Fmdc 2024 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Identify the type of sentence given below:The caliph noticed the merchant.

• A. Complex
• B. Compound
• C. Compound-complex
• D. Simple✓

Explanation: The correct answer is D: Simple. The sentence 'The caliph noticed the merchant' is a simple sentence because it has only one independent clause that expresses a complete thought. It contains a subject ('The caliph') and a verb ('noticed') that together form a straightforward statement. The other options are incorrect as they describe sentence structures involving multiple clauses, which are not present in the given sentence.

Q2. The underlined part in the sentence adverbial clause of:Although Mehran is hardworking, yet he failed.

• A. Concession✓
• B. Condition
• C. Manner
• D. Reason

Explanation: Concession: This is the correct answer. A concessive clause shows a contrast or unexpected result, often introduced by words like "although" or "even though." In this sentence, "Although Mehran is hardworking" shows a contrast to the unexpected outcome, "he failed."

Q3. Complete the sentence using the appropriate punctuation mark:Punishment brings wisdom _ it is the healing art of wickedness

• A. ,
• B. -
• C. ;✓
• D. :

Explanation: A semicolon connects two closely related independent clauses without using a conjunction. In this context, it effectively links the two statements about punishment and wisdom, indicating that they are related thoughts that build on one another..

Q4. Identify the correct spelling:

• A. Discremination
• B. Discrimenation
• C. Discrimination✓
• D. Disscrimnation

Explanation: The correct answer is Option C: Discrimination. This spelling accurately reflects the standard English form of the word.

Q5. Identify the figure of speech in the following sentence:He is considered the black sheep of the family.

• A. Alliteration
• B. Imagery
• C. Metaphor✓
• D. Simile

Explanation: This option is correct. The phrase "black sheep of the family" is a metaphor that compares a person to a "black sheep," symbolizing someone who is different or an outsider within a group or family context.

Q6. Supply the correct form of verb:We had taken our meal before we _

• A. Had left
• B. Have left
• C. Left✓
• D. Were leaving

Explanation: This is the correct answer. In past perfect tense, "had taken" indicates that the action (taking the meal) happened before another past action. So, "before we left" correctly expresses that leaving happened after taking the meal.

Q7. Supply the correct form of verbHad I known the answer I _ it.

• A. Got written
• B. Have written
• C. Would have✓
• D. Wrote

Explanation: This is the correct answer. "Had I known the answer" is a conditional statement in the past perfect tense, implying a hypothetical situation. The correct completion requires "would have" to indicate the hypothetical action that would have taken place if the condition were met.

Q8. Identify the correct passive form for the sentence given below:The guard did not open the gate.

• A. The gate did not open by the guard.
• B. The gate had not been opened by the guard.
• C. The gate was not opened by the guard.✓
• D. The gate was not being opened by the guard

Explanation: Identify the object of the active sentence:Object: the gateMove the object to the subject position:New subject: The gateUse the correct tense and verb structure for the passive voice:The active verb "did not open" becomes "was not opened" in passive voice (past tense, negative form).Add the agent (optional in passive sentences):by the guard

Q9. Identify the correct indirect form for the sentence given below:The speaker said to the audience, "Will you listen to me?"

• A. The speaker asked the audience if they had listened to him.
• B. The speaker asked the audience if they will listen to him.
• C. The speaker asked the audience if they would listen to him.✓
• D. The speaker asked the audience to listen to him.

Explanation: This is the correct answer. "Will" changes to "would" in indirect speech to match the past tense of "said," and "if" introduces the yes/no question form.

Q10. Supply the correct preposition:Have you ever been in this company _ six weeks?

• A. During
• B. For✓
• C. Just
• D. Since

Explanation: This is the correct answer. "For" is used with a period of time, like "six weeks," to indicate the duration of being in the company.

Q11. Supply the correct preposition:I was almost back _ my classroom door when I heard a strange noise.

• A. At✓
• B. By
• C. In
• D. To

Explanation: This is the correct answer. "At" is used to indicate a specific position or location, like "at the door," implying you were near or close to the classroom door.

Q12. Supply the correct form of verb:Farah has planned _ before the next term.

• A. Resign
• B. Resignation
• C. Resigning
• D. To resign✓

Explanation: This is the correct answer. After "has planned," the infinitive form "to resign" appropriately completes the sentence, indicating what Farah intends to do.

Q13. Supply the correct antonym for the underlined word:Your reckless behaviour is not acceptable. You have to be more

• A. Careful✓
• B. Happy
• C. Hardworking
• D. Kind

Explanation: The correct antonym for 'reckless' is 'careful'.Reckless means acting without thinking about the consequences, while careful means taking precautions to avoid harm or mistakes.

Q14. Supply the correct antonym for the underlined word:What can be done to alleviate the situation?

• A. Aggravate✓
• B. Anticipate
• C. Clear
• D. Manipulate

Explanation: The correct antonym for 'ALLEVIATE' is 'Aggravate.' Alleviate means to make something less severe or more bearable, while aggravate means to make something worse or more severe.The other options do not provide antonyms for 'Alleviate' and are therefore incorrect.

Q15. Supply the correct synonym for the underlined word. An orthodox is a _ person.

• A. Clever
• B. Confident
• C. Confused
• D. Conservative✓

Explanation: Option D is the correct answer. An 'orthodox' person is someone who adheres to traditional beliefs or practices, similar to being conservative.

Q16. Supply the correct synonym for the underlined word:The new government brought stupendous changes in the economy and its critics.

• A. Destroyed
• B. Involved
• C. Surprised✓
• D. Fooled

Explanation: While "stupendous" generally means something incredible or astonishing, it can also evoke a sense of being surprised due to its impact. Therefore, 'surprised' is correct.

Q17. The sentence "It was 97 in the shade." refers to the _.

• A. Age
• B. Distance
• C. Temperature✓
• D. Year

Explanation: This is the correct answer. "97 in the shade" is a common way to express a temperature reading, especially in Fahrenheit, under shaded conditions.

Q18. Read the following passage to answer the given question:"This is the way, Jess," said my father, pointing with his cane across the deep valley below us. "I want to show you something you've not seen for many years!" "Isn't it too hot for you to do much walking?" I wiped the streams of sweat from my face to keep them from stinging my eyes.I didn't want to go with him. I had just finished walking a half mile uphill from my home to his. I had carried a basket of dishes to Mom. There were two slips in the road and I couldn't drive my car and I knew how hot it was, It was 97 in the shade. I knew that from January until April my father had gone to eight different doctors.One of the doctors had told him to get a taxi to take him home. But my father walked home five miles across the mountain and told my Mom what the doctor had said. Forty years ago, a doctor had told him the same thing. And he had lived to raise a family of five children. He had done so much hardwork in those years as any man.The narrator has siblings?

• A. Four✓
• B. Five
• C. Six
• D. No

Explanation: Option A is correct because the father mentioned in the passage has 5 children, and the narrator is one of those children, leaving 4 siblings. The other options are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the information provided in the passage.

Q19. During which stage of bacteriophage replication, lysozyme is involved?

• A. Adsorption
• B. Attachment
• C. Multiplication
• D. Penetration✓

Explanation: The bacteriophage releases lysozyme, an enzyme that breaks down the bacterial cell wall, allowing the viral genetic material to enter and later helping in the release of new phages by breaking open the cell.

Q20. Who purified filterable agents for the first time?

• A. Charles Chamberland
• B. Ivanowski
• C. Louis Pasteur
• D. Stanley✓

Explanation: Wendell Meredith Stanley was the first to purify a virus, specifically the Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) in 1935. He showed that TMV could be crystallized like a chemical and still remain infectious, which was a major breakthrough. This discovery helped prove that viruses were distinct from other microorganisms and opened the door to modern virology.

Q21. In eukaryotic cells, autophagosomes are being originate from:

• A. Endoplasmic reticulum
• B. Golgi bodies✓
• C. Mitochondria
• D. Ribosomes

Explanation: Autopagosomes originate from the golgi bodies of the cell.

Q22. Which one of the following allows the exchange of RNA and protein between the nucleus and cytoplasm?

• A. Nuclear matrix
• B. Nuclear pores✓
• C. Nucleolus
• D. Nucleoplasm

Explanation: Nuclear pores are complex structures embedded in the nuclear envelope, which is the double membrane surrounding the nucleus of eukaryotic cells. These pores play a crucial role in regulating the transport of materials between the nucleus and the cytoplasm

Q23. Which one of the following malfunctioned, organelles is mainly related to Tay-Sachs disease?

• A. Endoplasmic reticulum
• B. Glyoxysomes
• C. Golgi bodies
• D. Lysosomes✓

Explanation: Tay-Sachs disease is a genetic disorder caused by the deficiency of the enzyme hexosaminidase A (Hex-A), which is essential for the breakdown of certain lipids (gangliosides) in the brain and nerve cells.

Q24. Inner surface of cristae, in the mitochondrial matrix have many small knob-like structures, which are actually:

• A. ATP synthetase✓
• B. Coenzyme Q
• C. Cytochromes
• D. Mesosomes

Explanation: ATP synthase is a vital enzyme that synthesizes ATP by utilizing the proton gradient generated during cellular respiration, making it essential for energy production in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells.

Q25. Movement of materials across plasma membrane of Amoeba, to engulf the liquid food is termed as

• A. Endocytosis
• B. Exocytosis
• C. Phagocytosis
• D. Pinocytosis✓

Explanation: Pinocytosis, often referred to as "cell drinking," is a form of endocytosis where cells ingest extracellular fluid and dissolved solutes. It allows cells to take in small molecules, nutrients, and ions from their environment.

Q26. Which one of the following organelles is ONLY present in Cyanobacteria?

• A. Heterocyst✓
• B. Lysosomes
• C. Mitochondria
• D. Ribosomes

Explanation: Heterocysts are specialized cells found in certain filamentous cyanobacteria (blue-green algae) that play a critical role in nitrogen fixation.

Q27. Which one of the following type of plastids helps in pollination and seed dispersal?

• A. Amyloplast
• B. Chloroplast
• C. Chromoplast✓
• D. Leucoplast

Explanation: Chromoplasts give color to the plant and thus is responsible for its pollination.

Q28. During resting membrane potential, K+ is higher in concentration inside than outside the membrane surface.

