polysaccharide made up of repeating units of N-acetylglucosamine, which are linked together by beta-1,4 glycosidic bonds. Provides the cell wall with its strength and rigidity. Option C: Suberin: A type of waxy substance found in the cell walls of plants. Option D: Cutin: A type of fatty substance found in the outer layer of plant cell walls. Option E: Proteins are found in all cell walls, and they play a variety of roles, such as providing structure, anchoring the cell wall to other structures, and interacting with the environment.

Q31. DNA synthesis takes place in which phase of the cell?

• A. G0
• B. G1
• C. G2
• D. S✓

Explanation: There are 4 phases of the cell cycle, namely G1 phase, S phase, G2 phase and M phase. During G1 phase or gap 1 phase, the cell increases in size. Also, various proteins are synthesized in this phase. During S phase or synthesis phase, the DNA replication takes place. During G2 phase, cell continues to grow until it enters the M phase or mitosis phase. Cell division takes place in M phase. Thus, the correct answer is 'S phase.'

Q32. The RNA found in Ribosomes is:

• A. mRNA
• B. rRNA✓
• C. tRNA
• D. Polysome
• E. Genes

Explanation: Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) is the most abundant type of RNA in cells. It is found in ribosomes, which are the cellular structures that are responsible for protein synthesis. rRNA makes up about 80% of the mass of ribosomes. They are made up of two subunits, a large subunit and a small subunit. Both subunits contain rRNA, as well as a number of proteins. It is involved in the assembly of ribosomes and in the translation of mRNA into proteins.

Q33. The outermost boundary in most of the leaf cell is:

• A. Cell wall✓
• B. Cell membrane
• C. Tonoplast
• D. Unit membrane
• E. Polar substances

Explanation: Option A: The outermost boundary of most leaf cells is the cell wall. It is a rigid layer that surrounds the cell membrane and provides support and protection for the cell. It is made up of cellulose, a long-chain carbohydrate. The cell wall is not present in animal cells. Option B: The cell membrane is the outermost boundary of all cells, but it is not the outermost boundary of most leaf cells. Option C: The tonoplast is the membrane that surrounds the vacuole, which is a large organelle found in plant cells. It is not the outermost boundary of the cell. Option D: A unit membrane is a single layer of phospholipids that forms the basic structure of all cell membranes. It is not the outermost boundary of any cell. Option E: Polar substances are molecules that have a positive and negative end. They are not boundaries of cells.

Q34. In humans,_ is responsible for producing cell's hydrogen peroxide.

• A. Lysosomes
• B. Mitochondria
• C. Peroxisomes✓
• D. glyoxysome

Explanation: The main chemical produced by oxidation in peroxisomes is the very cytotoxic (cell toxic) hydrogen peroxide. Fortunately peroxisomes produce copious amounts of the enzyme catalase and this helps break down hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen.

Q35. The soluble part of the blood is called:

• A. Karyolymph
• B. Nucleoplasm
• C. Protoplasm
• D. Serum✓

Explanation: The soluble part of the blood is called serum. Serum is the liquid portion of blood that remains after blood clotting and the removal of blood cells, fibrinogen, and clotting factors during the process of coagulation. It contains various proteins, electrolytes, hormones, antibodies, and other substances that are dissolved in the plasma. Serum is often used in medical testing to analyze different components present in the blood, as it provides valuable information about a person's health and physiological status.

Q36. The animals that feed on organic debris from decomposing plants and animals are called:

• A. Herbivores
• B. Carnivores
• C. Omnivores
• D. Detritivores✓

Explanation: Option A: Herbivores are organisms that feed on plants. They include cows, rabbits, and deer. Herbivores are important consumers because they help to control the growth of plant populations. Option B: Carnivores are organisms that feed on animals. They include lions, wolves, and sharks. Carnivores are important consumers because they help to control the populations of herbivores. Option C: Omnivores are organisms that feed on both plants and animals. They include humans, bears, and pigs. Omnivores are important consumers because they can adapt to different food sources. Option D: Detritivores are organisms that feed on dead or decaying organic matter. They include earthworms, termites, and fungi. Detritivores play an important role in the ecosystem by breaking down organic matter and recycling nutrients.

Q37. Pinacocytes forms _.

• A. Pores
• B. Ostia
• C. Epidermis✓
• D. Spongocoel

Explanation: Options A: Pores are small openings in the epidermis that allow water to enter the sponge. Option B: Ostia are larger openings in the epidermis that also allow water to enter the sponge. Option C: Epidermis is the outer layer of cells in a sponge. It is made up of flat, plate-like cells called pinacocytes. Pinacocytes are responsible for protecting the sponge from the environment and allowing water to enter the sponge through pores. Option D: Spongocoel is the central cavity of the sponge. It is lined with choanocytes, which are cells that have flagella that create currents that draw water into the sponge.

Q38. Actinia is the biological name of:

• A. Sea Anemone✓
• B. Corals
• C. Obelia
• D. Jellyfish
• E. Frog

Explanation: The biological name of sea anemone is Actinia. They are a type of cnidarian, which are animals that have stinging cells. Sea anemones are found in shallow marine waters all over the world. They attach themselves to rocks or other hard surfaces and use their tentacles to capture prey.Corals are also cnidarians, but they are more closely related to jellyfish.Obelia is a type of hydrozoan, which is another type of cnidarian.Jellyfish are also cnidarians, but they are more closely related to box jellyfish than to sea anemones.ogs are not cnidarians. They are amphibians, which means that they spend part of their life cycle in water and part on land. Frogs are found on all continents except Antarctica. . .

Q39. The simplest form in Kingdom Animalia belongs to:

• A. Eumetazoa
• B. Bilateria
• C. Protozoa
• D. Parazoa✓
• E. Protostomia

Explanation: Option A: Eumetazoa is a broad grouping of animals that have true tissues and organs. It includes all animals except sponges.Bilateria is a group of animals that have bilateral symmetry, meaning that they can be divided into two equal halves along a central axis. Most animals in the kingdom Animalia are bilaterians. Protozoa is a group of single-celled organisms that are not animals. They are classified in the kingdom Protista.The simplest form in Kingdom Animalia belongs to the group known as Parazoa. They are the simplest animals in the kingdom Animalia. Parazoans are multicellular animals that lack true tissues and organs.They include the phylum Porifera, which consists of sponges. Parazoans are considered the most primitive animals within the animal kingdom and have a simpler body organization compared to other animal groups like Eumetazoa, Bilateria, and Protostomia.

Q40. The Porifera are pore - bearing animals, commonly called:

• A. Corals
• B. Sponges✓
• C. Hydras
• D. Anemones

Explanation: Porifera are pore-bearing animals, commonly called sponges. They are the simplest multicellular animals in the kingdom Animalia. They do not have true tissues or organs, and they are filter feeders. They live in marine and freshwater environments.Corals are marine animals that are made up of colonies of polyps. Polyps are small, cylindrical animals that have a mouth surrounded by tentacles. Coral polyps secrete a hard skeleton that forms the coral reef.Hydras are freshwater animals that are related to jellyfish. Anemones are marine animals that are related to corals

Q41. High level of _ and _ in the blood and the contributing factors in the formation of kidney stones.

• A. Calcium, oxalate✓
• B. Calcium, magnesium
• C. Calcium, sodium
• D. Sodium, sulphate

Explanation: Kidney stones are principally formed by calcium as the cation, and one of its most common forms are calcium oxalate stones which have oxalate as the anion. Hence, the correct option is A. In option B, Magnesium does not contribute to kidney stones. In option C, sodium does not contribute to kidney stones. In option D, both sodium and sulphate do not contribute to kidney stones.

Q42. Identify the correct order?

• A. Organ>function>cell>tissue
• B. Cell>organ>tissue>function
• C. Cell>tissue>organ>system✓
• D. Tissue>organ>cell>function

Explanation: The correct sequence of the structural organization of the human body is: Cell → tissue → organ → organ system.

Q43. Blood containing CO2 is:

• A. Red color
• B. Blue color
• C. Reddish purple color✓
• D. Reddish blue color

Explanation: Blood containing carbon dioxide (CO2) is reddish purple in color. This is because CO2 binds to hemoglobin, a protein in red blood cells, and changes its shape. The change in shape makes the blood appear darker and more purple. Blood that is high in oxygen is bright red. As blood travels through the body and delivers oxygen to the tissues, it picks up CO2 as a waste product. The more CO2 that is in the blood, the darker it will appear. Overall, blood containing CO2 is reddish purple in color. The darker the blood, the more CO2 it contains.

Q44. The mechanism by which substances are removed from blood and are directly added to the tubular fluids is called:

• A. Glomerular filtration
• B. Excretion
• C. Tubular secretion✓
• D. Tubular reabsorption

Explanation: Tubular secretion is the process where substances are actively transported from the blood into the renal tubular fluid for excretion in urine. This is distinct from glomerular filtration (where substances are filtered into the tubule passively) and tubular reabsorption (where substances are moved from the tubule back to the blood). Excretion is the overall removal of waste from the body.

Q45. Neurons CANNOT undergo division, because they do not have.

• A. Centrosome✓
• B. Nucleus
• C. Mitochondria
• D. Golgi apparatus

Explanation: Option A: Neurons cannot undergo division because they do not have centrosomes. Centrosomes are organelles that help to organize microtubules, which are essential for cell division. Without centrosomes, neurons cannot properly divide and therefore cannot repair themselves or replace damaged cells. Option B: The nucleus contains the cell's DNA, which is essential for cell division. Option C: Mitochondria are responsible for generating energy for the cell. Option D: Golgi apparatus is responsible for processing and packaging proteins. All of these organelles are essential for the normal function of neurons, but they are not necessary for cell division.

Q46. Hypothalamus initiates the release of hormones, by their releasing factors, while _ is directly produced by it.

• A. TSH
• B. Oxytocin✓
• C. ACTH
• D. FSH
• E. GH

Explanation: Option A: TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) is released by the anterior pituitary gland in response to a releasing factor called thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus. Option B: Oxytocin is released directly by the hypothalamus into the bloodstream. It is involved in childbirth, breastfeeding, and social bonding. Option C: ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) is released by the anterior pituitary gland in response to a releasing factor called corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamus. ACTH stimulates the release of cortisol from the adrenal glands. Option D: FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and LH (luteinizing hormone) are released by the anterior pituitary gland in response to releasing factors called follicle-stimulating hormone-releasing hormone (FSHRH) and luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) from the hypothalamus. FSH and LH are involved in the regulation of reproduction. Option E: GH (growth hormone) is released by the anterior pituitary gland in response to a releasing factor called growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) from the hypothalamus. GHRH stimulates the release of GH, which is involved in growth and development.

Q47. Transport of glucose across the cell membrane occurs by:

• A. Simple diffusion
• B. Facilitated diffusion✓
• C. Osmosis
• D. Primary active transport
• E. Secondary active transport

Explanation: The transport of glucose requires special carrier proteins to take place since glucose is a very large polar molecule that cannot diffuse across the cell membrane without a facilitator. Therefore, facilitated diffusion of glucose occurs through GLUT transporters present in most body cells, so the answer is B.Glucose may also be transported via secondary active transport in certain scenarios such as sodium glucose cotransporters present in the intestinal epithelium or proximal convoluted tubule cells as glucose transport is driven by the concentration gradient of sodium created by the action of the Na/K ATPase pump, but the question did not specify so facilitated diffusion is preferred.

