Fmdc 2024 Reconduct — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Unless we _ now, we cannot be on time.

• A. Start✓
• B. Will Start
• C. Do not start
• D. Will Starting

Explanation: As the sentence in which there is a future result of a specific condition, sentence is first conditional. Therefore, the first part of the sentence must be in present indefinite tense. Moreover, owing to the presence of "unless" negative sentence cannot be used. Hence, the present indefinite tense "start" best describe the blank word in the light of 1st conditional sentences.

Q2. I suppose _ when we start.

• A. It will be raining✓
• B. It has been raining
• C. It rains
• D. Rain

Explanation: The sentence is in the present tense, but it's referring to a future time ("when we start").- The verb "suppose" indicates a prediction or expectation about a future event.- The correct form of the verb to used here is future indefinite tense, which is "will be raining".This sentence is an example of a future prediction based on present evidence (e.g., dark clouds, weather forecast). The speaker is making a guess about what the weather will be like when they start.

Q3. She jumped off the bus while it:

• A. Moved
• B. Had moved
• C. Was Moving✓
• D. Has been moving

Explanation: The sentence describes an action (jumping off the bus) that occurred while another action (the bus moving) was in progress.The correct verb form to be used here must be past continuous tense, which is "was moving". This tense indicates that the bus was in motion at the time she jumped off.

Q4. When I was a bachelor _ I lived by myself. Fill in the blank with correct punctuation mark.

• A. ;(Semicolon)
• B. : (Colon)
• C. , (Comma)✓
• D. ' (Apostrophe)

Explanation: The correct answer is C. , (Comma).Here's why:The sentence is a complex sentence with two independent clauses:1. "When I was a bachelor"2. "I lived by myself"The comma (,) is used to separate the two clauses and indicate a pause between them. This is a classic example of a comma being used to separate two independent clauses that are connected by a subordinate clause.

Q5. Choose the sentence that is punctuated correctly.

• A. Dot your i's and cross your ts
• B. Dot your i's and cross your t,s.
• C. Dot your i's and cross your 't's.
• D. Dot your i's and cross your t's.✓

Explanation: The correct answer is d. Dot your i's and cross your t's.Here's why:We need the plural of "i" and "t" as there are more than one "i" and "t". In order to make the alphabets plural, an apostrophe comma (') before "s" is necessary in order to avoid the confusion as "s" with certain alphabets results in the formation of entirely new words. That's why, this is the correct option.

Q6. The word 'BASHFUL' means:

• A. Brimful
• B. Skillful
• C. Embarrassed✓
• D. Rude

Explanation: The correct answer is C: Embarrassed because "Bashful" is an adjective that describes someone who feels shy, modest, or embarrassed, often due to feelings of self-consciousness or awkwardness.

Q7. The word 'RELUCTANT' means:

• A. Hesitatant✓
• B. Current
• C. Remarkable
• D. Rude

Explanation: The correct answer is A: Hesitant."Reluctant" is an adjective that describes someone who is: 1. Unwilling to do something 2. Hesitant or slow to act 3. Unenthusiastic or lacking eagerness

Q8. What does the word "CURIOUS" mean?

• A. Keen✓
• B. Careful
• C. Quest
• D. Casual

Explanation: The correct answer is A. Keen."Curious" is an adjective that describes someone who is:1. Eager to learn or know something2. Interested in learning or exploring new things3. Inquisitive or nosy

Q9. He was sitting here. The given sentence is:

• A. Past Progressive
• B. Past indefinite
• C. Past Continuous✓
• D. Past Perfect Continuous

Explanation: The correct interpretation of the given sentence is that it is in the past continuous tense, which describes an action that was ongoing at a specific point in the past.

Q10. I _ English for five years.

• A. am Studying
• B. Study
• C. have been studying✓
• D. Studies

Explanation: The correct answer is C. Have been studying.- The present perfect continuous tense "have been studying" indicates an action that started in the past and continues up to the present moment.- This tense is used to describe an action that has a duration or a starting point in the past.- In this sentence, "have been studying" correctly conveys that the speaker started studying English five years ago and continues to study it.

Q11. Identify the type of sentence: The place where Buddha was cremated has recently been discovered.

• A. Simple Sentence
• B. Compound Sentence
• C. Complex Sentence✓
• D. Compound Complex Sentence

Explanation: The correct answer is C. Complex sentence.Characteristics of a Complex SentenceA complex sentence is a sentence that contains an independent clause (i.e., a clause that could stand alone as a separate sentence) and one or more dependent clauses (i.e., clauses that cannot stand alone as separate sentences).Analysis of the Given SentenceThe given sentence is: "The place where Buddha was cremated has recently been discovered."*Independent Clause*- The independent clause is: "The place...has recently been discovered." This clause could stand alone as a separate sentence.*Dependent Clause*- The dependent clause is: "where Buddha was cremated." This clause cannot stand alone as a separate sentence because it starts with a relative adverb ("where") and relies on the independent clause to complete its meaning.

Q12. Choose the correct spelling:

• A. Silhoutte
• B. Silhouette✓
• C. Silhoute
• D. Silhoutte

Explanation: This is the correct spelling of the word which means the outline of an image usually shaded with a solid color mostly black.

Q13. Choose correct spelling from the following:

• A. Spontineously
• B. Sponteniously
• C. Spontaneously✓
• D. Spontaniously

Explanation: The correct spelling is C Spontaneously which is an adverb that means something that is happening or done without prior planning.

Q14. Choose the correct sentence:

• A. Had she gone there, she would control the situation.
• B. Had she gone there, she would have controlled the situation.✓
• C. Had she went there, she would control the situation.
• D. . Had she gone there, she would controlled the situation.

Explanation: The correct answer is B. Had she gone there, she would have controlled the situation.ExplanationThis sentence is in the third conditional tense, which is used to describe hypothetical past situations and their consequences. The correct structure for the third conditional is:"If + past perfect, would + have + past participle"In this case:- "Had she gone there" is the past perfect conditional clause.- "she would have controlled the situation" is the main clause, indicating the hypothetical consequence.

Q15. _ gold is a precious metal. Fill in the blank with appropriate article as required:

• A. The
• B. A
• C. An
• D. No article✓

Explanation: The correct answer is D. No article required.ExplanationWhen referring to metals, substances, or materials in general, no article is required. This is because these nouns are considered uncountable or mass nouns.Examples- Gold is a precious metal.- Water is essential for life.- Steel is a strong metal.

Q16. _ information he had was quite reliable.

• A. The little✓
• B. A little
• C. Little
• D. Litter

Explanation: The correct answer is "A" because "the little" would imply a specific, later mentioned amount of information

Q17. Here is the video you asked _.

• A. The
• B. A
• C. An
• D. For✓

Explanation: The correct answer is D. For.The sentence 'Here is the video you asked for' uses 'for' as a preposition to indicate the purpose or reason, suggesting that the listener requested the video. The other options do not fit logically or grammatically within the sentence.

Q18. Identify the errors and choose the correct option: I hope this letters finds in the best of your spirits.

• A. I hope this letter will find you in good of high spirits.
• B. I hope this letter finds you in the best of your spirits.✓
• C. I hope letter finds you in the best of spirits.
• D. I hope the letter found in greatest of sprite.

Explanation: There are two grammatical errors in the sentence above. An object (pronoun/noun) should be used to correctly identify the entity to whom the letter is sent.Option A is incorrect since it makes use of the future tense – indicated by “will find” – while the person will be reading the letter in the present. Option C and Option D are incorrect since they lack the determiner “this” which is necessary to indicate that the letter being mentioned is specific in nature (i.e. the letter that is being read currently). By elimination, Option B is correct.

Q19. A virus recognizes its specific host organism by which characteristic?

• A. Viral Envelope✓
• B. Viral Genome
• C. Host Cytoplasm
• D. Host Genome

Explanation: The virus anchors itself to the host cell's plasma membrane where receptors for the specific virus are present. In this phenomenon, it is actually viral envelope which recognizes the specific receptor site on the host DNA and then anchors itself to the host cell's surface. Therefore, it is viral envelope which is responsible for this anchoring and not viral or host's genome.

Q20. Percentage of glucose normally in the human body is:

• A. 8%
• B. 0.8%
• C. 1.8%
• D. 0.08%✓

Explanation: The normal blood glucose level in humans is typically between 80-100 mg/dL (milligrams per deciliter), which is equivalent to 0.08% to 0.1%. This value can fluctuate depending on factors like fasting, eating, exercise, and individual variability.

Q21. The polysaccharide found most commonly in grains and seeds is:

• A. Starch✓
• B. Glycogen
• C. Pectin
• D. Dextrin

Explanation: Starch is a polysaccharide composed of glucose units, and it is the primary carbohydrate stored in grains, seeds, and tubers. It serves as an energy reserve for plants and is an important source of energy for humans and animals.

Q22. Glycogen is most abundant in:

• A. Brain Cells
• B. Liver Cell✓
• C. Adipose Cell
• D. Smooth Muscle Cells

Explanation: Glycogen is a complex carbohydrate, also known as animal starch, that serves as a primary energy storage molecule in animals. The liver is the primary site for glycogen storage, and liver cells (hepatocytes) contain the highest concentration of glycogen.Glycogen storage in the liver:The liver stores glycogen as a readily mobilizable energy reserve, which can be quickly converted to glucose and released into the bloodstream when needed.

Q23. Which fatty acid would have the highest melting point?

• A. Oleic acid
• B. Lauric acid
• C. Palmitic acid
• D. Stearic acid✓

Explanation: Stearic acid is a saturated fatty acid with an 18-carbon chain (C18:0). Saturated fatty acids have a higher melting point than unsaturated fatty acids due to their linear, straight-chain structure, which allows for stronger intermolecular forces and a more stable crystal lattice. In case of saturated fatty acids, melting point is directly proportional to the length of carbon chain.

Q24. Two amino acids form a dipeptide through:

• A. Condensation Reaction✓
• B. Hydrolysis
• C. Ionic Bond Formation
• D. Hydrogen bonding

Explanation: A dipeptide is formed when two amino acids are joined together through a peptide bond. This process involves a condensation reaction, where the amino group (-NH2) of one amino acid reacts with the carboxyl group (-COOH) of another amino acid, releasing a water molecule (H2O) in the process.

Q25. Number of amino acids in each alpha chain of hemoglobin is:

• A. 141✓
• B. 146
• C. 414
• D. 416

Explanation: Hemoglobin is a protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen to the body's tissues. It is composed of four polypeptide chains: two alpha chains and two beta chains. Each alpha chain consists of 141 amino acids.Structure of Hemoglobin- 2 Alpha chains (141 amino acids each)- 2 Beta chains (146 amino acids each)

Q26. Lipids that protect plants from water loss are:

• A. Phospholipids
• B. Waxes✓
• C. Terpenoids
• D. Triglycerides

Explanation: Plant waxes, also known as cuticular waxes, are a type of lipid that helps protect plants from water loss by forming a hydrophobic (water-repelling) barrier on the surface of leaves and stems. This waxy coating, also known as the cuticle, prevents excessive water loss through transpiration.

Q27. The protein present in blood plasma and involved in blood clotting is:

• A. Hormones
• B. Fibrinogen✓
• C. Antibodies
• D. Enzymes

Explanation: Fibrinogen is a soluble protein present in blood plasma that plays a crucial role in blood clotting. When tissue damage occurs, fibrinogen is converted into fibrin, which forms a clot to stop bleeding.

Q28. Middle lamella is composed of:

• A. Magnesium + sodium salts + pectin
• B. Magnesium + calcium salts + pectin✓
• C. Magnesium + calcium phosphate + pectin
• D. Calcium carbonate + pectin

Explanation: The middle lamella is a thin layer of tissue that separates adjacent plant cells. It is composed of a mixture of pectin, magnesium, and calcium salts. Pectin is a complex carbohydrate that acts as "glue" to hold the cells together, while the magnesium and calcium ions help to cross-link the pectin molecules, providing additional strength and stability to the cell wall.

Q29. Stereoisomers are molecules containing atoms that are:

• A. Same and bonded identically✓
• B. Same and bonded dependently
• C. Dependent and bonded identically
• D. Dependent and bonded the same

Explanation: Stereoisomers are molecules that have the same molecular formula and sequence of bonded atoms, but differ in the three-dimensional arrangement of their atoms. This means that stereoisomers have the same atoms and bonds, but the atoms are arranged differently in space.

Q30. Which property of water helps to maintain the integrity of lipid membranes?

• A. Specific heat capacity
• B. Cohesion and adhesion
• C. Hydrogen bonding
• D. Hydrophobic exclusion✓

Explanation: The correct answer is Hydrophobic exclusion. This property is critical for the formation and stability of lipid membranes, as lipid molecules are hydrophobic and tend to exclude water. This exclusion leads to the formation of a lipid bilayer, creating a barrier between the aqueous environments inside and outside the cell. The other options, such as specific heat capacity, cohesion and adhesion, and hydrogen bonding, are important properties of water but do not directly contribute to the structural integrity of lipid membranes.

Q31. The reduction of population size due to some specific allele and genotype after a natural disaster is called:

• A. Mutation
• B. Bottle Neck Effect✓
• C. Founder Effect
• D. Speciation

Explanation: The bottleneck effect refers to the reduction in population size due to a specific event, such as a natural disaster, disease, or environmental change. This reduction in population size can lead to a loss of genetic variation, as some alleles and genotypes may become extinct or be severely reduced in frequency.Characteristics of the bottleneck effect- Reduction in population size due to a specific event- Loss of genetic variation- Random sampling of alleles and genotypes- Potential for genetic drift to occur

Q32. When humans purposefully apply selection pressure to populations, the process is knownas:

• A. Natural Selection
• B. Artificial Selection✓
• C. Evolution
• D. Genetic Drift

Explanation: Artificial selection, also known as selective breeding, is the process by which humans intentionally apply selection pressure to a population to produce a desired trait or characteristic. This is achieved by selecting and breeding individuals with the desired trait, while excluding those without it.Key features of artificial selection- Intentional selection pressure applied by humans- Goal of producing a desired trait or characteristic- Selective breeding of individuals with desired traits.

Q33. The pH of pancreatic juice is:

• A. 0.8
• B. 8✓
• C. 0.7
• D. 0.07

Explanation: Pancreatic juice is a digestive fluid produced by the pancreas that plays a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of nutrients. The pH of pancreatic juice is slightly alkaline, ranging from 7.8 to 8.0. This alkaline pH helps to neutralize the acidic chyme entering the small intestine from the stomach, creating an optimal environment for enzymatic activity.

Q34. Function of pilus in bacteria is to:

• A. Increase pathogenicity of bacteria
• B. Degrade host plasma membrane
• C. Degrade host enzymes
• D. Exchange of genetic material✓

Explanation: Pili (singular: pilus) arehair-like appendages found on the surface of some bacterial cells. One of the primary functions of pili is to facilitate the exchange of genetic material between bacterial cells, a process known as bacterial conjugation.Role of pili in bacterial conjugation- Pili act as a bridge between two bacterial cells, allowing for direct cell-to-cell contact.- The pilus of one bacterium attaches to a receptor on the surface of another bacterium.- The attached bacteria then form a conjugation bridge, allowing for the transfer of genetic material, such as plasmids.

