Fmdc 2023 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. The word 'RELUCTANT' means:

• A. Hesitatant✓
• B. Current
• C. Remarkable
• D. Rude

Explanation: The correct answer is A: Hesitant."Reluctant" is an adjective that describes someone who is: 1. Unwilling to do something 2. Hesitant or slow to act 3. Unenthusiastic or lacking eagerness

Q2. The synonym of "Apparel" is:

• A. Dubious
• B. Disguise
• C. Dress✓
• D. Apron

Explanation: Apparel: A covering designed to be worn on a person's body.Hence, "dress" is the most suitable option.

Q3. The antonym of " Endeavour" is:

• A. Inaction✓
• B. Inexact
• C. Effort
• D. Eat

Explanation: "Endeavour" means to make an effort or attempt to achieve something, while "Inaction" means the absence of action or effort.

Q4. What is the antonym of ''zealous''?

• A. Unenthusiastic✓
• B. Religious
• C. Contagious
• D. Fanatic

Explanation: "Zealous" means showing great enthusiasm or passion for something, so the opposite would be "Unenthusiastic", which means lacking enthusiasm.

Q5. Fill in the blank with appropriate article as required.It is _ honor for me to address you.

• A. A
• B. An✓
• C. The
• D. No article required

Explanation: The sentence requires the indefinite article "an" before "honor", since honor is pronounced with a vowel alphabet i.e., "o".

Q6. Fill in the blank with appropriate preposition.He was sitting next _ her.

• A. With
• B. By
• C. To✓
• D. At

Explanation: "Next to" is the correct prepositional phrase to indicate the position of someone sitting beside another person.

Q7. Fill in the blank with appropriate preposition.Each article was sold _ over a pound.

• A. Out
• B. At✓
• C. Off
• D. In

Explanation: In this context, "at" is used to indicate the price at which each article was sold, which is "over a pound."

Q8. What does the word "ANCESTOR" mean?

• A. Collection of stars
• B. Branch of astrology
• C. Forefathers✓
• D. Type of receptors

Explanation: A person who was in someone's family in past times. Therefore, "forefathers" is the most suitable option.

Q9. The word 'BASHFUL' means:

• A. Brimful
• B. Skillful
• C. Embarrassed✓
• D. Rude

Explanation: The correct answer is C: Embarrassed because "Bashful" is an adjective that describes someone who feels shy, modest, or embarrassed, often due to feelings of self-consciousness or awkwardness.

Q10. Pick the correct option:

• A. Seven students results are still awaited.
• B. Seven student’s results are still awaited.
• C. 'Seven students’ results are still awaited.✓
• D. Seven student results are still awaited.

Explanation: "Students’" is the correct possessive form of "students," showing that the results belong to multiple students. The apostrophe after "s" correctly indicates plural possession.

Q11. Pick the correct option.

• A. No star is brighter than the moon.✓
• B. No star is more bright than the moon.
• C. No star is brighter then the moon.
• D. No star is brighter than moon.

Explanation: Option A is correct because it follows proper comparative structure: "No [noun] is brighter than [another noun]." It clearly states that the moon’s brightness exceeds that of any star.

Q12. Choose the sentence with correct punctuation:

• A. However, it didn't take long for others to jump on board.✓
• B. However it didn't take long for others to jump on board.
• C. However, it didn't take long for others to jump on board?
• D. However. It didn't take long for others to jump on board.

Explanation: The correct option is: "However, it didn't take long for others to jump on board." A comma is necessary after the introductory word "However" to create a pause and connect it properly to the main clause.

Q13. The town _ its appearance completely since 1980.

• A. Is changing
• B. Changes
• C. Has changed✓
• D. Changes

Explanation: The correct option is C. "Has changed." This option uses the present perfect tense to indicate an action that started in the past (1980) and has continued to affect the present.

Q14. By next March, we _ here for four years.

• A. Would had been
• B. Would have lived
• C. Shall have been living✓
• D. Shall live

Explanation: The phrase "shall have been living" represents the accurate construction of the future perfect continuous tense in the context of this sentence. This structure effectively conveys that the action of residing in a particular location will have been ongoing for a designated period (four years) by a specified future time frame (next March).

Q15. Fill in the blank with appropriate option:The students, accompanied by the teacher _ entering the museum..

• A. Is
• B. Has
• C. Are✓
• D. Have

Explanation: In this sentence, the subject is "students," which is a plural noun. Therefore, the verb should agree with the plural subject."Are" is the correct form of the verb for a plural subject in the present continuous tense.

Q16. She sings _ beautifully that everyone enjoys her performances.

• A. So✓
• B. Too
• C. Such
• D. Very

Explanation: After evaluating the options, we can see that the correct word is 'so,' as it is used as an intensifier before an adjective or adverb. The correct sentence then reads, 'She sings so beautifully that everyone enjoys her performances.

Q17. Fill in the blank with appropriate option:I _ before 10 p.m.

• A. Shall have sleeped
• B. Shall have slept✓
• C. Will have sleep
• D. Shall have been slept

Explanation: Shall have slept" is the correct future perfect tense construction for this sentence.

Q18. Non protein but inorganic detachable co-factor is called:

• A. Activator✓
• B. Prosthetic group
• C. Co-enzyme
• D. Apoenzyme

Explanation: Activator is non-protein, but inorganic, detachable co-factor. Activator includes metal ions such as Mg2+ and Fe2+.

Q19. The Lock and Key Model for enzyme action proposed by Emil Fischer suggests that:

• A. Enzymes are unbiased for the substrate.
• B. Enzymes can modify their active sites.
• C. Enzymes are restricted to one reaction type.✓
• D. An enzyme can catalyze a variety of reactions.

Explanation: Emil Fischer (1890) proposed a Lock and Key model to visualize substrate and enzyme interaction. According to this model, as one specific key can open only a specific lock, in the same manner, a specific enzyme can transform only one substrate into products(s). According to the Lock and Key Model, the active site is a rigid structure. There is no modification or flexibility in the active site before, during, or after the enzyme action, and it is used only as a template. Later studies did not support this model in all reactions.

Q20. Enzymes work by lowering the _ of the reactions they catalyze.

• A. Kinetic energy
• B. Heat energy
• C. Activation energy✓
• D. Potential energy

Explanation: An enzyme binds to its specific substrate at its active site and facilitates the conversion of substrates into products. By lowering the activation energy, enzymes make it easier for reactions to occur. The incorrect options reflect common misconceptions:Kinetic energy: This refers to the energy of motion and does not relate directly to the role of enzymes in catalyzing reactions.Heat energy: While temperature can influence reaction rates, it is the activation energy that enzymes lower, not the heat energy.Potential energy: Though potential energy relates to the energy stored in molecules, enzymes do not directly lower potential energy; they lower activation energy, which is crucial for the reaction's initiation.Thus, activation energy is the correct answer as it directly correlates with the function of enzymes in biochemical reactions.

Q21. The frequency of a mutant gene in a population would be likely to increase if:

• A. The genes were selectively advantageous.✓
• B. The genes were dominant.
• C. The genes were sex-linked.
• D. The population increased.

Explanation: The correct answer is that the frequency of a mutant gene in a population is likely to increase if the gene is selectively advantageous. Such genes confer benefits that enhance an organism's survival or reproductive success, leading to a higher likelihood of being passed on to future generations. This natural selection process causes the gene's frequency to increase over time.Option B is incorrect because dominance does not inherently affect a gene's frequency. Option C is incorrect because the sex-linkage of a gene does not influence its frequency increase. Option D is incorrect because population size alone does not impact gene frequency; it is the selective advantage of the gene that plays a key role.

Q22. Which statement is not correct for the Darwin's theory of natural selection?

• A. "Survival in the struggle for existence is random"✓
• B. The fit individuals leave more off springs into their environment
• C. The unequal ability of individuals to survive and reproduce will lead to a gradual
• D. Accumulation over the generations thus leading to the evolution of a new species

Explanation: Survival in the struggle for existence is random: This statement is not correct for Darwin's theory of natural selection. Darwin's theory suggests that survival in the struggle for existence is not random but rather depends on the individuals' fitness and adaptability to their environment.

Q23. A general formula is derived by one of the following scientist for calculating the frequencies of alleles and genotypes in population at equilibrium:

• A. Linnaeus
• B. Lamarck
• C. Darwin
• D. Hardy Weinberg✓

Explanation: The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is a fundamental concept in population genetics, and it provides a formula for calculating the frequencies of alleles and genotypes in a population when certain conditions are met. It was developed by G. H. Hardy and Wilhelm Weinberg.

Q24. When humans purposefully apply selection pressure to populations, the process is known as:

• A. Natural selection
• B. Evolution
• C. Genetic drift
• D. Artificial selection✓

Explanation: When humans purposefully apply selection pressure to populations, such as in breeding programs for plants or animals, it is known as artificial selection. Humans choose which individuals to breed based on desirable traits, which can lead to changes in the population over time.Artificial selection, or selective breeding, is the process where humans intentionally breed plants and animals for specific, desirable traits. It works by repeatedly choosing parent organisms with desired characteristics to reproduce, which leads to the offspring inheriting those traits. This has resulted in the development of domesticated animals and crop varieties with features like higher yields or specific appearances.

Q25. Which may NOT be a possible action of interferons?

• A. Belongs to cytokines
• B. Activate natural killer cells
• C. Activate immune cells
• D. Secrete interleukin✓

Explanation: This statement is not accurate. Interferons do not secrete interleukin. Instead, interleukins are another group of cytokines produced by various immune cells.

Q26. Which Proteolytic enzyme is NOT secreted in inactive form?

• A. Chymotrypsin
• B. Pepsin
• C. Trypsin
• D. Erypsin✓

Explanation: Pepsin is an enzyme that is secreted in an inactive form known as pepsinogen. It becomes active when exposed to the acidic environment of the stomach.Trypsin is secreted in inactive form trypsinogen and is activated by enterokinase.Chymotrypsin is secreted in inactive form chymotrypsinogen and is activated by enterokinase.However, erypsin is not secreted in inactive form.