Q48. Which artery supplies blood to the liver?

• A. Pulmonary artery
• B. Hepatic artery✓
• C. Celiac artery
• D. Thoracic artery

Explanation: The hepatic artery delivers oxygen-rich blood from the celiac trunk to the liver for metabolism and detoxification.

Q49. Movement of the hip joint is by which type of synovial joint?

• A. Gliding joint
• B. Ball and socket joint✓
• C. Pivot joints
• D. Hinge joint

Explanation: The different types of synovial joint are : (a) Ball and Socket joint : In this, the round end of one bone fits into the socket of the other bone. It allows free movement. Eg : Shoulder joint and hip joint. (b) Hinge joint : It moves only in a single plane. Eg. Elbow joint, ankle joint, knee joint. (c) Pivot joint : This joint is responsible for providing movement in one plane. Eg : Joint between atlas and axis, between radius and ulna. (d) Gliding joint/Plane Joint : It allows limited movement in all directions as the bones are closely packed together. Eg : joints between carpal bones and between the tarsal bones. (e) Saddle joint : Both ball and sockets are poorly developed and movement is comparatively less. Eg: Carpmetacarpal joint

Q50. A hormone called _controls the secretion of stomach juice.

• A. Gastrin✓
• B. Secretin
• C. Thyroxin
• D. Iodothyronine
• E. Parathormone

Explanation: Gastrin is a peptide hormone that stimulates secretion of gastric acid (HCl) by the parietal cells of the stomach and aids in gastric motility. It is released by G cells in the pyloric antrum of the stomach, duodenum and pancreas.

Q51. Process of uncontrolled cell division is due to which one of the following reasons?

• A. DNA replication
• B. Mutations✓
• C. Translation
• D. Transcription

Explanation: Option A: DNA replication is the process by which DNA is copied in preparation for cell division. Mutations can occur during DNA replication if there is an error in the copying process. These errors can be caused by environmental factors, such as exposure to radiation or chemicals, or they can be inherited from parents. These changes, which can involve single nucleotide alterations or larger chromosomal changes, can affect the proteins an organism makes, potentially leading to new traits, diseases like cancer, or, in some cases, no noticeable effect. Option B: The process of uncontrolled cell division is due to mutations in the DNA. Mutations are changes in the DNA sequence that can occur during DNA replication. These changes can lead to the production of proteins that malfunction, which can disrupt the cell cycle and cause cells to divide uncontrollably. This is because mutations can occur in any cell, and they can be passed on to daughter cells. As a result, mutations can accumulate over time and lead to the development of cancer. Option C: Translation is the process by which RNA is used to produce proteins. If there is an error in translation, it can lead to the production of a protein that malfunctions. This can also disrupt the cell cycle and cause cells to divide uncontrollably.Option D: Mutations can also occur during transcription, which is the process by which DNA is used to produce RNA. RNA is then used to produce proteins. If there is an error in transcription, it can lead to the production of a protein that malfunctions. This can also disrupt the cell cycle and cause cells to divide uncontrollably.

Q52. Which of the following is derived from the Latin word venom which means poisonous?

• A. Bacteria
• B. Fungi
• C. Virus✓
• D. Malaria

Explanation: Option A: Bacteria are single-celled organisms that can cause disease. They are not derived from the Latin word venemus. The word bacteria comes from the Greek word bakterion, which means "small staff". Otion B: Fungi are multicellular organisms that can cause disease. They are not derived from the Latin word venemus. The word fungi comes from the Latin word fungus, which means "mushroom". Option C: The Latin word venume is the root of the English word venom, which is a poisonous substance produced by some animals, such as snakes, spiders, and scorpions. The Latin word virus also comes from venume, and it refers to a small, infectious agent that can cause disease. The word virus was first used in English in the 16th century. It was borrowed from the Latin word virus, which originally meant "poison" or "venom". The modern meaning of virus as a small, infectious agent was not established until the 20th century. Option D: Malaria is a disease caused by a parasite. The parasite is not derived from the Latin word venemus. The word malaria comes from the Italian word mala aria, which means "bad air".

Q53. Functions of the brainstem include all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. Integration of righting reflexes
• B. Autonomic control for respiration
• C. Equilibrium and posture regulation
• D. Initiation of voluntary movements✓
• E. Fixation of the eyes

Explanation: Option A: Integration of righting reflexes: The brainstem plays a crucial role in integrating and coordinating reflexes that help maintain an upright posture and balance in response to changes in body position. Option B: Autonomic control for respiration: The brainstem contains respiratory centers that regulate and control the automatic process of breathing, including the rhythm and depth of respiration. Option C: Equilibrium and posture regulation: The brainstem, along with other brain structures, contributes to the maintenance of balance, coordination, and posture. It receives sensory information from the inner ear and coordinates motor responses to help keep the body stable and oriented. Option D: Initiation of voluntary movements: The initiation of voluntary movements primarily involves higher brain regions, such as the motor cortex. While the brainstem is involved in coordinating and refining movements, it does not directly initiate voluntary movements. Option E: Fixation of the eyes: The brainstem includes structures responsible for controlling eye movements and coordinating the fixation of gaze. It ensures that the eyes can move together smoothly and accurately to focus on specific targets.

Q54. Cardiac output is increased by all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. Hypoxia
• B. Exercise
• C. Sleep✓
• D. Pregnancy

Explanation: During sleep, cardiac output decreases due to lower metabolic demand, whereas exercise, hypoxia, and pregnancy increase cardiac output.

Q55. An enzyme that helps in the conversion of RNA to DNA is called:

• A. Transcriptase
• B. Polymerase
• C. Reverse transcriptase✓
• D. Synthetase

Explanation: Option A, transcriptase, is an RNA dependent RNA polymerase, which forms RNA strands by using RNA strands as a template.Option B, polymerase, can either be DNA polymerase or RNA polymerase, resulting in a complementary strand of DNA or RNA from a particular template strand.Option C is the correct answer, as reverse transcriptase is an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase, as it uses RNA as a template to form a DNA copy. This enzyme is the principal enzyme in retroviruses such as HIV.Option D, synthetase, is any enzyme that results in the synthesis of many different compounds, and is not specific to DNA or RNA.

Q56. Sequence of stop codon in RNA is:

• A. TAG
• B. AUG
• C. UAG✓
• D. AAA

Explanation: UAG is one of the three stop codons, also known as termination codons, in the genetic code. The other two stop codons are UAA and UGA. Stop codons signal the end of protein synthesis during translation. When a stop codon is encountered by the ribosome during translation, it does not code for any amino acid, They are also known as nonsense codons or termination codons because it signals the release of the newly synthesized polypeptide chain from the ribosome. This process ensures that the protein is properly terminated and functional.

Q57. The type of gene interaction in which the effect caused by a gene at one locus interferes with the effect caused by another gene at another locus is known as:

• A. Pleiotropy
• B. Epistasis✓
• C. Polygenic inheritance
• D. Gene linkage
• E. Crossing over

Explanation: Option A: Pleiotropy is a gene interaction in which a single gene affects multiple traits. Option B: The type of gene interaction in which the effect caused by a gene at one locus interferes with the effect caused by another gene at another locus is known as epistasis. Option C: Polygenic inheritance is a gene interaction in which multiple genes contribute to a single trait. Option D: Gene linkage is a phenomenon in which genes that are located close together on a chromosome are inherited together more often than would be expected by chance. Option E: Crossing over is a process that occurs during meiosis in which homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material.

Q58. Which one of the following pairs represent analogous feature?

• A. Elephant tusks and tunan incisors
• B. Telecost erythrocyte and mammalian erythrocyte
• C. Insect wing and bat wing✓
• D. Mole forelimb and hind wing
• E. Reptilian heart and mammalian heart

Explanation: Analogous Organs are those organs of different animals that although look different in structure but perform a common function. These organs are evolved from a convergent evolution.

Q59. The position of an organism in a food chain of an ecosystem called:

• A. Level of ecosystem
• B. Food chain
• C. Food web
• D. Trophic level✓
• E. Energy pyramid

Explanation: Option A: The Level of the ecosystem is not a term used in ecology.Option B: A Food chain is a linear sequence of organisms through which nutrients and energy pass as one organism eats another. However, it does not represent the position of an organism in the food chain. Option C: A Food web is a more complex model of feeding relationships in an ecosystem, where multiple food chains are interconnected. However, it does not represent the position of an organism in the food chain. Option D: The correct answer is trophic level. A trophic level is a step in a food chain, and it represents the organism's position in the food chain relative to its source of energy. The first trophic level is made up of producers, which are organisms that can make their own food. The second trophic level is made up of consumers, which are organisms that eat producers. The third trophic level is made up of consumers that eat other consumers, and so on. Option E: The Energy pyramid is a graphical representation of the amount of energy available at each trophic level in a food chain. However, it does not represent the position of an organism in the food chain.

Q60. Which of the following trophic levels has the largest biomass in ecosystems?

• A. Decomposers
• B. Primary consumer
• C. Secondary consumer
• D. Producers✓
• E. Herbivores

Explanation: Option A: Decomposers break down dead organic matter and waste materials, playing a crucial role in nutrient recycling. However, their biomass is typically lower compared to other trophic levels. Option B: Primary consumers are herbivores that consume producers (plants) as their main food source. While they can have significant biomass, it is generally lower than that of producers. Option C: Secondary consumers are carnivores or omnivores that feed on primary consumers. Their biomass is even lower than that of primary consumers. Option D: Producers typically have the largest biomass in ecosystems. Producers, also known as autotrophs, are organisms that can convert energy from sunlight or inorganic compounds into organic matter through photosynthesis or chemosynthesis. They include plants, algae, and some bacteria. Since they can produce their own food, they form the base of the food chain and support the energy needs of other organisms in the ecosystem. As a result, the biomass of producers tends to be higher than that of other trophic levels. Option E: Herbivores specifically feed on plants and are primary consumers. While they can have substantial populations and biomass, it is typically lower than that of producers.

Q61. The zone with insufficient light to support photosynthesis in ecosystem is called:

• A. Oceanic sub-zone
• B. Limnetic zone
• C. Profundal zone✓
• D. Littoral benthic zone

Explanation: Profundal zone: Here, light is insufficient to support photosynthesis. The organisms of this zone are mainly nourished by detritus that falls from the littoral and limnetic zone and by incoming sediment. Decomposers and detritus feeders, such as, snails and certain insect larvae, bacteria, fungi and fishes, inhabit it.

Q62. Common cold is caused by:

• A. Adenovirus✓
• B. Retroviruses
• C. Herpes virus
• D. Bacteria
• E. Protozoans

Explanation: Common cold is caused by adenovirus.

Q63. Which of the following is caused by the bacteria T. pallidum and transmitted by sexual contact?

• A. Gonorrhea
• B. Syphilis✓
• C. Genital herpes
• D. AIDS

Explanation: The cause of syphilis is a bacterium called Treponema pallidum. The most common way syphilis is spread is through contact with an infected person's sore during sexual activity.

Q64. Electron Transport Chain (ETC) takes place in _ part of the mitochondria.