Q35. The blue color blindness is also called as:

• A. Protonopia
• B. Deuteranopia
• C. Tritanopia✓
• D. Teteranopia

Explanation: Tritanopia, also known as blue color blindness, is a rare genetic disorder that affects the ability to see blue colors. It is caused by a mutation in the OPN1C gene, which codes for the cone cells in the retina responsible for detecting blue light.Characteristics of Tritanopia- Difficulty seeing blue colors- Blue colors may appear green or yellow- Increased sensitivity to yellow and green lights

Q36. All of the following are the characteristics of veins, EXCEPT

• A. They have broad lumen
• B. Direction of blood flow towards the heart
• C. Thin layer elastic fibers are present
• D. Valves are present in the upper part of the body✓

Explanation: Veins are blood vessels that carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart. They have several distinct characteristics, including:- Broad lumen (A): Veins have a larger diameter and a more relaxed smooth muscle layer, resulting in a broader lumen compared to arteries.- Direction of blood flow towards the heart (B): Veins carry blood back to the heart, which is essential for maintaining circulation and delivering oxygen-depleted blood to the lungs for oxygenation.- Thin layer of elastic fibers (C): Veins have a thinner layer of elastic fibers compared to arteries, which allows for greater distensibility and compliance.

Q37. Identify the labeled parts A & B:

• A. Aorta and Inferior vena ceva✓
• B. Carotid artery and inferior vena cava
• C. Superior vena cava and inferior vena cava
• D. Left pulmonary artery and papillary muscles

Explanation: The correct answer is 'Aorta and Inferior vena cava.' The aorta is the largest artery in the body, responsible for transporting oxygen-rich blood from the left ventricle to the rest of the body. The inferior vena cava is a large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the lower and middle body into the right atrium of the heart. Option B is incorrect because the carotid artery is not related to the inferior vena cava. Option C is incorrect because both are veins, and the question requires identifying an artery and a vein. Option D is incorrect because it combines an artery with a heart muscle, which are not directly related as labeled parts.

Q38. Which of the following proteins are involved in the expansion and recoiling of alveoli duringbreathing?

• A. Collagen and Keratin
• B. Elastin and heratin
• C. Collagen and elastin✓
• D. Collagens and squamous cells

Explanation: Collagen and elastin are two types of proteins that play crucial roles in the structure and function of the lungs, particularly in the expansion and recoiling of alveoli during breathing.Role of collagen- Provides structural support and strength to the lung tissue- Forms a scaffold for the alveoli, allowing them to maintain their shapeRole of elastin- Allows for the elastic recoil of the alveoli, enabling them to return to their original shape after expansion- Provides the necessary elasticity for the lungs to expand and contract during breathing

Q39. Select the mismatched pair:

• A. Chief cell - Pepsinogen
• B. Endocrine cell - Hormone
• C. Parietal cell - Pepsin✓
• D. Mucus cell - Mucus

Explanation: Parietal cells are also known as oxyntic cells, are found in the stomach lining and are responsible for secreting hydrochloric acid (HCl) and intrinsic factor. They do not produce pepsin.

Q40. Immunity provided to a baby through colostrum is an example of:

• A. Natural Active Immunity
• B. Artificial active immunity
• C. Natural passive immunity✓
• D. Artificial passive immunity

Explanation: Colostrum is the first milk produced by a mother after giving birth, and it contains a high concentration of antibodies that provide immunity to the newborn. These antibodies are passed from the mother to the baby through the colostrum, providing protection against infections.

Q41. The area between the two lungs is called

• A. Ischium
• B. Mediastanum✓
• C. Acetebulum
• D. Hilum

Explanation: The mediastinum is the region in the thoracic cavity that lies between the two lungs. It contains various vital structures such as heart, thyroid gland and thymus.

Q42. Antibodies are manufactured in:

• A. T lymphocytes
• B. RBC
• C. Platelets
• D. B lymphocytes✓

Explanation: B lymphocytes, also known as B cells, are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the adaptive immune system. One of their primary functions is to produce antibodies, which are proteins that recognize and bind to specific antigens, helping to neutralize or remove them from the body.

Q43. The directional movement towards or away from the stimulus is called:

• A. Tropism
• B. Orientation
• C. Taxis✓
• D. Non orientation

Explanation: Taxis is the directional movement of an organism or cell towards or away from a stimulus. This movement can be in response to various stimuli, such as light, chemicals, temperature, or touch.Types of taxis:-- Positive taxis: Movement towards the stimulus- Negative taxis: Movement away from the stimulus

Q44. Select an anamniote from the following:-

• A. Snake
• B. Parrot
• C. Frog✓
• D. Crocodile

Explanation: Anamniotes are animals that do not have an amnion, a membrane that surrounds the embryo during development. Anamniotes are typically found in aquatic environments and lay eggs with a soft, permeable shell.Characteristics of anamniotes- Lay eggs with a soft, permeable shell- Do not have an amnion- Typically found in aquatic environments- Include fish, amphibians, and some invertebratesAll other animals have hard shells and are egg-laying animals, called as amniotes.

Q45. In which phase of bacterial growth,do they divide at an exponential rate?

• A. Lag phase
• B. Log phase✓
• C. Stationary Phase
• D. Decline phase

Explanation: The log phase, also known as the exponential phase, is the stage of bacterial growth where the cells divide at an exponential rate. During this phase, the bacterial population doubles at a constant rate, resulting in a rapid increase in cells number.Characteristics of the log phase:- Exponential growth rate- Cells divide at a constant rate- Maximum growth rate- Nutrients are abundant

Q46. Select the mismatched pair:

• A. Seminal vesicle - Junction of sperm duct & ejaculatory duct
• B. Prostate gland - Encircles urethra
• C. Ejaculatory duct - Enters the testis✓
• D. Bulbourethral gland - Junction of ejaculatory duct & urethra

Explanation: The ejaculatory duct does not enter the testis. Instead, it is formed by the junction of the vas deferens (sperm duct) and the seminal vesicle, and it empties into the urethra.

Q47. Bone resorption is performed by:

• A. Osteoblast
• B. Osteocyte
• C. Osteoclast✓
• D. Osteopore

Explanation: Osteoclasts are specialized cells responsible for bone resorption, the process of breaking down and removing bone tissue. This process is essential for maintaining bone health, allowing for bone remodeling, and regulating calcium levels in the body.

Q48. Pick the correct event of the luteal phase/secretory phase:

• A. Increased secretion of progesterone✓
• B. Increased secretion of FSH
• C. Increased secretion of LH
• D. Increased secretion of estrogen

Explanation: The luteal phase, also known as the secretory phase, is the second half of the menstrual cycle. During this phase, the empty follicle in the ovary transforms into the corpus luteum, which produces the hormone progesterone.Characteristics of the luteal phase- Progesterone levels increase, preparing the uterus for a potential pregnancy- The uterine lining thickens and becomes more vascular in preparation for implantation of a fertilized egg- If pregnancy does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates, and progesterone levels drop, leading to menstruation

Q49. Which of the following diseases is sexually transmitted?

• A. Tuberculosis
• B. AIDS✓
• C. Dengue fever
• D. Cholera

Explanation: Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a chronic, potentially life-threatening condition caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). By damaging your immune system, HIV interferes with your body's ability to fight infection and disease. You can get HIV from contact with infected blood, semen, or vaginal fluids. Most people get the virus by having unprotected sex with someone who has HIV. Another common way of getting it is by sharing drug needles with someone who is infected with HIV. Hence, Option B is correct.Tuberculosis is caused by bacteria that spread from person to person through microscopic droplets released into the air. This can happen when someone with the untreated, active form of tuberculosis coughs, speaks, sneezes, spits, laughs, or sings. Hence, Option A is incorrect. When a mosquito bites a person infected with a dengue virus, the virus enters the mosquito. Then, when the infected mosquito bites another person, the virus enters that person's bloodstream and causes an infection. Hence, Option C is incorrect. A person can get cholera by drinking water or eating food contaminated with cholera bacteria. In an epidemic, the source of the contamination is usually the feces of an infected person that contaminates water or food. Hence, Option D is incorrect.

Q50. In human males, inhibin hormone is produced by:

• A. Leyding Cells
• B. Sertoli Cells✓
• C. Germinal Epithelium
• D. Interstitial Cell

Explanation: Inhibin is a hormone produced by Sertoli cells in the testes of human males. It plays a crucial role in regulating the production of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) by the pituitary gland.Function of inhibin- Inhibits the production of FSH by the pituitary gland- Regulates spermatogenesis (sperm production) by controlling the growth and development of germ cells- Helps maintain the balance of reproductive hormones in the bodySertoli cells- Located in the seminiferous tubules of the testes- Provide nutrients and support to developing sperm cells- Produce and secrete inhibin, as well as other hormones and factors that regulate spermatogenesis

Q51. Cartilage cells contain small cavities distributed in the matrix and are called:

• A. Shaft
• B. Periostium
• C. Perichondrium
• D. Lacunae✓

Explanation: Lacunae are small, fluid-filled cavities or spaces within the cartilage matrix that contain cartilage cells, also known as chondrocytes. These cavities provide a space for the chondrocytes to reside and produce the cartilaginous matrix.

Q52. Contractile unit between two Z lines is absent in:

• A. Skeletal Muscles
• B. Skeletal and Cardiac Muscles
• C. Smooth Muscles✓
• D. Skeletal Muscles

Explanation: The contractile unit between two Z lines is known as a sarcomere. Sarcomeres are the structural and functional units of striated muscle tissue and the muscles give striated appearance due to these contractile units. That's why, skeletal and cardiac muscles have these contractile units. However, smooth muscles do not have sarcomeres or Z lines, and their contractile units are not organized in the same way.

Q53. Ubiquinone contains:

• A. Iron chloride
• B. Iron Sulphide
• C. Iron✓
• D. Iron Phosphate

Explanation: Ubiquinone, also known as Coenzyme Q (CoQ), is a naturally occurring compound found in the cells of all living organisms. It plays a crucial role in the production of energy within cells, particularly in the mitochondria. Ubiquinone contains a quinone group and a long isoprenoid chain, as well as iron

Q54. Chlorophyll and accessory pigments absorb light and transfer the energy, which initiates thelight reactions. What is the order of energy transfer?

• A. Chlorophyll b → Carotenoids → Chlorophyll a
• B. Chlorophyll a → Carotenoids → Chlorophyll b
• C. Carotenoids → Chlorophyll b → Chlorophyll a✓
• D. Chlorophyll b → Chlorophyll a → Carotenoids

Explanation: The order of energy transfer during the light reactions of photosynthesis is as follows:1. Carotenoids: These accessory pigments absorb light energy and transfer it to chlorophyll b.2. Chlorophyll b: This pigment absorbs the energy from carotenoids and transfers it to chlorophyll a.3. Chlorophyll a: This pigment absorbs the energy from chlorophyll b and uses it to initiate the light reactions, ultimately producing ATP and NADPH.

Q55. Calcium bends or shortens when:

• A. 5 out of 9 double joints contract
• B. 5 out of 9 joints relax
• C. 4 out of 9 double joints contract✓
• D. 4 out of 9 double joints relax

Explanation: In the context of muscle physiology, the question appears to be referring to the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction. According to this theory, muscle contraction occurs when actin and myosin filaments slide past each other.Calcium ions (Ca2+) play a crucial role in muscle contraction. When a muscle is stimulated to contract, calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and bind to troponin and tropomyosin. This binding causes a conformational change that exposes the myosin binding sites on the actin filaments.The correct answer, "4 out of 9 double joints contract," is likely referring to the arrangement of troponin and tropomyosin molecules along the actin filament. Each troponin molecule is associated with a tropomyosin molecule, and these complexes are spaced at regular intervals along the actin filament.In this context, the "9 double joints" likely refer to the 9 troponin-tropomyosin complexes spaced along the actin filament. When 4 out of these 9 complexes bind to calcium ions, the resulting conformational change exposes the myosin binding sites, allowing muscle contraction to occur.

Q56. Which enzyme is missing in the patient of Tay-Sach's disease?

• A. Protein digesting enzyme
• B. Carbohydrate digesting enzyme
• C. Fatty acid digesting enzyme
• D. Lipid Digesting enzyme✓

Explanation: Tay-Sachs disease is a rare genetic disorder caused by a deficiency of the enzyme hexosaminidase A (Hex-A). Hex-A is a lipid-digesting enzyme responsible for breaking down a specific type of lipid called gangliosides, particularly GM2 ganglioside.

Q57. Cristae in mitochondria serve as a site for:

• A. Protein synthesis
• B. Phosphorylation of flavoprotein.
• C. Breakdown of macromolecules.
• D. Oxidation-reduction reaction.✓

Explanation: The cristae of mitochondria house the electron transport chain, where oxidation-reduction reactions occur as part of cellular respiration, facilitating ATP production.

Q58. Which one of the following describes best the autophagy?

• A. Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide
• B. Intracellular food digestion
• C. Self-eating process✓
• D. Disintegration of cell

Explanation: Autophagy is a cellular process in which cells recycle their own damaged or dysfunctional components, such as proteins and organelles. This process involves the degradation and recycling of cellular components within lysosomes.

Q59. Choose the correct sequence for permeability of molecules across the plasma membrane:

• A. Sodium > Lipids > Water/glucose
• B. Water/glucose > Lipids > Sodium
• C. Sodium > Water/glucose > Lipids
• D. Lipids > Water/glucose > Sodium✓

Explanation: The permeability of molecules across the plasma membrane depends on various factors, including the size and charge of the molecule, as well as the presence of specific transport mechanisms.

Q60. In which type of cells, cell wall is not present:

• A. Plant cells
• B. Bacterial cells
• C. Fungal cells
• D. Liver cells✓

Explanation: Liver cells, also known as hepatocytes, are a type of animal cell. Unlike plant, bacterial, and fungal cells, animal cells do not have a cell wall. Instead, animal cells are surrounded by a flexible and permeable cell membrane, also known as the plasma membrane. The cell membrane provides support and protection to the cell and regulates the movement of substances in and out of the cell.

Q61. A group of ribosomes attached to mRNA is known as a polysome and the attachment is controlled by:

• A. Na+ ions
• B. Mg++ ions✓
• C. Ca·++ ion
• D. K+ ions

Explanation: Ribosomes are composed of two subunits known as large and small, which unites to form the active ribosome during the process of protein synthesis. The increased concentration of Mg2+leads to association of both the units while the decreased concentration favours the dissociation of the units.

Q62. Nociceptors are concerned with sensation of:

• A. Pressure
• B. Pain✓
• C. Temperature
• D. Vibration

Explanation: This is correct as nociceptors are involved in reception of pain.

