Szabmu Mdcat Reconduct Mock 2024 — Solved Past Paper with Answers

Q1. Synonym of the word "Capricious" is:

• A. Fickle✓
• B. Predictable
• C. Uniform
• D. Invariable

Explanation: Capricious means unpredictable or subject to hidden changes in behavior or mood. Fickle also carries a similar meaning, referring to someone or something that is not constant or reliable and may change their opinions or decisions frequently.

Q2. Choose the most appropriate antonym for "abandonment":

• A. Cessation
• B. Stoppage
• C. Halt
• D. Extension✓

Explanation: Abandonment: It refers to the act of leaving or deserting something or someone completely, often with no intention of returning or resuming any responsibility or care.Extension: The word "extension" can mean an act of extending, prolonging, or continuing something. It involves expanding or elongating a particular situation or period.The relationship between "extension" and "abandonment" as potential antonyms lies in their opposite implications:"Abandonment" involves leaving or discontinuing something."Extension" involves prolonging or continuing something.Hence, it is the correct answer.

Q3. To give one some idea of rabies' horrors, one _ only read such descriptions as the following: spasms, restlessness, shudders at the least breath of air, an ardent thirst, convulsive movements, and fits of furious rage.

• A. Needs
• B. Need✓
• C. Needed
• D. Has needed

Explanation: The sentence is expressing a general statement about what someone needs to do to get an idea of the horrors of rabies. The verb "need" should be used in the base form without the auxiliary verb "has" or the past tense "needed." Therefore, the correct form is "one need only read."

Q4. Choose the most suitable or appropriate sentence out of the following:

• A. Penny did not let me to get my book.
• B. Penny was not leaving me to get my book.
• C. Penny did not let me get my book.✓
• D. Penny had not left me get my book.

Explanation: This option is correct because it conveys the meaning that Penny prevented or refused to allow the speaker to obtain their book. Therefore, the correct sentence is: "Penny did not let me get my book."

Q5. Choose the sentence with the correct use of the article.

• A. Natasha can play a piano and a violin.
• B. Natasha can play the piano and the violin.✓
• C. Natasha can play the piano and a violin.
• D. Natasha can play piano and violin.

Explanation: This correct Option is B as it uses the definite article "the" before both piano and violin, indicating that Natasha can play a specific piano and a specific violin. Therefore, the correct sentence is: "Natasha can play the piano and the violin."

Q6. Choose the correct preposition. Distribute the handouts _ the candidates.

• A. into
• B. Among✓
• C. In
• D. On

Explanation: When distributing something to multiple individuals, the preposition "among" is used. Therefore, the correct sentence would be:"Distribute the handouts among the children."

Q7. Choose the sentence that is grammatically correct.

• A. We agreed that the play was rather boring so we felt bored✓
• B. We agreed that the play was rather bored so we felt boring
• C. We agreed that the play was rather bore so we felt bores
• D. We agreed that the play was rath bores so we felt bored

Explanation: "We agreed that the play was rather boring so we felt bored." This sentence is grammatically correct. It uses the appropriate verb forms ("was" and "felt") to convey the past tense. It also uses the adjective "boring" to describe the play and the adjective "bored" to describe the feeling of the individuals.

Q8. "To cut off the head", this idiom means:

• A. Defrock
• B. Decapitate✓
• C. Impaled
• D. Urbanite

Explanation: The phrase "to cut off the head" means decapitate. It is a literal expression that refers to the act of severing or removing the head from a person or creature. It is commonly used to describe the action of beheading or executing someone by cutting off their head, so the correct option is decapitate.

Q9. The newly elected president and CEO for the newly established branch of our company _arrived recently. Fill in the blank with the appropriate choice:

• A. have
• B. having
• C. have been
• D. has✓

Explanation: "The newly elected president and CEO" refers to one person who holds both titles.Therefore, the subject is singular."Has" is the correct form of the verb to match the singular subject: "The newly elected president and CEO has arrived recently."

Q10. What does the term bacteriophage refer to?

• A. A virus that infects bacteria✓
• B. A bacterium that infects virus
• C. A virus which behaves as bacteria
• D. Combination of Bacterium & Virion

Explanation: A bacteriophage is a type of virus that specifically infects bacteria. It attaches to the surface of bacterial cells and injects its genetic material into the host, taking over the bacterial machinery to replicate itself.

Q11. How many tail fibrils are attached to the end plate of a bacteriophage?

• A. 2
• B. 4
• C. 6✓
• D. 8

Explanation: Bacteriophages typically have tail fibers attached to the end plate. These tail fibers help the phage attach to specific receptors on the surface of the bacterial host cell. There are six long tail fibers attached to the end plate of a bacteriophage.

Q12. What is the end product of gIucose by yeast in anaerobic respiration?

• A. Ethanol and oxygen
• B. Ethanol and water
• C. Ethanol and CO2✓
• D. Lactic acid and CO2

Explanation: During anaerobic respiration in yeast, glucose is converted into ethanol and carbon dioxide (CO2). This process, known as alcoholic fermentation, is utilized by yeast and some bacteria when oxygen is not available.

Q13. Electron transport chain explains:

• A. Photophosphorylation
• B. Z-Scheme
• C. Photolysis
• D. Mechanism of ATP synthesis✓

Explanation: The electron transport chain is a key component in the mechanism of ATP synthesis. During oxidative phosphorylation, which is the final stage of cellular respiration, the electron transport chain creates a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane. This gradient drives the synthesis of ATP through the action of ATP synthase.

Q14. Upon initial hydrolysis, starch yields:

• A. Glucose
• B. Maltose✓
• C. Sucrose
• D. Mannose

Explanation: When starch is ultimately broken down into glucose molecules, this occurs after further hydrolysis of maltose or other intermediates. The initial hydrolysis of starch yields maltose, not glucose.

Q15. The unique three-dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide constitutes:

• A. Primary structure of protein
• B. Secondary structure of protein
• C. Tertiary structure of protein✓
• D. Quaternary structure of protein

Explanation: Tertiary structure of protein represents the unique three-dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide.

Q16. Which of the following is a conjugated molecule?

• A. Protein
• B. Lipid
• C. Glycoproteins✓
• D. Vitamins

Explanation: Glycoproteins are proteins that have carbohydrate chains (glycans) attached to them. These carbohydrate chains can have various functions, such as aiding in protein folding, cell recognition, and cell signaling. Glycoproteins are examples of conjugated molecules.

Q17. Proteins are the main _ of the cell?

• A. Physiological components
• B. Functional components
• C. Structural components✓
• D. Biological components

Explanation: Proteins play a crucial role as the main structural components of the cell. They contribute to the structural integrity and organization of cells and tissues. Proteins are involved in forming the cytoskeleton, which provides structural support and helps maintain cell shape. They are also responsible for the structure and function of organelles within the cell, such as the cell membrane, nucleus, mitochondria, and endoplasmic reticulum.

Q18. _ are the structures formed by invagination of the plasma membrane and have been associated with cell division and DNA replication in prokaryotic cells.

• A. Lysosomes
• B. Mesosomes✓
• C. Golgi bodies
• D. Phragmoplasts

Explanation: Mesosomes are the structures formed by invagination of the plasma membrane and have been associated with cell division and DNA replication in prokaryotic cells.

Q19. Movement of molecules against the concentration gradient is?

• A. Passive transport
• B. Active transport✓
• C. Facilitated diffusion
• D. Filtration

Explanation: Active transport requires the expenditure of energy in the form of ATP to move molecules against their concentration gradient, from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration. This process is performed by specific transport proteins embedded in the cell membrane.

Q20. The cell wall of Bacteria is made up of:

• A. Chitin
• B. Murein✓
• C. Cellulose
• D. Hemicellulose

Explanation: Murein, also known as peptidoglycan, is the main component of bacterial cell walls. Murein provides rigidity and shape to the bacterial cell.

Q21. There is no clear difference between dendrites and axons in sensory neurons, except:

• A. Thickness
• B. Length
• C. Terminal portions✓
• D. None of the above

Explanation: The main difference between dendrites and axons lies in their terminal portions. Dendrites have numerous branches at their terminals, which receive signals from other neurons and transmit them towards the cell body. Axons, on the other hand, have a single branch called the axon terminal, which transmits signals away from the cell body to other neurons or effector cells.

Q22. A hormone that plays a major role in social bonding, childbirth, milk ejection, and sexual reproduction is:

• A. Estrogen
• B. Oxytocin✓
• C. Prolactin
• D. Secretin

Explanation: Oxytocin is a hormone that plays a major role in social bonding, childbirth, milk ejection, and sexual reproduction. During childbirth, oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions. It also promotes milk ejection during breastfeeding and is involved in sexual arousal.

Q23. The middle layer of meninges is:

• A. Arachnoid mater✓
• B. Pia mater
• C. Dura mater
• D. Cranium

Explanation: The arachnoid mater is the middle layer of the meninges. It is a thin and delicate membrane that lies between the dura mater (outer layer) and pia mater (inner layer). The arachnoid mater has a web-like appearance and is named after its resemblance to a spider's web.

Q24. Water vascular system or ambulacral system is a unique and complex system specially present in?

• A. Sponges
• B. Arthropods
• C. Echinoderms✓
• D. Fishes

Explanation: Echinoderms, which include organisms like starfish, sea urchins, and sea cucumbers, possess a unique and complex system called the water vascular system or ambulacral system. This system consists of a network of fluid-filled canals and appendages called tube feet, which are used for locomotion, feeding, and respiration.

Q25. Silver fish is a/an?

• A. Insect✓
• B. Mollusc
• C. Jawless fish
• D. Cartilaginous fish

Explanation: Silverfish is an insect. It is a small, wingless insect with a silver-gray color and a distinctive fish-like shape.