• A. Matrix of mitochondria
• B. Cytoplasm
• C. Outer membrane
• D. Inner membrane✓

Explanation: In eukaryotic organisms, the electron transport chain and site of oxidative phosphorylation is found on the inner mitochondrial membrane.

Q65. About how much of the total photosynthesis is carried out by aquatic plants?

• A. 90%✓
• B. 60%
• C. 50%
• D. 40%
• E. 10 %

Explanation: 90% of total photosynthesis is carried out by aquatic plants, chiefly algae (80% in oceans and 10% in freshwater).

Q66. The cyclic series of reactions by which carbon is fixed and reduced, resulting in the synthesis of sugar, during the dark reaction of photosynthesis is called:

• A. Kreb's cycle
• B. Citric acid cycle
• C. Melvin Calvin cycle✓
• D. Oxidative Phosphorylation

Explanation: The Calvin cycle is the term used for the reactions of photosynthesis that use the energy stored by the light-dependent reactions to form glucose and other carbohydrate molecules.

Q67. In aerobic respiration of glucose, total number of ATP is:

• A. 38✓
• B. 40
• C. 46
• D. 48
• E. 60

Explanation: Correct option is A: In aerobic respiration, the full oxidation of one glucose molecule can theoretically yield 38 ATP molecules. Refer to the table:

Q68. Golgi complex is involved in the formation of:

• A. Lysosomes✓
• B. RER
• C. Vacuoles
• D. SER

Explanation: The Golgi apparatus or Golgi complex is an organelle found in most eukaryotic cells. It is a collection and dispatch station for the protein products received from the endoplasmic reticulum. Its function also includes lipid transport and lysosome formation.

Q69. Which of the following diseases is characterized by the accumulation of lipids in the brain cells leading to mental retardation and even death?

• A. Grave's disease
• B. Addison's disease
• C. Glycogenosis type II disease
• D. Tay-Sachs disease✓

Explanation: Tay-Sachs disease is specifically characterized by the accumulation of GM2 ganglioside lipids in brain cells due to the lack of the enzyme hexosaminidase A. This lipid build-up results in severe progressive neurological symptoms, including developmental delays, vision problems, seizures, and behavioral changes, which often culminate in early death. In contrast, the other options do not involve lipid accumulation in the brain: Graves' disease is related to thyroid function, Addison's disease pertains to adrenal hormone production, and Glycogenosis type II (Pompe disease) involves glycogen, not lipids. Thus, only Tay-Sachs disease fits the criteria of the question.

Q70. All of the following are present in myofilaments of muscle cells except:

• A. Myosin
• B. Actin
• C. Tubulin✓
• D. Tropomyosin

Explanation: Tubulin is a protein found primarily in mircotubules.

Q71. Number of centrioles after completion of the G2 phase and during the metaphase of mitosis is _ and _ respectively.

• A. 2,2
• B. 2,4
• C. 4,4✓
• D. 4,2

Explanation: Number of centrioles after completion of the G2 phase and during the metaphase of mitosis is 4 and 4 respectively. During S phase of the cell cycle, the centrosomes replicate. Each centrosome contains 2 centrioles. Since now there are 2 centrosomes, the total number of centrioles will be 4. G2 phase comes right after the S phase and during metaphase cytokinesis has not occured as a result, the cell contains 4 centrioles in both of these stages.

Q72. Conversion of ammonium into nitrates is:

• A. Nitrification✓
• B. Nitrogen Fixation
• C. Ammonification
• D. Denitrification

Explanation: The correct answer is Nitrification, as it specifically refers to the conversion of ammonium into nitrates by bacteria such as Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter. Nitrogen Fixation is unrelated because it involves converting atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia. Ammonification involves the breakdown of organic matter into ammonium, not its conversion into nitrates. Denitrification involves the reduction of nitrates into nitrogen gas, not the conversion of ammonium to nitrates.

Q73. Destruction of the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord would result in the loss of:

• A. Commissural impulses
• B. Integrating impulses
• C. Sensory impulses
• D. Voluntary motor impulses✓

Explanation: Peripheral motor nerves carry motor impulses from the spinal cord to voluntary muscles. The destruction of the cells of the anterior horn of the spinal cord will result in the loss of voluntary motor impulses. This is because the cells of the anterior horn (also called the anterior gray column), which is the front column of gray matter in the spinal cord, contain motor neurons that innervate the axillary muscles.

Q74. GnRH a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction acts on:

• A. Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH✓
• B. Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of oxytocin and FSH
• C. Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and relaxin
• D. Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and oxytocin.

Explanation: Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) is secreted by the hypothalamus, which stimulates the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland to secrete luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). Both these hormones are involved in the reproductive cycle of females. FSH stimulates the follicles to mature, and LH is involved in ovulation and the formation of the corpus luteum.Other options are mismatched.

Q75. A temporary gland in the human body is:

• A. Corpus caradiacum
• B. Corpus luteum✓
• C. Corpus allatum
• D. Pineal Gland

Explanation: Corpus luteum is a temporary gland in the human body. After ovulation, the Graafian follicle transforms into corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone. In the absence of fertilization, corpus luteum degenerates.

Q76. The posterior pituitary gland is not a ‘true’ endocrine gland because :

• A. It is provided with a duct
• B. It only stores and releases hormones✓
• C. It is under the regulation of hypothalamus
• D. It secretes enzymes

Explanation: The posterior pituitary is not a true endocrine gland because it does not produce its own hormones. Instead, it functions as a storage area for hormones, specifically antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin, which are synthesized in the hypothalamus. These hormones are transported down nerve fibers from the hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary, where they are then released into the bloodstream when stimulated.

Q77. The amino acid tryptophan is a precursor for:

• A. Estrogen and progesterone
• B. Cortisol and cortisone
• C. Melatonin and serotonin✓
• D. Thyroxine and triiodothyronine

Explanation: The amino acid tryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of melatonin and serotonin. Both melatonin and serotonin regulate various functions inside our body, such as appetite, mood and sleep.

Q78. A chemical signal that has both, endocrine and neural roles is:

• A. Epinephrine✓
• B. Cortisol
• C. Melatonin
• D. Calcitonin

Explanation: Epinephrine is released by sympathetic postganglionic neurons (the adrenergic neurons) and serves as a neurotransmitter. Epinephrine also serves as an emergency hormone of adrenal medulla and prepares the body for fight or flight response by intensifying the effect of sympathetic stimulation.

Q79. The filterable agents were first purified in 1935, when Stanley was successful in crystallizing the _

• A. Polio virus
• B. Tobacco mosaic virus✓
• C. Hepatitis virus
• D. Influenza virus

Explanation: Option B is correct. The poliovirus was discovered in 1908 by Karl Landsteiner and Erwin Popper, who isolated it from the spinal cord of a child who died of poliomyelitis. In 1935, Wendell Stanley first crystallized the tobacco mosaic virus (TMV), which spreads mainly through contact between infected and healthy plants. The hepatitis B virus (HBV) was discovered by Baruch Blumberg in 1967, earning him the Nobel Prize in 1976. The influenza virus was identified in 1933 by Wilson Smith, Christopher H. Andrewes, and Patrick P. Laidlaw at the National Institute for Medical Research in London.

Q80. Volume of bacteriophage is about _ of host.

• A. 1/10 times
• B. 1/100 times
• C. 1/10,000 times
• D. 1/1000 times✓

Explanation: The volume of a bacteriophage is about 1/1000th the volume of its host.

Q81. Van Neil's hypothesis about the production of oxygen during photosynthesis was based on the study and investigations of:

• A. Bacteria✓
• B. Algae
• C. Protonema
• D. Cyanobacteria

Explanation: Van Niel's hypothesis was formulated from his work with photosynthetic bacteria that utilized hydrogen sulfide (H₂S) instead of water, releasing sulfur instead of oxygen. This led him to propose that plants split water (H₂O) to release oxygen during photosynthesis. His hypothesis was later confirmed by experiments using heavy isotopes of oxygen (O18). The other options—algae, protonema, and cyanobacteria—were not the focus of Van Niel's original research on this specific hypothesis.

Q82. Location of photosynthetic pigments in purple sulfur bacteria:

• A. Thylakoids
• B. Grana
• C. Stroma
• D. Cytoplasm✓

Explanation: Purple sulfur bacteria are prokaryotic organisms that perform photosynthesis without chloroplasts. Their photosynthetic pigments, including bacteriochlorophylls and carotenoids, are located in the cytoplasm. This differs from eukaryotic photosynthetic organisms, which house their pigments in chloroplasts with structures such as thylakoids, grana, and stroma. Therefore, the cytoplasm is the correct location of photosynthetic pigments in purple sulfur bacteria, while thylakoids, grana, and stroma are incorrect options because they are components of chloroplasts, which are absent in these bacteria.

Q83. Due to higher heat capacity and H-bonds, water acts as:

• A. Thermo-stabilizer✓
• B. Solvent
• C. Inert medium
• D. Reactive medium

Explanation: Water serves as a thermo-stabilizer due to its high heat capacity, allowing it to absorb and store large amounts of heat energy with minimal temperature fluctuation. This property is crucial in stabilizing temperatures in various environments and within organisms, protecting them from extreme temperature variations. While water is indeed a solvent, facilitating the dissolution of substances, this role is unrelated to temperature regulation. It is also not an inert medium or primarily a reactive medium, as water can engage in reactions but remains stable under normal conditions.

Q84. The bond that is formed between two monosaccharide units is called:

• A. Ionic bond
• B. Hydrogen bond
• C. Peptide bond
• D. Glycosidic bond✓

Explanation: Ionic bond: An ionic bond is a type of chemical bond that forms between two atoms when one atom donates an electron, becoming positively charged (cation), and the other atom accepts the electron, becoming negatively charged (anion). Ionic bonds occur between atoms with significantly different electronegativities, resulting in the transfer of electrons. Hydrogen bond: A hydrogen bond is a type of weak chemical bond that occurs between a hydrogen atom in a polar covalent bond and an electronegative atom (usually oxygen, nitrogen, or fluorine) in another molecule. Hydrogen bonding is important for the structure and properties of many molecules, but it is not the bond that forms between two monosaccharide units. Peptide bond: A peptide bond is a specific type of covalent bond that forms between the carboxyl group (COOH) of one amino acid and the amino group (NH2) of another amino acid during the formation of a protein. Peptide bonds are essential for building protein chains in a process called protein synthesis.Glycosidic bond: The correct option is glycosidic bond. A glycosidic bond is a type of covalent bond that forms between two monosaccharide units during the formation of disaccharides, oligosaccharides, and polysaccharides. It is formed when a hydroxyl group (-OH) of one monosaccharide reacts with the anomeric carbon (the carbon containing the carbonyl group) of another monosaccharide. This reaction involves the removal of a water molecule (H2O), resulting in the formation of a glycosidic linkage between the two monosaccharides.In summary, option d) Glycosidic bond is the correct option. A glycosidic bond is the covalent bond that forms between two monosaccharide units during the formation of various types of saccharides like disaccharides, oligosaccharides, and polysaccharides. The other options (a) Ionic bond, (b) Hydrogen bond, and (c) Peptide bond are different types of chemical bonds with different functions and properties.