• A. Ten-times
• B. Fifteen-times
• C. Twenty times✓
• D. Twenty-five times

Explanation: During resting membrane potential, the concentration of potassium ions (K⁺) is typically about 20 times higher inside the cell compared to the outside.

Q29. Groups of ribosomes associated with the rough endoplasmic reticulum and the Golgi apparatus present in the cell body of neurons are termed

• A. Axoplasm
• B. Nissl's granules✓
• C. Node of Ranvier
• D. Polysomes

Explanation: Nissl's granules consist mainly of ribosomes and rough endoplasmic reticulum. The ribosomes give them a basophilic (blue-staining) appearance when viewed under a microscope, particularly with Nissl staining techniques.

Q30. When neurotransmitter molecules bind to the receptors on post postsynaptic membrane, triggering an action potential in the postsynaptic neuron, by causing changes in its

• A. Concentrations of certain ion
• B. Concentrations of hydrogen ion
• C. Permeability of calcium ion
• D. Permeability to certain ion✓

Explanation: The permeability of a cell membrane to specific ions is crucial for establishing the resting membrane potential and generating action potentials. At rest, the membrane is primarily permeable to potassium ions (K⁺), leading to a negative resting potential of around -70 to -90 mV. Upon stimulation, voltage-gated sodium channels open, increasing permeability to sodium ions (Na⁺) and causing rapid depolarization as Na⁺ floods into the cell. At the peak of the action potential, Na⁺ channels inactivate, and voltage-gated K⁺ channels open, increasing K⁺ permeability and leading to repolarization as K⁺ exits the cell. This process may result in after-hyperpolarization before returning to the resting potential, ensuring efficient signal transmission in neurons and muscle cells.

Q31. Which of the following glands is mainly related to the secretion of stress hormones?

• A. Adrenal gland✓
• B. Parathyroid gland
• C. Pituitary gland
• D. Thymus gland

Explanation: The adrenal glands produce a variety of hormones, including cortisol (which regulates metabolism and the stress response), aldosterone (which regulates sodium and potassium balance), and adrenaline (epinephrine, which prepares the body for "fight or flight" responses).

Q32. Which one of the following hormones has a greater influence on peripheral vasoconstriction with a net effect in the rise of blood pressure?

• A. Antidiuretic hormone
• B. Epinephrine
• C. Nor-epinephrine✓
• D. Thyroid-stimulating hormone

Explanation: Norepinephrine primarily increases blood pressure by constricting blood vessels, enhances alertness, and supports the body’s response to stress by mobilizing energy stores.

Q33. Sensation of pleasure, punishment, or sexual arousal are stimulated by the parts of the brain:

• A. Hippocampus
• B. Hypothalamus
• C. Amygdala✓
• D. Thalamus

Explanation: The amygdala controls the sensation of pleasure, punishment, or sexual arousal. The hippocampus has a major role in learning and memory. The hypothalamus is considered to be a link structure between the nervous and the endocrine system; its main function is to maintain the homeostasis of the body. The thalamus has several functions, such as relaying of sensory signals, including motor signals, to the cerebral cortex and the regulation of consciousness, sleep, and alertness.

Q34. A covalently bonded inorganic ion with protein part of an enzyme is termed as _

• A. Apoenzyme
• B. Coenzyme
• C. Holoenzyme
• D. Prosthetic group✓

Explanation: A prosthetic group is a non-protein component that is tightly and permanently bound to an enzyme or protein, often by covalent bonds. It is essential for the protein's biological function and remains attached throughout the enzyme's catalytic cycle. Examples include heme in hemoglobin or biotin in certain carboxylases.

Q35. Lock and key model (1890), was modified by

• A. Emil Fischer
• B. Erwin Chargaff
• C. Koshland✓
• D. Lorenz Oken

Explanation: The lock and key model was modified by the induced fit model, proposed by Daniel Koshland in 1958. Unlike the rigid "lock and key" model, the induced fit model suggests that the enzyme's active site is flexible and molds itself around the substrate upon binding, improving the fit and catalytic efficiency.

Q36. Cyanides occupy the enzymes by forming covalent bond, thus comes under the—------ inhibitors.

• A. Competitive
• B. Irreversible
• C. Non-competitive
• D. Reversible
• E. Option B and C.✓

Explanation: Cyanides are irreversible non competitive inhibitors.

Q37. Which one of the following was key point of Darwinism?

• A. Decent with modification✓
• B. Endosymbiont hypothesis
• C. Inheritance of acquired characters
• D. Use and disuse of organs

Explanation: "Descent with modification" is Darwin's principle that species evolve over generations, passing on traits with small changes (modifications) due to environmental pressures, mutations, and natural selection. Over time, these small changes accumulate, leading to new species and increased diversity in life forms.

Q38. The science of discovery, identification, and interpretation of fossils by Darwin was—--- evidence.

• A. biogeography
• B. chronology
• C. homology
• D. paleontology✓

Explanation: Paleontology is the scientific study of ancient life through fossils. It involves examining preserved remains or traces of organisms from prehistoric times to understand their structure, evolution, and interactions with their environment. Paleontology provides insights into Earth’s history, including extinct species, past climates, and the development of life on Earth.

Q39. How much energy is present in the chemical bond of glucose that is converted into ATP by anaerobic respiration?

• A. 2%✓
• B. 4%
• C. 10%
• D. 36%

Explanation: Option A is the correct option because This is the accurate estimate for energy conserved as ATP in anaerobic respiration. The rest of the energy remains in the end products (like lactate or ethanol) as they are not fully broken down.

Q40. Which one of the following is the end product in electron transport chain taking place at inner mitochondrial membrane?

• A. Carbon dioxide
• B. NADPH
• C. Oxygen
• D. Water✓

Explanation: The end product of the electron transport chain (ETC) in the inner mitochondrial membrane is water (H₂O). In the final step, oxygen acts as the terminal electron acceptor, combining with electrons and protons to form water. This process also contributes to the generation of ATP through oxidative phosphorylation.

Q41. At which of the following reactions of glycolysis, ATP is NOT involved directly?

• A. When 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate is converted into 3-phosphoglycerate
• B. When fructose 6-phospate is converted into fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
• C. When glucose is converted into glucose 6- phosphate
• D. When glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate is converted into 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate✓

Explanation: ATP is not directly involved in the conversion of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate in glycolysis.

Q42. In Cyclic Photophosphorylation, which one of the following processes of light dependent reaction, of photosynthesis is NOT included?

• A. Absorption of light
• B. ATP synthesis
• C. Photoexcitation
• D. Photolysis of water✓

Explanation: Photolysis of water occurs only in non-cyclic photophosphorylation, where water is split to release electrons, protons, and oxygen.

Q43. Which one of the following types of phosphorylation occurs in electron transport chain, when NADH transfer electrons to coenzyme Q in inner mitochondrial membrane?

• A. Cyclic Phosphorylation
• B. Non-cyclic Phosphorylation
• C. Oxidative Phosphorylation✓
• D. Substrate level Phosphorylation

Explanation: ATP generation in the mitochondria’s electron transport chain, where electrons move through complexes, ultimately combining with oxygen to form water is called oxidative phosphorylation.

Q44. Which one of the following is the first electron accepter from FADH2 during electron transport chain?

• A. Coenzyme Q✓
• B. Cytochrome a
• C. Cytochrome b
• D. Cytochrome c

Explanation: Coenzyme Q, also known as ubiquinone, is a lipid-soluble molecule in the electron transport chain located in the inner mitochondrial membrane. It transports electrons from Complex I and Complex II to Complex III, acting as a mobile electron carrier. Coenzyme Q also plays a role in maintaining the proton gradient across the membrane, which drives ATP synthesis. Its antioxidant properties further protect cells from oxidative damage.

Q45. What is the range of carbon dioxide in the air?

• A. 0.003-0.004%
• B. 0.03-0.04%✓
• C. 0.3-0.4%
• D. 3-4%

Explanation: The correct answer is Option B:0.03-0.04%. The range of carbon dioxide in the air is typically around 0.03-0.04%. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they either have the decimal point in the wrong place or are off by a factor of 10.

Q46. In Calvin Cycle, the conversion of 5 molecules of Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate into 3 molecules of Ribulose 1-5, bisphosphate by utilization of ATP is termed as

• A. CO2 Fixation
• B. Phosphorylation
• C. Reduction
• D. Regeneration✓

Explanation: The process of recreating a molecule that is used in a cyclic pathway, like the regeneration of ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate (RuBP) in the Calvin cycle, which allows CO₂ fixation to continue in subsequent cycles.

Q47. At 25°C the concentration of each of H⁺ and OH⁻ ions in pure water is about mole/liter.

• A. 10-6
• B. 10-7✓
• C. 10-9
• D. 10-14

Explanation: The correct answer is Option B: 10^-7. In pure water, at 25°C, the concentration of both H⁺ and OH⁻ ions is about 10^-7 moles per liter. This balance of ions is essential for the unique properties of water, such as its ability to act as a solvent and participate in various biochemical reactions. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the correct concentration of ions in pure water at the given conditions.

Q48. Which of the following carbohydrates show red color with iodine solutions

• A. Cellulose
• B. Glucose
• C. Glycogen✓
• D. Sucrose

Explanation: Glycogen turns reddish-brown upon reacting with iodine due to its highly branched structure.

Q49. Which one of the following monosaccharides is a hexose-aldehyde form of sugar?

• A. Fructose
• B. Galactose
• C. Glucose✓
• D. Ribose

Explanation: Glucose is a good example of a hexose-aldehyde. It has six carbon atoms (so it’s a hexose) and an aldehyde group at carbon-1 in its open-chain form. That combination makes it an aldohexose, which is what “hexose-aldehyde” refers to.

Q50. When 3 fatty acids combine with—------- they form triglycerides and 3 molecules of water.

• A. Alcohol
• B. Ester
• C. Glyceride
• D. Glycerol✓

Explanation: Glycerol is a simple, three-carbon alcohol with three hydroxyl (-OH) groups, making it a triol. It is a colorless, odorless, viscous liquid that is sweet-tasting and non-toxic. Glycerol is a key component of triglycerides and phospholipids, which are essential in fat storage and cell membrane structure. It is also widely used in pharmaceuticals, cosmetics, and food as a humectant, solvent, and sweetener.