Q27. In the human heart, the left atrium receives:

• A. The superior vena cava
• B. Aorta
• C. The inferior vena cava
• D. The four pulmonary veins✓

Explanation: The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the four pulmonary veins (right/left superior and inferior). Blood enters via openings called ostia above the mitral valve.

Q28. Regarding structure of the human heart, Chordae tendinae are present in:

• A. Atria
• B. Pulmonary valve
• C. Ventricles✓
• D. Aortic valve

Explanation: Chordae tendineae (or simply chordae) are fibrous cords or tendons that are present in the heart to anchor the atrioventricular (AV) valves (specifically, the tricuspid and bicuspid/mitral valves) to the papillary muscles located in the ventricles. This prevents the valves from inverting into the atria when the ventricles contract and helps in maintaining proper valve function. Therefore, the correct location for chordae tendineae is Ventricles

Q29. In the human gut, chylomicrons are formed by the combination of:

• A. Proteins and carbohydrates
• B. Fats and proteins✓
• C. Fats and carbohydrates
• D. Vitamins and fats

Explanation: 'Chylomicrons' are a type of lipoprotein. As the name suggests, lipo- means lipids and proteins. Chylomicrons are large triglyceride-rich lipoproteins, produced in enterocytes, from dietary lipids—namely, fatty acids and cholesterol. Chylomicrons are composed of a main central lipid core that consists primarily of triglycerides; however, like other lipoproteins, they carry esterified cholesterol and phospholipids.

Q30. The pathways of water transport in which water moves through plasmodesmata is:

• A. Apoplast
• B. Symplast✓
• C. Vacuolar
• D. Ascent of sap

Explanation: In plant cells, water can move from one cell to another through plasmodesmata, which are microscopic channels that connect plant cells. This movement of water through plasmodesmata is part of the symplastic pathway.

Q31. In which phase of bacterial growth,do they divide at an exponential rate?

• A. Lag phase
• B. Log phase✓
• C. Stationary Phase
• D. Decline phase

Explanation: The log phase, also known as the exponential phase, is the stage of bacterial growth where the cells divide at an exponential rate. During this phase, the bacterial population doubles at a constant rate, resulting in a rapid increase in cells number.Characteristics of the log phase:- Exponential growth rate- Cells divide at a constant rate- Maximum growth rate- Nutrients are abundant

Q32. The unique macromolecule in the bacterial cell wall is:

• A. Polysaccharides
• B. Proteins
• C. Peptidoglycan✓
• D. Cholesterol

Explanation: Bacterial cell walls are primarily composed of peptidoglycan, which is a unique macromolecule consisting of both sugars (polysaccharides) and amino acids. This gives bacterial cell walls their rigidity and shape.

Q33. Function of pilus in bacteria is to:

• A. Increase pathogenicity of bacteria
• B. Degrade host plasma membrane
• C. Degrade host enzymes
• D. Exchange of genetic material✓

Explanation: Pili (singular: pilus) arehair-like appendages found on the surface of some bacterial cells. One of the primary functions of pili is to facilitate the exchange of genetic material between bacterial cells, a process known as bacterial conjugation.Role of pili in bacterial conjugation- Pili act as a bridge between two bacterial cells, allowing for direct cell-to-cell contact.- The pilus of one bacterium attaches to a receptor on the surface of another bacterium.- The attached bacteria then form a conjugation bridge, allowing for the transfer of genetic material, such as plasmids.

Q34. Which of the following is absent from membrane of prokaryotes?

• A. Glycolipid
• B. Cholesterol✓
• C. Glycoprotein
• D. Phospholipid

Explanation: Cholesterol is a component of eukaryotic cell membranes and is typically absent in prokaryotic cell membranes, such as those of bacteria.

Q35. Which of the following is NOT the function of lysosomes?

• A. Intracellular digestion
• B. Autophagy
• C. Autolysis
• D. Processing of cell secretions✓

Explanation: Lysosomes are primarily responsible for intracellular digestion, autophagy (breaking down cellular components), and autolysis (self-destruction of damaged cells). They are not involved in processing cell secretions.

Q36. Peripheral parts of cell are often like a:

• A. Sol
• B. Gel✓
• C. Colloidal
• D. True solution

Explanation: The outer region of the cytoplasm, called the ectoplasm, is more gel-like than the inner cytoplasm, giving the cell structural support and helping maintain its shape.

Q37. The membrane separating the vacuole from cytoplasm is called:

• A. Cristae
• B. Tonoplast✓
• C. Cisternae
• D. Vacuolar membrane

Explanation: The correct answer is tonoplast, which is the specialized membrane surrounding the vacuole in plant cells. It plays an essential role in maintaining turgor pressure and regulating the exchange of materials between the vacuole and the cytoplasm. The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:Cristae: These are the inner membrane folds of mitochondria and are not related to vacuoles.Cisternae: This term describes the membranes of the endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus, not vacuoles.Vacuolar membrane: While often used colloquially, this term lacks the specificity of 'tonoplast,' which is the accepted scientific terminology.

Q38. Which part of plasma membrane controls the fluidity of the membrane:

• A. Glycoprotein
• B. Carrier protein
• C. Lipid✓
• D. Carbohydrates

Explanation: The fluidity of the plasma membrane is primarily controlled by the composition and arrangement of lipids, specifically phospholipids. The lipid bilayer forms the basic structure of the membrane and determines its fluidity.

Q39. The junction between the axon ending of a neuron and the dendrites of another neuron is called:

• A. Synapse✓
• B. Nissl's body
• C. Neuroglia
• D. Myelin sheath

Explanation: The junction between the axon terminal of one neuron and the dendrites of another neuron is known as a synapse. It is where the transmission of signals (neurotransmission) occurs.

Q40. Which body function is controlled through a positive feedback mechanism?

• A. Labor contractions✓
• B. Body temperature
• C. Insulin production
• D. Thyroxine release

Explanation: A feedback mechanism is a loop system wherein the system responds to a perturbation. The response may be in the same direction (as in positive feedback) or in the opposite direction (as in negative feedback). An example of positive feedback is uterine contractions during childbirth. The hormone oxytocin, made by the endocrine system, stimulates the contraction of the uterus. This produces the pain sensed by the nervous system. In response, more oxytocin is released, which in turn stimulates the contractions even more. This loop of the 'pain induced from contractions stimulating the release of oxytocin, and oxytocin stimulating more contraction continues with increasing intensity' still the fetus is born. This is a positive feedback loop; hence, Option A is correct.

Q41. Hormone released during child birth and in nursing women is:

• A. Estrogen
• B. Progesterone
• C. Calcitonin
• D. Oxytocin✓

Explanation: Oxytocin is the hormone released during childbirth and lactation (nursing). It plays a crucial role in uterine contractions during labor and milk ejection during breastfeeding.

Q42. During the non-conducting state, the neuron membrane is permeable to the efflux of:

• A. K+✓
• B. Na+
• C. Ca+
• D. Cl-

Explanation: During the non-conducting state (resting state) of a neuron, the neuronal membrane is primarily permeable to the efflux of potassium ions (K⁺). This permeability is due to the presence of potassium channels that allow K⁺ to flow out of the cell, contributing to the resting membrane potential, which is typically around -70 mV. The efflux of K⁺ ions occurs because of their higher concentration inside the neuron compared to the outside, leading to a net outward movement and a negative charge inside the neuron.

Q43. GABA is an example of:

• A. Enzyme
• B. Inhibitory neurotransmitter✓
• C. Excitatory neurotransmitter
• D. Hormone

Explanation: GABA (Gamma-Aminobutyric Acid) is an inhibitory neurotransmitter. It functions to inhibit or reduce the activity of neurons, helping to control and balance neural excitability in the brain and nervous system.

Q44. What is the fate of neurotransmitters after provoking an impulse in the postsynaptic membrane?

• A. Stay in the synaptic cleft indefinitely
• B. Recycled in the synaptic cleft
• C. Degraded by enzyme✓
• D. Taken up by the postsynaptic membrane

Explanation: After transmitting the nerve impulse, the neurotransmitters are degraded by enzymes. For example, acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.

Q45. Negative feedback mechanism is the characteristic of which class?

• A. Class Fish
• B. Class Amphibian
• C. Class Reptilia
• D. Class Mammalia✓

Explanation: Negative feedback mechanisms are a characteristic of Class Mammalia. A negative feedback mechanism is a regulatory process where the response to a stimulus reduces or stops the stimulus, maintaining stability or homeostasis. This mechanism works by counteracting a change to return a system to its set point, similar to how a thermostat turns off the furnace once the room reaches the desired temperature. Examples include the body regulating blood glucose, body temperature, and the secretion of hormones.

Q46. Which of the following is TRUE about Amoebae?

• A. They have flagella
• B. They are multicellular
• C. They do not cause any disease in humans
• D. They move by forming specialized cytoplasmic projections called pseudopodia✓

Explanation: Amoeba moves from one place to another using their cytoplasmic processes and by the process of pseudopodia. Amoeba are single-celled (unicellular organisms), not possessing flagella (as shown in the diagram below). They can cause various diseases in humans such as amoebiasis, which is a form of dysentery

Q47. Select an anamniote from the following:-

• A. Snake
• B. Parrot
• C. Frog✓
• D. Crocodile

Explanation: Anamniotes are animals that do not have an amnion, a membrane that surrounds the embryo during development. Anamniotes are typically found in aquatic environments and lay eggs with a soft, permeable shell.Characteristics of anamniotes- Lay eggs with a soft, permeable shell- Do not have an amnion- Typically found in aquatic environments- Include fish, amphibians, and some invertebratesAll other animals have hard shells and are egg-laying animals, called as amniotes.

Q48. Multicellular, heterotrophic nutrition, cell walls are never present in their cells, which kingdom do these organisms belong to?

• A. Kingdom Protista
• B. Kingdom Fungi
• C. Kingdom Plantae
• D. Kingdom Animalia✓

Explanation: Organisms with multicellular structures, heterotrophic nutrition, and the absence of cell walls in their cells belong to the Kingdom Animalia.

Q49. Select a regulatory enzyme:

• A. Urease
• B. Hexokinase✓
• C. Maltase
• D. Sucrase

Explanation: Hexokinase is a regulatory enzyme in various metabolic pathways, including glycolysis. It helps regulate glucose metabolism by catalyzing the phosphorylation of glucose.