Q85. The layers of cellulose fiber in cell wall are arranged with each other at:

• A. Obtuse angle
• B. Parallel angle
• C. Right angle✓
• D. Horizontal angle

Explanation: Cellulose fibers are responsible for strengthening of cell wall of plants. They are arranged in a criss-cross manner and placing these fibers at right angles with each other gives more strength.

Q86. Cellulose is usually not found in:

• A. Primary cell wall
• B. Secondary cell wall
• C. Middle lamella✓
• D. All contain cellulose

Explanation: The correct answer is the Middle lamella because it is made up mainly of pectin and does not include cellulose, which is a significant component of both the primary and secondary cell walls. Options like Primary cell wall and Secondary cell wall are incorrect because they both contain cellulose, which provides structural integrity to plant cells. The option All contain cellulose is also incorrect, as it implies that all mentioned structures contain cellulose, which is not the case for the middle lamella.

Q87. Which of the following produce response?

• A. Effectors✓
• B. Nerve
• C. Stimulators
• D. Brain

Explanation: Effectors are organs like muscles or glands that produce a response to a stimulus by contracting or secreting substances when signaled by the nervous or endocrine system.

Q88. Which of the following is associated with sense of touch?

• A. Paccinian corpuscles
• B. Mechanoreceptors
• C. Merkel disks
• D. Both B and C✓

Explanation: Merkel disks and other mechanoreceptors detect touch and pressure, converting mechanical stimuli into nerve impulses for the brain to perceive texture, shape, and sustained pressure.

Q89. All enzymes are _.

• A. Fibrous proteins
• B. Lipoproteins
• C. Low molecular weight proteins
• D. Globular proteins✓

Explanation: Enzymes are typically globular proteins, characterized by their compact, three-dimensional structures that allow them to act as catalysts by providing active sites for substrate binding.

Q90. On the hydrogen atom spectrum, a series of spectral lines that fall within the visible region is:

• A. Lymen series
• B. Balmer Series✓
• C. Paschen series
• D. Bracket series
• E. Pfund series

Explanation: Lyman series of hydrogen atom lies in ultraviolet region, Balmer series lies in visible region while Pfund and Paschen series lie in infrared region.

Q91. For a chemical reaction A + B, the threshold energy of the reaction is 31 KJ.mole. The average internal energy of A is 12 KJ/mole. What will be the activation energy of A?

• A. 43 KJ/mole
• B. 37 KJ/mole
• C. 25 KJ/mole
• D. 19 KJ/mole✓

Explanation: Threshold E = activation E + normal E of reactant 31 = A + 12 A = 31 - 12 = 19 kJ/mol

Q92. By raising the temperature 1°C, conductance increases by 2 to 2.5%. Which is due to reduced _ of ions?

• A. Hydration✓
• B. Neutralization
• C. Hydrolysis
• D. Ionization

Explanation: Hydration is inversely propotional to conductance. In hydration, ions are surrounded by water molecules so their conductance decreases. So, in order to increase conductance, hydration must decrease to allow electron flow (to conduct electricity).

Q93. s-sp3 overlap occurs in _ molecule.

• A. Cl2
• B. CH4✓
• C. HF
• D. HI

Explanation: Each sp3 hybrid orbital of carbon overlaps 1s-orbital of hydrogen to form C-H sigma bonds.

Q94. ΔH = ΔE+PΔV is the change in enthalpy at constant_.

• A. Volume
• B. Pressure✓
• C. Temperature
• D. Mass

Explanation: At a constant pressure, the heat flow for any process is equal to the change in the internal energy of the system plus the work done (PV).

Q95. As the concentration of reactant increases, the rate of reaction also increases, it is because:

• A. K.E. increases in molecules
• B. Oscillation increases between molecules
• C. Collisions frequency increases✓
• D. Temperature of molecules increases

Explanation: Collisions frequency increases: The frequency of collisions between reactant particles is the number of collisions that occur per unit time. The frequency of collisions increases with increasing concentration because there are more reactant particles present in the same volume. This is the main reason why the rate of reaction increases with increasing concentration.

Q96. The equation shows the reaction between element X and dilute hydrochloric acid. What types of bonding are present in element X and in compound XCl2? X(s) + 2HCI(aq) → XCI(aq) + H2 (g)

• A. Covalent, Covalent
• B. Covalent, Ionic
• C. Metallic, Covalent
• D. Metallic, Ionic✓

Explanation: Since hydrogen is released, we can assume that X is an electropositive element, almost surely a metal, so X will have metallic bonding. For the next part, since X is a metal, XCl will have ionic bonding since almost all metal compounds form ionic bonds and not covalent.

Q97. If the value of Kc is very large then it shows that _completed.

• A. Forward reaction✓
• B. Reverse reaction
• C. Equilibrium is maintained
• D. Kc is moderate

Explanation: Kc=[product]/[reactant], now if the Kc value is very large, we can use the equation to conclude that the concentration of products are higher than reactants, depicting that the forward reaction has completed or is near completion.

Q98. For stable molecular geometry, each carbon atom undergoes:

• A. sp hybridization✓
• B. sp2 hybridization
• C. sp3 hybridization
• D. dsp3 hybridization
• E. d2sp2 hybridization

Explanation: Carbon can undergo all three hybridization i.e. sp, sp2 and sp3. Carbon can have an sp hybridization when it is bound to two other atoms with the help of two double bonds or one single and one triple bond. This results in linear arrangement and bond angle of 180°. A carbon atom is sp2 hybridized when bonding takes place between 1 s-orbital with two p orbitals. There is a formation of two single bonds and one double bond between three atoms. This reults in trignol arrangement with bond angles of 120° A carbon atom is sp3 hybridized when it is bonded to four other atoms. Here, 1 s orbital and 3 p orbitals in the same shell of an atom combine to form four new equivalent orbitals. This results in is tetrahedral with a bond angle of 109.5° The order of strength of CH bonds is sp>sp2>sp3.

Q99. If the absolute temperature of a gas is reduced to one half and the pressure is doubled, the volume of gas will be:

• A. Increased four times
• B. Decreased four times✓
• C. Remained unchanged
• D. Reduced to one half
• E. Increased two times

Explanation: PV=nRT V=nRT/P If temperature is halved and pressure is doubled then V=n x R x 0.5T/2P = V=¼(nRT/P) Hence, volume is decreased four times.

Q100. Change in extensive property is proportional to the _of material.

• A. Temperature
• B. Volume
• C. Quantity✓
• D. Pressure

Explanation: The value of an extensive property is directly proportional to the amount of matter in question. If the property of a sample of matter does not depend on the amount of matter present, it is an intensive property.

Q101. Which of the following has the highest electrical conductivity?

• A. Aqueous sugar solution
• B. Solid graphite✓
• C. Solid sodium chloride
• D. Gaseous carbon dioxide

Explanation: Graphite is an allotrope of carbon and is known for its high electrical conductivity. The carbon atoms in graphite are arranged in a layered structure, forming sheets of hexagonal rings. These sheets have delocalized electrons that can move freely along the layers, allowing for efficient electron flow and high electrical conductivity. Therefore, solid graphite has a high electrical conductivity.

Q102. The oxidation number of Nitrogen in HNO3 is:

• A. +4
• B. +2
• C. +6
• D. +5✓
• E. +7

Explanation: In HNO₃, hydrogen is +1 and each oxygen is –2. Total must equal zero: +1+x+3(−2)=0. Solving gives x=+5, so nitrogen has oxidation number +5.

Q103. X is a salt that decomposes in water. What is the reason for its decomposition? e- + X3+ → X2+ E cell = 1.91 V

• A. This potential oxidises salt
• B. This potential reduces salt✓
• C. This potential reduces water
• D. This potential oxidises water

Explanation: Reduction is can be defined as gain of electrons. Since the salt is gaining an electron, it is being reduced.

Q104. In acidic medium, oxidation action of potassium permanganate depends upon:

• A. Mn7+✓
• B. KMnO2+
• C. MnO2
• D. Mn1+
• E. Mn4+

Explanation: Equation for reduction of KMnO4 in acidic medium:8H+ + MnO4- + 5e- ----> Mn2+ + 4H2OHere in MnO4- the oxidation state of Mn is +7, and it is being reduced to Mn2+Therefore, it acts as an oxidising agent as Mn7+ can gain elections from the substance being oxidised and get reduced itself.

Q105. The energy required to remove the outermost electron from a gaseous atom Is called:

• A. Electronegativity
• B. Electropositivity
• C. Ionisation energy✓
• D. electron affinity

Explanation: Ionization energy, also called ionization potential, is the amount of energy required to remove one mol of electron from an isolated atom or molecule.

Q106. Which sequence of reaction conditions should be used to produce the compound below from benzene?

• A. AlCl3 / Cl2 ; H2 / Rh / C✓
• B. Cl2 / UV light ; H2 / Rh / C
• C. H2 / Rh / C ; AlCl3 / Cl2
• D. HCl ; H2 / Rh / C

Explanation: A would be the answer as we have electrophilic substitution taking place involving the formation of a Cl+ ion which is formed via the interaction of AlCl3 catalyst and Cl2 gas producing (AlCl4)- and Cl+. The Cl+ replaces Hydrogen from the benzene ring. Once chlorobenzene is formed, it is reduced by H2 gas and rhodium catalyst. Reducing the benzene ring first would form a cycloalkane and then, using AlCl3 + Cl2 would do nothing.

Q107. Cyanohydrins can be synthesised from ketones through:

• A. Nucleophilic addition reaction✓
• B. Unimolecular nucleophilic substitution reaction
• C. Electrophilic substitution reaction
• D. Bimolecular nucleophilic substitution reaction
• E. Nucleophilic elimination reaction

Explanation: A cyanohydrin reaction is an organic chemical reaction by an aldehyde or ketone with a cyanide anion or a nitrile to form a cyanohydrin. This is a base-catalysed nucleophilic addition reaction.

Q108. Which of the following elements does not belong to the f-block of elements?

• A. Uranium
• B. Samarium
• C. Thorium
• D. Osmium✓

Explanation: All the elements belong in f-block except Osmium which belongs to the d-block.

Q109. Gasoline is a mixture of hexane and _.

• A. Methane
• B. Butane
• C. Decane
• D. Heptane✓

Explanation: Heptane and Hexane are both components of gasoline.

Q110. What is the name of the following compound?

• A. 1-Ethyl-3, 4 - dimethylcycloheptane
• B. 2-Ethyl-4, 5-dimethylcyclohexane
• C. 1-Ethyl - 4, 4-dimethylcyclohexane
• D. 4-Ethyl-1, 2 - dimethylcyclohexane✓

Explanation: Apply rules of nomenclature. The adjacent methyl groups will be preffered first because they are closer compared to ethyl and methyl groups.

Q111. Bakelite is a polymer of formaldehyde and _.

• A. Phenol✓
• B. Ethanol
• C. Butanol
• D. Methanol

Explanation: Bakelite is the first synthetic thermosetting polymer. It is formed by the condensation polymerization of phenol and formaldehyde. The resulting polymer is hard, heat-resistant, and electrically non-conductive, making it useful in electrical and household products.

Q112. To avoid the formation of toxic compounds with chlorine, which substance is used for disinfecting water?