Q63. Which property of enzyme is helpful to carry out metabolic activities at room temperature?

• A. Enzymes significantly increase the rate of chemical reactions.✓
• B. Does not change the speed of reaction
• C. Highly specific
• D. Required in large quantities

Explanation: The correct answer is:Enzymes significantly increase the rate of chemical reactions. Here's why:Enzymes as Catalysts: Enzymes are biological catalysts, meaning they speed up chemical reactions without being consumed in the process. This allows metabolic activities to occur at a rapid pace, even at relatively low temperatures like room temperature. Let's look at why the other options are incorrect:Sensitivity to pH: While enzymes do have optimal pH ranges for activity, sensitivity to pH itself doesn't directly explain their ability to function at room temperature.Highly specific: Specificity is a crucial property of enzymes, ensuring they act on specific substrates. However, it doesn't directly address the issue of room temperature activity. Required in large quantities: Enzymes are typically required in relatively small amounts due to their high catalytic efficiency.

Q64. All of the following are the postulates of the lock and key model, EXCEPT

• A. Active site has a rigid structure
• B. Enzymes are non-regulatory
• C. One specific key can only open specific lock
• D. Substrate combines with an enzyme to induce change in enzyme structure✓

Explanation: This is postulates of induced fit model as according to lock -jey model there is no modification in enzyme after substrate attachment.

Q65. Which of the following factors does not affect the speed of sound in air?

• A. Density of gas
• B. Moisture in air
• C. Temperature
• D. Pressure of gas✓

Explanation: The factor that does not significantly affect the speed of sound in air (under normal conditions) is pressure of gas. Here's why:Temperature: The speed of sound in air is directly proportional to the square root of the absolute temperature. As temperature increases, the speed of sound increases. This is the most significant factor. Moisture in air (Humidity): Increased humidity slightly increases the speed of sound. This is because lighter water molecules replace some of the heavier nitrogen and oxygen molecules in the air, slightly decreasing the density.Density of gas: In general, the speed of sound is inversely proportional to the square root of the density of the medium. However, in an ideal gas, changes in pressure are accompanied by proportional changes in density, so the ratio of pressure to density remains constant at a given temperature. Therefore, pressure itself does not significantly affect the speed of sound in an ideal gas (like air under normal conditions).It's important to note that at extremely high pressures, the ideal gas law no longer holds, and pressure can have a more noticeable effect. However, for everyday conditions, the effect of pressure on the speed of sound in air is negligible. Therefore, the correct answer is Pressure of gas.

Q66. Which sequence will be followed when impulse travels from receptor to effector?

• A. Motor neuron → Inter neuron → Sensory neuron
• B. Inter neuron → Sensory neuron → Motor neuron
• C. Sensory neuron → Inter neuron → Motor neuron✓
• D. Sensory neuron → Motor neuron → Inter neuron

Explanation: This is correct as sensory neuron takes informational and travels towards interneuron which is present in brain and spinal and process this information and after process motor neurons take sthis information towards effectors and produces response.

Q67. The thermodynamics process during which the pressure is kept constant is called:

• A. Isochoric process
• B. Adiabatic process
• C. Isobaric process✓
• D. Isothermal process

Explanation: An isobaric process is a thermodynamic process in which pressure stays constant i.e ΔP=0.An isochoric process is a thermodynamic process during which the volume of the closed system undergoing such a process remains constant.An isothermal process is a change of a system, in which the temperature remains constant i.e. ΔT=0.

Q68. Which pathway will be followed by water-soluble hormones for crossing the plasmamembrane?

• A. Receptor → 2nd messenger → Activation of energy✓
• B. 2nd messenger → Receptor → Activation of energy
• C. Receptor → Activation of energy → 2nd messenger
• D. . Activation of energy → 2nd messenger → Receptor

Explanation: Water soluble hormones binds to the receptors on the plasma membrane which passes them.through the second messengers which results in the activation of energy producing mechanisms.

Q69. First law of thermodynamics is a manifestation of:

• A. Law of conservation of charge
• B. Law of conservation of mass
• C. Law of conservation of momentum
• D. Law of conservation of energy✓

Explanation: The first law of thermodynamics is a manifestation of the principle of conservation of energy.Here's a breakdown:First Law of Thermodynamics: This law states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transferred or converted from one form to another. In simpler terms, the total energy of an isolated system remains constant. Conservation of Energy: This fundamental principle of physics states that the total energy of an isolated system remains constant—it is said to be conserved over time. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed; rather, it transforms from one form to another. The first law of thermodynamics is often expressed mathematically as:ΔU = Q - WWhere:ΔU is the change in internal energy of the systemQ is the heat added to the systemW is the work done by the systemThis equation shows that any change in the internal energy of a system must be accounted for by the transfer of heat into or out of the system or by work done on or by the system. It directly reflects the conservation of energy.

Q70. The neurosecretory cells are found in the:

• A. Hypothalamus✓
• B. Hind Gland
• C. Pituitary Gland
• D. Thyroid gland

Explanation: This is correct as these cells are present in hypothalamus and produces hormones like ADH or oxytocin.

Q71. In Coulomb's Law, the value of constant "K" is:

• A. 9 x 10^8 Nm^2/C^2
• B. 9 x 10^9 Nm^2/C^2✓
• C. 9 x 10^10 Nm^2/C^2
• D. 9 x 10^11 Nm^2/C^2

Explanation: The factual value of coulomb's constant is 9×10^9 Nm²/C².

Q72. Nerve impulse conducted from one node of Ranvier to another, skipping the myelinatedregions, moves up to _ times faster than unmyelinated axons:

• A. 50✓
• B. 120
• C. 100
• D. 70

Explanation: Option A is only correct.

Q73. When t = RC, charge deposited "q" on a capacitor is:

• A. q = 63.2% * q₀✓
• B. q = 72% * q₀
• C. q = 36% * q₀
• D. q = 42% * q₀

Explanation: When t = RC (where R is resistance and C is capacitance), the charge deposited "q" on a capacitor is approximately q = 63.2% * q₀, where q₀ is the maximum possible charge on the capacitor. This value comes from the equation that describes the charging of a capacitor:q(t) = q₀ * (1 - e^(-t/RC)) Where:q(t) is the charge on the capacitor at time tq₀ is the maximum charget is the time R is the resistance C is the capacitance e is the base of the natural logarithm (~2.718) When t = RC, the equation becomes:q(RC) = q₀ * (1 - e^(-RC/RC))q(RC) = q₀ * (1 - e^(-1))q(RC) ≈ q₀ * (1 - 0.368)q(RC) ≈ q₀ * 0.632 Therefore, when t = RC, the charge on the capacitor is approximately 63.2% of its maximum charge. This value is significant because RC is known as the time constant of the circuit. It represents the time it takes for the capacitor to charge to approximately 63.2% of its full charge or discharge to approximately 36.8% of its initial charge.

Q74. One electron volt is the energy acquired or lost by an electron and is equal to:

• A. 1.6 x 10^-18 J
• B. 1.6 x 10^-17 J
• C. 1.6 x 10^-19 J✓
• D. 1.6 x 10^-20 J

Explanation: Work (Energy) = Charge × Potential Difference Energy = (1.602 × 10⁻¹⁹ C) × (1 V) = 1.602 × 10⁻¹⁹ J

Q75. Energy stored in a capacitor is equal to:

• A. CV
• B. CV²/2✓
• C. CV/2
• D. C/2V

Explanation: This is correct because E=1/2qv=1/2CV².

Q76. Which one of the following muscles is considered as “Voluntary muscle”?

• A. Smooth muscles
• B. Cardiac muscles
• C. Skeletal muscles✓
• D. Glandular muscles

Explanation: Muscles in the body are categorized into three main types: Smooth, Cardiac, and Skeletal. Skeletal muscles are classified as voluntary muscles because they are consciously controlled, allowing us to perform actions such as walking, lifting, and speaking. This contrasts with Smooth and Cardiac muscles, which are involuntary. Smooth muscles operate automatically within organs, and Cardiac muscles function independently in the heart's rhythmic contractions. Therefore, the correct answer is Option C: Skeletal muscles.

Q77. 2e represents:

• A. α-rays✓
• B. β-rays
• C. γ-rays
• D. X-rays

Explanation: a-rays are helium nucleus that's why, 2e+ is correct.

Q78. The half-life of Iodine - 131 is:

• A. 8 days✓
• B. 10 days
• C. 60 days
• D. 131 days

Explanation: 8 days

Q79. Which of the following is most abundant in human body:

• A. Fibrous
• B. Hyaline✓
• C. Elastic
• D. Flexible

Explanation: Hyaline cartilage is a glossy, greyish-white tissue with a uniform appearance. It is one of the three types of cartilage; the other two types are elastic cartilage and fibrocartilage. Hyaline cartilage is the most abundant type of cartilage in the body.

Q80. The relation between the decay constant λ and the half-life T1/2 is

• A. λ = T1/2
• B. T1/2 = 0.693/λ✓
• C. λ = T1/2/0.693
• D. λ = T1/2 x 0.693

Explanation: The relationship between the decay constant (λ) and the half-life (T₁/₂) is given by the following equation:T₁/₂ = ln(2) / λ Where:T₁/₂ is the half-life λ is the decay constantln(2) is the natural logarithm of 2, which is approximately 0.693 This equation can also be written as:T₁/₂ ≈ 0.693 / λ In simpler terms, the half-life is inversely proportional to the decay constant. A larger decay constant means a shorter half-life, and vice versa.The decay constant represents the probability of decay of a nucleus per unit time. The half-life is the time it takes for half of the radioactive nuclei in a sample to decay.

Q81. Skin burn, loss of hair, drop in white blood cell and induction of cancer are example of _ of radiation:

• A. Zener effect
• B. Biological effect
• C. Somatic effect✓
• D. Genetic effect

Explanation: These effects such as skin burn, loss of hair, drop in white blood cells, and induction of cancer are examples of the somatic effects of radiation. These effects are related to the impact of ionizing radiation on living tissues and organisms.

Q82. There is a situation in which hemophilia affects both genders equally. What is the reasonbehind it?

• A. X linked
• B. Y linked
• C. Autosomal✓
• D. Epistasis

Explanation: They is correct as hemophilia C is autosomal disease which affects both genders equally.

Q83. Leptons are the group of particles which are:

• A. Less massive than the lightest hadrons✓
• B. More massive than the lightest hadrons
• C. Less massive than the heaviest hadrons
• D. More massive than heaviest hadrons

Explanation: Leptons are a group of elementary particles that are less massive than the lightest hadrons. Here's a bit more detail:Leptons: These are fundamental particles, meaning they are not made up of smaller constituents. They include electrons, muons, taus, and their corresponding neutrinos. They interact through the weak force and (if charged) the electromagnetic force, but not the strong force. Hadrons: These are composite particles made up of quarks and gluons. They interact through the strong force. Hadrons are divided into baryons (like protons and neutrons, made of three quarks) and mesons (made of a quark and an antiquark). The lightest hadrons are the pions (mesons), which are significantly more massive than the electron (the lightest charged lepton). Neutrinos are even lighter than electrons, having very small or even zero mass.Therefore, the correct answer is Less massive than the lightest hadrons.

Q84. A meson consists of a

• A. Quark and an antiquark✓
• B. Only quarks
• C. Anti-quarks
• D. Quarks and hadrons

Explanation: A meson consists of a quark and an antiquark.Mesons are a type of hadron, which means they are composite particles made of quarks. Unlike baryons (such as protons and neutrons) which are made of three quarks, mesons are made of one quark and one antiquark bound together by the strong force.

Q85. Geiger Muller Counter's wire is maintained at:

• A. Positive 1000 V✓
• B. Negative 1000 V
• C. Positive 10,000 V
• D. Negative 10,000 V

Explanation: This is fact.

Q86. What is the principle of blood transfusion in donor and recipient, respectively?

• A. Antibodies of both
• B. Antibodies of recipient
• C. Antigen of both
• D. Antigen of donor : Antibodies of recipient✓

Explanation: The principle of blood transfusion centers around the interaction of antigens of the donor and antibodies of the recipient. Here's a breakdown:Antigens: These are substances (usually proteins or carbohydrates) on the surface of red blood cells. They determine the blood type (A, B, AB, or O). Antibodies: These are proteins in the blood plasma that recognize and bind to specific antigens. The key to a safe blood transfusion is ensuring that the recipient does not have antibodies that will react with the donor's red blood cell antigens. If such a reaction occurs, it can cause agglutination (clumping) of red blood cells, which can have serious and potentially fatal consequences. Therefore, the correct answer is Antigen of donor : Antibodies of recipient.Here's a simplified example:A person with blood type A has A antigens on their red blood cells and anti-B antibodies in their plasma. They can receive blood from someone with type A (who also has A antigens) or type O (who has neither A nor B antigens). They cannot receive blood from someone with type B or AB, as their anti-B antibodies would attack the B antigens on the donor's red blood cells.

Q87. One Becquerel is equal to:

• A. One decay per second✓
• B. Two decay per second
• C. Three decay per second
• D. Four decay per second

Explanation: One Becquerel (Bq) is defined as one decay per second. It's the SI unit of radioactivity, and it measures the rate of radioactive decay.If a radioactive sample has an activity of 1 Bq, it means that one nucleus in that sample decays (emits radiation) every second, on average.

Q88. When an object starts from rest, then the first equation of motion is given as:

• A. v = u + at✓
• B. v = u - at
• C. v = u + 1/2 at
• D. v = √(at)

Explanation: The first equation of motion is:v = u + atWhere:v = final velocityu = initial velocitya = accelerationt = timeIf an object starts from rest, its initial velocity (u) is 0. Therefore, the equation simplifies to:v = atSo the correct answer is v = u + at, which simplifies to v = at when u = 0.

Q89. Acceleration of light traveling in vacuum:

• A. 3 x 10^10 cm/s^2
• B. 1,86000 miles/s^2
• C. Zero✓
• D. 299792458 m/s^2

Explanation: Since the speed of light is always same and never changes so since there is no change in speed so it acceleration will be zero

Q90. Ignoring air resistance, Acceleration of a projectile is:

• A. Zero
• B. 10 m/s^2 vertically upward
• C. 10 m/s^2 vertically downward✓
• D. 10 m/s^2

Explanation: Ignoring air resistance, the acceleration of a projectile is constant and is equal to the acceleration due to gravity (approximately 9.8 m/s² downwards). Here's why: Only force acting: When air resistance is ignored, the only force acting on a projectile after it's launched is gravity. Constant gravitational force: The force of gravity is constant near the Earth's surface, resulting in a constant downward acceleration.No horizontal acceleration: Since there are no horizontal forces acting on the projectile (again, ignoring air resistance), there is no horizontal acceleration. The horizontal velocity remains constant. Therefore, the acceleration of a projectile (ignoring air resistance) is entirely vertical and constant, directed downwards

Q91. Two bodies having the same mass undergo elastic collision then their velocities after collision will be:

• A. v1' = 0, v2' = 0
• B. v1' = v2, v2' = 0
• C. v1' = v1, v2' = v2
• D. v1 = v2, v2' = v1✓

Explanation: a one-dimensional elastic collision between two bodies of equal mass, their velocities are exchanged. This means:The first body's velocity after the collision (v₁') is equal to the second body's velocity before the collision (v₂).The second body's velocity after the collision (v₂') is equal to the first body's velocity before the collision (v₁).Therefore, the correct relationship is:v₁' = v₂ v₂' = v₁So the correct answer from the provided options is v1 = v2, v2' = v1. It seems there's a small typo in the options you provided (it should likely be v1' = v2).