Q50. Many enzymes are secreted in inactive form to protect:

• A. Mitochondria
• B. Cell DNA
• C. Cell membrane✓
• D. Vacuole

Explanation: Enzymes are often secreted in an inactive form to protect the cell membrane from premature enzyme activity, preventing damage to the cell or surrounding tissues.

Q51. Mesosomes are the invaginations of which bacterial cell structure?

• A. Cell Wall
• B. Cell Membrane✓
• C. Plasmid
• D. Cysts

Explanation: Mesosomes were once thought to be infoldings of the plasma membrane found in some bacteria, particularly Gram-positive species, and were believed to play roles in cell division, respiration, DNA replication, and nutrient absorption by increasing the surface area of the cell membrane. They were hypothesized to help anchor the cell division machinery, contain respiratory enzymes, and assist in organizing the bacterial chromosome during replication. However, subsequent research has demonstrated that mesosomes are artifacts resulting from chemical fixation techniques used during electron microscopy sample preparation. Therefore, they are not considered part of the natural structure of bacterial cells.

Q52. Follicle Stimulating hormones (FSH) is secreted by:

• A. Ovary
• B. Pituitary gland✓
• C. Adrenal gland
• D. Testes

Explanation: Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH) is secreted by the pituitary gland. It plays a crucial role in the regulation of the reproductive system, stimulating the development of ovarian follicles in females and sperm production in males.

Q53. Which is NOT a function of testosterone?

• A. Inhibition of ICHS
• B. Sperm production
• C. Inhibition of FSH
• D. Limit spermatogenesis✓

Explanation: Testosterone's primary functions include promoting sperm production and regulating hormones such as FSH. It significantly stimulates spermatogenesis, which is the process of sperm cell formation. The other options either describe roles that testosterone does not primarily serve or misrepresent its functions. For instance, while testosterone can influence FSH levels, it is not the hormone that primarily inhibits it; that role belongs to inhibin. Additionally, testosterone is essential for sperm production, making the statement about limiting spermatogenesis the only false option in this context.

Q54. In human males, inhibin hormone is produced by:

• A. Leyding cells
• B. Hensen's node cells
• C. Sertoli cells✓
• D. Interstitial cells

Explanation: Inhibin hormone is produced by Sertoli cells in human males. Inhibin inhibits the secretion of FSH from the pituitary gland, helping to regulate sperm production.

Q55. Which function is NOT directly performed by ovaries?

• A. Progesterone production
• B. Estrogen production
• C. Ovulation
• D. HCG production✓

Explanation: Ovaries do not directly produce HCG (Human Chorionic Gonadotropin). HCG is produced by the placenta during pregnancy. Ovaries primarily produce estrogen ,progesterone and androgens(testosterone)

Q56. During menstrual cycle, after the female gamete is released from the ovary at ovulation, the remains of the follicle (Corpus Luteum) secretes:

• A. Progesterone✓
• B. FSH
• C. LH
• D. Testosterone

Explanation: The Corpus Luteum is responsible for producing and secreting progesterone, which helps prepare the uterine lining for potential implantation of a fertilized egg.

Q57. A condition in which a joint becomes swollen, painful, and immovable is called:

• A. Spondylosis
• B. Arthritis✓
• C. Sciatica
• D. Rickets

Explanation: A condition in which a joint becomes swollen, painful, and immovable is called Arthritis. Arthritis is a medical condition characterized by joint inflammation, pain, and limited mobility.

Q58. Which feature is possessed by smooth muscles?

• A. Multinucleate cells
• B. Contractile sarcomeres
• C. Uninucleate cells✓
• D. Striated appearance

Explanation: Smooth muscle cells typically have a single nucleus and lack the striated appearance seen in skeletal muscle.

Q59. The cells found in the lacunae of the bone are called:

• A. Chondrocytes
• B. Osteoblasts
• C. Osteoclasts
• D. Osteocytes✓

Explanation: An osteocyte, a cell that lies within the substance of fully formed bone. It occupies a small chamber called a lacuna, which is contained in the calcified matrix of bone. Osteocytes derive from osteoblasts, or bone-forming cells, and are essentially osteoblasts surrounded by the products they have secreted.

Q60. What do we call the cell surface membrane of a muscle fibre?

• A. Sarcolemma✓
• B. Plasma membrane
• C. Sarcoplasm
• D. Myofibrils

Explanation: The correct answer is Sarcolemma. The sarcolemma is the specialized cell membrane that surrounds a muscle fiber. It is crucial for communication between the nervous system and the muscle fiber, allowing the initiation of muscle contraction through electrical signal transmission. The term 'sarco-' denotes its association with muscle cells, differentiating it from the general plasma membrane found in all cell types. Option B, the 'Plasma membrane', refers to the cell membrane in general terms and does not specify its role in muscle cells. Option C, 'Sarcoplasm', is the cytoplasmic content of the muscle cell, not the membrane. Finally, Option D, 'Myofibrils', are the internal structures responsible for contraction, unrelated to the cell's surface membrane.

Q61. It is an event that Occurs during meiosis-1, when chromatids of two chromosomes break and rejoin so that a part of one chromatid swaps places with the same part of the other:

• A. Crossing over✓
• B. Autosomal linkage
• C. Chiasmata
• D. Gene mutation

Explanation: Crossing over is a process during meiosis I in which genetic material is exchanged between homologous chromosomes.

Q62. A change in the structure of a DNA molecule, producing a different allele of a gene, is a:

• A. Chromosome mutation
• B. Gene mutation✓
• C. Chromosomal aberrations
• D. Recombination

Explanation: A gene mutation involves alterations in the DNA sequence, leading to changes in the gene's expression.

Q63. Which of the following example of human inheritance is explained by multiple alleles on an autosomal chromosome?

• A. The ABO blood group system✓
• B. Cystic firbrosis
• C. Down's syndrome
• D. Haemophilia

Explanation: The ABO blood group system is controlled by multiple alleles on autosomal chromosomes, resulting in different blood types.

Q64. Phenotype is:

• A. The genetic component i.e. the genes in an individual for a particular trait
• B. Partner of gene pair
• C. The form of appearance of a trait✓
• D. The position of a gene on the chromosome

Explanation: A phenotype is an individual's observable traits, such as height, eye color, and blood type.

Q65. When a hemophilia carrier woman marries a normal man, who among her offspring may be affected:

• A. All her children
• B. Half of her daughters
• C. All her daughters
• D. Half of her sons✓

Explanation: Here it shows that 25% of her children will be affected and 50% of her sons so the answer is D.

Q66. The particular array of chromosomes that an individual possesses is called its

• A. Genotype
• B. Phenotype
• C. Karyotype✓
• D. Allele

Explanation: A karyotype is an individual's complete set of chromosomes. The term also refers to a laboratory-produced image of a person's chromosomes isolated from an individual cell and arranged in numerical order.

Q67. Which of the following is not related to enveloped viruses?

• A. They survive for a short time.
• B. They are tolerant to antibodies.✓
• C. Their envelope is sensitive to sunlight.
• D. Envelope is derived from host..

Explanation: Enveloped viruses are less resistant to antibodies or disinfectants and can be easily destroyed. The envelope is derived from the host and is sensitive to sunlight. They survive for a short time.

Q68. Choose the organism which requires a single cellular gene to encode the protein making up the organism:

• A. Viroid
• B. Prions✓
• C. Virus
• D. Virion

Explanation: Prions are infectious proteins that do not have genetic material and are composed of a misfolded host protein.

Q69. _ is transmitted through infected blood and hypodermic syringes.

• A. HIV✓
• B. Influenza virus
• C. Morbilli virus (Measles)
• D. Vibrio Cholerae (Cholera)

Explanation: HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) is primarily transmitted through several key routes. The most common mode of transmission is through unprotected sexual contact with an infected individual, where the virus can enter the body through mucous membranes. Additionally, sharing needles or syringes among intravenous drug users poses a significant risk, as it allows for direct blood-to-blood contact. HIV can also be transmitted from an infected mother to her child during childbirth or breastfeeding, highlighting the importance of preventive measures for pregnant women living with HIV. Lastly, although less common, transmission can occur through blood transfusions or organ transplants from an infected donor, particularly in areas where blood screening is inadequate. Understanding these transmission routes is crucial for implementing effective prevention strategies to reduce the spread of HIV.

Q70. _ infection is caused by a viroid:

• A. Hepatitis A
• B. Hepatitis D✓
• C. Mad Cow disease
• D. Mysterious brain infection

Explanation: Hepatitis D (delta hepatitis) is caused by the hepatitis D virus (HDV), which is a unique RNA pathogen often classified with viroids because it is a small, circular RNA agent that requites hepatitis B virus for its replication and expression.

Q71. The final acceptor of both electrons & protons during light reactions of photosynthesis is:

• A. Pq
• B. Pc
• C. Fd
• D. NADP+✓

Explanation: NADP+ (Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate) is the final electron and proton acceptor during the light reactions of photosynthesis.

Q72. The end product in anaerobic respiration is:

• A. Ethanol and Carbon dioxide
• B. Lactate
• C. Pyruvate
• D. Both A and B✓

Explanation: The end products of anaerobic respiration depend on the specific type of anaerobic process involved. There are two main types of anaerobic respiration: lactic acid fermentation and alcoholic fermentation. In lactic acid fermentation, the end product is lactic acid.This process occurs in various microorganisms and in muscle cells during strenuous exercise when oxygen is not available in sufficient amounts to support aerobic respiration. The overall reaction is:Glucose → 2 Lactic Acid + Energy (in the form of ATP) In alcoholic fermentation, the end products are ethanol and carbon dioxide. This process is commonly carried out by yeast and some bacteria in the absence of oxygen.The overall reaction is:Glucose → 2 Ethanol + 2 Carbon Dioxide + Energy (in the form of ATP).

Q73. End product of Calvin cycle is:

• A. 3 phosphoglycerate
• B. 1-3 biphosphoglycerate
• C. Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate✓
• D. Glucose

Explanation: The Calvin cycle, part of photosynthesis, generates G3P (glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate) from three carbon dioxide molecules using ATP and NADPH. It produces six G3P molecules, one of which is used to form carbohydrates like glucose, while five regenerate RuBP to keep the cycle going.