Q26. Enzymes lower the activation energy by stabilizing the transition state of a metabolic reaction due to?

• A. Changing conditions within the active site✓
• B. Changing conditions within the protein framework
• C. Rearranging the fatty acids in active site
• D. Distorting the molecules in the allosteric site

Explanation: Enzymes lower the activation energy by changing conditions within the active site. The active site of an enzyme is the specific region where the substrate binds and the catalytic reaction takes place. Enzymes can alter the local environment within the active site to create optimal conditions for the reaction to occur. This may involve providing specific chemical groups or ions, adjusting pH or temperature, or creating a suitable 3D arrangement of the substrate molecules. By modifying these conditions, enzymes stabilize the transition state of the reaction, making it easier for the reaction to proceed.

Q27. Non-competitive inhibitor molecules have:

• A. A similar structure to the normal substrate molecule
• B. A quite different structure from the substrate molecule✓
• C. A different conformation but fit into the active site
• D. A similar conformation but does not fit into the active site

Explanation: Non-competitive inhibitor molecules have a quite different structure from the substrate molecules.

Q28. What is the best physiological pH for optimum functioning for most of the cellular enzymes of human?

• A. 2-3 pH
• B. 3-5 pH
• C. 6-8 pH✓
• D. 8-10 pH

Explanation: The best physiological pH for optimum functioning for most of the cellular enzymes in humans is in the range of 6-8. This pH range is slightly acidic to slightly alkaline, which corresponds to the typical pH range found in various cellular compartments and tissues of the human body.The best physiological pH for optimum functioning for most of the cellular enzymes in humans is in the range of 6-8. This pH range is slightly acidic to slightly alkaline, which corresponds to the typical pH range found in various cellular compartments and tissues of the human body.

Q29. For evolutionary process to occur, which of the following is NOT a geographical barrier?

• A. Ocean
• B. River
• C. Mountain
• D. Atmosphere✓

Explanation: The atmosphere is not considered a geographical barrier in evolutionary processes. Geographical barriers refer to physical features of the Earth's surface that can impede the movement or gene flow of organisms, leading to the potential for genetic differentiation.

Q30. The animal species on Galapagos resemble species living on the:

• A. Northern Europe
• B. Great Britain
• C. North American mainland
• D. South American mainland✓

Explanation: The animals species on the Galapagos islands resemble species living on the South American mainland. This is because the Galapagos islands are located about 600 miles off the coast of Ecuador in South America. The islands were formed by volcanic activity, and over time, various animal species migrated to the islands from the mainland.

Q31. _ proteins are produced by WBC in response to _ and provide immunity?

• A. Antibiotics, antigen
• B. Antibodies, RBC
• C. Globulin, histamine
• D. Antibodies, antigen✓

Explanation: Antibodies, also known as immunoglobulins, are proteins produced by white blood cells in response to antigens, and they play a crucial role in providing immunity. Antigens are foreign substances that trigger an immune response. Antibodies bind to specific antigens to neutralize or eliminate them, providing immunity against diseases.

Q32. Flow of blood in the capillaries is adjusted by?

• A. Heart directly
• B. Pre-capillary sphincters✓
• C. Meta-arterioles
• D. Valves

Explanation: The flow of blood in the capillaries is primarily adjusted by pre-capillary sphincters, which regulate the entry of blood into the capillary network based on tissue needs.

Q33. Which of the following is NOT a consequence of anaerobic respiration In humans muscles cells?

• A. Cramps
• B. High consumption of energy✓
• C. Pain
• D. Tiredness

Explanation: Anaerobic respiration is a less efficient process compared to aerobic respiration, which occurs in the presence of oxygen. Anaerobic respiration produces less energy, so it does not result in high energy consumption.

Q34. Which of the following is a prokaryote?

• A. Protista
• B. E.coli✓
• C. Amoeba
• D. Fungi

Explanation: E. coli (Escherichia coli) is a type of bacteria, which is a prokaryote. Prokaryotes are single-celled organisms that lack a true nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. They have a simple cell structure and are typically small in size.

Q35. The division of cocci in three planes form Sarcina, which is a cube of _ Cocci?

• A. 02
• B. 04
• C. 08✓
• D. 16

Explanation: Sarcina is a genus of bacteria that divides in three planes, resulting in the formation of packets of cells arranged in a cube-like structure. These packets, known as tetrads, consist of eight cells arranged in a 3-dimensional cubic configuration. Each of the three planes of division produces four daughter cells, resulting in a total of eight cells in the sarcina packet. Therefore, the cube of cells formed by the division of cocci in three planes is composed of eight individual cells.

Q36. Nitrifying bacteria are the examples of:

• A. Heterotrophic bacteria
• B. Chemosynthetic bacteria✓
• C. Saprophytic bacteria
• D. Parasitic bacteria

Explanation: Nitrifying bacteria are the examples of chemosynthetic bacteria. Nitrifying bacteria are a group of bacteria that plays a crucial role in the nitrogen cycle by converting ammonia into nitrites, and further into nitrates. These bacteria obtain energy for their metabolic processes through chemosynthesis, which involves the oxidation of inorganic compounds.

Q37. Which cells In the human males are responsible for the release of testosterone?

• A. Pituitary Gland
• B. Hypothalamus
• C. Sertoli cells
• D. Leydig cells or interstitial cells✓

Explanation: Leydig cells, also known as interstitial cells, are responsible for the production and release of testosterone in males. These cells are located in the Interstitial spaces between the seminiferous tubules within the testes.

Q38. Level of luteinizing hormone {LH) is maximum in blood during which stage of menstrual cycle?

• A. Menstrual stage
• B. Proliferative stage
• C. Ovulation stage✓
• D. Secretory stage

Explanation: The ovulation stage is when the mature egg is released from the ovary. Leutinizing hormone (LH) levels surge dramatically just before ovulation. This surge in LH triggers the reslease of the egg from the ovary, allowing it to travel through the fallopian tube for potential fertilization. Thus, the level of LH is maximum during the ovulation stage.

Q39. What is FALSE about cartilage?

• A. There are many blood vessels in cartilage✓
• B. It is a form of connective tissue
• C. It covers ends of the bones at joints
• D. It is much softer than bone

Explanation: This statement is false. Cartilage is avascular, meaning it does not contain blood vessels. Instead, it receives nutrients and oxygen through diffusion from the surrounding tissues.

Q40. Which of the following is NOT found in skeletal muscle fibers in humans?

• A. Multiple nuclei
• B. Multiple mitochondria
• C. Large amount of myoglobin
• D. Large amount of hemoglobin✓

Explanation: Skeletal muscle fibers in humans do not contain a large amount of hemoglobin. Haemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that is responsible for transporting oxygen throughout the body. While skeletal muscle fibers have a rich blood supply to support their metabolic needs, they do not typically contain a significant amount of hemoglobin within the fibers themselves.

Q41. Test cross is made to check the genotype of a trait. Which of the following crosses is a test cross?

• A. Unknown x At
• B. Unknown x tt✓
• C. Unknown x AB
• D. Unknown x TT

Explanation: A test cross is a cross between an individual with an unknown genotype for a particular trait and an individual that is homozygous recessive for that trait. The purpose of the test cross is to determine the genotype of the unknown individual by observing the phenotypic ratios of the offspring. This cross involves a homozygous recessive individual (tt), which is the test cross. The offspring from this cross will reveal the genotype of the unknown individual.

Q42. DNA stores biological information in discrete units termed as:

• A. Genes✓
• B. Phenotypes
• C. Karyotypes
• D. Cells

Explanation: DNA stores biological information in discrete units called genes. Genes are segments of DNA that contain the instructions for building and maintaining an organism. They provide the information needed to produce proteins, which are essential for various biological processes and traits.

Q43. Which one of the following is an X-linked dominant disorder?

• A. Haemophilia
• B. Color blindness
• C. Hypophosphatemic rickets✓
• D. Becker muscular dystrophy

Explanation: Hypophosphatemic rickets is an X-linked dominant disorder. X-linked dominant disorders are genetic conditions caused by mutations in genes located on the X chromosome.

Q44. One a. m .u stands for

• A. An atom of C - 12
• B. 1/12th of a carbon✓
• C. 1/12th of H
• D. 1 atom of all the elements

Explanation: The atomic mass unit (amu) is a unit of mass used to express the mass of atomic and subatomic particles. It is defined as 1/12th of the mass of a carbon-12 atom. Carbon-12 is specifically chosen as the reference because it has a mass of exactly 12 atomic mass units.

Q45. 30 grams of 2-propanol were mixed with excess acidified K2Cr2O7 and boiled under reflux for 20 minutes. The organic product was then collected by distillation. The yield of product was 75.0%. What is the mass of product produced?

• A. 1.74g
• B. 21.75g✓
• C. 2.74g
• D. 29 g

Explanation: To calculate the mass of the product produced, you can use the yield percentage. The yield percentage is calculated as follows: Yield (%) = Actual Yield / Theoretical Yield × 100 In this case, the yield is given as 75.0%, and mass of 2-propanol is 30 grams. The molecular formula of 2-propanol (isopropanol) is C3H8O. Molar mass of C3H8O = (3 * 12.01 g/mol) + (8 * 1.01 g/mol) + (1 * 16.00 g/mol) = 60.03 g/mol Theoretical Yield = (Mass of 2-propanol) × (Theoretical Yield / Molar Mass of 2-propanol) Theoretical Yield = (30 g) × (1 mol / 60.03 g) = 0.4999 mol Now, calculate the actual yield using the given yield percentage: Yield (%) = (Actual Yield / Theoretical Yield) × 100 75.0% = (Actual Yield / 0.4999 mol) × 100 Actual Yield = (75.0% / 100) × 0.4999 mol = 0.3749 mol Now, convert the actual yield from moles to grams using the molar mass of the product you expect to obtain. Actual Yield (grams) = 0.3749 mol × 60.03 g/mol = 22.51 g So, the mass of the product produced is approximately 22.51 grams, which is closest to option (b) 21.75g.