• A. KMnO4
• B. Chloramines
• C. O3✓
• D. Alums

Explanation: Ozone (O3) is the correct answer because it functions as a strong disinfectant that does not produce harmful byproducts when used alongside chlorine. Unlike chloramines, which still involve chlorine and can lead to the formation of toxic compounds, ozone helps in eliminating pathogens effectively without the same risks. Potassium permanganate and alums, while useful in water treatment, do not specifically address the concern of chlorine-related toxicity. Thus, ozone serves as a safer alternative in disinfection processes.

Q113. Cannizzaro's reaction is NOT given by:

• A. Formaldehyde
• B. Acetaldehyde✓
• C. Benzaldehyde
• D. Trimethyl acetaldehyde

Explanation: Cannizzaro's reaction is not given by aldehydes and ketones that have alpha hydrogen (hydrogen next to carbonyl carbon). In formaldehyde, there are no α Hydrogen so it will undergo this reaction. Acetaldehyde has 3 α Hydrogens next to C=O group so it cannot undergo this reaction. In trimethyl acetaldehyde, 3 CH3​ groups are attached to α Carbon and no α Hydrogen so it will undergo this reaction. In benzaldehyde, there is benzyl group on α carbon so it does not have α Hydrogen and it will undergo this reaction.

Q114. Which one of the following is called animal starch?

• A. Amylose
• B. Glycogen✓
• C. Cellulose
• D. Glucose

Explanation: Glycogen is known as an animal starch as it is a polymer of glucose stored in the muscles and liver as a an energy reserve. In plants glucose subunits form starch which is stored in roots and fruits as a reserved food.Cellulose is present in cell walls.Amylose is a polysaccharide made of α-D-glucose units, It is one of the two components of starch.

Q115. Enzymes are _ that catalyze chemical living organisms and are very specific in their action.

• A. Proteins✓
• B. Vitamins
• C. Lipids
• D. Minerals

Explanation: Enzymes are biological molecules, and the majority of them are proteins. Proteins are composed of amino acids, and enzymes are a specialized class of proteins that function as catalysts, facilitating and accelerating chemical reactions in living organisms.

Q116. HCOOH is the structure of:

• A. Acetic acid
• B. Formic acid✓
• C. Valeric acid
• D. Caproic acid

Explanation: Formic acid, systematically named methanoic acid, is the simplest carboxylic acid, and has the chemical formula HCOOH.

Q117. The reaction CHCH + H2O + 3(O) shows the formation of _.

• A. Acetic acid
• B. Picric acid
• C. Oxalic acid✓
• D. Formic acid

Explanation: For this question, we must assume CHCH to be ethyne. The (O) implies oxidation and water indicates that the oxidizing agent is dilute. Based on that we would be getting CHOHCHOH as an intermediate as hydroxyl groups are added to each carbon. This is similar to how we obtain diols from alkenes by oxidizing them through dilute potassium manganate. Further oxidation takes place and since we have 2 aldehyde groups, each is oxidized to give a carboxylic acid thus 2 carboxylic acid groups which is Oxalic acid.

Q118. In composition of natural gas, 0.17% is constituted by:

• A. Methane
• B. Ethane
• C. Butane✓
• D. Nitrogen

Explanation: Natural gas has Methane and ethane contributing to large portions with Methane being 90%, approximately, and ethane, up to 5%. The remaining being propane and butane exist in small proportions. As propane is not given as an option, we can safely assume our answer to be butane as Nitrogen is not found in natural gas.

Q119. By fermentation process of starch and by the catalytic enzyme, _ is produced.

• A. Methyl alcohol
• B. Ethyl alcohol✓
• C. Acetyl alcohol
• D. Methanal

Explanation: Starch essentially breaks down to give glucose which undergoes the process of glycolysis to give pyruvate and NADH alongside ATP. Pyruvate undergoes decarboxylation to give ethanal and ethanal is reduced by NADH to give ethanol which is an ethyl alcohol. This is, basically, the summarization of the alcohol fermentation so the answer is B.

Q120. Methyl ketones can be characterised by performing:

• A. Iodoform test✓
• B. Schiff’s test
• C. Benedict's reagent test
• D. Tollen's test
• E. Cannizzaro test

Explanation: When methyl ketone is heated with iodine in the presence of sodium hydroxide, yellow precipitate of iodoform is obtained. Hence, methyl ketones are characterized by iodoform test. In this reaction, methyl ketone is converted to the sodium salt of carboxylic acid.

Q121. In RNA, which of the bases is replaced by uracil?

• A. Cytosine
• B. Adenine
• C. Guanine
• D. Thymine✓

Explanation: Uracil forms a nucleoside with only ribose sugar while thymine forms the same with only deoxyribose sugar. Other nitrogen bases (i.e. adenine, guanine, cytosine) produce nucleosides with both sugars.

Q122. In the atmosphere, CO2 is about?

• A. 0.01 %
• B. 0.03 %✓
• C. 0.05 %
• D. 0.09 %

Explanation: The proportion of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is about 0.03%Carbon dioxide is an important long-lived trace gas in Earth’s atmosphere currently constituting about 0.03% of the atmosphere.Carbon dioxide concentrations are rising mostly because of the fossil fuels that people are burning for energy.Fossil fuels like coal and oil contain carbon that plants pulled out of the atmosphere through photosynthesis over the span of many millions of years

Q123. Chlorophyll, a naturally occurring macromolecule, contains:

• A. Mg2+✓
• B. Al3+
• C. Fe2+
• D. B3+

Explanation: The chlorophyll molecule consists of a central magnesium atom surrounded by a nitrogen-containing structure called a porphyrin ring. Attached to the ring is a long carbon–hydrogen side chain, known as a phytol chain.

Q124. The reactions of below diagram with RMgX leads to the formation of:

• A. RCHOHR
• B. RCHOHCH3
• C. R3CHCH3OH
• D. RCH2CH2OH✓

Explanation: Refer to the diagram.

Q125. Alkyl halides can also be obtained by halogenation of _.

• A. Alcohols
• B. Alkenes
• C. Alkanes✓
• D. Ketones

Explanation: The reaction of a halogen with an alkane in the presence of ultraviolet (UV) light or heat leads to the formation of a haloalkane (alkyl halide). An example is the chlorination of methane. Experiments have shown that when the alkane and halogen reactants are not exposed to UV light or heat, the reaction does not occur.

Q126. Which of the following is necessary for the normal development of leaves and bark of the plants?

• A. Sodium
• B. Aluminium
• C. Calcium✓
• D. Beryllium

Explanation: Calcium is needed to make calcium pectate which is an essential part of the cell wall, strengthening and stabilizing it. Moreover, Calcium ions are mandatory in the Acid growth hypothesis as they stimulate the release of Auxin and Auxin is a growth hormone.

Q127. Which of the following fertilizers has the maximum percentage of nitrogen in a solid state?

• A. Ammonia
• B. Urea✓
• C. Di-ammonium hydrogen phosphate
• D. Ammonium nitrate

Explanation: Urea has the highest nitrogen content of all solid fertilizers at 46% Nitrogen.

Q128. At standard conditions of temperature and pressure, the ratio of volume of 18g H2O to the volume of 4.4g CO2 will be:

• A. 10:1✓
• B. 1:2
• C. 2:3
• D. 3:2
• E. 2:1

Explanation: No of moles=mass in g/MrMoles of water = 18/18 =1 mol 1mol=24dm3 so volume of water is also 24dm3 Moles of CO2= 4.4/44 = 0.1 moles0.1x24= 2.4dm324:2.410:1

Q129. Rutherford's atomic model failed because:

• A. It did not account for the stability of atom.✓
• B. It did not account for the attraction b/w protons and neutrons.
• C. The atom did not have neutrons.
• D. None of these.

Explanation: Rutherford’s model proposed that the negatively charged electrons surround the nucleus of an atom. He also claimed that the electrons surrounding the nucleus revolve around it with very high speed in circular paths. He named these circular paths as orbits. He also stated that electrons being negatively charged and nucleus being a densely concentrated mass of positively charged particles are held together by a strong electrostatic force of attraction. However, Rutherford's Model did not have any explanation regarding the stability of atoms and arrangement of electrons in an atom.

Q130. The second and third period contain:

• A. 18 elements each
• B. 32 elements each
• C. 8 elements each✓
• D. 14 elements each

Explanation: Fact.The 2nd-period elements: lithium, beryllium, boron, carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, fluorine, and neon. The 3rd-period elements: sodium, magnesium, aluminum, silicon, phosphorus, sulfur, chlorine, and argon.

Q131. Cathode rays travel in discharge tube from:

• A. Anode to cathode
• B. Cathode to anode✓
• C. Glass tube to vacuum pump
• D. Cathode through air

Explanation: Cathode rays come from the cathode because the cathode is charged negatively. So, those rays strike and ionize the gas sample inside the container. Therefore, cathode rays travel in discharge tube from cathode to anode.

Q132. The subshell which has only one orbital is identified by the letter:

• A. s✓
• B. d
• C. p
• D. f

Explanation: S orbital has only 1 orbital and is defined by letter S.

Q133. Sodium amalgam is an alloy of:

• A. Sodium and mercury metals✓
• B. Sodium and lead
• C. Sodium and zinc
• D. None

Explanation: Sodium Mercury Amalgam is a alloy of sodium and mercury metals that functions as a strong reducing agent in chemical synthesis.

Q134. Elements which have completely filled outermost shell and do not combine with other elements are called:

• A. Metal elements
• B. Reactive elements
• C. Unstable elements
• D. Rare earth elements✓

Explanation: Rare Earth elements are those which rarely combine with other elements to form compounds and are unreactive. They are a set of 17 metallic elements;including the 15 lanthanides along with Scandium and Yttrium and are further classified as heavy and light rare Earth elements.

Q135. The Balmer series lies in the _ region.

• A. UV
• B. Visible✓
• C. Infrared
• D. None of the above

Explanation: Balmer series is displayed when electron transition takes place from higher energy states (nh=3,4,5,6,7,…) to nl=2 energy state. All the wavelength of Balmer series falls in the visible part of the electromagnetic spectrum (400nm to 740nm). You can use this mnemonic to remember the order of the electromagnetic spectrum: MyanMer Pasta Bread Fund. Lyman, Balmer, Paschen, Brackett, Pfund. We've also added a picture to help you remember the entire spectrum!

Q136. If an ideal gas has volume V at 27°C and it is heated at constant pressure so that it volume become 1.5V, the value of final temperature is:

• A. 327K
• B. 871K
• C. 177°C✓
• D. 600°C

Explanation: According to Charles Law, V1/T1 = V2/T2(Note: For these questions, always make sure the temperature is in Kelvin)Initial temperature = 27°C For converting temperature in Celcius to Kelvin:273+27 = 300KV/300 = 1.5V/T2T2= (1.5V x 300)/VT2=450KFor converting temperature in Kelvin to Celcius:450-273 = 177°C

Q137. An electron is moving along the axis of a solenoid carrying a current. Which of the following is a correct statement about the electromagnetic force acting on the electron?