Q92. Momentum is the product of mass and velocity then momentum and velocity are:

• A. Parallel✓
• B. Perpendicular
• C. Antiparallel
• D. Independent

Explanation: Momentum is defined as the product of mass and velocity (p = mv).1. Since mass is a scalar quantity, the momentum vector (p) will always have the same direction as the velocity vector (v).2. Therefore, momentum and velocity are parallel

Q93. Two allelic genes, at the same locus, when expressed fully in an individual, it is considered as:

• A. Co Dominice✓
• B. Incomplete dominance
• C. Complete Dominance
• D. Epistasis

Explanation: When both alleles express themselves equally so this is co- dominance.

Q94. The angle between velocity and acceleration at maximum height is:

• A. 0°
• B. 60°
• C. 90°✓
• D. 180°

Explanation: At the maximum height of a projectile's trajectory, the angle between velocity and acceleration is 90 degrees. Here's why:Velocity at maximum height: At the highest point, the vertical component of the projectile's velocity is zero. However, the horizontal component of the velocity remains constant throughout the motion (assuming no air resistance). Therefore, the velocity vector at the maximum height is purely horizontal. Acceleration: The acceleration of a projectile (ignoring air resistance) is always directed vertically downwards due to gravity. Since the velocity is horizontal and the acceleration is vertical, the angle between them is 90 degrees.

Q95. To improve the jumping record the long jumper should jump at an angle of:

• A. 30°
• B. 45°✓
• C. 60°
• D. 90°

Explanation: improve the jumping record, the long jumper should jump at an angle of 45°.Here's why:Range of a projectile: The horizontal distance a projectile travels (its range) is maximized when the launch angle is 45 degrees, assuming the launch and landing points are at the same height and air resistance is negligible.Long jump as projectile motion: A long jump can be modeled as projectile motion. The jumper launches themselves at an angle, and their distance is determined by their initial velocity and launch angle.The formula for the range (R) of a projectile is:R = (v₀² * sin 2θ) / gWhere:v₀ is the initial velocityθ is the launch angleg is the acceleration due to gravityThe maximum value of sin 2θ is 1, which occurs when 2θ = 90°, or θ = 45°.While in real-world long jumping, factors like air resistance and the jumper's ability to generate both vertical and horizontal velocity play a role, the optimal theoretical launch angle for maximum distance is still 45°.

Q96. The pH of human blood is:

• A. 7.35 to 7.45✓
• B. 8.35 to 8.45
• C. 6.35 to 6.45
• D. 5.57 to 6.57

Explanation: This is the pH of human blood any change in it will cause the electrolyte imbalance and will cause death

Q97. Which traits are more likely to affect men than women?

• A. X-linked recessive✓
• B. X-linked dominant
• C. Autosomal dominant
• D. Autosomal recessive

Explanation: The correct answer is X-linked recessive because these conditions predominantly affect males due to their single X chromosome. If a male inherits an X chromosome with a recessive mutation, he will express the disorder since there is no second X chromosome to counteract the effect. In contrast, females would need two copies of the recessive mutation (one on each X chromosome) to exhibit the disorder, making it less common in females.Other options are incorrect because:X-linked dominant: This disorder can affect both genders, and males can show symptoms, but it is not more likely to affect them than females.Autosomal dominant: This pattern impacts both sexes equally, so it does not favor males over females.Autosomal recessive: Similar to autosomal dominant, this pattern affects both sexes equally, requiring two copies of the gene to express the disorder.

Q98. The time taken by a projectile to reach its maximum height is:

• A. T = 2v₀sinθ/g
• B. T = v₀sinθ/g✓
• C. T = v₀sinθ/2g
• D. T = v₀sin²θ/g

Explanation: The time taken by a projectile to reach its maximum height is given by:t = (v₀ * sin θ) / gWhere:t is the time to reach maximum height v₀ is the initial velocity θ is the launch angle g is the acceleration due to gravity This formula is derived from the first equation of motion (v = u + at) applied to the vertical motion of the projectile. At the maximum height, the vertical component of velocity (v_y) becomes zero. Here's the derivation:Consider the vertical motion: v_y = u_y + a_y * tAt maximum height, v_y = 0. The initial vertical velocity component is u_y = v₀ * sin θ. The vertical acceleration is a_y = -g (negative because it's downwards). Substituting these values into the equation:0 = v₀ * sin θ - g * tSolving for t:t = (v₀ * sin θ) / gThis formula tells us that the time to reach maximum height depends on the initial velocity and the launch angle. A higher initial velocity or a larger launch angle (closer to 90 degrees) will result in a longer time to reach the maximum height.

Q99. When both the alleles of a gene pair are same, the organism is said to be:

• A. Heterozygous
• B. Genotype
• C. Homozygous✓
• D. Phenotype

Explanation: An organism is homozygous when it carries two identical alleles for a particular gene.

Q100. The slope of velocity-time graph give us:

• A. Speed
• B. Velocity
• C. Acceleration✓
• D. Distance

Explanation: The slope of a velocity-time graph gives us acceleration.Here's why:Slope: In a graph, the slope is defined as the change in the vertical axis divided by the change in the horizontal axis (rise over run).Velocity-time graph: In this type of graph, the vertical axis represents velocity (v), and the horizontal axis represents time (t).Therefore, the slope of a velocity-time graph is:Slope = (Change in velocity) / (Change in time) = Δv / ΔtBy definition, the change in velocity over time is acceleration (a):a = Δv / ΔtThus, the slope of a velocity-time graph directly represents acceleration.

Q101. Phenotype is:

• A. The genetic component i.e. the genes in an individual for a particular trait
• B. Partner of gene pair
• C. The form of appearance of a trait✓
• D. The position of a gene on the chromosome

Explanation: A phenotype is an individual's observable traits, such as height, eye color, and blood type.

Q102. Rockets accelerate in space using which principle:

• A. Principle of thermodynamics
• B. Principle of conservation of energy
• C. Principle of momentum✓
• D. Principle of conservation of force

Explanation: Option C is correct because the loss of mass by the rocket results in an increase in the speed which makes the value of mv=p a constant. Thus, this speeding up of the rocket is according to law of conservation of momentum.

Q103. Sleep-wake cycle is controlled by which part of the brain?

• A. Hypothalamus✓
• B. Hippocampus
• C. Thalamus
• D. Amygdala

Explanation: Hypothalamus is involved in sleep- wake cycle, menstrual cycle , hunger thrust etc. While no other part of the brain performs this function among the given options.

Q104. In explosions:

• A. Total K.E is conserved
• B. Total P.E is conserved
• C. Total momentum is conserved✓
• D. Total momentum + K.E is conserved

Explanation: In explosions, total momentum is conserved. Here's why:Conservation of Momentum: In a closed system (where no external forces are acting), the total momentum before an event is equal to the total momentum after the event. This principle applies to all interactions, including explosions. Explosions as internal forces: Explosions involve internal forces within the system. These internal forces cause the fragments to move apart. However, they do not change the total momentum of the system. Here's why the other options are not generally true:Total momentum + K.E is conserved: Kinetic energy is generally not conserved in explosions. Explosions convert other forms of energy (chemical potential energy, for example) into kinetic energy of the fragments. Thus, kinetic energy increases. Total P.E is conserved: Potential energy is also generallynot conserved in explosions. Potential energy is converted into kinetic energy and other forms of energy (heat, sound, etc.).Total K.E is conserved: As mentioned above, kinetic energy increases in an explosion as other forms of energy are converted into it.Therefore, only momentum is conserved in explosions (in a closed system).

Q105. Slope of displacement time graph gives the values of:

• A. Displacement
• B. Velocity✓
• C. Acceleration
• D. Distance

Explanation: The slope of a displacement-time graph gives the value of velocity.Here's why:Displacement-time graph: In this graph, displacement (change in position) is plotted on the vertical axis (y-axis), and time is plotted on the horizontal axis (x-axis).Slope: The slope of any graph is calculated as "rise over run," which is the change in the y-value divided by the change in the x-value.In a displacement-time graph:Slope = (Change in displacement) / (Change in time)Since velocity is defined as the rate of change of displacement with respect to time, the slope of a displacement-time graph directly represents velocity.

Q106. When potassium superoxide reacts with carbon dioxide, the following products are formed:

• A. K2CO3 + O2✓
• B. K2CO3 + CO2
• C. KO2 + CO2 → [O]
• D. KO2 + O2

Explanation: When potassium superoxide (KO₂) reacts with carbon dioxide (CO₂), the products formed are potassium carbonate (K₂CO₃) and oxygen (O₂). The balanced chemical equation for this reaction is:4 KO₂ + 2 CO₂ → 2 K₂CO₃ + 3 O₂ This reaction is used in some breathing apparatuses because it removes carbon dioxide (a waste product of respiration) and generates oxygen (which is needed for breathing).

Q107. When a person intakes excess sugar in their diet, his/her insulin level rises to:

• A. Increase permeability of surface membrane✓
• B. Increase blood glucose level
• C. Deactivates enzymes in cells
• D. Converts glycogen to glucose

Explanation: When a person intakes excess sugar in their diet, his/her insulin level rises to increase permeability of surface membrane.Here's a more detailed explanation:Increased Blood Glucose: Consuming excess sugar leads to a rapid increase in blood glucose levels.Insulin Release: This rise in blood glucose is detected by the pancreas, which then releases insulin into the bloodstream.Insulin's Action: Insulin acts as a key that unlocks cells, allowing glucose to enter from the bloodstream. It does this by:Increasing the permeability of cell membranes to glucose: Insulin binds to receptors on the cell surface, which triggers the translocation of glucose transporters (like GLUT4) to the cell membrane. These transporters facilitate the movement of glucose from the blood into the cells.This process lowers blood glucose levels by allowing cells to take up glucose for energy production or storage (as glycogen in the liver and muscles).Here's why the other options are incorrect:Increase blood glucose level: Insulin's purpose is to decrease blood glucose levels, not increase them.Deactivates enzymes in cells: Insulin does not generally deactivate enzymes in cells in this context. It primarily affects glucose transport and metabolism.Converts glycogen to glucose: This process, called glycogenolysis, is stimulated by hormones like glucagon and epinephrine (adrenaline), which work in opposition to insulin. Insulin promotes the conversion of glucose to glycogen (glycogenesis), not the reverse.Therefore, the primary function of increased insulin levels after sugar intake is to increase the permeability of cell membranes to glucose, allowing glucose to move from the blood into cells

Q108. Work done is negative when θ is:

• A. 0°
• B. 45°
• C. 90°
• D. 180°✓

Explanation: Work done is negative when θ is greater than 90 degrees and less than or equal to 180 degrees (90° < θ ≤ 180°). Here's why:The formula for work done (W) is:W = Fd cos θ Where:F is the force applied d is the displacement θ is the angle between the force and displacement vectors The cosine function (cos θ) is:Positive when 0° ≤ θ < 90° Zero when θ = 90°Negative when 90° < θ ≤ 180° Therefore, when the angle between the force and displacement is greater than 90 degrees, the cosine of that angle is negative, making the work done negative. This physically means that the force is acting in a direction that opposes the displacement.

Q109. Which one of the following is a non-conservative force?

• A. Electric force
• B. Elastic spring force
• C. Gravitational force
• D. Frictional force✓

Explanation: Conservative forces, such as gravitational, electric, and elastic spring forces, depend only on the initial and final positions of an object, meaning the work done is independent of the path taken. On the other hand, frictional force is a non-conservative force because the work done by friction depends on the path taken. This is because frictional forces convert kinetic energy into thermal energy, which is dissipated and cannot be recovered, making the process path-dependent.

Q110. Which body function is controlled through a positive feedback mechanism?

• A. Labor contractions✓
• B. Body temperature
• C. Insulin production
• D. Thyroxine release

Explanation: A feedback mechanism is a loop system wherein the system responds to a perturbation. The response may be in the same direction (as in positive feedback) or in the opposite direction (as in negative feedback). An example of positive feedback is uterine contractions during childbirth. The hormone oxytocin, made by the endocrine system, stimulates the contraction of the uterus. This produces the pain sensed by the nervous system. In response, more oxytocin is released, which in turn stimulates the contractions even more. This loop of the 'pain induced from contractions stimulating the release of oxytocin, and oxytocin stimulating more contraction continues with increasing intensity' still the fetus is born. This is a positive feedback loop; hence, Option A is correct.

Q111. The color imparted by the Li wire when subjected to flame is:

• A. Crimson red✓
• B. Greyish white
• C. Pale green
• D. Brick red

Explanation: The color imparted by a lithium (Li) wire when subjected to a flame is crimson red. This is a characteristic property of lithium and is used in flame tests to identify its presence.When lithium ions are heated in a flame, their electrons get excited to higher energy levels. As they return to their ground state, they emit light of a specific wavelength, which we perceive as a crimson red color.

Q112. Which one of the following is found in both messenger RNA and DNA of a mammalian cell?

• A. Double helical structure
• B. Ribose sugar
• C. Thymine
• D. Sugar - phosphate backbone✓

Explanation: As we can see that the double-helical structure and the nitrogenous base Thymine are exclusive to DNA, while RNA solely posses the Ribose sugar. However, the one thing common between the two genetic materials is the Sugar Phosphate Backbone. A sugar-phosphate backbone (alternating grey-dark grey) joins together the nucleotides in a DNA sequence. The sugar-phosphate backbone forms the structural framework of nucleic acids, including DNA and RNA. This backbone is composed of alternating sugar and phosphate groups and defines the directionality of the molecule.

Q113. The trend of increasing order of densities among Group 1 elements is

• A. Li, Na, K, Rb, Cs
• B. Na, K, Rb, Cs
• C. Li, K, Na, Rb, Cs✓
• D. K, Rb, Na, Li

Explanation: The general trend for density in Group 1 (alkali metals) is that it increases down the group due to increasing atomic mass. However, potassium (K) is an exception; it's less dense than sodium (Na).Therefore, the correct increasing order of densities is:Li < K < Na < Rb < Cs

Q114. The cells in our body are all genetically identical, apart from the:

• A. Somatic cells
• B. Reproductive cells✓
• C. Muscle fibers
• D. White blood cells

Explanation: Reproductive cells are different. They are produced in the gonads (ovaries in females and testes in males) and are specialized for the purpose of reproduction. In contrast to somatic cells, which have two copies of each chromosome (one from each parent), reproductive cells only have one copy of each chromosome. This is because they are produced through a process called meiosis, which involves two rounds of cell division. During meiosis, the homologous chromosomes (pairs of chromosomes that are identical in size and structure) are separated, resulting in cells with half the number of chromosomes as the original cell. This reduction in chromosome number is necessary for sexual reproduction, as it allows for the mixing of genetic material from two parents to create a new individual with a unique genetic makeup.