Q46. Which gas in the discharge tube produces lightest canal ray particles?

• A. Ar
• B. He
• C. H2✓
• D. Ne

Explanation: Canal rays are positively charged ions that are produced in a discharge tube when a high voltage is applied across a gas at low pressure. These rays are defected by electric and magnetic fields, and their deflection depends on their charge-to-mass ratio. Hydrogen has the lowest atomic mass compared to Ar, Me, and He. Since, the mass-to-charge ratio determines the deflection of canal rays, the lighter the particles, the greater their deflection. Therefore, H2 produces the lightest canal ray particles among the given options.

Q47. What is the proton (atomic number) of an element that has four unpaired electrons in its ground state?

• A. 6
• B. 14
• C. 22
• D. 26✓

Explanation: The number of unpaired electrons in an element's ground state corresponds to the element's atomic number, which is the number of protons in its nucleus. In this case, an element with four unpaired electrons would have an atomic number of 26. Iron has an atomic number of 26; it has four unpaired electrons in its ground state electronic configuration:1s², 2s², 2p⁶, 3s², 3p⁶, 4s², 3d⁶

Q48. If we want to raise the temperature of one mole of an ideal gas by one kelvin we have to provide how much amount of energy?

• A. 0.0821 joules
• B. 8.314 dm3-atm
• C. 0.0821 KJ
• D. 0.0821 dm³-atm✓

Explanation: One mole of an ideal gas at 273.16 K and one atmospheric pressure and its temperature is increased by 1K, then it will absorb 0.0821 dm³-atm of energy, dm³-atm is the unit of energy in this situation.

Q49. In liquid, with the change in dipole -dipole forces, there is a change in some physical properties. select the property which Is not affected by the strength of dipole-dipole forces?

• A. boiling point
• B. heat of vaporization
• C. heat of sublimation
• D. moles✓

Explanation: The number of moles of a substance does not depend on the strength of dipole-dipole forces. The number of moles is determined by the amount of substance present, which is independent of the intermolecular forces.

Q50. A small building block which belongs to whole information about crystal structure is called?

• A. Cell
• B. Unit Cell✓
• C. Crystal lattice
• D. Crystal unit

Explanation: A unit cell is the smallest repeating unit of a crystal lattice that contains all the information about the crystal's structure. It is a three dimensional parallelepiped (a box-like shape) with defined edges and angles. The arrangement of unit cells forms the crystal lattice.

Q51. The decrease in solubility of the salt in a solution that already contains an ion common to that salt Is known as:

• A. Le Chatelier's principle
• B. Solubility Product
• C. Common ion effect✓
• D. Ksp

Explanation: The decrease in solubility of a salt in a solution that already contains an ion common to the salt is known as the common ion effect. This effect occurs because the presence of the common ion reduces the solubility of the salt by shifting the equilibrium towards the solid form.

Q52. One can estimate the direction in which equilibrium will shift with the help of:

• A. Le Chatelier's principle✓
• B. Law of mass action
• C. Hess's law
• D. Law of heat of formation

Explanation: Le Chatelier's principle is a concept that helps in predicting the direction in which a system at equilibrium will shift in response to a change in conditions.

Q53. The catalysis in which the catalyst and the reactants are In the same phase is known?

• A. Heterogeneous catalyst
• B. Homogeneous catalyst✓
• C. Slow
• D. Fast

Explanation: In homogeneous catalysis, the catalyst and the reactants are in the same phase, typically a liquid or gas. The catalyst molecules can directly interact with the reactant molecules, facilitating the reaction without forming a distinct phase or boundary between them.

Q54. Which of the following term is state function?

• A. Freezing
• B. Decomposition
• C. Sublimation
• D. Enthalpy✓

Explanation: Enthalpy is a state function. State functions are properties that depend only on the current state of a system and are independent of the path taken to reach that state. Enthalpy is a measure of the heat energy of a system and is expressed as ∆H.

Q55. In which of the following, oxygen shows fractional oxidation number?

• A. OF2
• B. Na2O2
• C. KO2✓
• D. Cl2O7

Explanation: In KO2 (potassium superoxide), oxygen shows a fractional oxidation number. The oxidation number of oxygen in most compounds is -2. However, in KO2, each oxygen atom has an oxidation number of -½, due to the presence of superoxide ion.

Q56. Among LiCI, BeCl2, NaCl, CsCI, the compounds with the greatest and the least ionic character respectively are:

• A. LiCl and CsCI
• B. NaCl and LiCI
• C. CsCI and NaCl
• D. CsCI and BeCl2✓

Explanation: To determine the compounds with the greatest and the least ionic character, we need to consider the electronegativity difference between the elements involved. Compounds with a larger electronegativity difference tend to have a greater ionic character, while compounds with a smaller electronegativity difference tend to have a greater covalent character. The electronegativity difference between Cs and Cl is larger than that between Be and Cl. Therefore, CsCl has the greatest ionic character, and BeCl2 has the least ionic character.

Q57. AB4 type with no lone pair; this geometry enables the formation of which shape of molecule?

• A. Trigonal
• B. Regular tetrahedron✓
• C. Regular octahedron
• D. Regular pyramidal

Explanation: In AB4-type molecules, the central atom (A) is bonded to four identical atoms (B) with no lone pairs of electrons on the central atom. In this case, the geometry of the molecule is tetrahedral, which means the four B atoms are arranged around the central A atom in a regular tetrahedral shape.

Q58. Which group of the periodic table contain non-metals, metalloids and metals

• A. I B
• B. VII A
• C. IV A✓
• D. VI A

Explanation: Group IV-A of the periodic table, also known as Group 14, contains elements that include non-metals, metalloids, and metals.

Q59. Which of the following complex show a tetrahedral geometry?

• A. [Fe(CO)5)
• B. [Cu(CN)4)-2✓
• C. [Au(Cl)4]-
• D. [Pt(NH3)4]+2

Explanation: [Cu(CN)4]-2 has a tetrahedral geometry. The four cyanide (CN-) ligands are arranged symmetrically around the central copper (Cu) ion, forming a regular tetrahedron.

Q60. In which of the following functional groups, the carbon atom is sp hybridized?

• A. –-CHO
• B. –-COOH
• C. —CN✓
• D. —COOR

Explanation: In the —CN functional group, the carbon atom is sp hybridized. This means that the carbon atom in this group has two sigma bonds and no lone pairs of electrons around it. The sp hybridization allows the carbon atom to form a strong triple bond with nitrogen (N), resulting in a linear molecular geometry. This functional group is called a nitrile or cyanide group.

Q61. What is the number of isomers of a hydrocarbon having a molecular formula, C4H8?

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 4
• D. 5✓

Explanation: For C₄H₈: n = 4Using formula: 2ⁿ⁻² + 1 = 2⁴⁻² + 1 = 2² + 1 = 4 + 1 = 5 possible isomers.

Q62. Three alternate single and double bonds in benzene are called?

• A. Conjugate bonds✓
• B. Coordinate covalent bonds
• C. Fixed bonds
• D. Ionic bonds

Explanation: Three alternate single and double bonds in benzene are called conjugate bonds. In benzene, the six carbon atoms form a planar ring structure with alternating single and double bonds.

Q63. Consider the chlorination of methane, the attack of chlorine free radical on methane form methyl free radical occurs in?

• A. Initiation step
• B. Propagation step✓
• C. Termination step
• D. Last step

Explanation: In the chlorination of methane, the attack of a chlorine free radical on methane to form a methyl free radical occurs in the propagation step.

Q64. When halogen is removed from an alkyl halide a carbocation is formed, identify the most reactive carbocation

• A. Primary carbocation
• B. Secondary carbocation
• C. Tertiary carbocation
• D. Methyl carbocation✓

Explanation: Methyl Carbocation (CH₃⁺)Structure: Only has one carbon atom, with no alkyl groups to stabilize the positive charge.Stability: Least stable of all carbocations.Reactivity: Most reactive, because it desperately seeks stabilization.Reason: No hyperconjugation or inductive effect; the positive charge sits entirely on one carbon with no support.

Q65. Neopentylchloride belongs to which class of alkyl halides?

• A. Primary alkyl halides✓
• B. Secondary alkyl halides
• C. Tertiary alkyl halides
• D. Quaternary alkyl halides

Explanation: Non-pentyl chloride is the primary alkyl halide because in it, Chlorine atom is linked to a primary carbon atom. It can also seen in its structure.

Q66. Benzene is formed when Na reacts with which of the following?

• A. Alcohol
• B. Butyl alcohol
• C. Propanol
• D. Phenol✓

Explanation: Phenol is an organic compound that consists of a benzene ring (C6H6) with a hydroxyl group (-OH) attached to it. When sodium reacts with phenol, it undergoes a substitution reaction known as the Kolbe-Schmitt reaction. In this reaction, sodium replaces the hydroxyl group of phenol, resulting in the formation of sodium phenoxide. The sodium phenoxide then undergoes decarboxylation to yield benzene.

Q67. Which of the following is the correct name of CH3CH2CH2COCH2CHO?

• A. 3-oxo hexanal✓
• B. 3-one hexanal
• C. 2-oxo hexanol
• D. 3-one hexanol

Explanation: In the given compound, there is a carbonyl group (C=O) located at the third carbon atom (counting from the left) of the carbon chain. The prefix "oxo" is used to indicate the presence of a carbonyl group. The compound is a hexanal derivative, as it contains six carbon atoms. Therefore, the correct name for the compound is 3-oxo hexanal. The compound is: CH3-CH2-CH2-CO-CH2-CHO

Q68. Which one of the following is also called the silver mirror test?