Q74. The second most abundant bio element in the human body is:

• A. Oxygen
• B. Carbon✓
• C. Hydrogen
• D. Nitrogen

Explanation: Carbon is the second most abundant element in the human body, accounting for 18% of body weight. Oxygen is the most abundant, constituting about 61- 65% of the mass of the human body.

Q75. The basic structural framework of all types of membranes is:

• A. Phospholipids
• B. Glycoproteins
• C. Lipoproteins✓
• D. Nucleoproteins

Explanation: Lipoproteins formed by the combination of lipids and proteins serve as the basic structural framework of all types of membranes in the cells.

Q76. Three hydrophobic fatty acid tails and a glycerol molecule join to form a _.

• A. Monoglyceride
• B. Diglyceride
• C. Triglyceride✓
• D. Phospholipids

Explanation: Esterification of alcohol with fatty acid results in the formation of acylglycerol, also called glyceride.When three fatty acids are involved in forming an ester bond with glycerol, a triglyceride is formed.

Q77. The sugar which is part of ribonucleic acid is:

• A. Ribulose
• B. Ribose✓
• C. Deoxyribulose
• D. Deoxyribose

Explanation: RNA contains ribose as its sugar, which is why it’s called ribonucleic acid. Ribose forms part of each nucleotide and helps build the backbone of the RNA molecule.

Q78. Which of the following process is involved in breakdown of protein into Amino acids?

• A. Condensation
• B. Hydrolysis✓
• C. Glycolysis
• D. Fixation

Explanation: Hydrolysis is a chemical reaction where water is used to break down a compound, resulting in the separation of the compound into its constituent parts.

Q79. Fibrous proteins do not take part in:

• A. Blood clotting
• B. Formation of nails
• C. Muscle contraction
• D. Oxygen transport in blood✓

Explanation: Fibrous proteins like fibrinogen are involved in blood clotting, actin and myosin are involved in muscle contraction and keratin is involved in formation of nails.However, heamoglobin, which is involved in transport of oxygen in blood, is a globular protein.

Q80. Outer membrane of mitochondria and chloroplasts resembles each other as both are:

• A. Freely permeable to large molecules
• B. Freely permeable to small molecules✓
• C. Impermeable
• D. Semipermeable

Explanation: Both the outer membranes of mitochondria and chloroplasts are relatively permeable to small molecules, allowing some selective passage of molecules.

Q81. In mitochondria ATP synthase is located on its:

• A. Outer Membrane
• B. Inter membrane space
• C. Inner membrane✓
• D. Matrix

Explanation: ATP synthase is located in the inner mitochondrial membrane and plays a key role in ATP production during oxidative phosphorylation.

Q82. A metal reacts vigorously with cold water melting in to a ball of molten metal moves across the surface of water giving of Hydrogen gas and burns wni yellowish golden flame. What could be the identity of this metal?

• A. Potassium
• B. Sodium✓
• C. Lithium
• D. Calcium

Explanation: Sodium is known to react vigorously with water, producing hydrogen gas and a characteristic yellowish-golden flame.

Q83. Among alkali metals which element reacts slowly with H2O?

• A. Na
• B. K
• C. Rb
• D. Li✓

Explanation: Lithium is the alkali metal that reacts the slowest with water among the options given. It reacts less vigorously compared to sodium and potassium.

Q84. Which element has smaller shielding effect among the following?

• A. Mg✓
• B. Ca
• C. Rb
• D. Sr

Explanation: Magneisum has the smallest shielding effect in the given elements, because as you move alonga group(from top to bottom in the periodic table), the number of shells increases and effective nuclear charge decreases, leading to weaker attraction of electrons.

Q85. In transition elements number of unpaired electrons increase upto group number:

• A. III B & IV B
• B. 1 B and 2 B
• C. IV B and III B
• D. VB and VI B✓

Explanation: In the transition elements (transition metals), the number of unpaired electrons increases up to Group 6B, and then it decreases onwards.

Q86. The binding energy of transitional elements weakens progressively upto group:

• A. IIIB
• B. IV B
• C. IIB✓
• D. VB

Explanation: The binding energy of transitional elements weakens progressively up to Group IIB (Group 4) in the transition metals. As you move across a period, the atomic size decreases, resulting in weaker atomic bonding and, therefore, weaker binding energy.

Q87. Metamers differ from each other due to:

• A. Functional group
• B. Position of functional group
• C. Shifting of proton
• D. Distribution of carbon atoms around the functional group✓

Explanation: Metamers are a type of structural isomerism where molecules have the same molecular formula but differ in the distribution of carbon atoms around the functional group. In other words, the arrangement of carbon atoms relative to the functional group (such as -OH, -COOH, or others) varies among metamers, leading to distinct chemical properties while sharing the same molecular formula. So, the correct answer is the distribution of carbon atoms around the functional group.

Q88. Isomerism due to shifting of proton from one atom to another in a same molecule is known as:

• A. Metamerism
• B. Tautomerism✓
• C. Position
• D. Functional

Explanation: A tautomer of a compound refers to the isomer of the compound which only differs in the position of protons and electrons so, B is correct.In the rest of the options (A, C, and D), there is a difference in the positioning of whole atoms and not just protons, which is why these options are incorrect.

Q89. The type of isomerism existing in a compound of molecular formula C2H6O is:

• A. Functional group✓
• B. Position
• C. Chain
• D. Metamerism

Explanation: In a compound with the molecular formula C2H6O, which corresponds to ethanol (CH3CH2OH) as well as dimethyl ether ( CH3-O-CH3), the type of isomerism that exists is functional group isomerism. Following groups of organic compounds are functional group isomers of each other;1- Alcohols and ethers2- Aldehydes and ketones3- Carboxylic acids and esters.

Q90. Benzene is prepared in the laboratory from sodium benzoate in the presence of:

• A. Dil:NaOH
• B. Alc: KOH
• C. NaOH +Cao✓
• D. Na/Ether

Explanation: Benzene is prepared in the laboratory by the decarboxylation of sodium benzoate in the presence of sodium hydroxide and calcium oxide (a process called soda lime decarboxylation). In this reaction, sodium benzoate is heated with soda lime, resulting in the formation of benzene and sodium carbonate. The calcium oxide serves as a dehydrating agent, while sodium hydroxide facilitates the decarboxylation process.

Q91. Which of the following will not give substitution reaction?

• A. CH3 - CH3
• B. CH2 = CH2✓
• C. CH≡CH
• D. C6H6

Explanation: Out of the given options, CH2=CH2 represents ethene, which is an alkene. Alkenes do not typically undergo substitution reactions but rather addition reactions.

Q92. If both double and triple bonds are present then ending given to the root is:

• A. enyne✓
• B. ene
• C. упе
• D. ane

Explanation: When both double and triple bonds are present in a compound, the ending "-enyne" is used. So, the compound is referred to as an enyne.

Q93. Which compound is least reactive?

• A. Ethane✓
• B. Ethene
• C. Benzene
• D. Ethyne

Explanation: Ethane is an alkane and is relatively unreactive due to its single C-C and C-H bonds. It primarily undergoes reactions like combustion and free radical halogenation, but it does not readily participate in addition reactions.

Q94. The correct order of reactivity of hydrocarbons is:

• A. Alkanes > Alkynes > Alkenes
• B. Alkenes > Alkanes > Alkynes
• C. Alkynes > Alkenes > Alkanes
• D. Alkenes > Alkynes > Alkanes✓

Explanation: Alkenes are generally more reactive than alkanes, and alkynes are typically the most reactive among hydrocarbons due to the presence of double and triple bonds. The general decreasing reactivity order of alkanes, alkenes and alkynes is as follows:Alkenes > Alkynes > Alkanes

Q95. The function of NaOH in Adol condensation & Cannizaro's reaction respectively is:

• A. Nucleophile and electrophile
• B. Base and nucleophile✓
• C. Electrophile and nucleophile
• D. Nucleophile and base

Explanation: In the Aldol condensation, NaOH acts as a base by accepting a proton, and in the Cannizaro's reaction, it acts as a nucleophile by donating a pair of electrons to a carbonyl compound. So, it serves as both a base and a nucleophile in these reactions.

Q96. Which of the following is not true for increase in synthesis of ammonia by Haber's process?N2 +3H2 - 2NH3 ( Д =-92.5)

• A. Low temperature
• B. High pressure
• C. Continuous removal of NH3
• D. Continuous addition of NH3✓

Explanation: In the Haber's process, ammonia is synthesized from nitrogen and hydrogen gases. To maximize the yield of ammonia, it's important to maintain low temperature, high pressure, and continuously remove the formed ammonia (Le Chatelier's principle). Continuous addition of NH3 would counteract the process's goal, so it is not true for increasing ammonia synthesis.

Q97. What is not true about the Le -Chatelier's principle?

• A. Allow to predict the change in concentration on system at equilibrium
• B. Allow to predict the change in reaction rate on system at equilibrium✓
• C. Allow to predict the change in pressure on system at equilibrium
• D. Allow to predict the change in temperature on system at equilibrium

Explanation: Le Chatelier's principle helps predict the effect of changes in concentration, temperature, and pressure on a system at equilibrium. However, it doesn't predict the actual change in pressure itself; rather, it explains how pressure changes can affect equilibrium.

Q98. The equation N (g) + 3H (g) ⇋ 2NH (g) represents:

• A. Contact process
• B. Haber process✓
• C. Solvay’s process
• D. Haber process

Explanation: The reaction combines nitrogen and hydrogen to form ammonia (NH₃). This industrial method is specifically known as the Haber’s process. It is different from the Contact process (for H₂SO₄) and Solvay process (for Na₂CO₃).

Q99. The rate constant "R" in the rate equation is the rate of reaction when n concentration of each of the reactant is:

• A. 1M✓
• B. 2M
• C. 3M
• D. 4M

Explanation: The rate constant "R" in a rate equation represents the rate of reaction when the concentration of each reactant is 1M (molar). It gives the specific rate of reaction at that concentration.