Q115. Which of the following sulfates of Group-II elements are insoluble?

• A. MgSO4
• B. CaSO4
• C. BeSO4
• D. BaSO4✓

Explanation: Of the Group II sulfates listed, BaSO₄ (Barium sulfate) is the most insoluble.Here's the general trend of solubility for Group II sulfates:Solubility decreases down the group. This is primarily due to the decreasing hydration enthalpy of the cations (Be²⁺ to Ba²⁺) as you go down the group. The lattice energy remains relatively constant because the sulfate anion is large. Based on this trend:BeSO₄ (Beryllium sulfate) is quite soluble. MgSO₄ (Magnesium sulfate) is also soluble. CaSO₄ (Calcium sulfate) is sparingly soluble (or slightly soluble). BaSO₄ (Barium sulfate) is practically insoluble. It's so insoluble that it's used in medical imaging (barium swallow) because it doesn't get absorbed into the body.Therefore, the answer is BaSO₄.

Q116. Transcription is the process in which an RNA copy of the DNA sequence and coding the gene is produced with the help of an enzyme called:

• A. DNA polymerase
• B. RNA polymerase✓
• C. DNA transcriptase
• D. RNA transcriptase

Explanation: RNA polymerase is the main transcription enzyme. RNA polymerase uses one of the DNA strands (the template strand) as a template to make a new, complementary RNA molecule. DNA polymerase is an enzyme that synthesizes DNA molecules from deoxyribonucleotides, which are the building blocks of DNA. The enzymes play an essential role in DNA replication, usually working in pairs to produce two matching DNA stranges from a single DNA molecule. There are no enzymes known as DNA or RNA transcriptase. However, we have Reverse Transcriptase (RT) which is an enzyme used to generate complementary DNA (cDNA) from an RNA template, a process termed as 'reverse transcription'.

Q117. Which of the following is an s-block element?

• A. Sulphur
• B. Carbon
• C. Potassium✓
• D. Neon

Explanation: This is s block elements belonging to alkali metals.

Q118. The unit of conductivity is:

• A. S/m (Siemens per meter)✓
• B. Ohm-m
• C. Ohm
• D. m/ohm

Explanation: The SI unit of conductivity is Siemens per meter (S/m). Here's a bit more about it:Conductivity (σ): This measures a material's ability to conduct electric current. It's the reciprocal of resistivity (ρ). Siemens (S): The unit of conductance (G), which is the reciprocal of resistance (R). 1 S = 1/Ω (ohm). Siemens per meter (S/m): This unit takes into account the length of the material. It represents the conductance of a material with a length of 1 meter and a cross-sectional area of 1 square meter. Sometimes, you might also see conductivity expressed in other units, such as:mho/meter (℧/m): "mho" is "ohm" spelled backward and was an older unit for conductance. It's now generally replaced by Siemens. milliSiemens per meter (mS/m): A smaller unit, often used for materials with lower conductivity.However, the standard SI unit remains Siemens per meter (S/m).

Q119. I. Many schools have banned the sale of fast food in their premises. II. Obesity in youngsters is the cause and their poor eating habits its effect

• A. Statement (I) is the cause and statement (II) is the effect
• B. Statement (II) is the cause and statement (I) is the effect✓
• C. Both the statements (I) and (II) are independent causes
• D. Both the statements (I) and (II) are effects of independent causes

Explanation: Obesity is an issue in younger generation due to fat food which is an cause and should be addressed in statement II so the in order to control obesity school banned fat food in school to prevent and co trol obesity problems in young generation so statement one is effect so option B is correct.

Q120. 1 kilowatt-hour =

• A. 0.3 x 10^6 Joules
• B. 3.6 x 10^6 Joules✓
• C. 1.8 x 10^6 Joules
• D. 3.7 x 10^6 Joules

Explanation: 1 kilowatt-hour (kWh) is equal to 3.6 x 10⁶ joules (J) or 3.6 megajoules (MJ). Here's the conversion:1 kilowatt (kW) = 1000 watts (W) 1 hour (h) = 3600 seconds (s)Therefore:1 kWh = (1000 W) * (3600 s)1 kWh = 3,600,000 Ws1 kWh = 3,600,000 J (since 1 W = 1 J/s)1 kWh = 3.6 x 10⁶ J1 kWh = 3.6 MJ

Q121. "Read the following statement, assuming everything in it to be true. Then decide which of the given suggested courses of action needs to be followed." are worth pursuing. Statement: My laptop's battery is low logically charged. I. Stop using the laptop to save powerII. Get a new fully charged battery and replace it with my old one

• A. I
• B. II✓
• C. Both I and II
• D. Neither I nor II

Explanation: Action I: Stop using the laptopTechnically saves battery but prevents using the laptop, so not practical if you need to continue working.Action II: Get a fully charged battery and replace the old oneSolves the problem and allows continued use.Even if recharging the old battery is an option, this action actually addresses the problem effectively.B) II only is correct.

Q122. 2-Hexanone and 3-Hexanone are best considered as:

• A. Metamers✓
• B. Position isomers
• C. Tautomers
• D. Chain isomers

Explanation: Both 2-hexanone and 3-hexanone have:the same molecular formula (C₆H₁₂O),the same functional group (carbonyl of a ketone),but different alkyl groups attached to the carbonyl carbon.That satisfies the definition of metamerism — compounds with the same functional group but different alkyl groups (or radicals) on either side of that group.Hence, although they could loosely be called positional isomers, the more precise and prioritized classification (according to the RfTmCp hierarchy) is:2-Hexanone and 3-Hexanone are metamers.

Q123. The Incandescent brand fruit juice claims to be the most original fruit juice available on the market today. To prove this claim, the company juice incandescent called 10 people from the market and asked them about their thoughts on juices available in the market. Nine of them stated that they unequally drink Incandescent brand fruit juices on a regular basis because it is closest to the taste of real fruits. Which of the following would weaken this argument?

• A. The Incandescent brand fruit juice is highly addictive.
• B. The 10 people were closely related to top executive of the company✓
• C. The 10 people were selected at random.
• D. Most people prefer cola drinks to fruit juices. Here, Incandescent is a poor third to Coke and Pepsi.

Explanation: Option A is not correct as it would not weaken the argument that juice is the most original one in market instead it will strengthen them and option C is not correct as if the people the selected at random it would strengthen their argument that juices are original as most people prefer them. And option D is not correct as the comparison is between the juices Available in the markets not soft drinks. So the option B is correct as if the people are relatives of excetives of como ay they would prefer their relatives and this would make the company's argument weaker

Q124. The resistance of pure metal increases with

• A. Increase in temperature✓
• B. Increase in pressure
• C. Decrease in temperature
• D. Decrease in pressure

Explanation: With the increase in temperature, the random motion of electrons increases. As a result, the number of collisions of electrons with the positive ions increases in a metal. Hence, the resistance of a metal increases with increase in temperature.

Q125. When current is coming out of the paper in a straight conductor then direction of magnetic field is:

• A. Clockwise
• B. Anti-clockwise✓
• C. Downward
• D. Upward

Explanation: When the current is coming out of the paper in a straight conductor, the direction of the magnetic field is anti-clockwise. This is determined using the right-hand rule:Point your right thumb in the direction of the current. In this case, since the current is coming out of the paper, your thumb should point directly at you.Curl your fingers. The direction your fingers curl represents the direction of the magnetic field lines. When you do this, your fingers will curl in an anti-clockwise direction

Q126. Which of the following exhibits geometric isomerism?

• A. 1-Propene
• B. Butenedioic acid
• C. 2-Hydroxy propanoic acid
• D. 2-Butene✓

Explanation: The compound that exhibits geometric isomerism (cis-trans isomerism) is 2-Butene. Here's why:Geometric Isomerism Requirements: Geometric isomerism occurs due to restricted rotation around a double bond (or in cyclic compounds). For an alkene to exhibit geometric isomerism, each carbon atom of the double bond must be attached to two different groups. Let's examine the options:1-Propene (CH₂=CHCH₃): One of the carbons of the double bond is attached to two hydrogen atoms (same group), so it does not exhibit geometric isomerism.2-Hydroxypropanoic acid (CH₃CH(OH)COOH): This molecule does not have a double bond, so it cannot exhibit geometric isomerism. It does have a chiral center and can exist as enantiomers (optical isomers), but that's a different type of isomerism. 2-Butene (CH₃CH=CHCH₃): Each carbon of the double bond is attached to a methyl group (CH₃) and a hydrogen atom (H). This allows for cis (both methyl groups on the same side) and trans (methyl groups on opposite sides) isomers.

Q127. 1Wb =

• A. 1 Nm⁻¹A⁻¹
• B. 1 N⁻¹mA⁻¹
• C. 1 N⁻¹m⁻¹A
• D. 1 Nm A⁻¹✓

Explanation: We know that:1 Wb = 1 T⋅m² (tesla-square meter) 1 T = 1 N/(A⋅m) (tesla = newton per ampere-meter)Substituting the definition of Tesla into the equation for Weber:1 Wb = (1 N/(A⋅m))⋅m² 1 Wb = 1 N⋅m/ATherefore, 1 Weber can be expressed as 1 Newton-meter per Ampere (N⋅m/A).

Q128. Observe the patten

• A. A
• B. B
• C. C✓
• D. D

Explanation: Option C is correct because according to the given sequence, the larger line must follow the four block lines in order to be sequential and this is the case only in option C.

Q129. The common name of 1,3-dihydroxy benzene is:

• A. Mesitylene
• B. Resorcinol✓
• C. Durene
• D. Anthracene

Explanation: The common name of 1,3-dihydroxybenzene is Resorcinol. The other options are different aromatic compounds:Mesitylene: 1,3,5-TrimethylbenzeneDurene: 1,2,4,5-Tetramethylbenzene Anthracene: A polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon with three fused benzene rings

Q130. A ball is a sphere. All spheres are round. Some round things are mesmerizing.Which of the following conclusions is NECESSARILY TRUE?Conclusions:I. All balls are mesmerizing.II. All round things are spheres.III. Some mesmerizing things are spheres.

• A. III✓
• B. I and II
• C. Il and III
• D. I and III

Explanation: I. "All balls are mesmerizing" is not necessarily true. The statements provided do not establish a direct connection between all balls and being mesmerizing. So, this conclusion cannot be necessarily true.II. "All round things are spheres" is not necessarily true either. While it is true that all spheres are round, the statements do not provide enough information to conclude that all round things are spheres. There can be other objects that are round but not spherical.III. "Some mesmerizing things are spheres" is necessarily true. The statements establish that "Some round things are mesmerizing," and since all spheres are round (as stated in the first premise), it is necessarily true that some mesmerizing things are spheres.So, the correct conclusion is III, making option A the correct choice.

Q131. The transformer depends on the use of:

• A. Direct current
• B. Alternating current✓
• C. Direct and alternating current
• D. Direct and alternating voltage

Explanation: Transformers only work for alternating current, because you need a changing magnetic field. The size of the induced voltage depends on the number of turns on each coil – if there are less in the secondary coil, the voltage falls, and if there are more in the secondary coil, the voltage rises.

Q132. No cats are goats. All goats are animals. Some animals are herbivores. Which of the following conclusions are NECESSARILY TRUE? CONCLUSIONS: I. Some cats are animals II. all animals are goats . III. some herbivores are animals

• A. I and II
• B. III✓
• C. I and III
• D. II and III

Explanation: I. Some cats are animals: This is not necessarily true. We know cats are not goats, and goats are animals, but this doesn't tell us anything about whether cats themselves are animals. They could be entirely separate.II. All animals are goats: This is not necessarily true. We know that all goats are animals, but the reverse is not stated. There could be other animals besides goats.III. Some herbivores are animals: This is necessarily true. The premise "Some animals are herbivores" directly implies that there exist herbivores that are also animals.Therefore, only conclusion III is necessarily true.

Q133. The magnitude of work is half of maximum at angle:

• A. 30°
• B. 45°
• C. 60°✓
• D. 90°

Explanation: The magnitude of work (W) is given by the formula:W = Fd cos θ Where:F is the force applied d is the displacement θ is the angle between the force and displacementThe maximum work is done when cos θ = 1, which occurs when θ = 0°. In this case, W_max = Fd. We want to find the angle θ where the work done is half of the maximum work:W = (1/2) * W_max Fd cos θ = (1/2) * FdDividing both sides by Fd:cos θ = 1/2Taking the inverse cosine (arccos) of both sides:θ = arccos(1/2) θ = 60°Therefore, the magnitude of work is half of the maximum work when the angle between the force and displacement is 60°.

Q134. In case angular displacement one' radian is equal to:

• A. 60 degrees
• B. 57.3 degrees✓
• C. 360 degrees
• D. 90 degrees

Explanation: One radian is approximately equal to 57.3 degrees. Here's the conversion:A full circle is 360 degrees, which is also equal to 2π radians.Therefore, 2π radians = 360 degrees. To find how many degrees are in 1 radian, we can set up a proportion:(Radians / Degrees) = (2π / 360) = (1 / 57.3)1 radian = (360 / 2π) degrees 1 radian ≈ (360 / 6.283) degrees 1 radian ≈ 57.3 degrees

Q135. The relationship between linear displacement and angular displacement is:

• A. θ = s/r
• B. s = r θ✓
• C. s = r/θ
• D. θ = r/s

Explanation: The relationship between linear displacement (s) and angular displacement (θ) is given by:s = rθ Where:s is the linear displacement (the distance traveled along the arc) r is the radius of the circular path θ is the angular displacement (the angle through which the object has rotated, measured in radians) This formula is valid when the angle θ is measured in radians. It essentially states that the linear distance traveled along a circular path is equal to the radius of the circle multiplied by the angle (in radians) through which the object has rotated.

Q136. Which one of the following provides centripetal force in a circular motion of the body?

• A. Vertical component of weight
• B. Horizontal component of weight
• C. Weight of the body
• D. Force of friction✓

Explanation: In circular motion (like a car turning on a flat road), the centripetal force that keeps the body moving in a circle is provided by the horizontal force directed towards the center. On a flat surface, this force is the force of friction between the tires and the road.

Q137. The resonance energy of benzene is:

• A. -119.5 kJ/mol
• B. -358.5 kJ/mol
• C. +150.5 kJ/mol✓
• D. -208 kJ/mol

Explanation: Resonance energy is the difference between the actual enthalpy of hydrogenation of benzene (-208 kJ/mol) and the theoretical enthalpy calculated for a hypothetical "cyclohexatriene" molecule (3x-119.5-358.5 kJ/mol). The difference, 150.5 kJ/mol, represents the extra stability due to resonance, which is called resonance energy.