• A. Fehling’s solution test
• B. Iodoform test
• C. Tollen’s reagent✓
• D. Benedict’s solution test

Explanation: Tollens' reagent is a chemical reagent used to determine the presence of an aldehyde, aromatic aldehyde and alpha-hydroxy ketone functional groups. The reagent consists of a solution of silver nitrate and ammonia. If these functional groups are present you will observe a silver mirror.Fehling's solution tests used to detect the presence of reducing sugars, such as aldehydes or ketones,The iodoform test is used to identify the presence of a methyl ketone, such as acetone, and it involves the formation of a yellow precipitate of iodoform (CHI3).The test that is also called the "silver mirror test" is the Tollen's reagent test.In the Tollen's reagent test, a substance (usually an aldehyde) is mixed with Tollen's reagent, which consists of a solution of silver nitrate (AgNO3) in aqueous ammonia (NH3). The aldehyde reduces the silver ions in Tollen's reagent, resulting in the formation of a silver mirror on the inner surface of the test tube or container. This silver mirror appearance is the basis for the name "silver mirror test."Benedicts solution tests used to detect the presence of reducing sugars, such as aldehydes or ketones.

Q69. If carboxylic acid and ketone groups C=O are present in a chain, then final name will be given as:

• A. oxo, oic acid✓
• B. one, oic acid
• C. Both 1 and 2
• D. None of these

Explanation: The naming convention for compounds containing both a carboxylic acid group and a ketone group involves using the prefix "oxo" to indicate the presence of the ketone group, followed by the name of the alkyl chain attached to the carboxylic acid group, and ending with the suffix "oic acid" to denote the carboxylic acid group.

Q70. When food reaches the stomach, the action of which of the following comes to an end due to acidic pH?

• A. Lipases
• B. Amylase✓
• C. Maltase
• D. Hydrolases

Explanation: Amylase is an enzyme that breaks down complex carbohydrates ino smaller sugars, such as maltose. Amylase is sensitive to the acidic environment of the stomach. The low pH in the stomach denatures amylase, reducing its activity and ultimately leading to its inactivation. Therefore, the action of amylase comes to an end due to acidic pH.

Q71. What is the shape of velocity-time graph for constant acceleration?

• A. Parabola line
• B. Straight line✓
• C. Incline curve
• D. Decline curve

Explanation: In the case of constant acceleration, the velocity-time graph will be a straight line. The slope of this line represents the acceleration. If the slope is positive, it indicates positive acceleration (increasing velocity), while a negative slope represents negative acceleration (decreasing velocity). The steeper the slope, the greater the acceleration.

Q72. A stone thrown horizontally from the top of a tall building follows a path that is:

• A. Circular
• B. Made of two straight line segments
• C. Hyperbolic
• D. Parabolic✓

Explanation: When a stone is thrown horizontally from the top of a tall building, it experiences only the force of gravity acting vertically downward. Since there is no initial vertical velocity, the stone's motion is governed solely by the downward force of gravity. The path of the stone is a result of the combination of its horizontal velocity (due to the initial throw) and the vertical acceleration due to gravity. As the stone falls vertically, it also continues to move horizontally due to its initial horizontal velocity. The resulting trajectory of the stone is a curved path known as a parabola.

Q73. A fireman wants to slide down a rope. The breaking load of the rope is 3/4 of the weight of the man. With what acceleration should the fireman slide down? (Acceleration due to gravity is 'g')

• A. g
• B. g/4✓
• C. 3g/4
• D. 0

Explanation: Newton's second law states that the force required to accelerate a body is equal to the product of its mass and acceleration. The acceleration will be smaller for a large mass. As a result, more force is required to accelerate the body. The force is imparted through the rope as the firefighter slides down it. Tension is the force exerted on the rope. The minimum tension at the rope when the fireman slide down us given as, mg - ¾ mg This force equating with the minimum tension at the rope, we get: ma = mg - ¾ mg a = g - ¾ g a = g (1 - ¾) a = g/4 The fireman should slide down with a minimum acceleration of ¼ of the acceleration due to gravity.

Q74. The consumption of energy by a 60 W bulb in 2 s is:

• A. 120 J✓
• B. 60 J
• C. 30 J
• D. 0.02 J

Explanation: Given: Power = P = 60 watt Time = t = 2 seconds Energy = E = ? To determine the consumption of energy, we can use the formula: E = P × t E = 60 × 2 E = 120 Joules

Q75. Ignoring details associated with friction, extra forces exerted by arm and leg muscles, and other factors, we can consider a pole vault as the conversion of an athlete's running kinetic energy to gravitational potential energy. If an athlete is to lift his body 5m during a vault, what speed must he have when he plants his pole?

• A. 5 m/s
• B. 10 m/s✓
• C. 15 m/s
• D. 20 m/s

Explanation: Given: Distance = S = 5m Acceleration = a = g = 10ms-2 Initial velocity = Vi = 0 ms-1 Final velocity = Vf = ? Using third equation of motion: 2aS = Vf² - Vi² Vf² = 2aS + Vi² = 2 × 10 × 5 + (0)² Vf² = 100 Taking square root on both sides, we get: Vf = 10ms-1

Q76. The number of revolutions in 3π radians is:

• A. 1/60
• B. 3/2✓
• C. 2
• D. 6

Explanation: As we know that: 2π radians is equal to one revolution and 3π radians to x revolutions. Using the proportion, we can solve for x (2π radians / one revolution) = (3π radians) / (x revolutions) Cross multiplying: 2πx = 3π Dividing both sides by 2π: x = 3π / 2π x = 3 / 2 Therefore, the number of revolutions in 3π radians is 3/2.

Q77. A fighter plane is moving in a vertical circle of radius r. Its minimum velocity at the highest point of the circle will be?

• A. √3gr
• B. √2gr
• C. √gr✓
• D. √(gr/2)

Explanation: At the highest point, the centripetal force is provided by the vertical component of the plane's weight, given by: Fc = mg Equating this to the centripetal force formula: mv²/r = mg Cancelling the mass and rearranging the equation: v² = gr Taking the square root of both sides: v = √gr Therefore, the minimum velocity at the highest point of the vertical circle is √gr.

Q78. An airplane travels at a speed of 0.5v where v is the speed of sound. The airplane approaches a stationary observer .The frequency of sound emitted by the aircraft is in 200Hz. Which frequency does the observer hear?

• A. 400 HZ✓
• B. 100 HZ
• C. 120 HZ
• D. 180 HZ

Explanation: Given: Speed of sound = Vs = 340 ms-1 Speed of aeroplane = Va = 0.5 × 340 = 170 ms-1 Frequency = f = 200 Hz Frequency = f ' = ? Using the formula: f ' = Vs / (Vs - Va)× f = 340 / (340 - 170) × 200 = 340 / 170 × 200 = 2 × 200 f ' = 400 Hz

Q79. The shortest distance between any two points. in phase on a wave is called:

• A. Displacement
• B. Amplitude
• C. Wavelength✓
• D. Frequency

Explanation: The shortest distance between any two points in phase on a wave is called wavelength.

Q80. The mechanical waves are not generated by:

• A. Electric and magnetic fields✓
• B. Coil of springs
• C. Ropes
• D. Water

Explanation: Mechanical waves are not generated by electric and magnetic fields. Mechanical waves, such as sound waves, require a physical medium to propagate. They are not directly generated by electric and magnetic fields.

Q81. A distant star is receding from the Earth with a speed of 1.4o x 107 m/s. It emits light of frequency 4.57 x 1014 Hz. The speed of light is 3.0 x 108 m/s. The Doppler effect formula can be used with light waves. What will bethe frequency of this light when detected on Earth?

• A. 2.04 x 1013 Hz
• B. 4.36 x 1014 Hz✓
• C. 4.57 X 1014 Hz
• D. 4.79 X 1014 Hz

Explanation: Given: v (receding speed) = 1.40 x 10^7 m/s f_source (emitted frequency) = 4.57 x 10^14 Hz c (speed of light) = 3.0 x 10^8 m/s Doppler effect formula for light: f_observed = f_source * sqrt((1 - v/c) / (1 + v/c)) Calculations: v/c = (1.40 x 10^7 m/s) / (3.0 x 10^8 m/s) = 0.0466666... sqrt((1 - v/c) / (1 + v/c)) = sqrt((1 - 0.0466666...) / (1 + 0.0466666...)) sqrt((1 - v/c) / (1 + v/c)) = sqrt(0.9533333 / 1.0466666) sqrt((1 - v/c) / (1 + v/c)) = sqrt(0.9108108) sqrt((1 - v/c) / (1 + v/c)) = 0.9543641 (approximately) f_observed = 4.57 x 10^14 Hz * 0.9543641 f_observed = 4.361936 x 10^14 Hz Result: f_observed = 4.36 x 10^14 Hz (approximately)

Q82. When a gas is compressed isothermally, the product of its pressure and volume during the process is:

• A. not constant
• B. constant✓
• C. zero
• D. proportional

Explanation: According to Boyle's law, which applies to an ideal gas undergoing an isothermal process, the product of pressure and volume remains constant: P × V = Constant

Q83. A capacitor is charged with a battery and energy stored is u. After disconnecting battery another capacitor of same capacity is connected in parallel to the first capacitor. Then energy stored in each capacitor is

• A. U/2
• B. U/4✓
• C. 4U
• D. 2U

Explanation: The question has stated that a capacitor is connected to a battery (V) and because of battery; energy is stored in a capacitor which is U. (shown in figure 1). Now this capacitor is connected to another capacitor having the same capacity in parallel connection. So we need to calculate how much energy is stored in each of the capacitors, shown in figure 2. We know that energy stored in capacitor is given by, U=q2/2c Where q is charged stored in capacitor, C is capacitance of capacitor. Now if you look at figure 2, charge stored on each of the capacitors is C. But initially capacitance of upper capacitor is C and capacitance of lower capacitor is zero. Finally charge from the upper capacitor distributes to the lower capacitor because potential is always the same in case of parallel combination, hence potential between these capacitors are also the same. So, charge on upper capacitor is q/2 and charge on lower capacitor is q/2 if U is the new energy stored in upper or lower capacitance, then

Q84. Gauss law cannot be used to find which of the following quantity?