Q51. Which one of the following is the main component of lipid bilayer of plasma membrane?

• A. Acylglycerol
• B. Lecithin✓
• C. Triglyceride
• D. Waxes

Explanation: Lecithin is a fatty substance found in animal and plant tissues, composed mainly of phospholipids, including phosphatidylcholine. It acts as an emulsifier, helping to mix fats with water, and is widely used in food, cosmetics, and pharmaceuticals. In the body, lecithin is vital for cell membrane structure and function and plays a role in fat metabolism and liver health. Common sources include soybeans, eggs, and sunflower seeds.

Q52. Which one of the following types of bonds is formed between the hydroxyl group of one amino acid and the hydrogen of the amino group of another amino acid, with the release of water?

• A. Ester bond
• B. Glycosidic linkage
• C. Peptide bond✓
• D. Phosphodiester bond

Explanation: A covalent bond formed between the amino group of one amino acid and the carboxyl group of another, resulting in the release of water. This bond links amino acids in proteins.

Q53. Which of the following proteins do not exhibit quaternary structure?

• A. Actin
• B. Haemoglobin
• C. Insulin
• D. Myoglobin✓

Explanation: Myoglobin does not exhibit quaternary structure. It consists of a single polypeptide chain and is a monomer, while insulin and other proteins like hemoglobin do exhibit quaternary structure, as they are composed of multiple polypeptide chains that come together to form a functional unit.

Q54. Which of the following conjugate molecules are present as surfactants in respiratory distress syndrome?

• A. Glycolipids
• B. Glycoproteins
• C. Lipopolysaccharides
• D. Lipoproteins✓

Explanation: They act as surfactant during respiratory distress syndrome when surfactant production is insufficient or absent, which causes alveolar collapse, decreased lung compliance, and impaired oxygenation. This often occurs in premature infants whose lungs are underdeveloped.

Q55. Which of the following part of phospholipids constitutes hydrophobic zone in plasma membrane?

• A. Cholesterol
• B. Fatty acid tail✓
• C. Glycolipids
• D. Phosphate head

Explanation: The fatty acid tails of a phospholipid are hydrophobic, meaning they repel water. This is because they are long chains of carbon and hydrogen atoms, which are nonpolar and do not form hydrogen bonds with water. In a cell membrane, these hydrophobic tails face inward, away from the aqueous environments inside and outside the cell, and align with each other to form the lipid bilayer's core. This arrangement helps to create a selective barrier, allowing the membrane to control what enters and exits the cell while maintaining its structural integrity.

Q56. Which one of the following is not an acoelomate?

• A. Aurelia
• B. Chaetopterus✓
• C. Euplectella
• D. Taenia

Explanation: Annelids are coelomates, meaning they have a true coelom, a fluid-filled body cavity lined by mesoderm tissue.Coelomates are animals that possess a coelom, which is a fluid-filled body cavity completely lined by mesoderm. This body structure allows for the development of complex organ systems and greater flexibility in movement and growth

Q57. Which one of the following plants has modified bilobed leaves with a midrib between them, having long, stiff bristles along the margins of each lobe?

• A. Dionaea muscipula✓
• B. Drosera excelsa
• C. Drosera intermedia
• D. Nepenthes purpurea

Explanation: Dionaea muscipula, commonly known as the Venus flytrap, has highly specialised leaves that act as snap traps to capture and digest insects. Each leaf is divided into two lobes that hinge together and are lined with hair-like structures called trigger hairs. When an insect touches these trigger hairs, the lobes snap shut, trapping the prey inside. Digestive enzymes are then secreted to break down the insect and absorb nutrients, which help the plant survive in nutrient-poor soils. This adaptation allows the Venus flytrap to obtain nitrogen and other essential nutrients from its prey, supporting its growth in otherwise challenging environments.

Q58. The side of sheath attached to head region in bacteriophage is termed as

• A. Capsid
• B. Collar✓
• C. Core
• D. End plate

Explanation: The collar of a bacteriophage is a structural component that connects the capsid to the tail. It serves as a junction between the head (capsid) containing the viral genetic material and the tail, which is used for attachment to host bacteria and injecting the viral genome into them. The collar is typically made up of protein subunits and may play a role in the phage's ability to recognize and attach to specific bacterial surfaces.

Q59. Which of the following types of salivary glands are located behind the jaws?

• A. Maxillary glands
• B. Parotid glands✓
• C. Sublingual glands
• D. Submandibular glands

Explanation: Parotid glands are situated beneath the jaw (mandible). They are larger than the sublingual glands and secrete saliva into the mouth via the submandibular duct, which opens at the floor of the mouth.

Q60. At the end of ileum, there is a/an sphincter that opens and closes time to time to allow a small amount of residue to enter the large intestine.

• A. Hepatic
• B. Cardiac
• C. Ileocolic✓
• D. Pyloric

Explanation: The ileocolic sphincter is a muscular valve located at the junction between the ileum (the last part of the small intestine) and the cecum (the beginning of the large intestine).

Q61. Gall stones are mostly made up of.

• A. Calcium
• B. Calcium Phosphate
• C. Cholesterol✓
• D. Proteins

Explanation: The majority of gallstones (about 80% or more) are made mostly of cholesterol. These form when excess cholesterol in bile crystallises and clumps together, especially if there is too little bile salts or lecithin.

Q62. What will be CO2 fixation efficiency in plants with photorespiration?

• A. 20%
• B. 25%
• C. 50%
• D. 75%✓

Explanation: In most plants photorespiration reduces the amount of carbon fixed into -carbohydrates by 25%. since 25% is reduced so the efficiency will be 75%

Q63. Lungs are covered with double layered thin membranous tissue called _

• A. Epicardium
• B. Larynx
• C. Parabronchi
• D. Pleura✓

Explanation: The pleura are two thin layers of tissue that surround the lungs and line the chest cavity.

Q64. When diaphragm moves downward, ribs moves upward and outward, volume _ in increases while pressure in _ decreases.

• A. Abdominal cavity, lungs
• B. Chest cavity, lungs✓
• C. Lungs, abdominal cavity
• D. Lungs, chest cavity

Explanation: B is the correct option. This downward movement of the diaphragm and outward and upward movement of the ribs causes increase in the chest cavity and reducespressure.

Q65. Which one of the following chemicals in blood circulation is the cause of inflammation in upper respiratory tract?

• A. Acetyl amine
• B. Ampicillin
• C. Histamine✓
• D. Tetracycline

Explanation: Histamine is released from mast cells and basophils in response to allergens (e.g., pollen, dust mites). This release leads to symptoms of allergic rhinitis, such as sneezing, nasal congestion, runny nose, and itchy eyes.

Q66. How much delay is required in seconds for conductance from the S.A node to A.V node?

• A. 0.10
• B. 0.15✓
• C. 0.20
• D. 0.30

Explanation: There is a delay of approximately 0.15 second in conductance from the S-A node to A-V node, permitting atrial systole to be completed before ventricular systole begins, hence option B is correct.

Q67. Which one of the following blood vessels has larger bore, thin walls, and without pulse?

• A. Aorta
• B. Arteries
• C. Capillaries
• D. Veins✓

Explanation: Veins are blood vessels that return deoxygenated blood from the body back to the heart. Their structure differs from that of arteries. Veins have thinner walls made up of the same three layers: the tunica intima, tunica media, and tunica externa. However, the tunica media in veins is much thinner and contains less smooth muscle and elastic tissue, reflecting the lower pressure of the blood they carry. The tunica externa is often thicker than in arteries, providing additional support. One key feature of veins is their wider lumen, which allows them to accommodate larger volumes of blood. Additionally, many veins, especially in the limbs, contain one-way valves that prevent the backflow of blood, ensuring that it flows efficiently back to the heart.

Q68. When a person is exposed to HIV, becomes ill but survive, as a result the immunity developed against disease is called

• A. Artificial Active Immunity
• B. Artificial Passive Immunity
• C. Natural Active Immunity✓
• D. Natural Passive Immunity

Explanation: When an individual is infected with a pathogen (such as bacteria or viruses), the immune system identifies and responds to the foreign invader. Specialized immune cells recognize the pathogen's antigens and initiate the production of antibodies specific to it. Additionally, the immune system creates memory cells that "remember" the pathogen, allowing for a faster and stronger response if the same pathogen infects the person again in the future.

Q69. In the roots, apoplast pathway becomes discontinuous in the endodermis due to the presence of

• A. casparian strips✓
• B. hydathodes
• C. pericyclic
• D. plasmodesmata

Explanation: Casparian strips are essential for efficient nutrient and water uptake in plants, acting as a selective barrier that regulates the entry of substances into the vascular system while protecting the plant from potentially harmful compounds.

Q70. Which one of the following is anaerobic bacterium?

• A. Campylobacter
• B. E. coli
• C. Pseudomonas
• D. Spirochete✓

Explanation: Spirochetes are often anaerobic (or microaerophilic) because of the way their metabolism and cellular structure are adapted to survive.Many spirochetes (e.g., Treponema, Borrelia, Leptospira) are adapted to environments low in oxygen, such as:Deep tissuesMuddy or waterlogged soilIntestines of animalsOral cavities and dental plaquesBecause of this, they evolved to survive without needing oxygen, or needing very little.

Q71. Which one of the following is NOT the bacteria?

• A. Acanthurus nigrofuscus✓
• B. Epulopiscium fishelsoni
• C. Hyphomicrobium
• D. Mycoplasma Spp

Explanation: Acanthurus nigrofuscus, commonly known as the bristletooth tang or brown surgeonfish, is a species of fish belonging to the family Acanthuridae., commonly known as the bristletooth tang or brown surgeonfish, is a species of fish belonging to the family Acanthuridae.

Q72. Which one of the following group of chemicals are used to kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms in living tissues?

• A. Antiseptics✓
• B. Chemotherapeutics
• C. Disinfectants
• D. Vaccines

Explanation: Antiseptics are chemical substances that inhibit the growth of or destroy microorganisms on living tissues, such as skin and mucous membranes. They are commonly used in medical and personal care settings to prevent infections and promote healing.

Q73. In human testes, spermatozoa are present in

• A. Epididymis
• B. Interstitial cells
• C. Seminiferous tubules✓
• D. Sertoli cells

Explanation: Seminiferous tubules are tightly coiled structures located within the testes, and they are the site of spermatogenesis, the process of sperm production. They are the functional units of the testes and play a crucial role in male fertility.