Q138. The product of "T" and "f" of a wave is equal to:

• A. Zero
• B. 1✓
• C. 2
• D. 3

Explanation: The product of the period (T) and the frequency (f) of a wave is always equal to 1. Here's why:Period (T): The time taken for one complete cycle of a wave. Frequency (f): The number of cycles of a wave that occur per unit of time (usually one second). These two quantities are reciprocally related:f = 1/T T = 1/fTherefore, if you multiply the period (T) by the frequency (f), you always get 1:T * f = (1/f) * f = 1

Q139. Which solvent is used when alcohol reacts with thionyl chloride to form alkyl halide?

• A. Zinc chloride
• B. Pyridine✓
• C. Carbon tetrachloride
• D. Sulphuric acid

Explanation: The solvent commonly used when an alcohol reacts with thionyl chloride (SOCl₂) to form an alkyl halide is pyridine. Here's why:Reaction with SOCl₂: Alcohols react with thionyl chloride to form alkyl chlorides, sulfur dioxide (SO₂), and hydrogen chloride (HCl): R-OH + SOCl₂ → R-Cl + SO₂ + HCl Role of Pyridine: The HCl produced in this reaction is a strong acid. Pyridine (C₅H₅N) is a weak base that acts as a scavenger for this HCl. It reacts with the HCl to form pyridinium hydrochloride, preventing the HCl from causing side reactions, such as the reverse reaction (converting the alkyl chloride back to the alcohol) or elimination reactions (forming alkenes).C₅H₅N + HCl → C₅H₅NH⁺Cl⁻The use of pyridine ensures a cleaner reaction and a better yield of the desired alkyl chloride.While carbon tetrachloride (CCl₄) can sometimes be used as a solvent in organic reactions, it's not the typical or preferred solvent for the reaction of alcohols with thionyl chloride. Zinc chloride is a Lewis acid catalyst used with HCl in the Lucas test to distinguish between different types of alcohols. Sulphuric acid is a strong acid that can cause unwanted side reactions with both alcohols and thionyl chloride.

Q140. 1g H₂ has:

• A. 1 mol
• B. 0.2 moles
• C. 0.5 moles✓
• D. 2.5 moles

Explanation: 1 g of H₂ has 0.5 moles.Here's the calculation:The molar mass of hydrogen (H₂) is approximately 2 g/mol (1 g/mol for each H atom).Number of moles = (Given mass) / (Molar mass) Number of moles = (1 g) / (2 g/mol) = 0.5 molSo, 1 gram of H₂ contains 0.5 moles of H₂ molecules.

Q141. Which method is used to prepare diethyl ether from ethanol?

• A. Williamson synthesis
• B. Dehydration with H₂SO₄ at 140°C✓
• C. Oxidation with KMnO₄
• D. Reaction with NaOH

Explanation: Ethanol is dehydrated with conc. H₂SO₄ at 140°C to form diethyl ether via intermolecular dehydration.

Q142. Percentage composition by mass in CO is:

• A. 30% Carbon & 70% Oxygen
• B. 25% Carbon & 75% Oxygen
• C. 42.88% Carbon & 57.12% Oxygen✓
• D. 40% Carbon & 60% Oxygen

Explanation: The percentage composition by mass in CO is approximately 42.88% Carbon & 57.12% Oxygen. Here's how to calculate it:Find the molar masses: Carbon (C): 12.01 g/mol Oxygen (O): 16.00 g/molCarbon monoxide (CO): 12.01 + 16.00 = 28.01 g/molCalculate the percentage of each element: % Carbon = (Mass of Carbon / Mass of CO) * 100 % Carbon = (12.01 / 28.01) * 100 ≈ 42.88% % Oxygen = (Mass of Oxygen / Mass of CO) * 100% Oxygen = (16.00 / 28.01) * 100 ≈ 57.12%Therefore, the correct answer is approximately 42.88% Carbon & 57.12% Oxygen.

Q143. Wavelength λ can be found

• A. λ = v/f✓
• B. λ = 1/f
• C. λ = 1/λ
• D. λ = v/λ

Explanation: The correct formula to find wavelength (λ) is:λ = v/f Where: λ is the wavelength v is the wave speed (or velocity) f is the frequency

Q144. Which gas in the discharge tube has the highest e/m ratio?

• A. Oxygen
• B. Helium
• C. Nitrogen
• D. Hydrogen✓

Explanation: The gas in a discharge tube that has the highest e/m (charge-to-mass) ratio is hydrogen. Here's why:e/m ratio: This ratio represents the charge of a particle divided by its mass. A higher e/m ratio means that for a given charge, the particle has a smaller mass. Hydrogen ion (H⁺): When hydrogen gas is used in a discharge tube, the positive ions formed are primarily protons (H⁺). A proton has a charge of +1e (elementary charge) and a relatively small mass (approximately 1 atomic mass unit). Other gases: Other gases form ions with either a greater mass or a smaller charge-to-mass ratio compared to the proton. For example, helium (He) can form He⁺ or He²⁺ ions, but even He²⁺ has a smaller charge-to-mass ratio than H⁺.Since the proton (H⁺) has the smallest mass among positive ions commonly found in discharge tubes, it exhibits the highest e/m ratio

Q145. Speed of sound is 332 m/s at 0°C. What will be its value at 10°C?

• A. 3320 m/s
• B. 338.2 m/s✓
• C. 33.2 m/s
• D. 332.1 m/s

Explanation: The speed of sound in air increases with the square root of the absolute temperature. I'll convert the Celsius temperatures to Kelvin, then use the relationship between speed and temperature to calculate the speed of sound at 10°C.Pythonimport math # Assign initial speed and temperature speed_0 = 332 temp_0 = 273.15 # Calculate the final temperature in Kelvin temp_1 = 273.15 + 10 # Calculate the speed of sound at 10°C speed_1 = speed_0 * math.sqrt(temp_1 / temp_0) # Print the result print(f"The speed of sound at 10°C is: {speed_1:.2f} m/s") Code outputThe speed of sound at 10°C is: 338.02 m/s The speed of sound at 10°C is approximately 338.02 m/s.

Q146. Which one of the following noble gases will have the highest boiling point?

• A. Kr✓
• B. Ne
• C. Ar
• D. He

Explanation: Of the noble gases listed, Kr (Krypton) will have the highest boiling point.Here's the trend for boiling points of noble gases:Boiling points increase as you go down the group (He < Ne < Ar < Kr < Xe < Rn).This trend is due to increasing strength of London Dispersion Forces (also known as Van der Waals forces). These are weak intermolecular forces that arise from temporary fluctuations in electron distribution, creating temporary dipoles. Larger atoms with more electrons have larger electron clouds, making them more polarizable and leading to stronger London Dispersion Forces. Stronger intermolecular forces mean higher boiling points. Since Krypton is below Neon and Argon in the periodic table, it has a larger atomic size and more electrons than Neon and Argon. Helium is at the top of the group, so it has the lowest boiling point. Therefore, Krypton has the highest boiling point among the given options.

Q147. Effective distance for echo is:

• A. 10 m
• B. 20 m
• C. 15 m
• D. 17 m✓

Explanation: The effective distance for an echo is approximately 17 meters. Here's the reasoning:Persistence of hearing: The human ear can distinguish two separate sounds only if there's a minimum time interval between them. This time interval is about 0.1 seconds. Speed of sound: The speed of sound in air is approximately 340 m/s (this varies slightly with temperature). To hear an echo, the sound must travel to the reflecting surface and back to the listener. Therefore, the total distance traveled by the sound is twice the distance to the reflecting surface (2d). Using the formula distance = speed × time:2d = speed of sound × time 2d = 340 m/s × 0.1 s 2d = 34 m Therefore, the minimum distance (d) to the reflecting surface for an echo to be heard is:d = 34 m / 2 d = 17 mSo, the effective distance for an echo is approximately 17 m

Q148. Electronic configuration of ²³Na₁₁ is:

• A. [Ne]3s²
• B. [Ne]3s¹✓
• C. [Ne]3s³
• D. [Ne]3s²3p

Explanation: The electronic configuration of ²³Na₁₁ (Sodium) is:1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s¹. Since neon has 10 electron so we can write neon at start.

Q149. The SI unit of R in General Gas equation is:

• A. 8.3143 JK⁻¹mol⁻¹✓
• B. 0.0821 dm³atom mol⁻¹K⁻¹
• C. 8.3143 Jmol⁻¹
• D. 0.0821 dm³tor K⁻¹mol⁻¹

Explanation: The SI unit of R (the ideal gas constant) in the General Gas equation (PV = nRT) is 8.3143 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹ (Joules per Kelvin per mole). Here's how we derive this: Ideal Gas Equation: PV = nRT P = pressure (Pascals, Pa or N/m²) V = volume (cubic meters, m³) n = number of moles (mol) R = ideal gas constant T = temperature (Kelvin, K) Rearranging the equation to solve for R:R = PV / nT Now, let's look at the units: Pressure (P): Pa = N/m² = kg⋅m⁻¹⋅s⁻² Volume (V): m³ Number of moles (n): mol Temperature (T): K So the units of R are:(kg⋅m⁻¹⋅s⁻²)⋅m³ / (mol⋅K) = kg⋅m²⋅s⁻²⋅K⁻¹⋅mol⁻¹Since 1 Joule (J) is equal to 1 kg⋅m²⋅s⁻², the SI units of R can also be written as:J⋅K⁻¹⋅mol⁻¹ or J/(K⋅mol)The value of R is approximately 8.314 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹.

Q150. Maximum yield of ammonia can be obtained by:

• A. Low temperature, high pressure✓
• B. Low temperature, low pressure
• C. High temperature, high pressure
• D. High temperature, low pressure

Explanation: The maximum yield of ammonia (NH₃) in the Haber-Bosch process is obtained by low temperature and high pressure.Here's why: Haber-Bosch Process: The synthesis of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen is a reversible and exothermic reaction: N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g) ΔH < 0 (exothermic) Le Chatelier's Principle: This principle states that if a change of condition is applied to a system in equilibrium, the system will shift in a direction that relieves the stress.Low Temperature: Since the reaction is exothermic (releases heat), decreasing the temperature favors the forward reaction (formation of ammonia) to counteract the "stress" of removing heat. High Pressure: There are fewer moles of gas on the product side (2 moles of NH₃) compared to the reactant side (4 moles of N₂ and H₂). Increasing the pressure favors the side with fewer moles of gas to reduce the pressure. Therefore, according to Le Chatelier's principle, low temperature and high pressure favor the formation of ammonia. However, in practice, a moderately high temperature (around 400-450°C) is used along with a catalyst (usually iron) to achieve a reasonable reaction rate. A very low temperature would favor the product yield even more, but the reaction would be too slow to be economically viable.

Q151. PV = nRT is called:

• A. Ideal gas equation✓
• B. Vander walls equation
• C. Kinetic equation
• D. Henderson equation

Explanation: This is according to the general/ideal gas equation that the product of change in pressure and volume appears in the form of change in number of moles and temperature change with respect to general gas constant R. Therefore, this option is correct

Q152. The apparent frequency when the listener and source move towards each other is:

• A. (v+b/v-a)f✓
• B. (v-b/v-a)f
• C. (v-a/v+b)f
• D. (v-a/v-b)f

Explanation: The apparent frequency when the listener and source move towards each other is given by the Doppler effect formula. When both are moving towards each other, the apparent frequency is higher than the source frequency. The formula that reflects this is:f' = (v + v₀) / (v - vₛ) * fWhere:f' is the observed frequency (apparent frequency)v is the speed of sound in the mediumv₀ is the velocity of the observer (listener) moving towards the sourcevₛ is the velocity of the source moving towards the observerf is the original frequency of the sourceIf we use 'a' for the observer's velocity and 'b' for the source's velocity, the formula becomes:f' = (v + a) / (v - b) * fSo the correct answer, based on the options you provided (assuming 'a' is the observer's velocity and 'b' is the source's velocity), is: (v+a/v-b)f

Q153. In SHM, a ∝ -x the negative sign indicates that:

• A. Acceleration is decreasing
• B. Acceleration is directed away from equilibrium
• C. Acceleration is directed towards equilibrium✓
• D. Acceleration is zero at extreme position

Explanation: In SHM (Simple Harmonic Motion), the relationship a ∝ -x (acceleration is proportional to the negative of displacement) indicates that acceleration is directed towards the equilibrium position. Here's why: x (displacement): This represents the object's position relative to the equilibrium point. -x: The negative sign means that the acceleration is in the opposite direction to the displacement. Therefore, if the object is displaced to the right (positive x), the acceleration is to the left (negative direction), pulling it back towards the equilibrium point. Conversely, if the object is displaced to the left (negative x), the acceleration is to the right (positive direction), again pulling it back towards equilibrium.

Q154. Which of the following factors will disturb chemical equilibrium in a given reaction?1. Change in concentration2. Change in temperature3. Change in pressure4. Change in volume

• A. 1,2
• B. 2,3
• C. 3,4
• D. 1,2,3,4✓

Explanation: All of the given factors can disturb chemical equilibrium in a given reaction: Change in concentration: Adding more reactants or products will shift the equilibrium to consume the added substance. Removing reactants or products will shift the equilibrium to replenish the removed substance. Change in temperature: Changing the temperature will shift the equilibrium in the direction that absorbs heat (for an endothermic reaction) or releases heat (for an exothermic reaction) to counteract the change. Change in pressure: Changing the pressure will primarily affect reactions involving gases. Increasing the pressure will shift the equilibrium towards the side with fewer moles of gas, while decreasing the pressure will shift it towards the side with more moles of gas. Change in volume: Changing the volume of a gaseous reaction system is directly related to changing the pressure (at constant temperature). Decreasing the volume increases the pressure, and vice versa. Therefore, changes in volume have the same effect on equilibrium as changes in pressure.These effects are summarized by Le Chatelier's Principle, which states that if a change of condition is applied to a system in equilibrium, the system will shift in a direction that relieves the stress.

Q155. In moist air (humidity), the speed of sound wave:

• A. Increases✓
• B. Decreases
• C. Remains same
• D. Zero

Explanation: In moist air (humidity), the speed of sound increases. Here's the explanation:Density and Speed of Sound: The speed of sound in a medium is related to its density. Generally, sound travels faster in denser media. However, in moist air, the effect is a bit counterintuitive. Moist Air is Less Dense: Water vapor (H₂O) is less dense than the primary components of dry air (nitrogen N₂ and oxygen O₂). When air becomes humid, water vapor molecules displace some of the nitrogen and oxygen molecules. This results in a decrease in the overall density of the air. Dominant Effect: Although the relationship between speed of sound and density would suggest a decrease in speed with decreasing density, the change in density due to humidity is relatively small. The dominant effect in humid air is that the lighter water molecules transfer momentum more effectively during sound propagation compared to the heavier nitrogen and oxygen molecules.Therefore, even though moist air is slightly less dense, the speed of sound increases with increasing humidity. The effect is small but measurable.