• A. Electric field intensity
• B. Electric flux density
• C. Charge
• D. permittivity✓

Explanation: Gauss's law cannot be used to find permittivity (εo). The value of the permittivity of free space is a fundamental constant in electromagnetism, and it is not determined through Gauss's law.

Q85. The coulomb's constant k depends upon:

• A. nature of medium
• B. system of units
• C. types of charge
• D. nature of medium and system of units✓

Explanation: Coulomb's constant, denoted by k, is a fundamental constant in electrostatics that determine the strength of the electrostatic force between two charged particles. It is expressed as: k = 1 / (4πεo) Where εo is the permittivity of free space. The value of k depends on both the nature of the medium and the system of units being used. The nature of the medium affects the permittivity, which is a measure of how easily electric fields can propagate through a material. Similarly, the system of units used can also affect the value of Coulomb's constant.

Q86. A capacitor of capacitance C has charge Q and stored energy is W. lf the charge is increase to 2Q. The stored energy will be:

• A. W/4
• B. W/2
• C. 2W
• D. 4W✓

Explanation: The energy stored in a capacitor is given by the equation: W = Q2 / 2C When the charge Q is increased to 2Q, the new energy W' is: W' = (2Q)2 / 2C = 4Q2 / 2C = 4W Thus, the stored energy becomes four times the original energy, making Option D (4W) the correct choice. The other options misrepresent the relationship between charge and stored energy, as they do not account for the square relationship.

Q87. A 3 V battery is connected in series with ammeter and 2 ohm resistance after short circuiting. What will be the reading of ammeter?

• A. 1 A
• B. 1.5 A✓
• C. 5 A
• D. 6 A

Explanation: Given: Voltage = V = 3V Resistance = R = 2Ω Current = I = ? As we know that: V = IR I = V / R = 3 / 2 I = 1.5 A

Q88. Which of the following statement is NOT CORRECT about Kirchhoff's rule?

• A. Kirchhoff's current rule based upon the law of conservation of charge
• B. Wheatstone bridge is an application of Kirchhoffs rule
• C. Kirchhoff's rules are more suitable in AC circuits✓
• D. Klrchhoff's voltage rule based upon the law of conservation of energy

Explanation: Kirchhoff's rules, specifically Kirchhoff's current rule, and Kirchhoff's voltage rule, are fundamental principles in analyzing and solving electrical circuits, particularly in DC (Direct current) circuits, not in AC circuits.

Q89. A low voltage supply with an e.m.f. of 20 V and an internal resistance of 1.5 ohms is used to supply power to a heater of resistance 6.5 ohms in a fish tank. What is the power supplied to the water in the fish tank?

• A. 41 W✓
• B. 50 W
• C. 53 W
• D. 62 W

Explanation: Power supplied to heater: P = V = I²R = V² / R Potential difference across the heater is: V = [6.5 / (6.5 + 1.5)] × 20 V = 16.25 V Power supplied to heater: P = V² / R = (16.5)² / 6.5 = 40.625 W P ≈ 41 W

Q90. Which surface has greater magnetic flux in same magnetic field, each has an area 1 m2.

• A. Circular
• B. Rectangular
• C. Square
• D. Flux is independent of shape✓

Explanation: The magnetic flux through a surface depends on the magnetic field strength and the angle between the magnetic field lines and the surface. The shape of the surface does not directly affect the magnetic flux. The magnetic flux through a surface is given by the formula: Φ = BAcosθ In this case, both surfaces have the same area (1m²). Assuming the magnetic field strength and the angle θ are the same for both surfaces, the magnetic flux will be the same regardless of the shape of the surface. Therefore, the magnetic flux is independent of the shape of the surface.

Q91. One meter long copper rod is moving with speed 20 m/sec in the magnetic field of strength 0.6 tesla. What is the value of induced emf?

• A. 10 V
• B. 12 V✓
• C. 14 V
• D. 16 V

Explanation: Given: Magnetic field strength = B = 0.6 T Length = L = 1m Velocity = v = 20 m/s emf = ε = ? As we know that: emf = vBL = 20 × 0.6 × 1 emf = 12 v

Q92. Working principal of magnetic levitation train is according to?

• A. Faraday law
• B. Max planks law
• C. Ohm law
• D. Lenz law✓

Explanation: Lenz's law is applicable to the operation of magnetic levitation trains. Lenz's law states that an induced current opposes the change in magnetic field that produces it. In the case of magnetic levitation trains, Lenz's law helps maintain the stability and control of the levitation system by opposing any changes in the magnetic field caused by the motion of the train.

Q93. In transformer, there is no _ connection between the two coils but they are linked?

• A. Magnetic, electrically
• B. Electrical, magnetically✓
• C. Magnetic, magnetically
• D. Electrical, optically

Explanation: In a transformer, there is no electrical connection between the two coils, which are typically referred to as the primary and secondary coils. However, they are magnetically linked due to the shared magnetic core. The primary coil is connected to an alternating current (AC) power source, which creates a changing magnetic field in the core. This changing magnetic field induces a voltage in the secondary coil through electromagnetic induction, allowing for the transfer of electrical energy from the primary to the secondary coil without a direct electrical connection

Q94. If electron, proton, neutron, and alpha particle have same velocity which of them have shortest wavelength?

• A. Electron
• B. Proton
• C. Neutron
• D. Alpha particle✓

Explanation: The wavelength of a particle is inversely proportional to its momentum. Momentum is given by the product of mass and velocity. Alpha particles has the highest mass, consisting of two protons and two neutrons. Since all the particles are assumed to have the same velocity, the alpha particle will have the highest momentum due to its higher mass. Therefore, the alpha particle will have the shortest wavelength compared to the electron, proton, and neutron, which have lower masses.

Q95. In a photoelectric effect experiment, the stopping potential is:

• A. The kinetic energy of the most energetic electron ejected
• B. The potential energy of the most energetic electron ejected
• C. The photon energy
• D. The electric potential that cause electron current to vanish✓

Explanation: In the photoelectric effect experiment, the stopping potential refers to the electric potential that is applied between the anode and the cathode in order to stop the flow of electrons in the circuit. When the stopping potential is reached, the current of electrons ceases to flow, and this potential is known as the stopping potential. The stopping potential is directly related to the kinetic energy of the ejected protons. When the stopping potential is applied, it counteracts the kinetic energy of the electrons, eventually bringing them to a stop. Thus, the stopping potential is the electric potential that causes the electron current to vanish.

Q96. The speed of electron in the first Bohr orbit is:

• A. 2.19 x 106 ms-1✓
• B. 2.19x 10- 6 ms- 1
• C. 2.19x 104 ms-1
• D. 2.19x10-4 ms-1

Explanation: According to Bohr's model of the hydrogen atom, the speed of an electron in the first Bohr orbit can be calculated using the formula: v = Ze² / 2εοh Where, Atomic number = Z = 1 Charge = e = 1.602 × 10-19 C Permittivity of free space = εο =8.854×10-12 C²/Nm² Planck's constant = h = 6.626 × 10-34 J's Putting the values in the above formula, we get: v = 1 × (1.602 × 10-19)² / 2 × (8.854×10-12) × (6.626 × 10-34) v = 2.19 × 106 ms-1

Q97. It has been observed that Thorium (_90234)Th is transformed into Protactinium (_91234)Pa after the emission of particle:

• A. Alpha
• B. Beta✓
• C. Gamma
• D. Alpha, Beta, Gamma

Explanation: When a β-particle is emitted out of any nucleus, then its mass number does not change but its charge number is increases by one. In this case, Thorium (90Th²³⁴) is transformed into proctactanium (91Pa²³⁴) after the emission of β-particle.

Q98. Read the passage and the following statements below. Then choose the correct option, basing your answer only on the information provided.Queen Elizabeth II's Platinum Jubilee, celebrating her 70 years on the British throne, was above all a tribute to one of history's great acts of constancy. Her reign spanned virtually the entire post-World War II era, making her a witness to cultural upheavals from the Beatles to Brexit.STATEMENTS:I. There has been another queen of the British throne named Elizabeth before her.II. Brexit is a normal occurrence.III. Elizabeth was Queen of the British during World War II.

• A. I, II and III; all are correct
• B. Only llI is correct
• C. Only I is correct✓
• D. Only I and III are correct

Explanation: In the passage queen Elizabeth has a II with it, this shows that there has been another queen with Elizabeth in her name, Brexit is not a normal occurrence and the passage clearly states that she rules post world war 2 so only statement 1 is correct.Based on the passage, the correct option is:I. There has been another queen of the British throne named Elizabeth before her.The passage refers to Queen Elizabeth II, indicating that there was a Queen Elizabeth I before her.The passage does not support statements II and III:- II. Brexit is not described as a normal occurrence, but rather as one of the cultural upheavals that Queen Elizabeth II witnessed during her reign.- III. The passage states that Queen Elizabeth II's reign spanned "virtually the entire post-World War II era", implying that she was not queen during World War II itself.