Q74. Which one of the following cells produce the first polar body during oogenesis in female reproductive system?

• A. Oogonia
• B. Ovum
• C. Primary oocytes✓
• D. Secondary oocytes

Explanation: Primary oocytes are the initial cells in oogenesis that pause in prophase I until puberty. Upon resuming meiosis I, they produce a secondary oocyte and a first polar body, with the secondary oocyte continuing toward potential fertilization.

Q75. When ovulation occurs during uterine cycle in human female?

• A. After 6 days of start of menstruation
• B. After 10 days of start of menstruation
• C. After 14 days of start of menstruation✓
• D. After 27 days of start of menstruation

Explanation: Ovulation in a typical 28-day menstrual cycle occurs around day 14. It marks the release of a mature egg from the ovary, triggered by a surge in luteinizing hormone (LH). This timing is crucial for fertilization and aligns with the midpoint of the menstrual cycle.

Q76. Which one of the following sexually transmitted disease attack on T4 Lymphocytes?

• A. AIDS✓
• B. Genital Herpes
• C. Gonorrhea
• D. Syphilis

Explanation: AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) is a serious condition caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). AIDS is the final stage of HIV infection, where the immune system is severely weakened, making the body highly susceptible to opportunistic infections and certain cancers. While HIV can be managed with treatment, there is currently no cure, making prevention and early intervention critical HIV targets the immune system, specifically attacking CD4+ T cells (helper T cells), which are crucial for immune response.

Q77. The living cells of cartilage are called.

• A. Chondroblast
• B. Chondroclasts
• C. Chondrocytes✓
• D. Osteocytes

Explanation: Chondrocytes are specialized cells found within cartilage tissue that are essential for cartilage formation, maintenance, and repair. They are the only cells present in healthy cartilage and play a crucial role in maintaining the structure and function of this tissue.

Q78. Which one of the following bones is NOT a part of the eye

• A. Ethmoid
• B. Lacrimal
• C. Sphenoid
• D. Zygomatic✓

Explanation: The zygomatic bone (cheekbone) is located laterally to the eye socket and helps form the prominence of the cheek. Although it contributes partially to the lateral wall and floor of the orbit, its primary function is facial structure, not direct involvement in the anatomy of the eye like the others. Compared to the other three, the zygomatic is the least involved in forming the orbit and is therefore considered not a core part of the eye anatomy.

Q79. When muscle contract, Z-line is —---, I-band—---- and H-zone disappear.

• A. closer, enlarged
• B. closer, shorten✓
• C. distant, enlarged
• D. distant, shorten

Explanation: When a muscle contracts, the Z-line moves closer together, decreasing the distance between them, while the I-band shortens as the overlapping actin filaments slide over the myosin filaments. Additionally, the H-zone disappears entirely, indicating that the thick and thin filaments are fully overlapping. This process is part of the sliding filament theory, which describes how muscle fibers shorten during contraction, ultimately leading to overall muscle movement.

Q80. By the fusion of ilium, ischium, and pubis in the pelvic girdle, -----is formed.

• A. Ball and socket joint
• B. Cartilaginous joint✓
• C. Fibrous joint
• D. Hinge joint

Explanation: Cartilaginous joints connect bones through cartilage, allowing for limited movement and providing stability, playing important roles in areas like the spine and pelvis, where some flexibility is needed while maintaining structural integrity.

Q81. In Drosophila, the heterozygote(w/w*) exceeds in quality of fluorescent pigment in eyes than wild (w+/w*) or white eye (w/w), this kind of dominance is termed as -

• A. Co-Dominance
• B. Complete Dominance
• C. Incomplete Dominance
• D. Over Dominance✓

Explanation: In overdominance, heterozygous individuals have a survival or reproductive advantage over homozygous individuals. This can lead to increased genetic diversity within a population.

Q82. In which one of the following types of dominance, genotypic and phenotypic ratios are same in F1 generation?

• A. Co-dominance
• B. Complete dominance
• C. Incomplete dominance✓
• D. Over dominance

Explanation: This is correct. In incomplete dominance, the heterozygous phenotype is an intermediate of both alleles (e.g., red × white flowers producing pink). In the F1 generation, all offspring have the same intermediate phenotype and same heterozygous genotype, making phenotypic and genotypic ratios the same.

Q83. Which type of antibodies are present in the serum of AB blood type?

• A. Anti-A and anti-B antibodies
• B. Anti-A antibodies
• C. Anti-B antibodies
• D. No antibodies at all✓

Explanation: AB blood group has no antibodies.

Q84. At which of the following stage of Prophase I, crossing over takes place?

• A. Diplotene
• B. Leptotene
• C. Pachytene✓
• D. Zygotene

Explanation: Pachytene is a critical phase of prophase I in meiosis, characterized by the formation of tetrads and the occurrence of crossing over between homologous chromosomes. This stage significantly contributes to genetic variability in gametes and sets the stage for proper chromosome segregation in subsequent meiotic divisions.

Q85. Which one of the following conditions produce a sterile female with Turner's syndrome in human but sterile male in Drosophila?

• A. XO✓
• B. XXO
• C. XXX
• D. XXY

Explanation: A is the correct option.

Q86. Hemophilia type A and B zigzag from grandfather through a carrier daughter to a

• A. maternal, granddaughter
• B. maternal, grandson✓
• C. paternal, granddaughter
• D. paternal, grandson

Explanation: B is the correct option.

Q87. What is the percentage mass ratio of carbon and hydrogen in benzene?

• A. 1:1
• B. 3:1
• C. 6:1
• D. 12:1✓

Explanation: The mass of carbon is 12g/mol and that of hydrogen is 1g/mol. Since there are 6 carbon atoms in benzene and 6 hydrogen atoms, the ratio of percentage mass will become 6x12:6x1 which is the same as 72:6. This can be simplified to 12:1.

Q88. How many moles of oxygen gas are needed for' combustion of 2 moles of propane?

• A. 8
• B. 10✓
• C. 12
• D. 14

Explanation: C₃H₈ + 5O₂ → 3CO₂ + 4H₂OThis equation tells us that 1 mole of propane (C₃H₈) reacts with 5 moles of oxygen gas (O₂) .Since we have 2 moles of propane, we need to multiply the amount of oxygen needed by 2:2 moles C₃H₈ x (5 moles O₂ / 1 mole C₃H₈) = 10 moles O₂Therefore, you need 10 moles of oxygen gas for the combustion of 2 moles of propane.

Q89. If percentage yield of chemical reaction is 60%, actual yield is 15g, what is its theoretical yield?

• A. 18g
• B. 20g
• C. 25g✓
• D. 30g

Explanation: Theoretical Yield=Actual Yield/Percentage Yield ×100 =15/60 x100 =25gSo, the theoretical yield is 25 grams.

Q90. What will be the number of atoms in 2 moles of water molecule?

• A. 6.02X10^23
• B. 1.24X10^24
• C. 1.92X10^24
• D. 3.61X10^24✓

Explanation: Atoms per mole of water 3 atoms/molecule6.022 x 1023 molecules/mole = 1.8066 x 10²⁴ atoms/mole Atoms in 2 moles of water: 1.8066 x 10²⁴ atoms/mole2 moles = 3.6132 x 10²⁴ atoms

Q91. What will be mole ratio of Al to 02 after balancing equation given below?Al203—---->Al + O2

• A. 1:1
• B. 2:3
• C. 3:4
• D. 4:3✓

Explanation: 2Al2O3→4Al+3O2 is the balanced chemical equation.The mole ratio of Al to O2 is Al:O2=4:3

Q92. The e/m ratio of proton is that of an electron.

• A. 1837 times greater than
• B. equal to
• C. greater than
• D. smaller than✓

Explanation: The e/m ration of a proton is less than that of an electron.

Q93. Diamagnetic behavior of Flourine molecule is due to presence of

• A. paired electrons in d orbitals
• B. paired electrons in p orbitals✓
• C. unpaired electrons in d orbitals
• D. unpaired electrons in p orbitals

Explanation: Diamagnetic substances have all their electrons paired and are not attracted to a magnetic field.

Q94. How many electron will be accommodate in the Subshell of Azimuthal quantum number l=2

• A. 2
• B. 6
• C. 10✓
• D. 12

Explanation: l=2 is the azimuthal quantum number of the d subshell, which can accommodate 10 electrons.

Q95. Which of the following element will show electronic configuration of the outermost shell like ns2, np5?

• A. C
• B. Cl✓
• C. S
• D. Si

Explanation: The electronic configuration of the outermost shell like ns2 np5 corresponds to elements in Group 17 of the periodic table, also known as the halogens. The electronic configuration of chlorine is [Ne]3𝑠2 3𝑝5.

Q96. Which of the following law helps to calculate the absolute temperature?

• A. Avogadro's Law
• B. Boyle's Law
• C. Charles Law✓
• D. Dalton's Law

Explanation: Charles's Law states that the volume of a gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature (in Kelvin) when the pressure is held constant. In simpler terms, as the temperature of a gas increases, To use Charles's Law, temperatures must be in Kelvin because the Kelvin scale starts at absolute zero, where all thermal motion theoretically ceases its volume increases, provided the pressure does not change.

Q97. Formula for partial pressure calculation of any component in mixture of gases is

• A. Pi = Pt / Xi
• B. Pi = Pt + Xi
• C. Pt = PtR
• D. Pi = Pt Xi✓

Explanation: The correct formula for calculating the partial pressure of a gas in a mixture is Pi = Pt Xi. According to Dalton's Law of Partial Pressures, the partial pressure of a gas is equal to the mole fraction of the gas multiplied by the total pressure of the gas mixture. In this context, Pi represents the partial pressure of the gas, Pt the total pressure, and Xi the mole fraction of the gas. The other options incorrectly alter the relationship between these variables, either by incorrectly dividing or adding, which does not align with the law.

Q98. Water is liquid at room temperature as compared to ammonia and hydrogen disulphide due to presence of

• A. Co-ordinate covalent bond
• B. Hydrogen bond✓
• C. Ionic bond
• D. Metallic bond

Explanation: Due to the formation of hydrogen bonds among the water molecules, it stays in liquid state at room temperature unlike ammonia which is a gas.