Q100. The rate of reaction:

• A. Increases as the reaction proceeds
• B. Decreases as the reaction proceeds✓
• C. Remains unchanged
• D. None of these

Explanation: The correct answer is that the rate of reaction decreases as the reaction proceeds. This is due to the reduction in reactant concentrations as they are converted into products. Since reaction rate is dependent on the concentration of reactants, a decrease in these concentrations leads to a decrease in the rate. Option A is incorrect because it suggests the rate increases, which contradicts the typical behavior of reactions. Option C is incorrect because it suggests the rate remains unchanged, which is not the case as the reaction typically slows down. Option D is incorrect as Option B provides the correct description.

Q101. For exothermic reactions AH°i s written as:

• A. Zero
• B. Positive
• C. Negative✓
• D. Constant

Explanation: In an exothermic reaction, heat is released, so the enthalpy change (ΔH°) is negative.

Q102. Which of the following information we obtain from the Lattice energy?

• A. It helps while explaining the structure of the ionic compound✓
• B. It explains bonding in the covalent compound
• C. It explains properties of the metallic compound
• D. It explains the structure of the molecular compound

Explanation: Lattice energy is a measure of the strength of the ionic bonds in an ionic compound's crystal lattice. It provides information about the stability and structure of the ionic compound.

Q103. In the reaction,Cr2O72- + 14 H+-> 2 Cr3++7H2OHow many electrons are gained or lost by chromium atom?

• A. +12 e
• B. +3 e-✓
• C. +6 e
• D. -6 e-

Explanation: In this reaction, each Cr atom goes from a +6 oxidation state (in Cr2O72-) to a +3 oxidation state (in Cr3+). So, each atom get 3 electrons.

Q104. In peroxides, the oxidation number of oxygen is:

• A. -1✓
• B. 2
• C. -2
• D. 1

Explanation: In peroxides, the oxidation number of oxygen is -1. This is due to the peroxide ion (O2²⁻), where two oxygen atoms are bonded together, sharing a -2 charge, which results in each oxygen having an oxidation state of -1. For example, in hydrogen peroxide (H2O2), the oxidation number of each oxygen atom is -1, balancing the +1 oxidation state of the hydrogen atoms.Options B (2) and D (1) are incorrect because oxygen typically does not have a positive oxidation state in compounds due to its high electronegativity. Option C (-2) is incorrect in the context of peroxides, as this is the oxidation number for oxygen in most other compounds but not in peroxides.

Q105. Which of the following will have positive electron affinity?

• A. Addition of electron to (CI)
• B. Addition of electron to (C|*)
• C. Addition of electron to (O)
• D. Addition of electron to (O-1)✓

Explanation: Electron affinity is the energy change associated with adding an electron to a neutral atom to form a negative ion. Oxygen (O) typically has a positive electron affinity because it releases energy when an electron is added to form an O- ion.

Q106. Which of the following molecule has sp2 hybridization?

• A. NH3
• B. BF3✓
• C. H2O
• D. BeCl2

Explanation: In BF3 Boron (B) forms three sigma bonds with three fluorine (F) atoms. It utilizes one s and two p orbitals for bonding, resulting in sp2 hybridization around boron.

Q107. Which of the following has small size?

• A. Mg
• B. S✓
• C. P
• D. Na

Explanation: The correct answer is sulfur (S) because it has the smallest atomic radius among the given options. This is due to its position in Period 3, where it experiences a higher effective nuclear charge compared to magnesium (Mg), phosphorus (P), and sodium (Na), all of which have larger atomic sizes. Magnesium has a larger radius because it has an additional electron shell compared to sulfur, while phosphorus is larger than sulfur as it is to the left in the periodic table and has fewer protons, resulting in less nuclear charge. Sodium also has a larger radius for similar reasons, being further left in the periodic table and having more electron shells than sulfur.

Q108. The melting point of sulphur is higher than that of phosphorous because:

• A. Sulphur has strong vander waal forces✓
• B. Sulphur has weak vander waal forces
• C. Phosphorous has strong vander waals forces
• D. None of these.

Explanation: Sulfur molecules have a larger number of electrons compared to phosphorus, leading to stronger van der Waals forces, which result in a higher melting point.

Q109. Alkyl halides involving -C-X bond breakage and -C-Nu bond formation simultaneously would follow the mechanism:

• A. SN1
• B. SN2✓
• C. E1
• D. E2

Explanation: The SN2 reaction is a type of reaction mechanism that is common in organic chemistry. In this mechanism, one bond is broken and one bond is formed simultaneously, i.e. in one step. It is a bimolecular reaction because the attacking Nucleophile and the leaving group are both involved in the rate-determining step.

Q110. 50% inversion of configuration and 50% retention of configuration observed is characteristics of mechanism:

• A. E2
• B. E1
• C. SN2
• D. SN1✓

Explanation: SN1 reactions exhibit a characteristic of 50% inversion and 50% retention of configuration due to the backside attack of the nucleophile.

Q111. When O-H bond breaks in alcohol, the order of reactivity is

• A. Primary alcohol >secondary alcohol >tertiary alcohol
• B. Methyl alcohol >primary alcohol > secondary alcohol > tertiary alcohol✓
• C. Primary alcohol < secondary alcohol < tertiary alcohol
• D. Ethanol > primary alcohol > secondary alcohol > tertiary alcohol

Explanation: Option B is correct since the order of reactivity of alcohols when the O-H bond breaks are methyl alcohol(greatest degree of cleavage) --- primary alcohol---secondary alcohol and tertiary alcohol (lowest degree of cleavage) due to the greater electron-donating effect of three alkyl groups rather than one. Option A is incorrect since it does not talk about the methyl alcohol. Option C is incorrect since it states the order of reactivity in the reverse order. Option D is incorrect since it mentions ethanol which can be included in primary alcohol rather than methanol.

Q112. The following functional group is the result of oxidation of alcohol:

• A. Ketone / aldehyde✓
• B. Aldehyde / alkane
• C. Ketone / alkane
• D. Aldehyde / acid

Explanation: When a primary alcohol is oxidized, it forms an aldehyde; when a secondary alcohol is oxidized, it forms a ketone. Tertiary alcohols generally do not oxidize under mild conditions. Thus, oxidation of alcohol gives ketones or aldehydes depending on the type of alcohol.

Q113. The relative acidic strength of phenol, water, alcohol &carboxylic acid is:

• A. -СООН > H2O > C6H5OH > -OH
• B. -СООН >СеН5Он > H2O > -OH✓
• C. -СООН > -О Н > С6H5OH > H2O
• D. -СООН > Н2O> -ОН > C6H5OH

Explanation: Carboxylic acids are the most acidic, followed by phenols, water, and alcohols

Q114. Aldehydes cannot be easily oxidized by:

• A. K2Cr2O7
• B. H2SO4
• C. KMnO4
• D. HCI✓

Explanation: Aldehydes are not easily oxidized by hydrochloric acid (HCl), as it's not a effective oxidizing agent for aldehydes.

Q115. Aldehydes do not give which identification test:

• A. 2.4 - DNPH test
• B. Tollen's Test
• C. Sodium Nitro Prusside Test✓
• D. Fehling's Solution

Explanation: Aldehydes typically do not react with sodium nitroprusside, which is a test for the detection of ketones.

Q116. The hydrate percentage is maximum for:

• A. Propanal
• B. Acetone
• C. Formaldehyde✓
• D. Acetaldehyde

Explanation: Formaldehyde can readily form hydrates due to its small size and ability to engage in hydrogen bonding.

Q117. When carboxylic acids are heated with alcohol in the presence of concentrated H2SO4, the conversion of functional group takes place from:

• A. Carboxyl to carbonyl group
• B. Carboxyl group to an ester group✓
• C. Carbonyl to carboxyl group
• D. Carboxyl to hydroxyl group

Explanation: This reaction is known as Fischer esterification, where the carboxyl group (-COOH) of a carboxylic acid reacts with an alcohol to form an ester (-COO-).

Q118. Thionyl chloride reacts with acetic acid resulting in transformation of Carboxylic group to:

• A. Acetamide
• B. Acid halide✓
• C. Alcohol
• D. Ester

Explanation: Thionyl chloride (SOCl2) reacts with carboxylic acids to form acid chlorides (RCOCl), also known as acid halides.

Q119. Reactivity of carboxyl group is due to presence of:

• A. Hydroxyl group
• B. Terminal hydrogen
• C. Carbonyl group✓
• D. Alkyl group

Explanation: The reactivity of carboxylic acids is primarily due to the presence of the carbonyl group (C=O) and the acidic hydrogen on the hydroxyl group (-OH).

Q120. The two functional groups present in all amino acids are:

• A. Carboxvlic acid and amino✓
• B. Amino and aldehyde
• C. Ether and carboxylic acid
• D. Aldehyde and carboxylic acid

Explanation: Amino acids always contain a carboxylic acid (-COOH) group and an amino (-NH2) group

Q121. Enzyme is a natural substance that

• A. Increase rate of chemical reaction✓
• B. decrease rate of chemical reaction
• C. has no effect on chemical reaction
• D. Stops chemical reaction

Explanation: Enzyme increases the rate of a chemical reaction by decreasing activation energy of reaction.

Q122. Number of H2O molecules in 10 g of ice are:

• A. 3.34 x 1023✓
• B. 0.331 × 1023
• C. 33.1 x 1023
• D. 10

Explanation: This is based on the concept of Avogadro's number, which states that 1 mole of any substance contains approximately 6.02 x 1023 molecules. So, 10 g of ice (H2O) contains roughly 3.34 x 1023 molecules.

Q123. The efficiency of chemical reaction can be expressed as:

• A. Theoretical yield
• B. Actual yield
• C. % yield✓
• D. Maximum yield

Explanation: % yield is typically referred to as percentage yield. This is determined by dividing the number of moles of the product obtained by the number of moles of the 'limiting' reactant (the one present in the smallest amount), then multiplying by 100.

Q124. 1 mole of any substance contains _ particles:

• A. 6.02 x 1023✓
• B. 6.02 x 1024
• C. 6.02 x 1022
• D. 3.01 x 1023

Explanation: 1 mole of any substance contains Avogadro's number of particles which is 6.02 x 1023.

Q125. Which of the following orbital wil be filled first than 4p?