Q99. Read the following and choose the correct answer:Drake was wearing a blue shirt with black jeans and brown shoes. John was wearing a red shirt with black jeans and black shoes. Ahmad was wearing black jeans, a blue or red shirt, and shoes that were not black. Who copied drake?

• A. Ahmad✓
• B. John
• C. Drake
• D. Cannot elicit from given information

Explanation: Ahmad is the one who saw Drake, as Drake was wearing brown shoes.

Q100. Read the following statement, assuming everything in it to be true. Then decide which of the given suggested courses of action logically follow and are worth pursuing.Statement:'"Aalia wants to sleep but cannot due to regular noise in and around her house everyday."Courses of Action:I. Insert good quality noise blockers into her ears.II, Take strong sleeping pills."

• A. I✓
• B. II
• C. Both I and II
• D. Neither I nor II

Explanation: Good noise blockers would help her fix the problem. Therefore, only statement I is correct.

Q101. RITUAL means:

• A. Custom✓
• B. Original
• C. Religion
• D. Routine

Explanation: Ritual means a custom or a tradition of a civilization that has been going on for a while. It is a religious or solemn ceremony consisting of a series of actions performed according to a prescribed order.

Q102. Choose the correct spelling;

• A. Modarn
• B. Moderrn
• C. Modern✓
• D. Modernn

Explanation: Correct option is C as it contains the correct spelling (modern)

Q103. Finally, the accused was found guilty _ his crime.

• A. From
• B. Of✓
• C. For
• D. To

Explanation: We use ‘guilty of’ in a context that implies “charges" or "crime". Hence, 'of' is the correct preposition to be used in the given sentence. Option B is the correct option.

Q104. Hundreds of years old palace could not withstand the _ of heavy rains.

• A. Aftermath
• B. Havoc✓
• C. Annoyance
• D. Massacre

Explanation: When we refer to natural disasters, we use the word ‘havoc’ to describe their adverse destruction. Aftermath doesn’t fit here because aftermath just means the consequences of an unpleasant event. Option B is the most suitable option here when compared with the rest of the options.

Q105. He began to _ the heap of corns very carefully.

• A. Assess
• B. Inspect✓
• C. Analyze
• D. Evaluate

Explanation: 'Inspect’ refers to a close examination of something. It is the most suitable word for checking the heap of corn.

Q106. Engineers _ working on a new project for the last three days.

• A. Are
• B. Has been
• C. Have been✓
• D. Ought to be

Explanation: The given sentence is an example of the "present perfect continuous" tense, indicated by its structure. 'Engineers' is a plural noun, so it must also be followed by a plural verb. Hence, "have been" is the correct option.

Q107. Identify the error and choose the correct option.

• A. The wind blew, the rain fell, and the lightning flashed.✓
• B. The wind bleu the rain fell, and the lightning flashed
• C. The wind blew the rain fell, and the lightning flashed
• D. The wind blew, the rain fell; and the lightning flashed.

Explanation: Option A is correct because of the correct use of punctuation. In the sentence, the cumulative conjunction ‘and’ has been used to join the following sentences:1) The wind blew.2) The rain fell.3) The lightning flashed.

Q108. Choose the correct sentence.

• A. Does your tram leaw before eight o'clock?
• B. Does your train leave before eight clock?
• C. Does your train leave before eight o'clock?✓
• D. Do your train leave before eight o'clock?

Explanation: The correct sentence is Option C: "Does your train leave before eight o'clock?" This sentence correctly uses "Does" as the auxiliary verb with the singular subject "your train" to form the present tense question. It also includes the correct spelling of "leave" and "o'clock."Option A is incorrect due to the misspelling of "leaw," which should be "leave." Option B omits "o'clock," making it incomplete in expressing time. Option D uses "Do" incorrectly with the singular subject "train," which requires "Does."

Q109. The word 'RELUCTANT' means:

• A. Hesitatant✓
• B. Current
• C. Remarkable
• D. Rude

Explanation: The correct answer is A: Hesitant."Reluctant" is an adjective that describes someone who is: 1. Unwilling to do something 2. Hesitant or slow to act 3. Unenthusiastic or lacking eagerness

Q110. Each grana consist of _ thylakoids.

• A. 40 to 60
• B. 25 to 50✓
• C. 50 to 70
• D. 100 to 200

Explanation: Each granum consists of 25-50 thylakoids in it. Hence, option B is the correct option.

Q111. Which organelle is more abundant in secretory cells than other cells?

• A. Lysosomes
• B. Golgi vesicles✓
• C. Vacuoles
• D. Centrioles

Explanation: Golgi complex is involved in processing secretions. Therefore, it is abundant in secretory cells. Option B is the correct option.

Q112. The enzyme ATP synthase is located in the membrane of?

• A. Mitochondria✓
• B. Lysosomes
• C. Golgi apparatus
• D. Nucleus

Explanation: The ATP synthases comprise a very large group of highly conserved enzymes that are found in the bacterial cytoplasmic membranes, the thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts, and the inner membranes of mitochondria.

Q113. Vasopressin is an example of _.

• A. Steroid hormone
• B. Catechol amine
• C. Peptide hormone✓
• D. Glycoprotein

Explanation: Chemically, vasopressin is a peptide hormone, particularly nonapeptide (i.e. having nine amino acids). Hence, option C is the correct option.

Q114. Posterior lobe of pituitary gland produces _.

• A. Oxytocin✓
• B. TSH
• C. ACTH
• D. FSH

Explanation: Options B, C, and D are all incorrect because these hormones are produced and secreted from the anterior pituitary. The posterior pituitary does not produce any hormone, but it secretes oxytocin and vasopressin. Hence, Oxytocin (A) is the best option.

Q115. Microscopic gap between the two neurons is called _.

• A. Synapsis
• B. Synapse✓
• C. Collapse
• D. Synaptic knob

Explanation: The places where neurons connect and communicate with each other, and have a microscopic gap, are called synapses. Hence, option B is the correct option.

Q116. The feelings and emotions of love and hate are controlled by _.

• A. Amygdala✓
• B. Hippocampus
• C. Thalamus
• D. Hypothalamus

Explanation: The amygdala is the part of the brain that is involved with emotions and feelings. It acts as the brain's emotional processing center, playing a crucial role in fear, pleasure, anxiety, and other emotions by attaching feelings to memories and sensations. Hence, option A is the correct option.

Q117. Negative feedback mechanism is the characteristic of which class?

• A. Class Fish
• B. Class Amphibia
• C. Class Reptilia
• D. Class Mammalia✓

Explanation: Negative feedback is a type of regulation in biological systems in which the end product of a process, in turn, reduces the stimulus of that same process. Feedback, in general, is a regulatory mechanism present in many biological reactions. By allowing certain pathways to be turned off and on, the body can control various aspects of its internal environment. Examples of negative feedback include the regulation of blood glucose levels and the temperature regulation of the body.

Q118. The maximum enzymatic activity of pepsin is shown at _.

• A. pH 2✓
• B. pH 4
• C. pH 6
• D. pH8

Explanation: Pepsin shows maximum activity in a strongly acidic medium. Hence, pH 2 is the optimum pH for pepsin. Option A is the correct option.

Q119. Enzymes work by lowering the _ of the reactions they catalyze.

• A. Kinetic energy
• B. Heat energy
• C. Activation energy✓
• D. Potential energy

Explanation: An enzyme binds to its specific substrate at its active site and facilitates the conversion of substrates into products. By lowering the activation energy, enzymes make it easier for reactions to occur. The incorrect options reflect common misconceptions:Kinetic energy: This refers to the energy of motion and does not relate directly to the role of enzymes in catalyzing reactions.Heat energy: While temperature can influence reaction rates, it is the activation energy that enzymes lower, not the heat energy.Potential energy: Though potential energy relates to the energy stored in molecules, enzymes do not directly lower potential energy; they lower activation energy, which is crucial for the reaction's initiation.Thus, activation energy is the correct answer as it directly correlates with the function of enzymes in biochemical reactions.

Q120. _ reduces the enzyme productivity by blocking the substrate to enter the active site due to similar shape.

• A. Competitive inhibitor✓
• B. Non-competitive inhibitor
• C. Coenzyme
• D. Activator

Explanation: Competitive inhibitors are those that cause competition between substrate and inhibitor. There is a similarity between substrate and inhibitor, due to which the inhibitor can attach to the active site and block enzymatic activity. Hence, option A is the correct option.

Q121. Among the oldest known fossils comes the _.

• A. Prokaryotes✓
• B. Amphibians
• C. Reptiles
• D. Fishes

Explanation: Prokaryotes are the oldest known organisms.They are about 3.5 million years ago. So it follows that the oldest fossils would be of prokaryotes as well. Option A is the correct option.

Q122. Which of the following is not the component of bile?

• A. Digestive enzymes✓
• B. Salts
• C. Mucus
• D. Lecithin

Explanation: Bile does not contain digestive enzymes. Instead, it contains bile salts and other substances that aid in the digestion and absorption of fats through a physical process called emulsification.

Q123. Select the duration of cardiac cycle.

• A. 0.6s
• B. 0.4s
• C. 0.8s✓
• D. 0.7s

Explanation: The cardiac cycle typically lasts for 0.8 seconds; 0.4 seconds for diastole, 0.1 seconds for atrial systole, and 0.3 seconds for ventricular systole. Option C is the correct option.

Q124. The pathway of water transportation, in which water moves through plasmodesmata is _.

• A. Apoplast
• B. Symplast✓
• C. Vaculoar
• D. Ascent of sap

Explanation: In the symplast pathway, water travels from one cell to another through plasmodesmata. Hence, option B is the correct option.

Q125. Enzyme trypsinogen is activated by _.