Q99. For boiling point, vapor pressure of liquid DOES NOTdepend upon

• A. amount of liquid✓
• B. external atmospheric pressure
• C. intermolecular forces
• D. type of bond

Explanation: Vapor pressure of a liquid is not affected by the amount of liquid.

Q100. Which of the following is an example of molecular solid?

• A. Al3N2
• B. CO2✓
• C. CsF
• D. NaCl

Explanation: CO2 acts as a molecular solid in the form of dry ice.

Q101. NaCl is an example of —----arrangement of crystal lattice.

• A. Monoclinic
• B. Octahedral✓
• C. Tetrahedral
• D. Triangular

Explanation: An octahedral geometry has eight faces and consists of six coordination sites arranged at the vertices of an octahedron. The central atom is located at the center, and the surrounding atoms or ligands occupy the corners of the octahedron.

Q102. Chemical equilibrium given below will shift to backward direction by _2N0 + 02 ←—--> 2N02 + Heat

• A. decreasing pressure and increasing temperature✓
• B. decreasing the temperature
• C. increasing the concentration of NO & 02
• D. increasing the pressure

Explanation: Since the reaction is exothermic (releases heat), lowering the temperature will shift the equilibrium to the left to produce more heat.Since there are fewer moles of gas on the reactant side (3 moles: 2 NO + 1 O₂) compared to the product side (2 moles of NO₂), decreasing the pressure will favor the backward reaction

Q103. Which of the following mixture will constitute the buffer solution?

• A. Acetic acid & sodium acetate✓
• B. Acetic acid & ammonia
• C. Acetic acid and its ammonium acetate
• D. Ammonia & ammonium acetate

Explanation: .Acetic acid acts a good buffer with its salt because it is a weak acid.Acetic acid and sodium acetate form a buffer solution due to their ability to resist changes in pH when small amounts of acids or bases are added.

Q104. Which of the following is the unit of rate of reaction?

• A. (mol-dm3)-151
• B. mol(dm3)s1
• C. mol(dm3)-1s
• D. mol(dm3)-1s-1✓

Explanation: The unit of rate of reaction is molarity per unit time i.e mol/dm3/s.

Q105. If half-life of a chemical reaction is 30 minutes, how much time is required for its 87.5% completion?

• A. 30 min
• B. 60 min
• C. 90 min✓
• D. 120 min

Explanation: Fraction remaining=(1/2)nwhere n is the number of half lives.If 87.5% of the reaction is complete, this means 12.5% of the reactant remains. Therefore, we need to find 𝑛 such that (1/2)n =0.125Since0.125 can be rewritten as 1/8 thus (1/2)n = (1/2)3 Thus n=3 half-lives.Given that the half-life is 30 minutes, the total time for 3 half-lives is:Total time=n×Half-life=3×30 minutes=90 minutesTherefore, the time required for 87.5% completion of the reaction is 90 minutes.

Q106. At constant volume, the heat supplied to a system is always equal to its

• A. bond energy
• B. enthalpy change
• C. heat of sublimation
• D. internal energy change✓

Explanation: At constant volume, the change in internal energy (ΔU) of a system can be expressed using the heat added to the system and the work done. Since the volume is constant, no work is done by expansion (W=0). Thus, the first law of thermodynamics simplifies to:ΔU=Q−WIn this case, since W=0ΔU=Q

Q107. What will be the internal energy of a system at constant volume?

• A. delta E =0
• B. delta E = q+p
• C. delta E = q+ PdeltaV
• D. delta E = qv✓

Explanation: The equation ΔE=QV​ relates the change in internal energy (ΔE) of a system at constant volume to the heat added or removed from the system (QV​)

Q108. What will be formula of work, when work is done on the system by the surrounding?

• A. W = -P/AV
• B. W = -PAV
• C. W = -P/AV
• D. W = PAV✓

Explanation: When work is done on a system by the surroundings, it is described by the formula W = PAV. This formulation indicates that energy is being added to the system, thus representing work as positive. In thermodynamics, work done on a system is indeed positive, while work done by the system is negative. Let’s analyze the other options:Option A: W = -P/AV - This is incorrect because it incorrectly applies the relationship between pressure, area, and volume in the context of work.Option B: W = -PAV - Although it includes the correct variables, the negative sign is not appropriate here since it implies work is done by the system instead of on it.Option C: W = -P/AV - This option also incorrectly formulates the work, providing an inaccurate representation of pressure, area, and volume.Option D: W = PAV - This is the correct choice, indicating that work done on the system, where energy is transferred into it, is represented positively.

Q109. Who stated that enthalpy change in a chemical reaction is same whether the reaction takes place in single step or in several steps?

• A. Arrhenius' Law
• B. Born Haber's Law
• C. Dalton's Law
• D. Hess's Law✓

Explanation: Hess's Law states that the total enthalpy change of a reaction is the same, regardless of the pathway taken.It allows you to find the enthalpy change of complex reactions by adding up the enthalpy changes of simpler reactions.

Q110. Which type of redox reaction takes place at cathode of electrochemical cell?

• A. Decomposition
• B. Dissociation
• C. Oxidation
• D. Reduction✓

Explanation: A substance gains electrons, decreasing its oxidation state. Often involves losing oxygen or gaining hydrogen.In an electrochemical cell, reduction occurs at the cathode. Electrons are gained by the substance at the cathode, decreasing its oxidation state.

Q111. Which one the following is NOT an example of electrochemical cell

• A. Electrolytic cell
• B. Photovoltaic cell✓
• C. None of these
• D. Voltaic cell

Explanation: This option is correct. A photovoltaic (PV) cell, or solar cell, is a device that converts light energy directly into electricity through the photovoltaic effect. It typically consists of semiconductor materials, like silicon, that absorb photons from sunlight, generating electron-hole pairs. When these charge carriers are separated by an internal electric field, they produce a flow of electric current. PV cells are the fundamental building blocks of solar panels used in renewable energy systems.

Q112. If weak acid is diluted with water, then H+ ions concentration will

• A. decrease✓
• B. gradually decreases then increase
• C. increase
• D. remain same

Explanation: When a weak acid is diluted with water, the concentration of hydrogen ions [𝐻+] will decrease. This is because dilution reduces the overall concentration of all species in the solution, including the hydrogen ions produced by the dissociation of the weak acid.

Q113. What is the range of atomic numbers of the 3d series of transition elements?

• A. 20-30
• B. 21-30✓
• C. 22-30
• D. 24-30

Explanation: The atomic number range for the 3d series, which includes the transition metals in the 3d subshell, is from 21 to 30. These elements are known for their metallic properties and the ability to form various oxidation states.

Q114. Transition element Vanadium mostly act as

• A. Amphoteric
• B. Neutral
• C. Oxidizing agent
• D. Reducing agent✓

Explanation: Vanadium can act as a reducing agent in various chemical reactions. A reducing agent is a substance that donates electrons to another species, thereby reducing that species' oxidation state while itself being oxidized.Vanadium has multiple oxidation states, typically ranging from +5 to -2. In its lower oxidation states, such as +2 and +3, vanadium can readily donate electrons.

Q115. When CO2 reacts with propyl magnesium chloride followed by acid hydrolysis, the product formed is

• A. Butanoic acid✓
• B. Ethanoic acid
• C. Pentanoic acid
• D. Propanoic acid

Explanation: The reaction of CO2 with propyl magnesium chloride is a Grignard reaction that produces a carboxylic acid. The propyl group (C3H7-) adds to the carbon in CO2, forming a four-carbon chain, which becomes butanoic acid after acid hydrolysis. This is because propyl magnesium chloride extends the carbon chain by one carbon atom, resulting in a butanoic acid (C4H8O2) after hydrolysis. The other options represent acids that would be formed by different Grignard reagents: Ethanoic acid from methyl magnesium chloride, pentanoic acid from butyl magnesium chloride, and propanoic acid from ethyl magnesium chloride.

Q116. Primary alkyl halides nucleophilic substitution reaction involves

• A. 1st order kinetics
• B. 2nd order kinetics✓
• C. 3rd order kinetics
• D. zero order kinetics

Explanation: option b is correct one as this reactions follows sn2 mechanism

Q117. Metallic character of alkaline earth metals —-----down the groups.

• A. decreases
• B. gradually increases then decreases
• C. increases✓
• D. remains same

Explanation: The metallic character of alkaline earth metals increases down the group.As you move down Group 2 in the periodic table, elements like beryllium (Be), magnesium (Mg), calcium (Ca), strontium (Sr), barium (Ba), and radium (Ra) have a decreasing ionization energy, making it easier to lose electrons and an increasing atomic size, which leads to weaker attraction between the nucleus and outer electrons.These trends make it easier for atoms to donate electrons and exhibit metallic properties, such as conductivity and reactivity, as you go down the group.

Q118. Which one of the following molecules has zero dipole movement?

• A. Ammonia
• B. Carbon dioxide✓
• C. Hydrogen fluoride
• D. Water

Explanation: Has a dipole moment of 0 D because it is a linear molecule with symmetrical charge distribution; the dipoles of the C=O bonds cancel each other out.

Q119. The correct stability order of M+4 cations is

• A. Get4 < Pb+4 < Sn+4
• B. Ge+4 < Snt4 < Pb+4
• C. Get4 > Pb+4 > Sn+4
• D. Ge+4 > Sn+4 > Pb+4✓

Explanation: The stability order of M+4 cations generally depends on factors like the size of the cation, its effective nuclear charge, and the electronic configuration. Typically, for transition metals, the stability decreases with increasing charge density and oxidation state.

Q120. Which of the following metal forms superoxide when reacted with oxygen?

• A. Beryllium
• B. Lithium
• C. Magnesium
• D. Potassium✓

Explanation: Potassium reacts with oxygen to form potassium superoxide (KO2​), especially in an oxygen-rich environment. The larger atomic size and lower ionization energy of potassium favor the formation of the superoxide anion (O2−​), making KO2​ relatively stable compared to lighter alkali metals like sodium or lithium, which primarily form peroxides or oxides.

Q121. Which of the following metal hydroxide is the strongest base?

• A. Ca(OH)2
• B. LiOH
• C. Mg(OH)2
• D. NaOH✓

Explanation: The strength of a base in the hydroxide form typically increases down a group in the periodic table due to the increasing size of the metal cation. Larger cations, like sodium in NaOH, stabilize the hydroxide ion better, resulting in a stronger base compared to smaller cations.