• A. The force acts radially inwards
• B. The force acts radially outwards
• C. The force acts in the direction of motion
• D. No force acts✓

Explanation: The question states along the axis of a solenoid. This implies that the Magnetic feild is parallel to the direction of current (For magnetic force to act, it is necessary that the direction of current and magentic feild are perpendicular to eachother) Therefore, no force acts and electron moves straight through without getting deflected.

Q138. The magnetic lines of force are directed in a manner that they:

• A. Originate at south pole and terminate at north pole
• B. Pass through the magnet
• C. Originate at north pole and terminate at south pole✓
• D. Go away from both the poles

Explanation: The correct answer is Option C: The magnetic lines of force originate at the north pole and terminate at the south pole. This is because magnetic field lines emerge from the north pole and enter the south pole, completing a loop.Option A is incorrect because it reverses the direction of the magnetic lines of force, which do not originate at the south pole.Option B is incorrect in context because, while magnetic lines do pass through the magnet as continuous loops, it does not address their directional origin and termination.Option D is incorrect because magnetic lines of force do not move away from both poles; they form loops, ensuring the magnetic field is present outside the magnet.

Q139. What happens to the pressure of a sample of helium gas if the temperature is increased from 200 K to 800 K, with no change in volume?

• A. Pressure increases by a factor of 4✓
• B. Pressure decreases by a factor of 4
• C. Pressure decreases by a factor of 2
• D. Pressure increases by a factor of 2
• E. No change in pressure

Explanation: Option A: The pressure of the gas will increase by a factor of 4.This is because the ideal gas law states that the pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature, if the volume is held constant. So, if the temperature is increased by a factor of 4, the pressure will also increase by a factor of 4.Here is the equation for the ideal gas law:PV = nRTwhere:P is the pressure of the gasV is the volume of the gasn is the number of moles of gasR is the universal gas constant T is the temperature of the gasIf we keep the volume (V) and the number of moles of gas (n) constant, and increase the temperature (T) by a factor of 4, then the pressure (P) will also increase by a factor of 4.Therefore, the pressure of the gas will increase from 1 atmosphere to 4 atmospheres. Option B: This is not correct. The pressure of a gas can only decrease if the volume is increased or the number of moles of gas is decreased. In this case, the volume is held constant and the number of moles of gas is also held constant. So, the pressure cannot decrease. Option C: This is not correct. The pressure of a gas can only decrease by a factor of 2 if the volume is doubled or the number of moles of gas is halved. In this case, the volume is held constant and the number of moles of gas is also held constant. So, the pressure cannot decrease by a factor of 2. Option D: This is not correct. The pressure of a gas can only increase by a factor of 2 if the temperature is doubled. In this case, the temperature is increased by a factor of 4, so the pressure will increase by a factor of 4, not 2. Option E: This is not correct. The pressure of a gas will only remain constant if the temperature, volume, and number of moles of gas are all held constant. In this case, the temperature is increased, so the pressure will also increase.

Q140. Which of the following is dimensionless quantity?

• A. Power
• B. Frequency
• C. Refractive Index✓
• D. Impulse

Explanation: Option A: Power is the rate at which energy is transferred. It is measured in watts, which are equivalent to joules per second. Option B: Frequency is the number of oscillations per unit time. It is measured in hertz, which are equivalent to cycles per second. Option C: The refractive index is a dimensionless quantity.A dimensionless quantity is a quantity that has no units. It is a pure number that is independent of any physical dimensions.The refractive index is a measure of how much a light beam bends when it passes from one medium to another. It is defined as the ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in the medium.The refractive index has no units because it is a ratio of two quantities with the same units. The speed of light in a vacuum is a physical quantity with units of meters per second. The speed of light in a medium is also a physical quantity with units of meters per second. Option D: Impulse is the product of force and time. It is measured in newton-seconds.

Q141. Alpha rays are nuclear radiation. They are the same as the _ nuclei.

• A. Hydrogen
• B. Deuterium
• C. Tritium
• D. Helium✓
• E. Lithium

Explanation: Alpha particle has charge of +2e and mass no 4Hydrogen has a charge of +e and mass no 1Deutrium has charge of +e and mass no 2Tritrium has charge of +e and mass no 3Helium has charge of +2e and mass no 4 Lithium has charge of +3e and mass no 7This confirms that alpha rays are same as the Helium Nuclei.

Q142. When two bodies move towards each other with constant speed, the distance between them decreases at the rate 6m/sec. If they move in the same direction, the distance between them increases at the rate of 4 m/sec. Calculate their velocities.

• A. 5 m/sec, 1 m/sec✓
• B. 3 m/sec, 3 m/sec
• C. 6 m/sec, 1 m/sec
• D. 4 m/sec, 2 m/sec

Explanation: Let's name the two unknown speeds as V1 and V2.From the information given,V1+V2 = 6V1 - V2 = 4Solving the equations simultaneously,V1 = 4 + V2Substituiting this in first equation,4 + V2 + V2 = 6 2V2 = 2V2 = 1 m/sV1 = 4 + V2 V1 = 4 + 1V1 = 5 m/s.Option A is the correct answer.

Q143. Two capacitors C1 (6µF) and C2 (12µF) are in series across a 180 volts D.C supply. Calculate the charges on C1 and C2 respectively.

• A. 120x106 C, -420x106 C
• B. 320x10-6 C, 420x10-6 C
• C. 420x10-6 C, 320x10-6 C
• D. 720x10-6 C, 720x10-6 C✓
• E. 620x10-6 C, 420x10-6 C

Explanation: Charge remains same in series and charges of both capacitors are only same in Option D and so it is the right answer.You can even calculate the charge using this;net capacitance in series:1/C= 1/C1 + 1/C21/C = 1/12 + 1/6 C= 4x10-6 FC=Q/V4x10-6 = Q/180Q= 720 x 10-6 C

Q144. Three resistors of 6 ohms each, can be connected in all possible ways. The highest value of resistance that can be obtained (in ohms) is:

• A. 2 Ohms
• B. 4 Ohms
• C. 9 Ohms
• D. 18 Ohms✓
• E. 36 Ohms

Explanation: If we connect all three in series, combined resistance will be 6+6+6=18(Series combination always gives the highest combined resistance)If we connect all three in parallel, combined resistance will be 1/6 + 1/6 + 1/6 = 1/R so R = 2 Ohms(This is the lowest possible combined resistance)This cancels options A, B, C and E since the highest possible resistance must be equal 18 Ohms.

Q145. When the reverse bias of a pn junction diode is increased, a stage comes when the electric field setup is sufficient to rupture the bonds and release a large number of holes and electrons breakdown. This phenomenon is known as:

• A. Avalanche effect✓
• B. Zener effect
• C. Early effect
• D. High-field emission

Explanation: In reverse bias, if voltage is increased, due to available energy, a covalent bond breaks, and a large number of electrons are released. This causes a sudden increase in current. This is called the Zener effect. If reverse bias is increased further after the Zener effect, minority charge carriers attain high velocity and break down the bound electrons from covalent bonds, and the current increases. This is known as the Avalanche effect. The question asks about the release of electrons due to an electric field which is the Zener effect.

Q146. The magnetic field is produced in a solenoid depends on:

• A. Its length
• B. Its length and current in it
• C. Its length and number of turns in it
• D. The number of turns and current in it✓

Explanation: The correct answer is The number of turns and current in it. The magnetic field strength inside a solenoid is determined by the product of the current flowing through it and the number of turns per unit length. While the length of the solenoid influences the uniformity of the magnetic field, it does not significantly impact its strength. Thus, Option D is correct. Options A, B, and C incorrectly emphasize the length of the solenoid as a primary factor, which is not the case.

Q147. Equation of continuity is expressed as:

• A. A1V2 = A2V1
• B. A1V1 = A2V2✓
• C. A1H2 = A2H1
• D. A1H1 = A2H2

Explanation: Option A: A1V2 = A2V1: This is the equation of continuity for fluid flow. It states that the mass flow rate through a control volume is constant. In other words, the amount of fluid that enters the control volume must equal the amount of fluid that leaves the control volume. Option B: The equation of continuity is expressed as A1V1 = A2V2. This equation states that the mass flow rate through a control volume is constant. In other words, the amount of fluid that enters the control volume must equal the amount of fluid that leaves the control volume. Option C: A1H2 = A2H1: This is the equation of continuity for heat transfer. It states that the heat flow rate through a control volume is constant. In other words, the amount of heat that enters the control volume must equal the amount of heat that leaves the control volume. Option D: A1H1 = A2H2: This is not the equation of continuity for heat transfer. It states that the product of the cross-sectional area and the heat transfer coefficient is constant. This is only true for steady-state heat transfer, which means that the temperature of the fluid does not change.

Q148. The path difference for the constructive interference is:

• A. (n-1)λ
• B. (n+1)λ
• C. n λ / 2
• D. 2n λ
• E. n λ✓

Explanation: Option A: (n-1)λ: This is the path difference for destructive interference. When the path difference is one wavelength less than a whole number of wavelengths, the waves will be out of phase and will cancel each other out. Option B: (n+1)λ: This is also the path difference for destructive interference. When the path difference is one wavelength more than a whole number of wavelengths, the waves will be out of phase and will cancel each other out. Option C: nλ/2: This is the path difference for a node. A node is a point where the waves cancel each other out completely. Option D: 2nλ: This is not possible, as the path difference cannot be greater than the wavelength of the wave. Option E: The path difference for constructive interference is nλ, where n is any integer. This means that the difference in the distance traveled by two waves must be a whole number of wavelengths. When this happens, the waves will be in phase and will add together to create a larger wave.

Q149. The light exhibits the phenomena of constructive interference under the situation when it is _ and _.

• A. Monochromatic and in Phase✓
• B. Monochromatic and out of Phase
• C. In phase and non-monochromatic
• D. Out of phase and non-monochromatic

Explanation: Option A: The light exhibits the phenomena of constructive interference under the situation when it is monochromatic and in phase. Monochromatic light means that the light waves have a single wavelength. This is important because constructive interference can only occur if the waves are in phase with each other. When two waves are in phase, they have the same amplitude and the same wavelength. This means that when they overlap, they add together to create a larger wave. Option B: Monochromatic and out of phase: This will not produce constructive interference. Out of phase waves have different amplitudes and/or different wavelengths. When out of phase waves overlap, they cancel each other out. Option C: In phase and non-monochromatic: This will not produce constructive interference. Non-monochromatic light means that the light waves have multiple wavelengths. The different wavelengths of the light will not be in phase with each other, and they will cancel each other out. Option D: Out of phase and non-monochromatic: This will not produce constructive interference. Out of phase waves have different amplitudes and/or different wavelengths. When out of phase waves overlap, they cancel each other out.

Q150. The distance between two consecutive antinodes is equal to:

• A. λ/8
• B. λ/6
• C. λ/4
• D. λ/2✓

Explanation: The distance between two consecutive antinodes (or two consecutive nodes) is equal to half a wavelength as shown:

Q151. The charge on the neutron is:

• A. 1.6 x 10-27 C
• B. Zero✓
• C. 1.6 x 10-31 C
• D. 9.11 x 10-19 C
• E. 9.6 x 10-15C

Explanation: A neutron is an electrically neutral sub-atomic particle. Therfore, it has no charge.