• A. HCl
• B. Pepsin
• C. Enterokinase✓
• D. Eyrpsin

Explanation: Enterokinase's primary function is to activate the digestion of proteins by converting pancreatic enzymes from their inactive forms into active ones. It achieves this by cleaving trypsinogen into its active form, trypsin. Once activated, trypsin goes on to activate other inactive pancreatic proenzymes like chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase, and proelastase.

Q126. The area between the two lungs is called _.

• A. Periosteum
• B. Infundibulum
• C. Mediastinum✓
• D. Hilum

Explanation: The area between two lungs is called the mediastinum. The organs in this area include the heart and its large blood vessels, the trachea, the esophagus, the thymus, and lymph nodes but not the lungs.

Q127. All viruses are _.

• A. Autotrophs
• B. Heterotrophs
• C. Parasites✓
• D. Predators

Explanation: Parasites are organisms that use other organisms for food, shelter, etc, and in exchange, they harm them. Viruses live and multiply in different cells, and in exchange, cause diseases. Hence, they fit in the definition of a parasite.

Q128. Light independent phase of photosynthesis involves _.

• A. Formation of energy rich carbohydrates✓
• B. Hydrolysis of water
• C. ATP generation
• D. Production of reducing molecule

Explanation: Hydrolysis of water, ATP generation, and production of reducing molecules are all part of the light-dependent phase of photosynthesis. Light independent phase involves the reaction of G3P to form energy-rich glucose so option A is correct.

Q129. Select an example of a fibrous protein.

• A. Enzymes
• B. Collagen✓
• C. Hb
• D. Hormones

Explanation: Fibrous proteins are those which have a spindle or rectangular shape. Usually, they have a secondary level of bonding and are involved in maintaining structures. Options A, C, and D are all functional, globular proteins. Collagen is the only structural, fibrous protein. Hence, option B is correct.

Q130. Three hydrophobic fatty acid tails and a glycerol molecule join to form a _.

• A. Monoglyceride
• B. Diglyceride
• C. Triglyceride✓
• D. Phospholipids

Explanation: Esterification of alcohol with fatty acid results in the formation of acylglycerol, also called glyceride.When three fatty acids are involved in forming an ester bond with glycerol, a triglyceride is formed.

Q131. Which property of water enables it to act as a temperature stabilizer in living organisms?

• A. High polarity
• B. Being non-polar
• C. High specific heat capacity✓
• D. High heat of vaporization

Explanation: Water has a high specific heat capacity, which means that a large quantity of heat energy is required to bring a 1-degree Celsius change in temperature. So, it can absorb large amounts of heat easily. In this way, it stays cool while surrounding substances. For this reason, it is used as a temperature regulator. Hence, option C is correct.

Q132. Which of the following carbohydrates are sweet among all?

• A. Monosacchrides✓
• B. Disacchrides
• C. Oligosacchride
• D. Polysacchride

Explanation: Monosaccharides are the simplest and the sweetest sugars. Option A is the correct option.

Q133. Chemically, cell wall of fungi is made up of _.

• A. Cellulose
• B. Lignin
• C. Chitin✓
• D. Murine

Explanation: The fungal cell wall is primarily made of chitin, a strong polymer that provides rigidity and protection. It also contains glucans and glycoproteins. Hence, this option is correct.

Q134. The inner membrane of mitochondria is folded to form a finger like _.

• A. Cisternae
• B. Cristae✓
• C. Chromatin
• D. Chloroplast

Explanation: Cristae are the folded invagination of the mitochondrial inner membrane.

Q135. Glycogen lipid droplet forms the most important _ of the cell.

• A. Cell organelle
• B. Cell inclusions✓
• C. Non-membranous organelle
• D. Cell matrix

Explanation: Cell inclusions are non-living components within a cell that are temporarily or permanently present. They are not essential but serve various functions. Glycogen lipid droplets are also included in cell inclusions, so option B is correct.

Q136. Lymphatic system contains all of the following organs except _.

• A. Lymph masses
• B. Lymph vessel
• C. Spleen
• D. Lungs✓

Explanation: All options are part of the lymphatic system, except the lungs. Option D is the correct option.

Q137. Transfer of genetic material from one bacteria to another through a third party, usually a bacteriophage, is called?

• A. Conjugation
• B. Transformation
• C. Transduction✓
• D. Transportation

Explanation: Transduction is the process by which a virus transfers genetic material from one bacterium to another through a third party.

Q138. Which of the following helps in developing immunity against germs?

• A. Radiotherapy
• B. Chemotherapy
• C. Vaccination✓
• D. Antibiotics

Explanation: Vaccination helps acquire immunity against germs.

Q139. The best temperature for spermatogenesis is

• A. 37 °C
• B. 32°C
• C. 30°C
• D. 35°C✓

Explanation: It is a fact that 35°C is the best temperature for spermatogenesis. Option D is the correct option.

Q140. Leydig cells in testes are responsible for :

• A. Testosterone production✓
• B. FSH production
• C. Sperm production
• D. Testosterone inhibition

Explanation: Leydig cells function to stimulate the production of the hormone testosterone.

Q141. _ is the inflammation of joints.

• A. Osteoarthritis✓
• B. Osteoporosis
• C. Arteriosclerosis
• D. Osteosclerosis

Explanation: Joint inflammation is also known as osteoarthritis. The word ITIS is used to determine inflammation. Option A is the correct option.

Q142. What is the function of myoglobin?

• A. Store oxygen✓
• B. Store CO2
• C. Transport oxygen
• D. Transport CO2

Explanation: Myoglobin stores oxygen in muscles. Hence, option A is the correct option.

Q143. These are the genes which tend to be inherited together and do not assort independently.

• A. Linked genes✓
• B. Dependent genes
• C. Recombinant genes
• D. Independent genes

Explanation: Linked genes are so close to each other, that during division they are not separated, and as a result, are passed on to the next generation together.

Q144. The molecules of iodine form the _.

• A. Molecular crystals✓
• B. Ionic crystals
• C. Covalent crystals
• D. Metallic crystal

Explanation: Iodine is a molecular crystal due to its non-polar nature.

Q145. For the chemical reactionN2(g) +3H2(g) ->2NH3(g), we can maximize the yield by

• A. By increasing temperature
• B. By decreasing pressure
• C. By increasing volume of reaction vessel
• D. By continous withdrawl of ammonia after intervals✓

Explanation: Continual withdrawal of NH3 shifts the equilibrium to the right side to balance the effect of decreasing the amount of NH3 (Le Chatelier principle). Hence, option D is correct.

Q146. By which of the following factors equilibrium state is attained earlier?

• A. Temperature
• B. Pressure
• C. Concentrations
• D. Catalysts✓

Explanation: Only using a catalyst can help attain equilibrium earlier as it speeds up the rate of both forward and backward reactions. This enhances the rate at which equilibrium is established.

Q147. What is incorrect about the activated complex?

• A. It is high energy species
• B. It is a stable species✓
• C. It is an unstable specie
• D. Potential energy is maximum at activated complex stage

Explanation: The activated complex is temporary and unstable because the energy is more elevated than the products or reactants. An activated complex breaks down into reactants if there isn't sufficient energy for the complex to result in products. The products are only formed if there is sufficient energy available.

Q148. If a reaction is first order with respect to a reactant then the rate will be —--- if the concentration of the reactant is doubled.

• A. Doubled✓
• B. halved
• C. One fourth
• D. quadrupled

Explanation: When a reaction is said to be first order with respect to a reactant, it means that the rate of the reaction is directly proportional to the concentration of that reactant raised to the power of one.Mathematically, if we have a first-order reaction with respect to reactant A, the rate equation would be expressed as:rate = k[A]^1Where [A] represents the concentration of reactant A, and k is the rate constantNow, if the concentration of reactant A is doubled, the new concentration would be 2[A]. Substituting this into the rate equation:new rate = k[2A]^1Since 2A is twice the concentration of A, we can simplify the equation as follows:new rate = 2k[A]^1As we can see, the new rate is twice the original rate. Therefore, if the concentration of the reactant is doubled, the rate will also be doubled. This is why option A is correct.

Q149. One calorie is equal to:

• A. 4.18 KJ
• B. 4.18J✓
• C. 0.418 KJ mol-1
• D. 0.418 KJ

Explanation: 1 Calorie=4.18 joules

Q150. Which statement correctly describes the term standard electrode potential?

• A. It is the electrode potential determined at room temperature and pressure.
• B. It is the electrode potential determined under standard conditions using standard hydrogen electrode as the other electrode✓
• C. It is the electrode potential of an element and its solution compared to a standard value.
• D. It is the potential which is measured when the two half cells are connected together.

Explanation: The correct option B describes the standard electrode potential accurately. It emphasizes that the standard electrode potential is determined under specific standard conditions and involves using a standard hydrogen electrode as the reference electrode for comparison.

Q151. The branch of science which deals with the conversion of electrical and chemical energy and vice versa is called.

• A. Electrochemistry✓
• B. Thermochemistry
• C. Stereochemistry
• D. Biochemistry

Explanation: Electrochemistry is the branch of chemistry, which deals with the inter-conversion of electrical energy and chemical energy.

Q152. Ionization energy decreases down the group because:

• A. Shielding remains constant
• B. Atomic radius remains constant
• C. Proton number increases
• D. Atomic radius increase✓

Explanation: Ionization energy is the energy needed to remove an electron from its atom. Down the group, Atomic radius as well as shielding increases, as a result, the attraction forces between electrons and nucleus reduces. Hence, less energy is required for electrons surrounding the nucleus to be removed from the atom i.e. ionization energy.

Q153. The type of bonding in Zinc is:

• A. Ionic
• B. Covalent
• C. Dative
• D. Metallic✓

Explanation: Zinc is a metal. All metals exhibit metallic bonding between their atoms. Metallic bonding occurs between metal atoms and is characterized by the sharing of valence electrons among a sea of delocalized electrons. In metallic bonds, the valence electrons are not tightly held by individual atoms but are free to move throughout the entire metal structure.