• A. 4s
• B. 2p
• C. 3d✓
• D. 1s

Explanation: In the Aufbau principle, electrons fill the lowest energy orbitals first. So, the 3d orbital will be filled before the 4p orbital.The energy order is ; 1s,2s,2p,3s,3p,4s,3d,4p.

Q126. If value of azimuthal quantum number is 1 then value of m will range from:

• A. -1 to 1✓
• B. -1 to 2
• C. -1 to 3
• D. -1 to 4

Explanation: When the azimuthal quantum number (l) is 1, the magnetic quantum number (m) can take on values ranging from -1 to 1. This corresponds to the three p orbitals (px, py, pz), each with its own value of m.

Q127. 10 pascal is equal to:

• A. 0.000098 atm✓
• B. 1.98 atm
• C. 10.019 koa
• D. 4.014 psi

Explanation: 1 Pascal (Pa) is approximately equal to 0.00000987 atmospheres (atm).

Q128. The dumbbell like orbitals can move in how many directions?

• A. 7
• B. 5
• C. 1
• D. 3✓

Explanation: Dumbbell-like orbitals, such as p orbitals, can move in three directions corresponding to the x, y, and z axes.

Q129. The relationship between quantum number n and I is :

• A. n=L1
• B. I=n-2
• C. I= n-1✓
• D. n = 1-2

Explanation: The relationship between the principal quantum number (n) and the azimuthal quantum number (l) is l = n - 1.

Q130. Intermolecular forces between molecules of ideal g a s are:

• A. Very strong
• B. Very weak
• C. Zero✓
• D. Moderately strong

Explanation: Ideal gases are assumed to have no intermolecular forces between their molecules.

Q131. The real gases show deviation from ideal behaviour at:

• A. Low temperature and low pressure
• B. High temperature and high pressure
• C. Low temperature and high pressure✓
• D. High temperature and low pressure

Explanation: Deviation from ideal gas behavior occurs primarily under high pressure and low temperature conditions. At high pressures, gas molecules are forced closer together, making the volume of the gas significantly less than predicted by the ideal gas law due to the finite volume of the molecules and intermolecular interactions. Conversely, at low temperatures, the kinetic energy of gas molecules decreases, enhancing the influence of intermolecular forces, which can lead to condensation into liquids. These factors highlight that real gases do not always follow the ideal gas law, especially near their boiling points or under conditions close to liquefaction, necessitating more complex equations of state, such as the van der Waals equation, to better describe their behavior.

Q132. Which of the following has the lowest vapour pressure at 20 degrees Centigrade?

• A. Diethyl ether
• B. Chloroform
• C. Carbon tetrachloride
• D. Water✓

Explanation: The boiling point of a substance is a measure of the strength of the intermolecular forces between the molecules of the substance. The stronger the intermolecular forces, the higher the boiling point. Water has strong hydrogen bonding interactions between the molecules, which is why it has the highest boiling point.The vapor pressure of a substance is the pressure exerted by the vapor of the substance above the liquid. The lower the vapor pressure, the less likely the molecules of the substance are to evaporate. Water has a low vapor pressure at 20 degrees Centigrade because the strong intermolecular forces make it difficult for the molecules to escape from the liquid.The other three substances, diethyl ether, chloroform, and carbon tetrachloride, have weaker intermolecular forces than water. This is why they have lower boiling points and higher vapor pressures at 20 degrees Centigrade.Therefore, water has the lowest vapor pressure at 20 degrees Celsius among the substances provided.

Q133. The force of attraction among H2 molecules in solid H2 are:

• A. Hydrogen bonds
• B. Covalent bonds
• C. Co-ordinate covalent bonds
• D. Van Der Waal's Force✓

Explanation: In solid H2, the force of attraction among H2 molecules is primarily due to Van der Waals forces.

Q134. Which of the following molecules are soft and have weak intermolecular forces?

• A. H2O
• B. I2✓
• C. Sugar
• D. Graphite

Explanation: I2 is a molecular solid that is soft and has weak intermolecular forces. It exists as discrete I2 molecules held together by relatively weak Van der Waals interactions.

Q135. Which of the following solids have strong metallic bond?

• A. Potassium
• B. Phosphorus
• C. Calcium✓
• D. Sulphur

Explanation: Calcium (Ca) is a metal that forms a metallic solid. Metallic solids have strong metallic bonds, which involve the sharing of electrons among the atoms within the crystal lattice.

Q136. The relative permittivity of air (1 atm) is:

• A. 1
• B. 1.0006✓
• C. 22-25
• D. 2.284

Explanation: As air is a gas with a very low number of molecules that will be in between the plates of the capacitor. The relative permittivity for air is 1.0006. This is very low and can be rounded off to 1 for all practical purposes.

Q137. Equivalent capacitance is less than least value of capacitance in a combination in:

• A. Series✓
• B. Parallel
• C. Closed circuit
• D. Open circuit

Explanation: When capacitors are connected in series, the total capacitance is less than any one of the series capacitors' individual capacitances.

Q138. The magnitude of the force between two point charges is directly proportional to:

• A. Distance between point charges
• B. Square of distance between point charges
• C. Cube of distance between point charges
• D. Product of magnitude of charges✓

Explanation: According to Coulomb's law, the force of attraction or repulsion between two charged bodies is directly proportional to the product of their charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. It acts along the line joining the two charges considered to be point charges.

Q139. When dielectric is placed between the plates of a capacitor then capacitance will:

• A. Decrease
• B. Increase✓
• C. Becomes half
• D. Remains same

Explanation: If the total charge on the plates is kept constant, then the potential difference is reduced across the capacitor plates.

Q140. A charge of 90 C passes through a wire for 30 seconds. Then the current in the wire will be:

• A. З А✓
• B. 0.3 A
• C. 3 mA
• D. 0.3 mA

Explanation: Explanation is given as an image.

Q141. A magnitude of the current an metals is proportional to the applied voltage as long as temperature of conductor is kept constant. It is statement of

• A. Joule"s law
• B. Gauss's law
• C. Ohm's law✓
• D. Ampere"s law

Explanation: Ohm's law states that the current through a conductor between two points is directly proportional to the voltage across the two points as long as temperature of the conductor is kept constant.

Q142. When length of copper wire is doubled then resistivity becomes:

• A. Double
• B. Half
• C. Remains same✓
• D. Four times

Explanation: Resistivity of wire remains constant. As the length of wire gets doubled, the cross-sectional area will become half of its previous value because volume of wire remains constant

Q143. The resistance of semi-conductor with rise in temperature:

• A. Increases
• B. Decreases✓
• C. Remain same
• D. Infinite

Explanation: The electrons get excited and jump from the valance band into the conduction band and thereby increases conductance resulting in the decrease of resistance

Q144. A heating coil has a resistance of 10 ohm. It is designed to operate on 20V. What electric energy is supplied to heater in 10s?

• A. 100J
• B. 200J
• C. 300J
• D. 400J✓

Explanation: Explanation is given as an image.

Q145. The unit of resistivity is:

• A. ohm
• B. ohm meter✓
• C. ohm/meter
• D. meter/ohm

Explanation: The unit of resistivity is Ohm-meter.Resistivity=Resistance x area/lengthResistivity=Ohm x Meter2/MeterResistivity=Ohm-meter.

Q146. The unit of magnetic flux is:

• A. Tesla
• B. Weber✓
• C. Gauss
• D. Henry

Explanation: The unit of magnetic flux is the Weber (Wb).

Q147. Magnetic flux is the dot product of:

• A. Magnetic field and scalar area
• B. Magnetic field and vector area✓
• C. Magnetic field per unit scalar area
• D. Magnetic field per unit vector area

Explanation: The physical description of magnetic flux through a surface is the surface integral of the scalar product (dot product) of the magnetic field vector (B) and elementary area vector (dA).

Q148. The dimension of magnetic field is same as that of:

• A. Magnetic flux density✓
• B. Magnetic flux
• C. Magnetic force
• D. Work done

Explanation: The dimension of magnetic field (B) is the same as that of magnetic flux density (A) because both are measured in the unit Tesla (T) in the SI system.So, the answer is A. Magnetic flux density.

Q149. At what angle the curved path should be banked if a car is moving with a speed of 12 m/s at a radius 36m?

• A. 100
• B. 15°
• C. 20°
• D. 22°✓

Explanation: Explanation is given as an image.

Q150. A wave generator produces 500 pulses in 50s. Its frequency will be:

• A. 10 s-1✓
• B. 0.1 s-1
• C. 500 s-1
• D. 50 s-1

Explanation: Explanation is given as an image.

Q151. Amplitude in the following figure is given as:

• A. 1 m✓
• B. 2m
• C. 1/2 m
• D. 1/4 m

Explanation: Amplitude is maximum distance from mean position. In the given figure, the maximum position above the mean position is 1 m which is the amplitude.

Q152. Which is the correct 'ascending order' in which the following photons are arranged according to their energy?

• A. Microwaves, Ultraviolet rays, Gamma rays✓
• B. Gamma rays, Ultraviolet rays, Microwaves
• C. Gamma rays, Microwaves, Ultraviolet rays
• D. Ultraviolet rays, Gamma rays, Microwaves

Explanation: •Gamma rays have the highest energy among these options. They are associated with extremely high-frequency electromagnetic waves and are produced by nuclear reactions and radioactive decay.•Microwaves have lower energy than both gamma rays and microwaves. They are a type of radio wave with longer wavelengths and lower energy than gamma rays.•Ultraviolet rays have intermediate energy. They are part of the electromagnetic spectrum with shorter wavelengths than visible light and are often associated with effects like sunburn.So, the correct order from lowest to highest energy is microwaves, Ultraviolet rays, and Gamma rays (option A).

Q153. The Speed of sound in air is 332 ms* at 0°C. What will be its value at 10°C?

• A. 332 ms-1
• B. 338.1 ms-1✓
• C. 332.61 ms-1
• D. 33.4 ms-1

Explanation: As the temperature increases by 1°C the speed of sound increases by 0.6 ms-1. Now if temperature increases by 10°C then,Speed of sound at 0°C =332ms-1Speed of sound at 10°C =332+0.61×10=338.1ms-1

Q154. The number of revolutions per second of a body is known as:

• A. Linear frequency
• B. Angular frequency✓
• C. Time period
• D. Amplitude.