Q152. When applied stress changes the volume, the change in volume per unit volume is known as:

• A. Polymetric strain
• B. Crystalline strain
• C. Volumetric strain✓
• D. Equal strain

Explanation: The change in volume per unit volume is known as volumetric strain. It is a measure of how much the volume of a material changes in response to an applied stress. The volumetric strain is calculated as the change in volume divided by the original volume.

Q153. When a fluid is incompressible, it means:

• A. No internal frictional force
• B. Independent of coordinates
• C. Independent of time
• D. Its density remains constant✓
• E. Its density remains variable

Explanation: When a fluid is incompressible, it means, its volume or density does not change with changes in pressure.

Q154. In medical diagnosis for precise internal imaging of brain, _ radiographs are used.

• A. X-ray✓
• B. Beta-ray
• C. Gamma-ray
• D. Alpha-ray

Explanation: For internal imaging of braina X-Ray radiographs are used. Some examples include use of X-rays in CAT Scans and MRIs.

Q155. A steady current of 5 A is drawn from an electric source at a voltage of 100 V. The power consumed (in Watts) is:

• A. 0.05W
• B. 5W
• C. 500W✓
• D. 50000W

Explanation: P=IVP=5Ax100VP=500W

Q156. S.I. Unit of rate of flow of a fluid =

• A. m/sec
• B. m2/sec
• C. m3/sec✓
• D. m3/sec2

Explanation: The rate of flow of a fluid is defined as the volume of fluid that passes through a given surface per unit time, which is quantified in cubic meters per second (m3/sec). This indicates how much volume of fluid is flowing in a specific timeframe, making it the correct choice.Option A (m/sec) is incorrect because it measures the speed of the fluid, not the flow rate. Option B (m2/sec) is also incorrect as it denotes kinematic viscosity, not flow rate. Lastly, Option D (m3/sec2) is invalid since it does not correspond to any meaningful concept in fluid dynamics.

Q157. The level of radiation to which the human body can be exposed is _ times the radiation from natural sources.

• A. 1 to 10✓
• B. 10 to 100
• C. 10 to 1000
• D. 10 to 10000

Explanation: This is the range to which the human body can be exposed. Greater than this range can be fatal for the human body.

Q158. Conversion of heat energy completely into work violates:

• A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
• B. 1st law of thermodynamics
• C. 2nd law of thermodynamics✓
• D. 1st and 2nd law of thermodynamics

Explanation: According to this law,it's impossible for an engine to extract heat from a hot reservoir and convert it completely into useful work. All engines lose some heat to the environment.

Q159. As the temperature of the black body is raised, the black body radiations become richer in:

• A. Intermediate wavelengths
• B. Longer wavelengths
• C. Shorter wavelengths✓
• D. Low frequencies

Explanation: According to Wien's Law, as the temperature of the blackbody increases, the wavelength of emitted radiations decreases.Hence the answer is CThe intensity (or flux) at all wavelengths increases as the temperature of the blackbody increases. The total energy being radiated (the area under the curve) increases rapidly as the temperature increases (Stefan–Boltzmann Law).

Q160. The rapid escape of air from a burst tire is an example of:

• A. Isothermal
• B. Adiabatic✓
• C. Isobaric
• D. Isochoric

Explanation: The rapid escape of air from a burst tyre is an example of an adiabatic process. During this process, no heat energy enters or leaves the system. This is mainly because heat transfer is a slow process while the bursting of a tyre is a very rapid action.

Q161. The temperature coefficient of a semiconductor is negative because:

• A. Resistance increases with an increase in temperature
• B. Resistance decreases with an increase in temperature✓
• C. Resistance decreases with decrease in temperature
• D. Resistance is independent of temperature change

Explanation: A negative coefficient for a material means that its resistance decreases with an increase in temperature. Option B is therefore the correct answer.Note: Semiconductor materials (carbon, silicon, germanium) typically have negative temperature coefficients of resistance.

Q162. The value of absolute zero on the Fahrenheit temperature is:

• A. 359.4
• B. -459.4✓
• C. 100
• D. -259.4

Explanation: Absolute zero, is temperature at which a thermodynamic system has the lowest energy. It corresponds to −273.15 °C on the Celsius temperature scale and to −459.67 °F on the Fahrenheit temperature scale.Absolute zero is the lowest limit of the thermodynamic temperature scale, a state at which the enthalpy and entropy of a cooled ideal gas reach their minimum value, taken as zero kelvin. The fundamental particles of nature have minimum vibrational motion, retaining only quantum mechanical, zero-point energy-induced particle motion. The theoretical temperature is determined by extrapolating the ideal gas law; by international agreement, absolute zero is taken as −273.15 degrees on the Celsius scale (International System of Units)which equals −459.67 degrees on the Fahrenheit scale.

Q163. During each cycle, a heat engine with an efficiency of 25% takes in 800J of energy. How much waste heat energy is expelled in each cycle?

• A. 100J
• B. 200J
• C. 400J
• D. 600J✓

Explanation: If the efficiency of the engine is 25%, then the energy that is output for useful work is 25% of the input energy, which is 25% of 800 J= 200 J. The remaining 800 J – 200 J = 600 J is expelled as waste heat.

Q164. Systems in thermodynamics are separated from their surroundings by:

• A. Pressure
• B. Universe
• C. Boundary✓
• D. Temperature

Explanation: The mass or region outside the system is called the surroundings, and the surface that separates the system and the surroundings is called the boundary.In thermodynamics, a boundary is a conceptual or physical division that separates a system from its surroundings. The system is the specific part of the universe under consideration, and the surroundings include everything else. The boundary defines what is inside the system and what is outside.

Q165. If Cv = 2.5 R, Cp = ?

• A. 0.4 R
• B. 2R/7
• C. 2.5 R
• D. 3.5 R✓

Explanation: R = Cp-CvSo, Cp = R + 2.5 RCp = 3.5 R

Q166. An electric dipole is situated in a non-uniform electric field. It may experience:

• A. A resultant force and a couple✓
• B. Only force
• C. Only couple
• D. Any of the above

Explanation: An electric dipole always experiences a torque when placed in either uniform or non-uniform electric field. But in non-uniform electric field, dipole will also experience net force of attraction. So, the electric dipole in non-uniform electric field experiences both torque and force.

Q167. Two plates are at potentials 20V and -20V respectively with a separation of 2cm between them. The electric field between them is:

• A. 2000 V/m✓
• B. 1000 V/m
• C. 500 V/m
• D. 300 V/m

Explanation: We know formulaE=V/dWhere V is V1-V2V1 is 20VV2 is -20Vd is 2cm , 0.02 in mSoE = 20-(-20) / 0.02m= 20+20 /0.02= 40 / 0.02= 2000 V/m

Q168. If a dielectric material is placed between two plates of a capacitor, the net capacitance of the capacitor:

• A. Decreases
• B. Increases✓
• C. Remains constant
• D. Zero

Explanation: ○The strength of the electric field is reduced due to the presence of dielectric. If the total charge on the plates is kept constant, then the potential difference is reduced across the capacitor plates. In this way, dielectric increases the capacitance of the capacitor.So, option A,C,D is wrong .

Q169. Two capacitors C1 (12 F) and C2 (24 F) are connected in series across a 36 V supply. The charge stored on each of them will be:

• A. 288 C, 288 C✓
• B. 4770 C, 4770 C
• C. 5810 C, 6610 C
• D. 7170 C, 8140 C

Explanation: In series, charge remains same. This cancels option C and D.To calculate Total capacitance:1/C = 1/12 + 1/24 C=8FC=Q/V8 x 36= 288COption A is therefore the correct answer.

Q170. In an npn transistor, the current that flows in the emitter circuit is:

• A. IC + IB✓
• B. IC - IB
• C. IC x IB
• D. Zero

Explanation: The emitter current (IE) in an NPN transistor is the sum of the collector current (IC) and the base current (IB). This is because the emitter is the source of charge carriers that flow to the collector and base. Therefore, option A, IC + IB, correctly represents this relationship. Option B incorrectly suggests subtraction, option C incorrectly suggests multiplication, and option D incorrectly suggests the emitter current is zero, which is not possible when IC and IB are present.

Q171. In photodiodes, the bias voltage is applied in _ bias form.

• A. Forward
• B. Resistance
• C. Reverse✓
• D. Converse

Explanation: The photodiode is reverse biased for operating in the photoconductive mode. As the photodiode is in reverse bias the width of the depletion layer increases. This reduces the junction capacitance and thereby the response time. In effect, the reverse bias causes faster response times for the photodiode.

Q172. In capacitors, energy is stored in the form of:

• A. Gravitational energy
• B. Kinetic energy
• C. Electric intensity✓
• D. Magnetic induction

Explanation: In capacitors, energy is stored in the form of electric potential energy or electric intensity while in an inductor it is stored in the form of magnetic field.

Q173. Velocity of sound in air is 332m/s. Velocity of sound in vacuum would be:

• A. More than 332m/s
• B. Less than 332m/s.
• C. 332m/s
• D. Zero✓

Explanation: Sound waves are longitudinal waves and they need a medium to travel. Thus, they cannot travel in vaccum.

Q174. If a wave can be polarized, it means, it is:

• A. Longitudinal wave
• B. Stationary wave
• C. Superimposed wave
• D. Transverse wave✓

Explanation: Only transverse waves can be polarised. Longitudinal waves cannot be polarised.Transverse: vibrations perpendicular to the direction of travel of the wave.Longitudinal: vibrations parallel to the direction of travel of the wave.Sound waves are longitudinal so they cannot be polarised.Polarised: the wave vibrations occur in one plane onlyUnpolarised: the wave vibrations occur in all planes perpendicular to the direction of travel.The reason that only transverse waves can be polarised is that their vibrations can potentially occur in all directions perpendicular to the direction of travel. It is therefore possible to confine the vibrations to a single plane. Or put another way an unpolarised transverse wave is a 3D shape, it is therefore possible to confine it to a 2D shape (a plane). The vibrations of a longitudinal wave occur along a single line, it is therefore not possible to confine that to a plane, i.e. a 1D shape cannot be confined within a 2D shape. Similarly, Stationary waves and superimposed waves can not be polarised as they are along a single line.VIDEO EXPLANATION

Q175. Astronomers calculate the speed of distant stars moving away from us using:

• A. Beats
• B. Interference
• C. Superposition principle
• D. Doppler effect✓

Explanation: If a star is moving toward us, its light wavelength get shorter, producing a blueshift. If a star is moving away, its light waves get stretched out to longer, redder, wavelengths, producing a redshift. The faster the star, the greater this shift, so observers can measure the line-of-sight speed from the Doppler shift.

Q176. The wavelength associated with electrons is equal to that of:

• A. Visible spectrum
• B. X rays✓
• C. Radio waves
• D. Infrared waves

Explanation: We know that X-rays are produced due to transition of electron from higher shell yo lower shell , producing continuous and characteristic X rays So the photon produced by electron is actually X ray , so wavelength produced is actually associated with X rays.

Q177. How many types of modulations are possible with sinusoidal carrier?

• A. Only one
• B. Two
• C. Three✓
• D. Four

Explanation: The carrier signal is a sine wave at the carrier frequency. The sine wave has three characteristics that can be altered. The term that may be varied is the carrier voltage Ec, the carrier frequency FC, and the carrier phase angle θ. So three forms of modulations are possible.