Q156. When the pressure of a gas is plotted against volume at constant temperature, the curve obtained is known as:

• A. Isobar
• B. Isotherm✓
• C. Isotonic
• D. Isochoric

Explanation: When the pressure of a gas is plotted against volume at constant temperature, the curve obtained is known as an isotherm. Isotherm: A line on a graph showing changes in a system at a constant temperature. In the context of gases, it specifically refers to the curve on a pressure-volume (P-V) diagram at constant temperature. It graphically represents Boyle's Law (PV = constant). The other options are related to different thermodynamic processes:Isobar: A line on a graph showing changes in a system at constant pressure.Isotonic: This term is usually used in biology and refers to solutions having the same osmotic pressure. It's not related to gas laws or P-V diagrams.

Q157. The temperature of air is increased 1°C increase in speed of sound is:

• A. 6.1 m/s
• B. 0.6 m/s✓
• C. 61 m/s
• D. 0.16 m/s

Explanation: The speed of sound in air increases by approximately 0.6 m/s for every 1°C increase in temperature.While the exact relationship involves the square root of the absolute temperature (in Kelvin), for small changes in temperature around typical ambient temperatures, this linear approximation is quite accurate.So, if the speed of sound is 332 m/s at 0°C, then at 1°C it would be approximately 332.6 m/s, at 2°C it would be approximately 333.2 m/s, and so on.

Q158. The study of rates of chemical reactions and the factors that affect the rates of chemical reactions is known as:

• A. Thermodynamics
• B. Stoichiometry
• C. Electrochemistry
• D. Chemical Kinetics✓

Explanation: Chemical kinetics: The branch of physical chemistry that is concerned with understanding how fast or how slow a chemical reaction occurs i.e. their rates.

Q159. Which variable mentioned in ideal gas is assumed to be constant in other gas laws?

• A. Volume
• B. Temperature
• C. Pressure
• D. Number of motes✓

Explanation: While each of these variables (volume, temperature, pressure) can change in different gas laws, the number of moles (n) is generally assumed to be constant when applying ideal gas behavior in these laws. The ideal gas law itself, PV = nRT, encompasses all these variables and their relationships, making it a comprehensive equation for gas behavior.

Q160. 36. Identify the pair of solids having molecular nature

• A. C, CO₂
• B. S₈, I₂✓
• C. NaCl, C
• D. CO₂, KCl

Explanation: The pair of solids having molecular nature is S₈, I₂.Here's why: Molecular solids: These solids are composed of discrete molecules held together by relatively weak intermolecular forces (van der Waals forces, dipole-dipole interactions, or hydrogen bonds). They typically have low melting and boiling points. Let's look at each option: C (Diamond/Graphite): Carbon in its diamond and graphite forms exists as a network covalent solid. In diamond, each carbon atom is covalently bonded to four other carbon atoms in a tetrahedral arrangement, forming a giant three-dimensional network. Graphite consists of layers of carbon atoms arranged in hexagonal rings, with strong covalent bonds within the layers but weaker van der Waals forces between them. Neither is a molecular solid. CO₂ (Dry Ice): Solid carbon dioxide is a molecular solid. The CO₂ molecules are held together by weak van der Waals forces. NaCl (Sodium Chloride) and KCl (Potassium Chloride): These are ionic solids. They consist of positively and negatively charged ions held together by strong electrostatic attractions (ionic bonds). S₈ (Sulfur) and I₂ (Iodine): These are molecular solids. Sulfur exists as S₈ rings, and iodine exists as diatomic I₂ molecules. Both are held together by relatively weak van der Waals forces. Therefore, only S₈ and I₂ are molecular solids among the given options.

Q161. Decomposition of ammonia on heated tungsten is an example of:

• A. Pseudo first-order reaction
• B. First-order reaction
• C. Zero-order reaction✓
• D. Second-order reaction

Q162. Ag₂SO₄ and Na₂SO₄ are the:

• A. Polymorphs
• B. Isomorphs✓
• C. Allomorphs
• D. Anisotropes

Explanation: Ag₂SO₄ (Silver sulfate) and Na₂SO₄ (Sodium sulfate) are isomorphs.Here's why:Isomorphs: Isomorphs are substances that have different chemical compositions but crystallize in the same crystal structure. This is possible when the constituent ions have similar sizes and charges, allowing them to fit into the same lattice structure.Ag₂SO₄ and Na₂SO₄ have similar structures in their anhydrous forms. They both contain a sulfate anion (SO₄²⁻) and two singly charged cations (Ag⁺ or Na⁺). The sizes and charges of Ag⁺ and Na⁺ are close enough to allow for the formation of similar crystal lattices.Here's why the other options are incorrect: Polymorphs: Polymorphs are substances that have the same chemical composition but crystallize in different crystal structures (e.g., diamond and graphite are polymorphs of carbon). Allomorphs: This term is less common now and is often used synonymously with polymorphs, referring to different structural forms of an element. Anisotropes: Anisotropy refers to the property of a substance having different physical properties when measured in different directions. This is a general property of many crystalline solids but doesn't define the relationship between Ag₂SO₄ and Na₂SO₄. Therefore, the relationship between Ag₂SO₄ and Na₂SO₄ is best described as isomorphism.

Q163. Which one of the following is a non-polar molecular solid?

• A. CO₂✓
• B. SiC
• C. MgO
• D. Ice

Explanation: The correct answer is CO₂, which is a non-polar molecular solid. Non-polar molecular solids consist of molecules that do not have a significant charge difference across them, leading to weak intermolecular forces. In contrast, SiC is a covalent network solid characterized by strong covalent bonds, making it polar. MgO is an ionic solid comprised of positively and negatively charged ions, thus not a molecular solid at all. Ice, while it is a solid state of water, contains polar molecules and is held together by hydrogen bonds, which are stronger than the forces present in non-polar solids.

Q164. The Born-Haber cycle is used to calculate the lattice energy of which compound?

• A. RbBr✓
• B. PbS
• C. SO2
• D. NH3

Explanation: BORN - HABER cycle is used to calculate the lattice energy of ionic compounds since it is ionic compound so this is correct option

Q165. The shape of NaCl according to its radius ratio is:

• A. Octahedral✓
• B. Body Centred Cubic
• C. Tetrahedral
• D. Triangular

Explanation: The shape of NaCl according to its radius ratio is octahedral.Here's why:Radius Ratio Rule: The radius ratio (cation radius/anion radius) helps predict the coordination number and geometry of ionic compounds. NaCl Structure: In NaCl, each Na⁺ ion is surrounded by six Cl⁻ ions, and each Cl⁻ ion is surrounded by six Na⁺ ions. This gives a coordination number of 6. Radius Ratio and Coordination Number: A coordination number of 6 corresponds to an octahedral geometry. The radius ratio for NaCl falls within the range that predicts an octahedral arrangement.

Q166. A wave generator produces 100 pulses in 10s. Then the frequency of pulse it produces will be?

• A. 100 pulse s⁻¹
• B. 10 pulse s⁻¹✓
• C. 1 pulse s⁻¹
• D. 0 pulse s⁻¹

Explanation: Frequency is defined as the number of cycles or events (in this case, pulses) per unit of time (usually seconds).Given:Number of pulses = 100Time = 10 secondsFrequency (f) = Number of pulses / Timef = 100 pulses / 10 s f = 10 pulses/sThe unit "pulses/s" is equivalent to Hertz (Hz). Therefore, the frequency is 10 Hz.

Q167. One kilocalorie is equivalent to:

• A. 4.184 J
• B. 4.184 kJ✓
• C. 0.4184 J
• D. 0.4184 kJ

Explanation: One Calorie (with a capital C), also known as a kilocalorie (kcal), is equivalent to 4.184 kJ (kilojoules) or 4184 J (joules).

Q168. Inertial seismometer is based on:

• A. Newton's 1st law of motion✓
• B. Newton's 2nd law of motion
• C. Newton's 3rd law of motion
• D. Pascal's law

Explanation: >An inertial seismometer is based on Newton's 1st law of motion, also known as the law of inertia. Here's how it works: Inertia: Newton's first law states that an object at rest stays at rest, and an object in motion stays in motion with the same velocity (speed and direction) unless acted upon by an unbalanced force. This tendency of an object to resist changes in its motion is called inertia. Seismometer Design: An inertial seismometer typically consists of a mass suspended by a spring or pendulum. During an earthquake, the ground and the seismometer's frame move, but the suspended mass tends to remain at rest due to its inertia. Relative Motion: The relative motion between the stationary mass and the moving frame is then measured and recorded. This relative motion is what provides information about the seismic waves. Because the core principle of an inertial seismometer relies on the tendency of the mass to resist changes in motion (inertia), it is directly based on Newton's 1st law of motion.

Q169. According to Fleming Right hand rule when you stretch out the fore finger, middle finger and thumb of your right hand so that they are at right angle to each other, then the middle finger will point in the direction of:

• A. Force
• B. Magnetic field
• C. Current✓
• D. Volt

Explanation: According to Fleming's Right-Hand Rule:Thumb: Represents the direction of motion of the conductor.Index finger: Represents the direction of the magnetic field.Middle finger: Represents the direction of the induced current.Therefore, when you stretch out the forefinger (representing the magnetic field) and thumb (representing the motion) of your right hand so that they are at right angles to each other, the middle finger will point in the direction of the induced current.

Q170. The compound which exhibits the highest vapor pressure is:

• A. Water
• B. HF
• C. Petrol✓
• D. Acetic Acid

Explanation: Since petrol is an organic compound and has low intermolecular forces which is London dispersion forces so it will have high vapour pressure

Q171. During electrolysis of concentrated aqueous solution of NaCl, which ion is NOT discharged at the cathode?

• A. Na+✓
• B. Cl-
• C. H+
• D. OH-

Explanation: During the electrolysis of a concentrated aqueous solution of NaCl, the ion that is NOT discharged at the cathode is Na⁺.Here's a breakdown of what happens at the cathode:Cathode: The cathode is the negatively charged electrode, so positive ions (cations) are attracted to it. In the solution, we have Na⁺ ions from the NaCl and H⁺ ions from the water.Reduction: At the cathode, reduction (gain of electrons) occurs. The species that is more easily reduced will be discharged.Reduction Potentials: H⁺ ions are more easily reduced than Na⁺ ions. This means that H⁺ ions have a greater tendency to gain electrons and form hydrogen gas (H₂):2H⁺ + 2e⁻ → H₂Although Na⁺ ions are present in the solution and are attracted to the cathode, they require a much higher potential to be reduced to sodium metal. In aqueous solutions, it's energetically more favorable for water to be reduced to hydrogen gas.Therefore, during the electrolysis of concentrated aqueous NaCl solution, H⁺ ions are discharged (reduced) at the cathode, not Na⁺ ions. The remaining ions in the solution (Na⁺ and OH⁻) combine to form sodium hydroxide (NaOH).

Q172. The relative permittivity of iron is in:

• A. Tens
• B. Hundreds✓
• C. Thousands
• D. Zero

Explanation: Option B is correct

Q173. Name the compound which forms phenol when oxidized by atmospheric oxygen in the presence of a metal catalyst:

• A. Cumene✓
• B. Toluene
• C. Benzene
• D. Aniline

Explanation: The compound that forms phenol when oxidized by atmospheric oxygen in the presence of a metal catalyst is cumene (isopropylbenzene). This process is known as the Hock process or the cumene process, and it's the primary industrial method for producing phenol and acetone.Here's a simplified overview of the reaction:Oxidation of Cumene: Cumene is oxidized by air (oxygen) in the presence of a radical initiator to form cumene hydroperoxide. Acid-Catalyzed Cleavage: The cumene hydroperoxide is then treated with dilute acid (usually sulfuric acid), which causes it to cleave, producing phenol and acetone. The reaction is as follows:C₆H₅CH(CH₃)₂ (Cumene) + O₂ → C₆H₅C(CH₃)₂OOH (Cumene hydroperoxide)C₆H₅C(CH₃)₂OOH --(H⁺)--> C₆H₅OH (Phenol) + CH₃COCH₃ (Acetone)

Q174. Oxidation number of an element in free state is:

• A. Negative
• B. positive
• C. zero✓
• D. +/-1

Explanation: In a free state, an element exists in its elemental form, meaning it consists of individual atoms of that element. In this state, the oxidation number of the element is always zero. The oxidation number, also known as the oxidation state, is a number that represents the hypothetical charge an atom would have if all its bonds were 100% ionic.

Q175. IUPAC name of picric acid is:

• A. 2,4,6-tribromophenol
• B. 2,4,6-trinitrophenol✓
• C. 2,4,6-trinitrotoluene
• D. 2,4,6-trimethylphenol

Explanation: The IUPAC name of picric acid is 2,4,6-trinitrophenol.Picric acid has a benzene ring with a hydroxyl (-OH) group and three nitro (-NO₂) groups at positions 2, 4, and 6. This makes it a trinitrophenol.

Q176. According to quantum theory the radiation must appear in the form of:

• A. Electrons
• B. Protons
• C. Photons✓
• D. Neutrons

Explanation: According to quantum theory, radiation must appear in the form of discrete packets of energy called quanta (or photons).Here's a breakdown:Classical Physics (before quantum theory): Classical physics described light as a continuous wave. This model couldn't explain certain phenomena like blackbody radiation and the photoelectric effect.Quantum Theory: Max Planck proposed that energy is not emitted or absorbed continuously but in discrete packets called quanta. Albert Einstein later extended this idea to light itself, suggesting that light consists of particles called photons, each carrying a specific amount of energy.The energy of a photon is given by the equation:E = hf

Q177. In peroxides, the oxidation number of oxygen is:

• A. -1✓
• B. 2
• C. -2
• D. 1

Explanation: In peroxides, the oxidation number of oxygen is -1. This is due to the peroxide ion (O2²⁻), where two oxygen atoms are bonded together, sharing a -2 charge, which results in each oxygen having an oxidation state of -1. For example, in hydrogen peroxide (H2O2), the oxidation number of each oxygen atom is -1, balancing the +1 oxidation state of the hydrogen atoms.Options B (2) and D (1) are incorrect because oxygen typically does not have a positive oxidation state in compounds due to its high electronegativity. Option C (-2) is incorrect in the context of peroxides, as this is the oxidation number for oxygen in most other compounds but not in peroxides.