Q122. What will be the IUPAC name of neopentane?

• A. 2,2-Dimethypentane
• B. 2,2-Dimethypropane✓
• C. 2-Methy butane
• D. 3-Methylbutane

Explanation: The IUPAC name of 2,2-Dimethypropane is neopentane.

Q123. The saturated alicyclic hydrocarbons have the general formula

• A. CnH2n✓
• B. CnH2n+1
• C. CnH2n+2
• D. CnH2n-2

Explanation: A is the correct option.

Q124. Which type of isomerism is shown by fumaric acid and maleic acid?

• A. Functional group isomers
• B. Geometrical isomers✓
• C. Optical isomers
• D. Position isomers

Explanation: Geometrical isomers, also known as cis-trans isomers or E-Z isomers, are a type of stereoisomerism that occurs due to the restricted rotation around a double bond or within a ring structure. This restriction leads to different spatial arrangements of the substituents attached to the carbon atoms involved in the double bond or ring

Q125. Which compound is used as a reference for calculating the extent of stability of benzene?

• A. Cyclohexane
• B. Cyclohexene
• C. 1,3,5-cyclohexene
• D. 1,3,5-cyclohexatriene✓

Explanation: 1,3,5-Hexatriene is an open-chain conjugated diene that serves as a baseline to compare the stability of benzene due to its structure and bonding. The resonance energy of benzene can be understood in terms of the difference in energy between benzene and 1,3,5-hexatriene. While 1,3,5-hexatriene has three double bonds, it does not exhibit the same degree of stability as benzene due to the lack of cyclic delocalization and the unique resonance stabilization of the aromatic system in benzene.

Q126. Which type of catalyst is used during electrophilic substitution reactions of benzene?

• A. Amphoteric
• B. Lewis's acid✓
• C. Lewis's base
• D. Transition metals

Explanation: A Lewis acid is defined as a substance that can accept an electron pair to form a covalent bond. This definition expands the concept of acids beyond the traditional Arrhenius and Brønsted-Lowry definitions, which focus on proton donation.Lewis acids are often used as catalysts in electrophilic aromatic substitution (EAS) reactions involving benzene and its derivatives. In these reactions, a Lewis acid facilitates the generation of a more reactive electrophile, allowing it to effectively react with the benzene ring

Q127. What is the IUPAC name of given compound? СН3-CH=CH-CH2-C≡CH

• A. 5-Hexen-5-yne
• B. 2-Hexen-6-yne
• C. 4-Hexen-1-yne✓
• D. Hex-2-en-5-yne

Explanation: The correct IUPAC name for the compound СН3-CH=CH-CH2-C≡CH is 4-Hexen-1-yne. This is derived from identifying the longest carbon chain, which contains 6 carbons (hex). The double bond (en) starts at carbon 4, and the triple bond (yne) is located at carbon 1. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they misplace the positions of the double and triple bonds or fail to accurately describe the compound's structure.

Q128. The melting and boiling point of alcohols are high as compared to corresponding alkanes due to

• A. Dipole-dipole interaction
• B. Hydrogen bonding✓
• C. Ionic interactions
• D. Van der Waal interactions

Explanation: Hydrogen bonding is a specific type of attractive interaction that occurs between a hydrogen atom covalently bonded to a highly electronegative atom and another electronegative atom. This interaction is crucial in many chemical and biological processes. Thus due to presence of -OH they can form hydrogen bonding and this ability is highly significant in lower alcohols compared to higher alcohols and thus alcohols have high melting and boiling points compared to corresponding alkanes

Q129. Which type of substituent will increase the acidic strength of phenols?

• A. Electron donating substituents
• B. Electron withdrawing substituents✓
• C. Lewis's bases
• D. Nucleophiles

Explanation: Electron-withdrawing substituents on phenols increase their acidic strength by stabilizing the phenoxide ion through resonance and inductive effects, leading to a greater tendency for the phenol to lose a proton. This principle is important in organic chemistry and helps explain the reactivity of substituted phenols.

Q130. Which product is formed by the reaction of phenol with concentrated nitric acid?

• A. Adipic acid
• B. m-Nitrophenol
• C. Picric acid✓
• D. p-Nitrophenol

Explanation: When phenol reacts with concentrated nitric acid picric acid is formed.

Q131. The anion derived by deprotonation of an alcohol acts

• A. Acidic moiety
• B. Electrophile
• C. Lewis acid
• D. Lewis base✓

Explanation: A Lewis base is a substance that can donate an electron pair, making it an electron-pair donor. This definition, introduced by Gilbert N. Lewis, broadens the concept of bases to include any molecule or ion that provides a pair of electrons for bonding.

Q132. The correct reactivity order of the following compounds towards nucleophile is

• A. H-СО-Н <H-CO-R < R-CO-R
• B. H-CO-R< H-CO-R ≥ R-CO-R
• C. H-CO-H > H-CO-R > R-CO-R✓
• D. H-CO-H> R-CO-R> H-CO-R

Explanation: Formaldehyde is the most reactive towards nucleophiles due to high electrophilicity and low steric hindrance. Ketones are the least reactive due to lower electrophilicity and higher steric hindrance.

Q133. The IUPAC name of given organic compound isСН3-CH(Cl)-CH2-CH2-CHO

• A. 2-Chloropentanal
• B. 2-Chloropentanol
• C. 4-Chloropentanal✓
• D. 4-Chloropentanol

Explanation: The correct answer is C: 4-Chloropentanal. To determine the IUPAC name, first identify the longest carbon chain that includes the aldehyde group, which is a 5-carbon chain (pentanal). The aldehyde carbon is always carbon number 1. Chlorine is attached to the fourth carbon, hence the name 4-Chloropentanal. Option A incorrectly places chlorine on the second carbon. Options B and D incorrectly use 'pentanol', indicating an alcohol group, which is not present in the compound.

Q134. The oxidation of methanal results in the formation of

• A. Acetic acid
• B. Formic acid✓
• C. Methanol
• D. Propanoic acid

Explanation: The oxidation of methanal (formaldehyde) results in the formation of methanoic acid (formic acid).

Q135. The IUPAC name of Malonic acid CH2(COOH)2 is

• A. 1,2-Ethanedioic acid
• B. 1,3-Propanedioic acid✓
• C. 1,4-Butanedioic acid
• D. 1,6-Hexadecanoic acid

Explanation: The correct IUPAC name for Malonic acid is 1,3-Propanedioic acid. Malonic acid consists of a three-carbon chain with two carboxyl groups attached at the first and third positions. Option A, 1,2-Ethanedioic acid, refers to oxalic acid, which has only two carbon atoms. Option C, 1,4-Butanedioic acid, describes a compound with a four-carbon chain, which does not match malonic acid's structure. Option D, 1,6-Hexadecanoic acid, is completely unrelated as it refers to a much larger molecule with a sixteen-carbon backbone.

Q136. Which product will be formed finally on the reduction of acetic acid with LiAIH4?

• A. Ethanal
• B. Ethane
• C. Ethanoic acid
• D. Ethanol✓

Explanation: The reduction of acetic acid with lithium aluminium hydride (LiAlH₄) results in the formation of ethanol.

Q137. Which type of reaction will be occur, when an alcohol reacts with a carboxylic acid?

• A. Dehydration reaction
• B. Dehydrogenation reaction
• C. Esterification reaction✓
• D. Reduction reaction

Explanation: When an alcohol reacts with a carboxylic acid, an esterification reaction occurs, producing an ester and water.

Q138. The quantity of motion present in a body can be measured by

• A. Acceleration
• B. Momentum✓
• C. Speed
• D. Velocity

Explanation: The quantity of motion in a body is commonly referred to as momentum.

Q139. At what angle made by projectile with x-axis we can get 1/4th value of maximum height achieved by projectile?

• A. 30°✓
• B. 45°
• C. 60°
• D. 90°

Explanation: The maximum height of a projectile is proportional to the square of the sine of the angle of projection. For the height to be 1/4th of maximum height, the sine of the angle must be halved. This occurs at 30°, where the sine value is smaller compared to 45° or 60°. Hence, 30° is the angle at which the maximum height becomes 1/4 of its potential maximum value. Other angles such as 45°, 60°, and 90° do not satisfy this condition.

Q140. In one dimensional elastiç colisión of two bodies of same masses, what will happen if the moving body collides with the mass whiçh is initially at rest?

• A. The collision would become inelastic
• B. Their velocities will be interchanged✓
• C. Their velocities will remain same
• D. Velocities of both bodies will be zero

Explanation: B is the correct option.

Q141. If the slope of velocity-time graph gradually decreases, then the body is said to be moving with:

• A. Positive acceleration
• B. Negative acceleration✓
• C. Uniform velocity
• D. Zero acceleration

Explanation: On a velocity-time graph, the slope represents acceleration. A gradually decreasing slope indicates that the acceleration is negative, meaning the object is slowing down or experiencing deceleration. This change in velocity over time is what defines negative acceleration. On the other hand, options like positive acceleration and zero acceleration would imply either an increasing slope or a horizontal line, respectively, neither of which are consistent with a decreasing slope. Uniform velocity would show a constant, unchanging slope, also inconsistent with the scenario described.

Q142. The acceleration can be determined by the gradient of

• A. Displacement-Time graph
• B. Force-time graph
• C. Speed-time graph
• D. Velocity-time graph✓

Explanation: The gradient of velocity time graph is acceleration.

Q143. Rate of change of momentum is:

• A. Impulse
• B. Force✓
• C. Torque
• D. Velocity

Explanation: The correct answer is Force. Newton's Second Law states that the force acting on an object is equal to the rate of change of its momentum, given by the equation F = ∆p/∆t. This means that force is directly proportional to how quickly momentum changes with time.Impulse represents a change in momentum but is not the rate of change of momentum. Torque is related to rotational motion and not linear change of momentum. Velocity describes the rate of change of position, not momentum.

Q144. In the British Engineering system, the unit of power is horsepower. Numerically 1000 hp is equal to

• A. 7460 watts
• B. 74600 watts
• C. 746000 watts✓
• D. 7460000 watts

Explanation: 1 hp = 746 watts then 1000 hp will contain 746000 watts.