Q178. Select a method which causes the oxidation of chemical constituent of a bacterial cell:

• A. Steam
• B. Dry heat✓
• C. Filtration
• D. Radiation

Explanation: Dry heat helps kill the organisms using the destructive oxidation method. This helps destroy large contaminating bio-molecules such as proteins. The essential cell constituents are destroyed and the organism dies. The temperature is maintained for almost an hour to kill the most difficult of the resistant spores.

Q179. The bacteria can cope in unfavorable condition by producing:

• A. Mesosomes
• B. Zygospores
• C. Endospores✓
• D. Hyphae

Explanation: Numerous strategies exist in bacteria to cope with stressful conditions including the formation of endospores. An endospore is a dormant, tough, non-reproductive structure produced by a small number of bacteria from the Firmicute family. The primary function of most endospores is to ensure the survival of a bacterium through periods of environmental stress.

Q180. Rod-shaped bacteria are known as

• A. Spirilla
• B. Bacilli✓
• C. Spirochete
• D. Cocci

Explanation: Bacilli are rod shaped bacteria. Cocci are spherical shaped bacteria. Spirillas are corkscrew shaped bacteria. Spirochetes are any group of spiral shaped bacteria.

Q181. In a cross section, each centriole consists of nine triplets of:

• A. Microfilaments
• B. Microvilli
• C. Microtubules✓
• D. Intermediate filaments

Explanation: In a cross section, each centriole appears as a ring of nine triplets of microtubules. The microtubules in the triplets are arranged in a clockwise or counterclockwise direction. The triplets are connected to each other by proteins, and they form a rigid structure that is essential for the function of the centriole.

Q182. The finger like infoldings which are formed by inner membrane of mitochondria are called:

• A. Matrix
• B. Porin
• C. Cristae✓
• D. Ribosomes

Explanation: Cristae are essential features of mitochondria, as they provide an increased surface area for the electron transport chain, where ATP synthesis occurs. The other options are incorrect because the matrix refers to the inner fluid, porins are associated with the outer membrane and not the inner structure, and ribosomes, while present in mitochondria, do not pertain to the structure of infoldings in membranes.

Q183. Which of the following proteins is present in microtubules?

• A. Tubulin✓
• B. Myosin
• C. Actin
• D. Tropomyosin

Explanation: Tubulin is the primary protein that constitutes microtubules, playing a critical role in their structure and function. Myosin, actin, and tropomyosin are proteins associated with muscle contraction and microfilaments, not microtubules. Specifically, actin forms microfilaments, and tropomyosin is involved in regulating the interaction of actin and myosin in muscle cells.

Q184. Which of the following diseases is sexually transmitted?

• A. Tuberculosis
• B. AIDS✓
• C. Dengue fever
• D. Cholera

Explanation: Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a chronic, potentially life-threatening condition caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). By damaging your immune system, HIV interferes with your body's ability to fight infection and disease. You can get HIV from contact with infected blood, semen, or vaginal fluids. Most people get the virus by having unprotected sex with someone who has HIV. Another common way of getting it is by sharing drug needles with someone who is infected with HIV. Hence, Option B is correct.Tuberculosis is caused by bacteria that spread from person to person through microscopic droplets released into the air. This can happen when someone with the untreated, active form of tuberculosis coughs, speaks, sneezes, spits, laughs, or sings. Hence, Option A is incorrect. When a mosquito bites a person infected with a dengue virus, the virus enters the mosquito. Then, when the infected mosquito bites another person, the virus enters that person's bloodstream and causes an infection. Hence, Option C is incorrect. A person can get cholera by drinking water or eating food contaminated with cholera bacteria. In an epidemic, the source of the contamination is usually the feces of an infected person that contaminates water or food. Hence, Option D is incorrect.

Q185. Leaves of _ are used to cure cough and cold in horses.

• A. Glycyrrhiza glabra
• B. Cassia alata
• C. Bamboo✓
• D. Both bamboo and Glycyrrhiza glabra

Explanation: Bambusa (Bamboo) are used as building material for the thatching huts, making boats, carts, pipes etc. and the split stem are woven into mats, baskets, fans, hats, course umbrella. Leaves are also given to horses as a cure of cough and cold etc. Certain grasses yield aromatic oils, e.g. Cymbopogon citratus (lemon grass) which yield lemon grass oils used in perfumes and soap industry and for making infusions. Some species of the grasses are used in making papers.

Q186. Such inflorescence in which the main axis is elongated and bears sessile flowers is called:

• A. Raceme
• B. Spike✓
• C. Cyme
• D. Panicle

Explanation: The inflorescence in which the main axis is elongated and bears sessile flowers is called a spike. In a spike, the flowers are arranged in an acropetal manner, which means that the lowermost flowers mature first and the upper ones mature later. The flowers are directly attached to the main axis without any pedicels or stalks. Examples of plants with spike inflorescence include wheat, rye, and barley.

Q187. Three of the following statements about enzymes are correct and one is wrong. Which one is wrong?

• A. Enzymes require optimum pH for maximal activity
• B. Enzymes are denatured at high temperatures but in certain exceptional organisms, they are effective even at temperatures 80° – 90°C
• C. Enzymes are highly specific
• D. Most enzymes are proteins, but some are lipids✓

Explanation: This statement is incorrect. Enzymes are primarily proteins. While there are some RNA molecules with catalytic activity known as ribozymes, enzymes composed of lipids are not common. The majority of enzymes are indeed proteins. Therefore, the wrong statement is D. Enzymes are predominantly proteins, and the presence of lipid-based enzymes is not a common characteristic.

Q188. Which of the following shows Planck's quantum theory

• A. E= hcv
• B. E= c/v
• C. E= cv
• D. None of these✓

Explanation: Planck's quantum theory is fundamentally characterized by the equation E = hv, where E is the energy of a photon, h is Planck's constant, and v is the frequency of the electromagnetic wave. The other options provided do not reflect this relationship accurately:Option A: E= hcv - This option incorrectly includes both the speed of light (c) and a frequency (v) in a manner that does not adhere to Planck's equation.Option B: E= c/v - This suggests an inverse relationship between energy and frequency, which is contrary to the principles of quantum mechanics.Option C: E= cv - This option omits the essential Planck's constant (h), making it an incorrect representation of energy in quantum theory.Therefore, the correct response is Option D: None of these, as none of the given equations accurately express Planck's quantum theory.

Q189. If energy of activated complex is close to energy of reactants, it means that the reaction is:

• A. Fast✓
• B. Moderate
• C. Slow
• D. Very slow

Explanation: If energy of activated complex is close to energy of reactant, then reaction is fast, and spontaneous. Activated state is the state when reactants gain sufficient energy to be converted into product hence, if energy of reactants is already close to the energy of activated complex, so they will not take time and energy to get converted to activated state. Thus, they will react spontaneously and fast.

Q190. According to the collision theory of bimolecular reactions in gas phase, minimum amount of energy is required for an effective collision is known as:

• A. Heat of reaction
• B. Rate of reaction
• C. Has no effect on the reaction
• D. Energy of activation✓

Explanation: The minimum energy required for an effective collision in a bimolecular gas-phase reaction is called the energy of activation.

Q191. If the temperature of the atmosphere is 30oC then which of the following will havehighest average speed

• A. O2
• B. H2✓
• C. Ne
• D. N2

Explanation: The average kinetic energy of gas molecules is directly proportional to the absolute temperature. At a given temperature, all gas molecules have the same average kinetic energy. However, kinetic energy is also given by the formula:KE = \frac{1}{2}mv^2where: * KE is the kinetic energy * m is the mass of the molecule * v is the speed of the moleculeSince the average kinetic energy is the same for all gases at a given temperature, molecules with smaller mass will have higher average speeds to compensate.The other options are wrong because their molar masses are significantly higher than that of hydrogen, meaning their average speeds will be lower at the same temperature.

Q192. Some substances are good conductor of electricity in both the solid and liquid states. These substances are generally

• A. ionic substances
• B. metallic substances✓
• C. molecular solids
• D. covalent network solids

Explanation: Metals are generally good conductors of electricity in both the solid and liquid states. This is because metals have a unique structure where electrons are delocalized and can move freely throughout the material. This "sea of electrons" allows for the conduction of electricity.

Q193. The frequency of second pendulum is:

• A. 1 hertz
• B. 2 hertz
• C. 0.5 hertz✓
• D. None

Explanation: The frequency (f) of a pendulum can be calculated using the formula:f=1/Twhere f is the frequency andT is the time-period.So, f= ½= 0.5hz

Q194. Total pressure on 1 m x 1 m gate immersed vertically at a depth of 2 m below the free water surface will be:

• A. 1000 kg
• B. 2000kg✓
• C. 4000kg
• D. 8000 kg

Explanation: The total pressure on a vertical gate submerged in water can be calculated using the hydrostatic pressure formula:P=ρ⋅g⋅h⋅AThe total pressure is given by the product of pressure and area:Total Pressure=P⋅ATo convert Newtons to kilograms (1 kg = 9.8 N), we divide by 9.8:Total pressure= 19600N/9.8N/kgTotal Pressure≈2000kg

Q195. When a beam of light traveling in a rare medium is reflected from a denser medium it:

• A. Suffers no phase change.
• B. Undergoes a phase change of 1800.✓
• C. Undergoes a phase change of 2700.
• D. Undergoes a phase change of 900.

Explanation: When light traveling in a rare (less dense) medium is reflected from a denser medium, the reflected light undergoes a phase change of 180 degrees. This is due to the change in the refractive index between the two media.

Q196. Two water pipes of diameters 4 cm and 8 cm are connected to a supply line. The velocity of flow of water in the pipe 4 cm diameter is:

• A. ¼ times
• B. 4 times✓
• C. Twice
• D. ½ of 8 cm diameter pipe

Explanation: The velocity of flow of water in a pipe is inversely proportional to the square of its diameter, according to the principle of continuity.Mathematically, the equation is:v1​/v2​=(d22​/d12​)

Q197. The density of water in F.P.S system is

• A. 50lb/ft2
• B. 50ft/lb
• C. 50ft/lb3
• D. 50lb/ft3✓

Explanation: In the F.P.S. (Foot-Pound-Second) system, the density of water is commonly expressed in pounds per cubic foot (lb/ft3).

Q198. A car engine is based on the principle of:

• A. Bernoulli’s equation
• B. Ventura relation
• C. Torricelli’s theorem
• D. None✓

Explanation: The car engine operates based on the principles of thermodynamics and internal combustion, and it is not directly based on Bernoulli's equation, Venturi effect, or Torricelli's theorem. The combustion of fuel and air mixture in the engine cylinders generates power that drives the vehicle. This process involves concepts such as the Otto cycle (for spark-ignition engines) or the Diesel cycle (for compression-ignition engines), which are part of the broader field of thermodynamics.

Q199. In case of streamed lined flow of liquid the loss of energy is:

• A. Maximum
• B. Minimum✓
• C. Infinite
• D. Equal to what is in turbulent flow.

Explanation: In the case of streamlined (laminar) flow of liquid, the loss of energy is typically at a minimum. This is because streamlined flow is characterized by smooth and orderly movement of fluid particles in parallel layers, resulting in lower frictional losses compared to turbulent flow.