Explanation: Angular velocity ω=dθ/dt. Angular frequency, often known as radial or circular frequency, is a unit of time that measures angular displacement.

Q155. Which of the following factors does not affect the speed of sound in air?

• A. Density of gas
• B. Moisture in air
• C. Temperature
• D. Pressure of gas✓

Explanation: The factor that does not significantly affect the speed of sound in air (under normal conditions) is pressure of gas. Here's why:Temperature: The speed of sound in air is directly proportional to the square root of the absolute temperature. As temperature increases, the speed of sound increases. This is the most significant factor. Moisture in air (Humidity): Increased humidity slightly increases the speed of sound. This is because lighter water molecules replace some of the heavier nitrogen and oxygen molecules in the air, slightly decreasing the density.Density of gas: In general, the speed of sound is inversely proportional to the square root of the density of the medium. However, in an ideal gas, changes in pressure are accompanied by proportional changes in density, so the ratio of pressure to density remains constant at a given temperature. Therefore, pressure itself does not significantly affect the speed of sound in an ideal gas (like air under normal conditions).It's important to note that at extremely high pressures, the ideal gas law no longer holds, and pressure can have a more noticeable effect. However, for everyday conditions, the effect of pressure on the speed of sound in air is negligible. Therefore, the correct answer is Pressure of gas.

Q156. Time period of a vibrating body is independent of:

• A. Frequency
• B. Amplitude✓
• C. Wavelength
• D. Value of 'g'

Explanation: One characteristic of SHM is that the period of the vibration is independent of its amplitude

Q157. The relation between Cp and Cv is given as:

• A. Cp - Cv= R✓
• B. Cp+ Cv= R
• C. Cy -Cp= R
• D. R- Cv= Cp

Explanation: Taking into consideration a substance's ideal gas behaviour, the following link can be established: R is equal to Cp– Cv. In this equation, r denotes the universal gas constant. The ratio between CP and CV is the specific heat ratio, γ.

Q158. The equation of 1st Law of thermodynamics is:

• A. Q= ∆U+W
• B. ΔU= Q-W
• C. W= Q+ ∆U
• D. Q= W
• E. B and A✓

Explanation: The first law of thermodynamics is given as ΔU = Q – W or Q = ΔU + W, where ΔU is the change in internal energy of a system, Q is the net heat transfer (the sum of all heat transfer into and out of the system), and W is the net work done (the sum of all work done on or by the system).

Q159. The thermodynamics process during which the pressure is kept constant is called:

• A. Isochoric process
• B. Adiabatic process
• C. Isobaric process✓
• D. Isothermal process

Explanation: An isobaric process is a thermodynamic process in which pressure stays constant i.e ΔP=0.An isochoric process is a thermodynamic process during which the volume of the closed system undergoing such a process remains constant.An isothermal process is a change of a system, in which the temperature remains constant i.e. ΔT=0.

Q160. A one micro fared capacitor of a TV is subjected to 4000 V potential difference. The energy stored in capacitor is:

• A. 16
• B. 4x10-3 J
• C. 2×10-3 J
• D. 8 J✓

Explanation: Explanation is given as an image.

Q161. A particle carrying a charge 2 e falls through a P.D of 3 V. The energy acquired by it will be:

• A. 6 ev✓
• B. Tev
• C. 1.5 ev
• D. 5 ev

Explanation: Explanation is given as an image.

Q162. Due to polarization process of dielectric, the electric intensity:

• A. Increases
• B. Decreases✓
• C. Remains same
• D. Becomes zero

Explanation: The positive charges within the dielectric are displaced minutely in the direction of the electric field, and the negative charges are displaced minutely in the direction opposite to the electric field. This slight separation of charge, or polarization, reduces the electric field within the dielectric

Q163. The phenomenon in which a changing current in one coil induces an emf in another coil is:

• A. Self-induction
• B. Mutual induction✓
• C. Eddy current
• D. Choke

Explanation: When an emf is produced in a coil because of the change in current in a coupled coil, the effect is called mutual inductance

Q164. The induced current flow in such a direction so as to oppose the cause that produces it. The statement is:

• A. Ampere’s Law
• B. Faraday’s Law
• C. Lenz’s Law✓
• D. Joule’s Law

Explanation: Lenz's law, in electromagnetism, states that an induced electric current flows in a direction such that the current opposes the change that induced it.

Q165. The transformer depends on the use of:

• A. Direct current
• B. Alternating current✓
• C. Direct and alternating current
• D. Direct and alternating voltage

Explanation: Transformers only work for alternating current, because you need a changing magnetic field. The size of the induced voltage depends on the number of turns on each coil – if there are less in the secondary coil, the voltage falls, and if there are more in the secondary coil, the voltage rises.

Q166. The domestic electricity supply in Pakistan has a frequency of:

• A. 70 Hz
• B. 50 Hz✓
• C. 100 Hz
• D. 30 Hz

Explanation: Pakistan operates on a 230V supply voltage and 50Hz.

Q167. Transformer works on the principle of:

• A. Lenz's law
• B. Faraday's law
• C. Magnetic induction✓
• D. Ampere's law

Explanation: Magnetic induction, also known as electromagnetic induction, is the fundamental principle behind the operation of transformers. According to this principle, when the current in the primary coil of a transformer changes, it creates a changing magnetic field. This changing magnetic field induces a voltage in the secondary coil of the transformer, which results in the transfer of electrical energy between the primary and secondary coils.

Q168. The conversion of A.C into D.C is called rectification and circuit is called rectifier, Which component of electronics acts as a rectifier?

• A. Diode✓
• B. Transistor
• C. Transformer
• D. Inductor

Explanation: A diode is a semiconductor device that allows current to flow in one direction while blocking it in the opposite direction. This unidirectional behavior is essential in various applications, such as rectification, signal modulation, and voltage regulation.

Q169. The wavelength associated with an electron is of the order of:

• A. Visible light
• B. X rays✓
• C. Radio waves
• D. Infrared

Explanation: The correct answer is X-rays. Electrons, when moving at high speeds, such as in a hydrogen atom or in a particle accelerator, have wavelengths that fall within the X-ray region of the electromagnetic spectrum. This range is approximately 0.01 nm to 10 nm, which is much shorter than visible light, infrared, or radio waves. Visible light ranges from 400 nm to 700 nm, infrared from ~700 nm to 1 mm, and radio waves from 1 mm to 100 km, all of which are much longer than electron wavelengths.

Q170. Red light is used in photographic dark room because of:

• A. More frequency, less wavelength
• B. Less frequency, less wavelenght
• C. Less frequency, more wavelenght✓
• D. More frequency, more wavelength

Explanation: A fact that red light has a greater wavelength while wavelength and frequency are inversely proportional to each other hence, red light has a lesser frequency compared to other colors in the visible spectrum, making it suitable for use in a photographic darkroom.

Q171. The unit of radio activity is curie which is equal to:

• A. 3.7 x 1010 disintegration / s✓
• B. 3.7 disintegration / s
• C. 7.3 disintegration / S
• D. None

Explanation: As such, 1 Ci is equal to 37 billion (3.7 x 1010) disintegrations per second, so 1 Ci also equals 37 billion (3.7 x 1010) Bequerels (Bq). A curie is also a quantity of any radionuclide that decays at a rate of 37 billion disintegrations per second (1 gram of radium, for example).

Q172. Which X-ray photon will have the longest wavelength?

• A. K alpha
• B. K beta
• C. K gamma
• D. M series✓

Explanation: M X-ray photons will have the longest wavelength because they correspond to transitions involving lower energy differences compared to Kα, Kβ, and Kγ photons.

Q173. Which of following series lies in infra-red region?

• A. Lyman and Balmer
• B. Balmer and Paschen
• C. Paschen and Brakett✓
• D. Lyman and Pfund

Explanation: Lyman(ultraviolet)Balmer(visible)Paschen(infrared)Bracket(infrared)Pfund(infrared)

Q174. The rate of radioactive decay is directly proportional to the stability of the:

• A. Medium
• B. Atmosphere
• C. Isotope✓
• D. Half life

Explanation: For a given number of atoms, isotopes with shorter half-lives decay more rapidly, undergoing a greater number of radioactive decays per unit time than do isotopes with longer half-lives.

Q175. Skin burn, loss of hair, drop in white blood cell and induction of cancer are example of _ of radiation:

• A. Zener effect
• B. Biological effect
• C. Somatic effect✓
• D. Genetic effect

Explanation: These effects such as skin burn, loss of hair, drop in white blood cells, and induction of cancer are examples of the somatic effects of radiation. These effects are related to the impact of ionizing radiation on living tissues and organisms.

Q176. The car is speeding up along negative y axis then acceleration will be along:

• A. Positive x Axis
• B. Negative x Axis
• C. Positive y Axis
• D. Negative y Axis✓

Explanation: An object has a negative acceleration if an object is moving in a positive direction and slowing down, or moving in a negative direction and speeding up

Q177. Momentum is the product of mass and velocity then momentum and velocity are:

• A. Parallel✓
• B. Perpendicular
• C. Antiparallel
• D. Independent

Explanation: Momentum is defined as the product of mass and velocity (p = mv).1. Since mass is a scalar quantity, the momentum vector (p) will always have the same direction as the velocity vector (v).2. Therefore, momentum and velocity are parallel

Q178. Which of the pair of two projectiles projected at different angles have same ranges?

• A. (30°, 709)
• B. (40°, 50°)✓
• C. (35°, 40°)
• D. (45°, 40°)

Explanation: A. (30°, 70°) - Not complementary angles.B. (40°, 50°) - These angles are complementaryC. (35°, 40°) - Not complementary angles.D. (45°, 40°) - Not complementary angles.

Q179. The slope of velocity-time graph give us:

• A. Speed
• B. Velocity
• C. Acceleration✓
• D. Distance

Explanation: The slope of a velocity-time graph gives us acceleration.Here's why:Slope: In a graph, the slope is defined as the change in the vertical axis divided by the change in the horizontal axis (rise over run).Velocity-time graph: In this type of graph, the vertical axis represents velocity (v), and the horizontal axis represents time (t).Therefore, the slope of a velocity-time graph is:Slope = (Change in velocity) / (Change in time) = Δv / ΔtBy definition, the change in velocity over time is acceleration (a):a = Δv / ΔtThus, the slope of a velocity-time graph directly represents acceleration.