Q145. A man pulls a trolley through a force of 500N, which has covers 50 m on x-axis. Calculate the work done by the man (Cos 60°=0.5)

• A. 12500 J✓
• B. 5340 J
• C. 6430 J
• D. 7120 J

Explanation: W=F d cos(60)=(50)(500)(0.5)=12500J

Q146. Two bodies with kinetic energies having a ratio of 4:1, are moving with equal linear momentum. The ratio of their masses is:

• A. 1:2
• B. 1:4✓
• C. 4:1
• D. 1:1

Explanation: Since K.E is inversely propotional to the mass the ratio of the masses will be inverted and would become 1:4.

Q147. If kinetic energy of a body becomes four times of the initial value, then the new momentum will

• A. become twice of its initial value✓
• B. become three times of its initial value
• C. become four times of its initial value
• D. remain constant

Explanation: According to the formula K.E=p2/2m, if the kinetic energy of a body becomes four times its initial value, the new momentum will be twice the initial momentum.

Q148. Which one of the following is the best condition for performing maximum work by any thermodynamic system?

• A. Adiabatic condition
• B. Isobaric condition
• C. Isochoric condition
• D. Isothermal condition✓

Explanation: The isothermal condition is the best for performing maximum work, particularly in reversible processes, because the system can exchange heat with the surroundings while maintaining a constant temperature. This allows for efficient energy transfer and work performance. In contrast, adiabatic processes involve no heat exchange, which limits the work potential; isobaric processes maintain constant pressure, which does not necessarily maximize work; and isochoric processes do no work since the volume does not change.

Q149. In an isothermal condition of any thermodynamic system, the change in internal energy

• A. becomes maximum
• B. becomes minimum
• C. becomes zero✓
• D. remains constant

Explanation: In an isothermal process change in energy ΔU becomes zero.

Q150. In which of the following conditions, does the thermodynamic system DOES NOT perform any work?

• A. Adiabatic condition
• B. Isochoric condition✓
• C. Isobaric condition
• D. Isothermal condition

Explanation: In an isochoric process, the volume remains constant. Since work is defined as W=PΔV, where ΔV=0 means no work is performed. Therefore, no work is done in this process.

Q151. The SI-unit of relative permittivity is/has

• A. C^2/Nm^2
• B. C^-1/Nm^-2
• C. C^2/Nm
• D. no Unit✓

Explanation: Relative permittivity is a ratio so it has no units.

Q152. The electrostatic force between two point-charges is independent of one of the following quantities.

• A. Distance between charges
• B. Magnitude of charges
• C. Medium between charges
• D. Temperature of charges✓

Explanation: According to coulomb's law F=kq1q2/r2 where k=1/4 πϵo the electrostatic forces are independent of temperature.

Q153. Electron-volt is the unit of

• A. Charge
• B. Current
• C. Electric potential
• D. Energy✓

Explanation: Electron volt is the unit of Energy.

Q154. The SI-unit of capacitance of capacitor is Farad, it can also be expressed as

• A. A^2 s^2/Nm✓
• B. A^2 s^3/Nm
• C. A^3 s/Nm
• D. A^2 s/Nm

Explanation: A is the correct option.

Q155. Which one of the following is the unit of electric field intensity?

• A. Newton per Ampere
• B. Newton per volt
• C. Volt per Coulomb
• D. Volt per metre✓

Explanation: Volt per meter (V/m) is a derived unit that represents electric field strength. It quantifies the force per unit charge experienced by a charged particle in an electric field.

Q156. How many electrons are there in one Coulomb charge?

• A. 6.25 x 10^15
• B. 6.25 x 10^16
• C. 6.25 x 10^17
• D. 6.25 x 10^18✓

Explanation: According to the formula n=Q/e (where n is number of electrons, Q is 1 C and e is the charge of one electron) =1C/1.602×10 −19​ = 6.242 x 1018

Q157. The electric flash attachment for a camera contains a capacitor for storing the energy used to produce the flash. In one such unit, the potential difference between the plates of 20 F capacitor is 5V. Calculate the energy that is used to produce the flash?

• A. 250 J✓
• B. 310 J
• C. 500 J
• D. 650 J

Explanation: from the formula E= 1/2CV2 =1/2 x 20 x 52 =10 x 25 =250 J

Q158. Diode is a/an _ device which can be used for the rectification process.

• A. insulating
• B. perfect conducting
• C. perfect insulating
• D. semiconductor✓

Explanation: Diodes are semi conductors in nature.

Q159. At what angle made by scattered photons with x-axis , we can get the maximum value of Compton's shift?

• A. 0°
• B. 45°
• C. 90°
• D. 180°✓

Explanation: The maximum value of Compton's shift occurs when the scattered photons are at an angle of 180 degrees with respect to the incident direction, which means they are scattered directly backwards. (cos 180 is -1 i.e negative maximum)

Q160. The kinetic energy of emitted electrons in photoelectric effect can be increased by increasing _

• A. applied potential of electrodes
• B. frequency of electromagnetic wave✓
• C. intensity of incident light
• D. momentum of incident photon

Explanation: The kinetic energy of emitted electrons in the photoelectric effect can be increased by increasing the frequency of the electromagnetic wave.

Q161. Which one of the following factors is the best for calculating Compton's shift?

• A. Angular spin of electron
• B. Energy of electron
• C. Energy of photon
• D. Scattering angle of photon✓

Explanation: The scattering angle of the photon is the most significant factor for calculating Compton's shift.

Q162. The strength of a radiation source is indicated by its activity measured in Becquerel. So, 10 Becquerel is equal to _ decay per second.

• A. 10✓
• B. 100
• C. 1000
• D. 10000

Explanation: Since 1 Bq is equal to 1 decay per second , 10 Bq will become 10 decays per second.

Q163. If the half-life of any radioactive nucleus is 0.693 years, what will be the value of decay constant?

• A. 0.001 s-1
• B. 0.01 s-1
• C. 0.1 s-1
• D. 1 s-1✓

Explanation: According to the formula λ=ln(2)/T1/2 =0.693/0.693 =1s-1This is Official Federal MDCAT 2024 question, the question statement and it's options are same as in the real exam, so we will follow the actual exam pattern for authenticity and alignment with the exam pattern.

Q164. Cancerous thyroid is treated

• A. Chlorine-36
• B. Cobalt-60
• C. Iodine-131✓
• D. Radium-226

Explanation: Iodine-131 is used in the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid disorders, particularly hyperthyroidism and thyroid cancer. It is taken up by the thyroid gland, where its radioactive decay helps to destroy overactive thyroid tissue or cancerous cells.

Q165. Which one of the following is the SI-unit of angular displacement?

• A. A.degree
• B. radian✓
• C. revolution
• D. Steradian

Explanation: Radian(rad) is the SI unit of angular displacement.

Q166. The instantaneous acceleration of an object travelling with uniform speed in a circle directed towards the centre of circle is referred as

• A. Centrifugal acceleration
• B. Centripetal acceleration✓
• C. Tangential acceleration
• D. angular acceleration

Explanation: The acceleration directed toward the center of a circular path, required to keep an object moving in that path.

Q167. Which of the following rules helps us to detect the direction of angular velocity?

• A. Head to tail rule
• B. Kirchhoff rule
• C. Left hand rule
• D. Right hand rule✓

Explanation: The right-hand rule is another mnemonic used to determine the relationships between current, magnetic fields, and induced currents. For a current-carrying wire, you would point your right thumb in the direction of the current flow, while curling your fingers around the wire. The direction in which your fingers curl indicates the direction of the magnetic field lines encircling the wire. In the context of electromagnetic induction, if you point your right thumb in the direction of the induced current and your fingers in the direction of the magnetic field, your palm will indicate the direction of the force acting on the conductor. This rule is critical for understanding phenomena in electromagnetism, including the functioning of motors and generators.

Q168. A rotating pulley completes twelve revolutions in 4 seconds, calculate the average angular velocity rotating pulley in revelation per second?

• A. 3✓
• B. 4
• C. 5
• D. 6

Explanation: avg. angular velocity=total revolutions/total time =12/4 =3

Q169. Which one of the following is a transverse wave?

• A. Sound waves
• B. Water waves✓
• C. Waves associated with electron
• D. Waves in spring

Explanation: Water waves are transverse in nature. They form crests and troughs.

Q170. There is no net transfer of energy by particles of medium in:

• A. Longitudinal wave
• B. Progressive wave
• C. Transverse wave
• D. Stationary wave✓

Explanation: (a) Longitudinal wave: In a longitudinal wave, the particles of the medium oscillate parallel to the direction of wave propagation. Energy is transferred through compression and rarefaction of the particles. As the wave travels, the particles pass the energy to neighboring particles, resulting in a net transfer of energy. (b) Progressive wave: A progressive wave refers to a wave that propagates through a medium, carrying energy from one point to another. It can be either a longitudinal or a transverse wave. In both cases, there is a net transfer of energy as the wave moves through the medium. (c) Transverse wave: In a transverse wave, the particles of the medium oscillate perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. Energy is transferred by the up-and-down motion of the particles. As the wave travels, the particles transmit the energy to neighboring particles, resulting in a net transfer of energy. (d) Stationary wave: A stationary wave, also known as a standing wave, is formed by the superposition of two waves of the same frequency and amplitude traveling in opposite directions. In a stationary wave, the particles of the medium oscillate in fixed positions, resulting in regions of constructive and destructive interference. There is no net transfer of energy by the particles in a stationary wave. Out of these options, the correct answer is (d) stationary wave. Unlike longitudinal, progressive, and transverse waves, a stationary wave does not involve a net transfer of energy by the particles of the medium.

Q171. Under which condition Newton performed an experiment for calculation of speed of sound in air?

• A. Adiabatic
• B. Isobaric
• C. Isochoric
• D. Isothermal✓

Explanation: In isothermal state the change in temperature remains constant. Newton carried his experiment in an isothermal state to calculate the speed of sound.

Q172. By increasing the temperature of medium about 1°C, the speed of sound is increased up to

• A. 0.41 ms-1
• B. 0.51 ms-1
• C. 0.61 ms-1✓
• D. 0.71 ms-1

Explanation: For every 1°C increase in temperature, the speed of sound in air increases by about 0.6 m/s.

Q173. How much phase difference is required between two waves to form destructive interference?