Q178. The reaction of sodium salt of phenol with CO₂ is called:

• A. Williamson synthesis
• B. Cannizzaro reaction
• C. Aldol reaction
• D. Kolbe-Schmitt reactio✓

Explanation: The reaction of the sodium salt of phenol with CO₂ is called the Kolbe-Schmitt reaction. This reaction is a carboxylation reaction where a carboxyl group (-COOH) is added to the aromatic ring of phenol. The sodium salt of phenol (sodium phenoxide) is more reactive than phenol itself due to the increased electron density on the ring. Here's the general reaction:Sodium phenoxide + CO₂ --(high pressure, high temp)--> Sodium salicylate Sodium salicylate + HCl --> Salicylic acid + NaClSalicylic acid is the main product of the Kolbe-Schmitt reaction. It is an important precursor for the synthesis of aspirin. The other options are incorrect: Williamson synthesis: This reaction is used to synthesize ethers by reacting an alkoxide with a primary alkyl halide. Cannizzaro reaction: This reaction is a disproportionation reaction of aldehydes lacking alpha-hydrogens in the presence of a strong base. Aldol reaction: This reaction involves the reaction of two aldehydes or ketones (at least one with an alpha-hydrogen) in the presence of a base or acid catalyst to form a β-hydroxyaldehyde or β-hydroxyketone.

Q179. Gamma radiations are emitted due to:

• A. De excitation of atom
• B. De-excitation of nucleus✓
• C. Excitation of atom
• D. Excitation of nucleus

Explanation: Gamma radiations are emitted due to de-excitation of the nucleus. Nuclear Energy Levels: Just like electrons in an atom occupy discrete energy levels, the nucleus of an atom also has discrete energy levels.Excitation of the Nucleus: After a nuclear reaction (like alpha or beta decay), the nucleus might be in an excited state, meaning it has excess energy. Gamma Decay: To return to a lower energy state (usually the ground state), the nucleus releases this excess energy in the form of high-energy photons called gamma rays (γ-rays). This process is called gamma decay.

Q180. The carbonyl group of aldehyde and ketone are reduced to –CH₃ or –CH₂ groups using reagent

• A. Dry HCL
• B. LiAlH
• C. NaBH
• D. N₂H₄/KOH✓

Explanation: The carbonyl group of aldehydes and ketones can be reduced to -CH₂ groups (methylene groups) using the reagent N₂H₄/KOH (hydrazine/potassium hydroxide). This reaction is known as the Wolff-Kishner reduction. Here's why: Wolff-Kishner Reduction: This reaction specifically reduces carbonyl groups (C=O) to methylene groups (CH₂). It involves reacting the aldehyde or ketone with hydrazine (N₂H₄) to form a hydrazone, followed by heating the hydrazone with a strong base like KOH in a high-boiling solvent (like ethylene glycol). R₂C=O + N₂H₄ → R₂C=NNH₂ (Hydrazone)R₂C=NNH₂ + KOH --(heat)--> R₂CH₂ + N₂Here's why the other options are not the best choice for this specific reduction:Dry HCl: Dry HCl is not a reducing agent. It's a strong acid and can catalyze other reactions, but it won't reduce carbonyl groups to methylene groups.LiAlH₄ (Lithium aluminum hydride): LiAlH₄ is a strong reducing agent that reduces aldehydes to primary alcohols and ketones to secondary alcohols. It does not reduce carbonyl groups all the way to methylene groups. NaBH₄ (Sodium borohydride): NaBH₄ is a milder reducing agent than LiAlH₄. It also reduces aldehydes to primary alcohols and ketones to secondary alcohols, but it's not strong enough to reduce them to methylene groups. Therefore, N₂H₄/KOH (hydrazine/potassium hydroxide) is the correct reagent for reducing carbonyl groups to -CH₂ groups.

Q181. Which of the following compounds shows shortest C-H bond length?

• A. Methane
• B. Acetylene✓
• C. Ethylene
• D. Ethane

Explanation: The compound with the shortest C-H bond length is Acetylene (C₂H₂).Here's why:The length of a C-H bond is primarily influenced by the hybridization of the carbon atom.sp hybridization: In acetylene, the carbon atoms are sp hybridized. This means that the carbon atom uses one s orbital and one p orbital to form two sp hybrid orbitals. These sp orbitals have 50% s character and 50% p character. The greater s character pulls the electrons closer to the nucleus, resulting in a shorter and stronger bond. sp² hybridization: In ethylene, the carbon atoms are sp² hybridized. These hybrid orbitals have 33% s character and 67% p character. sp³ hybridization: In methane and ethane, the carbon atoms are sp³ hybridized. These hybrid orbitals have 25% s character and 75% p character. As the s character of the hybrid orbital increases, the bond length decreases. Therefore, the order of decreasing C-H bond length is:Acetylene (sp) < Ethylene (sp²) < Ethane (sp³) < Methane (sp³)While both methane and ethane have sp³ hybridized carbons, the C-H bonds in methane are slightly shorter than those in ethane due to the absence of adjacent carbon atoms influencing the electron density. However, the difference is smaller than that between sp, sp², and sp³ hybridized carbons.Thus, acetylene, with its sp-hybridized carbons, has the shortest C-H bond length.

Q182. Oxidation of propanal in the presence of K₂Cr₂O₇/H₂SO₄ produces:

• A. Propanol
• B. Propanone
• C. Propanoic Acid✓
• D. Propene

Explanation: Oxidation of propanal (CH₃CH₂CHO) in the presence of K₂Cr₂O₇/H₂SO₄ (potassium dichromate/sulfuric acid) produces propanoic acid (CH₃CH₂COOH).K₂Cr₂O₇/H₂SO₄ is a strong oxidizing agent. Aldehydes are easily oxidized to carboxylic acids by such agents.The reaction is:CH₃CH₂CHO + [O] --(K₂Cr₂O₇/H₂SO₄)--> CH₃CH₂COOH

Q183. Which one of the following has highest bond energy?

• A. HI
• B. HCL
• C. HF✓
• D. HBr

Explanation: HF has the highest bond energy since fluorine is the most electronegative halogen and would bind strongly with an electropositive hydrogen. Therefore the highest bond energy would be of HF.

Q184. Decarboxylation of carboxylic acid occurs in the presence of:

• A. Baking Soda
• B. Soda Lime✓
• C. Lime
• D. Caustic Soda

Explanation: Decarboxylation of carboxylic acids occurs in the presence of soda lime.Here's why:Decarboxylation: This is a chemical reaction that removes a carboxyl group (-COOH) from a molecule and releases carbon dioxide (CO₂).Soda Lime: Soda lime is a mixture of calcium oxide (CaO) and sodium hydroxide (NaOH). It's used in decarboxylation reactions because:NaOH is the active reagent that promotes the decarboxylation.CaO helps to make the mixture porous and more efficient at absorbing water, which is a byproduct of the reaction. It also helps to prevent the mixture from becoming too sticky.The reaction generally proceeds with the sodium salt of the carboxylic acid:RCOONa + NaOH --(CaO, heat)--> RH + Na₂CO₃Where R is an alkyl or aryl group.While caustic soda (NaOH) is a component of soda lime and is essential for the reaction, it's the mixture of NaOH and CaO (soda lime) that's used in practice for decarboxylation of carboxylic acids in the lab. Using NaOH alone can be less effective due to issues with melting and handling.

Q185. Cinnazzaro's reaction is given by:

• A. Formaldehyde✓
• B. Acetaldehyde
• C. Acetone
• D. Butanone

Explanation: The Cannizzaro reaction is basically a chemical reaction which involves the base-induced disproportionation of an aldehyde lacking a hydrogen atom in the alpha position or an alpha-hydrogen. Formaldehyde (HCHO) has no alpha hydrogen, so it can undergo Cannizzaro reaction.

Q186. N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) → 2NH₃(g)How many moles of N₂ are required to manufacture 8 moles of NH₃?

• A. 2.5 moles
• B. 4 moles✓
• C. 8 moles
• D. 5 moles

Explanation: In the balanced chemical equation N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) → 2NH₃(g), we see that 1 mole of N₂ produces 2 moles of NH₃.Therefore, to produce 8 moles of NH₃, we need:(8 moles NH₃) * (1 mole N₂ / 2 moles NH₃) = 4 moles N₂So, 4 moles of N₂ are required.

Q187. The common name of pentanedioic acid is:

• A. Glutaric acid✓
• B. Succinic acid
• C. Oxalic acid
• D. Malonic acid

Explanation: The common name of pentanedioic acid is glutaric acid.

Q188. On reacting acetic acid with baking soda, a gas is evolved which turns lime water milky. The gas evolved is:

• A. Cl₂
• B. H₂
• C. NO₂
• D. CO2✓

Q189. Hydrolysis of nitrile will produce:

• A. Ketones
• B. Carboxylic acid✓
• C. Esters
• D. Aldehydes

Explanation: Hydrolysis of a nitrile will produce a carboxylic acid.Here's the general reaction:R-C≡N + 2 H₂O → R-COOH + NH₃Where:R is an alkyl or aryl group-C≡N is the nitrile functional group-COOH is the carboxylic acid functional groupNH₃ is ammoniaThe reaction usually requires either an acid or a base catalyst and heating.Acidic Hydrolysis: The nitrile is heated with a dilute acid (like HCl or H₂SO₄).Basic Hydrolysis: The nitrile is heated with a base (like NaOH or KOH).In either case, the initial product is an amide (R-CONH₂), which is then further hydrolyzed to the carboxylic acid.Therefore, the final product of nitrile hydrolysis is a carboxylic acid.

Q190. Ethyl acetate is an:

• A. Amide
• B. Acid halide
• C. Ester✓
• D. Carboxylic acid

Explanation: They have an functional group R-C-OR

Q191. Based on function, thyroxine can be classified as:

• A. Hormonal protein✓
• B. Structural protein
• C. Transport protein
• D. Genetic protein

Explanation: Amino acid-derived hormones include thyroxine (produced by the thyroid gland) and melatonin (produced by the pineal gland). Thyroxine is the main hormone secreted into the bloodstream by the thyroid gland. It plays vital roles in digestion, heart and muscle function, brain development and maintenance of bones.

Q192. The two functional groups present in all amino acids are:

• A. Carboxvlic acid and amino✓
• B. Amino and aldehyde
• C. Ether and carboxylic acid
• D. Aldehyde and carboxylic acid

Explanation: Amino acids always contain a carboxylic acid (-COOH) group and an amino (-NH2) group

Q193. Power is a dot product of

• A. Force and Displacement
• B. Force and Velocity✓
• C. Force and time
• D. Work and time

Explanation: Power is the dot product of force and velocity.Mathematically, this is represented as:P = F • vWhere:P is power (the rate at which work is done)F is the force vectorv is the velocity vector• denotes the dot product

Q194. In explosions:

• A. Total K.E is conserved
• B. Total P.E is conserved
• C. Total momentum is conserved✓
• D. Total momentum + K.E is conserved

Explanation: In explosions, total momentum is conserved. Here's why:Conservation of Momentum: In a closed system (where no external forces are acting), the total momentum before an event is equal to the total momentum after the event. This principle applies to all interactions, including explosions. Explosions as internal forces: Explosions involve internal forces within the system. These internal forces cause the fragments to move apart. However, they do not change the total momentum of the system. Here's why the other options are not generally true:Total momentum + K.E is conserved: Kinetic energy is generally not conserved in explosions. Explosions convert other forms of energy (chemical potential energy, for example) into kinetic energy of the fragments. Thus, kinetic energy increases. Total P.E is conserved: Potential energy is also generallynot conserved in explosions. Potential energy is converted into kinetic energy and other forms of energy (heat, sound, etc.).Total K.E is conserved: As mentioned above, kinetic energy increases in an explosion as other forms of energy are converted into it.Therefore, only momentum is conserved in explosions (in a closed system).

Q195. Select the exothermic reaction from the following processes:

• A. Burning of coal✓
• B. Melting of ice
• C. Freezing of water
• D. Condensation of water

Explanation: The exothermic reaction from the list is Burning of coal. Here's why: Exothermic Reaction: A reaction that releases heat energy to the surroundings. The change in enthalpy (ΔH) is negative. Burning of Coal: Coal is primarily composed of carbon. When coal burns, it reacts with oxygen in the air in a combustion reaction: C (s) + O₂ (g) → CO₂ (g) + heat This reaction releases a significant amount of heat and light, making it a classic example of an exothermic reaction. The other options are endothermic processes (they absorb heat from the surroundings): Melting of ice: Requires heat to break the intermolecular forces holding the water molecules in a solid lattice. Freezing of water: Releases heat as water molecules form a more ordered structure, but the question asks for a reaction. Freezing is a phase change, not a chemical reaction. Condensation of water: Releases heat as water vapor changes to liquid water, but this is also a phase change, not a chemical reaction.Therefore, only the burning of coal is an exothermic chemical reaction.

Q196. Sequence of nerve impulse initiation leading to muscle contraction:1. Nerve impulse travels through sarcolemma to the T-tubules2. Nerve impulse travels to sarcoplasmic reticulum3. Arrival of nerve impulse at neural muscular junction4. Opening of sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca gates

• A. 3, 1, 2, 4✓
• B. 1, 2, 3, 4
• C. 4, 2, 1, 3
• D. 2, 3, 4, 1

Explanation: Option A is only correct pathway

Q197. Which is a steroid hormone?

• A. Cortisol✓
• B. Adrenaline
• C. Thyroxine
• D. insulin

Explanation: The steroid hormone among the options is Cortisol. Here's why: Steroid Hormones: These are a class of hormones derived from cholesterol. They share a characteristic four-ring structure (the steroid nucleus). Examples include: Cortisol (a glucocorticoid) Aldosterone (a mineralocorticoid) Sex hormones (estrogen, progesterone, testosterone) Let's look at the other options: Adrenaline (epinephrine): This is a catecholamine, a hormone derived from the amino acid tyrosine. Thyroxine (T4): This is a thyroid hormone derived from the amino acid tyrosine and also contains iodine. Insulin: This is a peptide hormone, meaning it's a protein composed of amino acids. Therefore, only cortisol, among the given options, is a steroid hormone.

Q198. What do we call the cell surface membrane of a muscle fibre?

• A. Sarcolemma✓
• B. Plasma membrane
• C. Sarcoplasm
• D. Myofibrils

Explanation: The correct answer is Sarcolemma. The sarcolemma is the specialized cell membrane that surrounds a muscle fiber. It is crucial for communication between the nervous system and the muscle fiber, allowing the initiation of muscle contraction through electrical signal transmission. The term 'sarco-' denotes its association with muscle cells, differentiating it from the general plasma membrane found in all cell types. Option B, the 'Plasma membrane', refers to the cell membrane in general terms and does not specify its role in muscle cells. Option C, 'Sarcoplasm', is the cytoplasmic content of the muscle cell, not the membrane. Finally, Option D, 'Myofibrils', are the internal structures responsible for contraction, unrelated to the cell's surface membrane.

Q199. Golgi complex is responsible for

• A. Processing of cell secretions✓
• B. Synthesis of proteins
• C. Detoxification of alcohol
• D. Oxidation of glucose

Explanation: The Golgi complex, also known as the Golgi apparatus, is a complex organelle found in eukaryotic cells. Its primary function is to process and modify proteins and lipids synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum (ER).