Q180. The time rate of change of linear momentum of a body is equal to:

• A. Force✓
• B. Momentum
• C. Power
• D. Acceleration

Explanation: The force is defined as the rate of change of momentum . Mathematically,F=∆P/t

Q181. At what angle of projection of a projectile the range becomes half of its maximum value?

• A. 15✓
• B. 20
• C. 30
• D. 40

Explanation: R=Vi2(sin 2θ)/gAt given condition:Maximum range= Rmax= vi2θ/g. For the maximum range, sin2θ=1 which is possible if we put the angle as 45 degrees but to get half of the maximum range we should take θ such that sin2θ is equal to 0.5. It is known that sin 30=0.5 so if we put θ as 15 we will get sin2(15)=sin 30=0.5.

Q182. According to work energy principle in linear motion, the work done on the body is equal to:

• A. Change in P. E
• B. Sum of P. E + K. E
• C. Change in K. E✓
• D. Zero

Explanation: According to the work-energy theorem, the work done on a system is equal to the change in kinetic energy of that body. That means, the amount of energy spent by the external agency is converted into the kinetic energy of that body. Therefore, it supports the law of conservation of energy

Q183. If a body of mass 'm' is accelerated on a smooth horizontal surface 'S' by a force 'F'. The work done F x S is converted into:

• A. Heat energy
• B. Kinetic energy✓
• C. Potential energy
• D. Electromagnetic energy

Explanation: When a force (F) is applied to a body of mass (m) on a smooth horizontal surface (S), the work done (F × S) is primarily converted into kinetic energy. This is because the work-energy theorem states that work done on an object is equal to the change in its kinetic energy. So, the correct answer is B. Kinetic energy.

Q184. One megawatt hour is equal to:

• A. 3.6 x 107 J
• B. 3.6 x 109 J✓
• C. 3.6 x 1012 J
• D. 3.6 x 1018 J

Explanation: Energy = Power x time = MWhr 1 MW = 1 x 106 W1 hr = 3600 seconds = 36 x 102 s1 MWhr = 1 x 106 x 36 x 1021 MWhr = 36 x 108 J 1 MWhr = 3.6 x 109 J

Q185. A motor boat is moving with velocity 4 ms. The net force acting on it is 4000 N. What will be the power of the engine of boat?

• A. 1000 W
• B. 160 W
• C. 16 W
• D. 16000 W✓

Explanation: Formula used in the question is Power= Force×Velocity

Q186. In angular motion, in one rotation there are:

• A. π radians
• B. 2π radians✓
• C. π/2 radians
• D. π/ 4 radians

Explanation: 1 revolution=2π radians

Q187. If a stone of mass 1 Kg is whirled in a horizontal circle (radius = 1 m ) with v = 1 m/s, then the period is:

• A. πradians
• B. 2π radians✓
• C. π/2 radians
• D. π/4 radians

Explanation: 1 revolution=360°=2π radians

Q188. The relation between linear and angular acceleration is:

• A. a = ra✓
• B. a=r/a
• C. a = r²a
• D. A= ra²

Explanation: a = r * αWhere:a is the linear acceleration (tangential acceleration) of a point on a rotating object.r is the radius from the axis of rotation to the point where the acceleration is measured.α is the angular acceleration, which represents how fast the angular velocity of the object is changing.So, the correct relation is A. a = ra.

Q189. Which photon carries the most energy?

• A. Blue
• B. Violet✓
• C. Red
• D. Green

Explanation: VIBGYORFrom left to right:Wavelength increases.Frequency decreases.Energy(hf) decreases ->-> so energy decreases from violet to red.Maximum energy is that of violet.

Q190. Observe the pattern and select the next term in sequence:

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C✓
• D. Option D

Explanation: To ensure the sequence is correct, there should be two rectangles between the triangles (∆).

Q191. Read the following and choose the correct answer:A man enters a room and finds a mirror. He looks at his shirt in the mirror and finds the following: ≤ WOIHA ≥. Another man enters the room and observes this man's shirt directly. Which of the following does he observe?

• A. ≥ WOIHA ≤
• B. ≤ AHIOW ≥✓
• C. ≤ WOIHA ≥
• D. ≥ AHIOW ≤

Explanation: To determine what the second man observes, we need to reverse the mirror image seen by the first man, as the mirror reverses the text.The mirror shows: ≤ WOIHA ≥Reversing this gives: AHOIWThe second man directly observes the shirt as: AHOIWCorrect answer: AHOIW

Q192. Read the passage and the following statements below. Then choose the correct option,basing your answer only on the information provided. Pakistan is rich in wildlife and culture. It is home to many sorts of wildlife,from the Ibex to the Indus River Dolphin ;and people from most countries in the world have made their home here. Statements :i. Pakistan is rich countryii. People from all nationalities of the world live in Pakistan.iii. Pakistan is home to at least one dolphin species.

• A. Only iii statement is correct✓
• B. Only i and ii are correct
• C. Only i and iii are correct
• D. Only ii and iii are correct

Explanation: Let's evaluate each statement based only on the passage:Statement i: "Pakistan is rich country" Incorrect. The passage says "Pakistan is rich in wildlife and culture", not in terms of wealth.Statement ii: "People from all nationalities of the world live in Pakistan." Incorrect. The passage says "people from most countries", not all nationalities.Statement iii: "Pakistan is home to at least one dolphin species." Correct. The passage specifically mentions the Indus River Dolphin, confirming this.Correct answer: Only statement iii is correct.

Q193. A ball is a sphere. All spheres are round. Some round things are mesmerizing.Which of the following conclusions is NECESSARILY TRUE?Conclusions:I. All balls are mesmerizing.II. All round things are spheres.III. Some mesmerizing things are spheres.

• A. III✓
• B. I and II
• C. Il and III
• D. I and III

Explanation: I. "All balls are mesmerizing" is not necessarily true. The statements provided do not establish a direct connection between all balls and being mesmerizing. So, this conclusion cannot be necessarily true.II. "All round things are spheres" is not necessarily true either. While it is true that all spheres are round, the statements do not provide enough information to conclude that all round things are spheres. There can be other objects that are round but not spherical.III. "Some mesmerizing things are spheres" is necessarily true. The statements establish that "Some round things are mesmerizing," and since all spheres are round (as stated in the first premise), it is necessarily true that some mesmerizing things are spheres.So, the correct conclusion is III, making option A the correct choice.

Q194. Verbal reasoningStatements(I) There is a sharp decline in the production of oilseeds this year.(II) The Government has decided to increase the import quantum of edible oil.

• A. Statement I is the cause and II is its effect✓
• B. Statement II is the cause and I is its effect
• C. Both statements are of independent causes
• D. Both statements are the effects of the independent causes

Explanation: Statement I is the cause and statement II is it’s effect because firstly there was a massive decline in the production of oilseeds due to which the government decided to import oil Thus only option A is correct

Q195. "Read the following statement, assuming everything in it to be true. Then decide which of the given suggested courses of action logically follow and are worth pursuing.Statement: Employees are arriving to work more than 5 minutes late every day.Courses of Action:I. Impose a strict penalty of half a day's pay every time someone is late.II. Apply a 15 minutes' buffer. Anyone who is late more than 2 times a month after this buffer period gets docked one day's pay."

• A. I
• B. II✓
• C. Both I and II
• D. Neither I nor Il

Explanation: Course of Action I: Impose a strict penalty of half a day's pay every time someone is late.This action may seem extreme and could lead to resentment among employees. It might also discourage a positive work environment. Instead of motivating employees to arrive on time, it could result in decreased morale and productivity. Therefore, this course of action does not logically follow and may not be worth pursuing.Course of Action II: Apply a 15 minutes' buffer. Anyone who is late more than 2 times a month after this buffer period gets docked one day's pay.This action provides a more reasonable approach by allowing a grace period for employees while still holding them accountable for repeated tardiness. Implementing a buffer can help accommodate unforeseen circumstances, and the penalty for exceeding the limit is structured to encourage punctuality without being overly harsh. This course of action logically follows and is worth pursuing.

Q196. A container with a porous wall has a mixture of H2, He, N2 and O2. Which of these gases will take maximum time in getting out of the container?

• A. H2
• B. He
• C. N2
• D. O2✓

Explanation: The rate of effusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molar mass, according to Graham's law of effusion. The formula for Graham's law is:So, the gas with the lowest molar mass will effuse the fastest. Let's compare the molar masses of the gases mentioned: H2: ~2 g/mol He: ~4 g/mol N2: ~28 g/mol O2: ~32 g/molSince O2 has the highest molar mass among the options, it will take the maximum time to effuse through the porous wall.

Q197. The value of for an unknown gas PV/nRT is equal to

• A. 0.082 L.atm.mol-1.K
• B. 0.082 L.atm.mol-1.K-1✓
• C. 0.82 L.atm.mol.K-1
• D. 0.82 L.atm.mol.K

Explanation: The ideal gas law is represented by the equation PV=nRT, where:P is the pressure of the gas,V is the volume of the gas,n is the number of moles of the gas,R is the ideal gas constant, andT is the temperature of the gas in Kelvin.The value of the ideal gas constant (R) depends on the units used for pressure, volume, and temperature. The correct value with units commonly used is 0.0821 L.atm.mol−1.K−1Therefore, the correct option is a.0.082L.atm.mol−1.K−1.

Q198. Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks a cell wall?

• A. Cyanobacteria
• B. Sea fan (Gorgonia)✓
• C. Saccharomyces
• D. Blue green algae

Explanation: Gorgonia (sea fan) is an animal belonging to phylum Coelenterata. All animals lack a cell wall. Gorgonia is a genus of soft corals, sea fans in the family Gorgoniidae.

Q199. The only copper containing protein involved during the light reactions of photosynthesis is

• A. Plastoquionone
• B. Cytochrome
• C. Ferridoxin
• D. Plastocyanin✓

Explanation: Plastocyanin is the copper-containing protein in light-dependent reaction ( Z scheme)