• A. 0°
• B. 45°
• C. 90°
• D. 180°✓

Explanation: Destructive interference occurs at an angle of 180 degrees between the two waves.

Q174. What will be the time period of ve generator if it produces 1000 waves in 10 seconds

• A. 0.001s
• B. 0.01s✓
• C. 0.02s
• D. 0.1s

Explanation: From the given data we can find the frequency of the generator and invert it to find time period.f=no. of waves/time=1000/10=100HzT=1/f=1/100=0.01s

Q175. What will be the fundamental frequency in a stretched string, when it is plucked at a central point while it has a speed of 48 ms¹ with string length of 8m?

• A. 3 Hz✓
• B. 6 Hz
• C. 9 Hz
• D. 12 Hz

Explanation: f=v/2L =48/2x8=46/16=3Hz.

Q176. Which one of the following is the SI-unit of conventional current in a conductor?

• A. Ampere✓
• B. Coulomb
• C. Ohm
• D. Ohm metre

Explanation: The SI unit of current, both conventional and electronic, is Ampere.

Q177. In any electric circuit, power output (P out) will be maximum when _ (Whereas R = External Resistance, r = Internal Resistance)

• A. R = 0 but r ≠ 0
• B. r = 0 but R ≠ 0
• C. R = infinity and r = 0
• D. R = r✓

Explanation: D is the correct option.

Q178. The gradient/slope of I-V (Current-Potential) provides

• A. Conductance✓
• B. Conductivity
• C. Resistance
• D. Resistivity

Explanation: The slope of current vs. voltage graph gives conductance.

Q179. Kilowatt hour is the commercial unit of electrical energy. 1Kwh is equal to _

• A. 3.6 meV
• B. 3.6 MeV
• C. 3.6 J
• D. 3.6 MJ✓

Explanation: 1 kWh is equals to 3.6 MJ of energy.

Q180. Which one of the following materials has a negative temperature coefficient of resistance?

• A. Copper
• B. Germanium✓
• C. Sulphur
• D. Zinc

Explanation: Germanium has a negative temperature coefficient of resistance, indicating that its resistance decreases as temperature increases. This behavior is typical of semiconductors.

Q181. If 60A current passes through a wire in 60 seconds. What will be the value of charge existing in the wire?

• A. 4.6 * 10 ^ - 3 * C
• B. 3.6 * 10 ^ - 3 * C
• C. 2.6 * 10 ^ 3 * C
• D. 3.6 * 10 ^ 3 * C✓

Explanation: Q=I X t =60A X 60s =3.6X103 C

Q182. Tesla is the SI-unit of magnetic field intensity. Tesla can also be expressed as

• A. N- A-1 m-1
• B. N-1 Am-1
• C. NA-1m-1✓
• D. NAm-1

Explanation: Tesla can also be written as NA-1m-1

Q183. At what value of angle between the magnetic field intensity and vector area, the magnetic flux becomes zero?

• A. 0°
• B. 30°
• C. 45°
• D. 90°✓

Explanation: Since magnetic flux is calculated by the formula BAcosθ and cos90 is zero so, magnetic flux becomes zero when angle between magnetic field intensity and vector area become 90 degrees.

Q184. The SI-unit of magnetic flux is weber. Weber can also be expressed as

• A. Joule per ampere✓
• B. Joule per coulomb
• C. Newton per ampere
• D. Newton per coulomb

Explanation: Weber is equal to Joule per ampere.

Q185. The Lenz's law of electromagnetic induction is in accordance with law of conservation of

• A. Charge
• B. Energy✓
• C. Mass
• D. Momentum

Explanation: Lenz's law is in accordance with law of conservation of energy.

Q186. A coil of 100 turns is linked by a flux of 20 mWb. If this flux is reversed in a time of 2 ms, calculate the average induced emf in the coil?

• A. 1000 volts
• B. 2000 volts✓
• C. 3000 volts
• D. 4000 volts

Explanation: Formula: Induced emf (E) = -N * (ΔΦ / Δt)Where:N = Number of turns in the coil = 100ΔΦ = Change in magnetic fluxΔt = Time taken for the change = 2 ms = 2 × 10⁻³ sStep 1: Calculate ΔΦ (Change in Flux)The flux is reversed, so:ΔΦ = Φ_final - Φ_initialΔΦ = -20 mWb - 20 mWb = -40 mWb = -40 × 10⁻³ WbStep 2: Calculate the Induced EMFE = -N * (ΔΦ / Δt)E = -100 * (-40 × 10⁻³) / (2 × 10⁻³)E = 100 * (40 × 10⁻³) / (2 × 10⁻³)E = 100 * 20 = 2000 VFinal Answer:Average induced emf = 2000 V

Q187. Alternating current generator is a device which is used to convert _ into _

• A. Chemical energy, Electrical energy
• B. Chemical energy, Mechanical energy
• C. Electrical energy, Mechanical energy
• D. Mechanical energy, Electrical energy✓

Explanation: AC generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.

Q188. The rate of change of magnetic flux is measured in

• A. Coulomb
• B. Ohm
• C. Volt✓
• D. Watt

Explanation: Rate of change of magnetic flux is actually emf and is measured in volts.

Q189. The turns ratio of a step-up transformer is 5. A current of 20A is passed through its primary coil at 220V. Calculate the value of the volt in the secondary coil?

• A. 1000V
• B. 1025V
• C. 1050V
• D. 1100V✓

Explanation: For calculating the voltage in the secondary coil n=Vs/Vp(where n is the number of turns in the coil)Vs=n X Vp =5 X 220 =1100 V

Q190. Which of the following series of hydrogen spectrum lies in the visible region?

• A. balmer✓
• B. Bracket
• C. Lyman
• D. Paschen

Explanation: Balmer series lies in the visible region.

Q191. The Lyman series contains the wavelengths in the hydrogen spectrum.

• A. far-infrared region
• B. infrared region
• C. ultraviolet region✓
• D. visible region

Explanation: The Lyman series lies in the ultraviolet region of the hydrogen spectrum.

Q192. The high school maths department needs to appoint a new chairperson on the basis of seniority. Ms. Madiha is less senior than Mr. Tanvir but more than Ms.Aiyza. Mr. Rehan is more senior than Ms. Madiha but less than Mr. Tanvir.Mr. Tanvir doesn't want the job.Who will be the new chairperson of the maths department?

• A. Mr. Rehan✓
• B. Mr. Tanvir
• C. Ms. Aiyza
• D. Ms. Madiha

Explanation: To determine who will be the new chairperson based on seniority, let's outline the relationships from the information provided:Ms. Madiha is less senior than Mr. Tanvir.Ms. Madiha is more senior than Ms. Aiyza.Mr. Rehan is more senior than Ms. Madiha but less senior than Mr. Tanvir.Mr. Tanvir does not want the job.From the above statements, we can summarize the seniority order as follows:Mr. Tanvir (most senior)Mr. Rehan (more senior than Ms. Madiha but less than Mr. Tanvir)Ms. Madiha (more senior than Ms. Aiyza)Ms. Aiyza (least senior)Since Mr. Tanvir does not want the job, we look for the next most senior individual, which is Mr. Rehan. Therefore, Mr. Rehan will be the new chairperson of the maths department.

Q193. What are the missing alphabets in the sequence EZFA, GBHY, IXJC,

• A. KDLW✓
• B. KLDW
• C. KWLD
• D. LDKW

Explanation: This is the correct answer. Each letter in the sequence changes by a consistent pattern. The first letter increases by two steps (E, G, I, K), the second letter decreases by one (Z, B, X, D), the third letter increases by one (F, H, J, L), and the fourth letter decreases by two (A, Y, C, W). So, the correct sequence is "KDLW."

Q194. "All practical numbers are even" is a false statement then the true state statement is _

• A. all practical numbers are odd
• B. some practical numbers are not even✓
• C. some practical numbers are even
• D. some practical numbers are not odd

Explanation: This is the correct answer. If the statement "all practical numbers are even" is false, it implies that there are at least some practical numbers that are not even.

Q195. In a group of 100 players, 70 play football, 50 play hockey, and 55 play cricket. 30 play both hockey and cricket, 25 play both football and hockey and 20 play all three games. How many players play both football and cricket?

• A. 25
• B. 30
• C. 35✓
• D. 40

Explanation: Out of 100 players, 20 play all three games. The overlap between football and cricket is derived by adding players in F ∩ H (25) and H ∩ C (30), then subtracting those in all three (F ∩ H ∩ C = 20). Thus, |F ∩ C| = 25 + 30 - 20 = 35

Q196. A customer has filed a complaint about your product, stating it does NOT meet his expectation. What is your course of action?

• A. Argue with the customer about the validity of their complaint
• B. Customer complaint is not filed within the time limit
• C. Offer a replacement✓
• D. Tell the customer it's his fault for not using the product correctly

Explanation: This is the best course of action. Offering a replacement shows a commitment to customer satisfaction and demonstrates that you value their feedback, potentially resolving their issue and restoring their trust in your product.

Q197. I. Large numbers of people have fallen sick after consuming sweets from a particular shop in the locality.II. Major part of the locality is flooded and has become inaccessible.

• A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
• B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
• C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes.
• D. Both the statements I and II are the effects of independent causes.✓

Explanation: Option D is incorrect.

Q198. What will be the molarity of HCI solution with pH=4?

• A. 0.0001✓
• B. 0.0004
• C. 0.004
• D. 4.0

Explanation: Since HCl is a strong acid that dissociates completely in water, the molarity of the HCl solution is equal to the concentration of hydrogen ions.pH=−log[H+]4=−log[H+][H+]=10-4M

Q199. According to law of mass action, Kp > Kc when reaction occurs with

• A. decrease in volume on product side
• B. increase in volume on product side✓
• C. increase in volume on reactant side
• D. simultaneous increase and decrease of product

Explanation: This implies more moles of gases on the product side than on the reactant side, making Δn positive. Hence, Kp>Kc

Q200. Consider a reaction of A into B, if K value is 3x10-12 at 200°C then what will be the value of K at 250°C?

• A. K=9×10-35
• B. K = 12 × 10-35
• C. K= 6 x 10-125
• D. K = 15 × 10-125✓

Explanation: D is the correct option.We wanted to let u know this is actual szambu paper 2024 question this question was impossible to solve because large amount of info was missing from it, and students were given grace marks by conducting body for this question.