Q154. Which of the following properties decreases in group 2 as we go down the group?

• A. Shielding
• B. Atomic number
• C. proton number
• D. Ionization energy✓

Explanation: Ionization energy always decreases down the group because atomic size increases which weakens the force of attraction between the nucleus and electrons surrounding it. So, it becomes easy to remove electrons from the atom

Q155. The transition element which doesn't show variable valency?

• A. Cu
• B. Sc
• C. Zn✓
• D. Cr

Explanation: The answer to the question should be option C because Zinc does not show the variable valency as elements of the d-block. After all, the d-orbital is full. Its outer electronic configuration is 3d^10 4s^2 So, they tend to lose only 2 electrons from its outermost shell. Hence, only show a valency of +2 and no variable valency.

Q156. Homo cyclic organic comounds are sub divided into two groups namely

• A. alicyclic and aromatic✓
• B. Open and branched chain
• C. Aromatic and non aromatic
• D. anti aromatic

Explanation: Homo cyolic organic compounds are sub divided into two types; * Alicyclic compounds.* Aromatic compounds.

Q157. In alkane each carbon atom has hybridization _.

• A. sp3✓
• B. sp
• C. sp2
• D. dsp

Explanation: In an alkane, each carbon atom has sp3 hybridization. This means that one 2s-orbital and three 2p-orbitals mix to create four hybrid orbitals. These hybrid orbitals have a tetrahedral shape with bonded atoms at angles of 109.5°. Free rotation is possible around the carbon-carbon single bonds, making alkane chains flexible. Options B, C, and D describe different types of hybridization, but they are not applicable to the hybridization of carbon atoms in alkanes.

Q158. Al reacts with O2 according to following reaction4Al + 3O2 ------->2Al2O327g of Al react with how much garms of O2?

• A. 8g
• B. 16g
• C. 24g✓
• D. 32g

Explanation: 27g of Al reacts with 24g of O2. Solution is given below

Q159. The shape of the subshell is explained by which of the following quantum number?

• A. Principal quantum number
• B. Azimuthal quantum number✓
• C. Magnetic quantum number
• D. Spin quantum number

Explanation: Shape is explained by azimuthal quantum number.

Q160. One mole of the substance is the amount of substance that has the same number of particles as their are atoms exactly

• A. 1.008g of hydrogen gas H2
• B. 16g of oxygen gas O2
• C. 12g of C-12 isotope✓
• D. 12g of magnesium

Explanation: One mole is the amount of a substance that contains as many particles or entities as there are atoms in exactly 12 g of the 12C isotope.

Q161. Air is a mixture of gases. the molecules of air do not settle down due to

• A. different molar gas
• B. non polar nature of gas
• C. presence of dirt particle in air
• D. elastic collission of gas molecules✓

Explanation: Gas molecules in air do not settle down primarily due to their elastic collisions. When gas molecules collide, they transfer energy and momentum between each other, resulting in continuous random motion. These elastic collisions prevent the gas molecules from settling and instead keep them in constant motion throughout the air.

Q162. According to Charles's law volume of gas reduces to zero at

• A. -12∘C
• B. -0∘C
• C. -273.15∘C✓
• D. -210∘C

Explanation: Charles's Law states that the volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature, assuming constant pressure and amount of gas. As the temperature decreases, the volume of the gas decreases as well.According to the ideal gas law and the kinetic theory of gases, the volume of a gas theoretically approaches zero as the temperature approaches absolute zero, which is equivalent to -273.15°C or 0 Kelvin (K).

Q163. Which of the the following has highest surface tension?

• A. Benzene
• B. Alcohol
• C. Ether
• D. Water✓

Explanation: Water has the highest surface tension among the options listed. This is primarily because water molecules can form strong hydrogen bonds with each other. Hydrogen bonding occurs when the hydrogen atom of one water molecule is attracted to the oxygen atom of another water molecule. These hydrogen bonds contribute to the cohesive forces between water molecules and result in relatively high surface tension.

Q164. Ice floats on the surface of water due to:

• A. Larger bond length
• B. Cubic structure of ice
• C. Weak intermolecular forces
• D. Empty spaces in the structure of ice✓

Explanation: Ice floats on water because it has a lower density than water. As water freezes, the hydrogen bonds cause the structure to arrange in a form in which there are many intermolecular spaces, with H2O molecules being away from each other. A is incorrect because the bond length of H2O remains whatsoever the physical form H2O is in. The cubic structure of ice has nothing to do with ice floating on water. It can be proven from the fact that even if ice is formed in a different shape it will still float on water so, option B is also incorrect. Option C is incorrect because intermolecular forces are the same in water and ice, which are hydrogen bonds.

Q165. The correct order of reactivity of hydrocarbon is:

• A. Alkane > Alkynes > Alkene
• B. Alkene> Alkane > Alkyne
• C. Alkyne >Alkene> Alkane
• D. Alkene> Alkyne> Alkane✓

Explanation: Option D is correct. Alkenes, with their one pi bond, are more reactive than both alkanes and alkynes. Alkynes, with their two pi bonds, are more reactive than alkanes but less reactive than alkenes. Alkanes, lacking pi bonds, are the least reactive among the three hydrocarbon types.

Q166. Alkyl halides are also known as halogen derivatives of

• A. Alkane✓
• B. Alkene
• C. Alkyne
• D. Alcohol

Explanation: Alkyl halides, also known as haloalkanes or halogen derivatives, are a class of organic compounds in which one or more hydrogen atoms in an alkane molecule are replaced by halogen atoms (such as fluorine, chlorine, bromine, or iodine).

Q167. Phenols are very reactive towards

• A. Oxidizing agent✓
• B. Reducing agent
• C. Hygroscopic agent
• D. Dehydrating agent

Explanation: Phenols are highly reactive compounds that contain a hydroxyl (-OH) group attached to an aromatic ring. This hydroxyl group makes phenols prone to various chemical reactions. One of the most significant characteristics of phenols is their reactivity toward oxidizing agents.

Q168. Select the correct order of the relative strength of phenol, alcohol, water, and carboxylic acid

• A. Carboxylic acid> water> phenol >alcohol
• B. Carboxylic acid> phenol > water >alcohol✓
• C. Carboxylic acid> alcohol > phenol > water
• D. Carboxylic acid> water> alcohol > phenol

Explanation: The correct order of relative strength is B: Carboxylic acid > phenol > water > alcohol.Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenols due to the resonance stabilization of the carboxylate anion. Phenols are more acidic than water because the phenoxide ion is stabilized by resonance. Water is less acidic than both carboxylic acids and phenols.

Q169. Catalytic reduction of aldehyde & Ketone forms:

• A. Alcohol✓
• B. Carboxylic acid
• C. Alkane
• D. Aldehyde

Explanation: The correct answer is Alcohol. During catalytic reduction, hydrogen is added to the carbonyl group of aldehydes and ketones, converting them into alcohols. Specifically, aldehydes yield primary alcohols, while ketones yield secondary alcohols. The other options are incorrect because: Carboxylic acids are produced from the oxidation of alcohols, not their reduction; Alkanes do not form from the reduction of carbonyl compounds; and Aldehydes are the reactants in this reduction process, not the products.

Q170. Based upon function thyroxine can be classified as

• A. Hormonal protein✓
• B. Structural protein
• C. Transport protein
• D. Genetic protein

Explanation: Thyroxine, also known as T4, is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland. It acts as a regulator of metabolism in the body and plays a vital role in controlling various functions such as growth, development, and temperature regulation. Therefore, thyroxine is classified as a hormonal protein.

Q171. The unit of kinetic energy is the same as

• A. work✓
• B. power/ time
• C. time/ power
• D. work/ time

Explanation: The unit of kinetic energy is the same as the unit of work, which is joules (J).

Q172. How many radians are in one degree

• A. 0.0174rad✓
• B. 0.174 rad
• C. 1.745 rad
• D. 0.00174 rad

Explanation: Conversion of 1 degree to radians using the formula: (1 degree / 360) * 2π ≈ 0.0174 rad. Hence, option A is correct.

Q173. The tension in the string at the top of the vertical circle is

• A. zero✓
• B. mg
• C. 2mg
• D. 4mg

Explanation: The correct option is A) zero because the tension in the string at the top of the vertical circle can be zero when the object is in free fall and experiences no contact forces.

Q174. Which of the following is the angular speed in radians per hour of the daily rotation of our earth?

• A. 2pi
• B. 4pi
• C. pi/6
• D. pi/12✓

Explanation: The Earth completes one full rotation around its axis in approximately 24 hours, which we define as a day. We can calculate the angular speed by dividing the total angle covered by the Earth in one day by the time taken.The total angle covered by the Earth in one full rotation is 2π radians (a full circle). The time taken for one rotation is 24 hours. Therefore, the angular speed can be calculated as:Angular Speed = Total Angle / TimeAngular Speed = 2π radians / 24 hoursSimplifying, we get:Angular Speed = π/12 radians per hourTherefore, the correct answer is option D) π/12.

Q175. Which of the following factor does not affect the speed of sound in air?

• A. pressure✓
• B. density
• C. temperature
• D. medium

Explanation: Pressure has no effect on speed of sound in air.

Q176. The ultrasonic waves have frequency higher than

• A. 20 hz
• B. 20k Hz✓
• C. 200 k Hz
• D. 2000 kHz

Explanation: Ultrasonic refers to sound having a frequency higher than the upper audible limit of human hearing. It has a frequency above 20,000 Hz.

Q177. Continuous regular and rhythmic disturbance in a medium resulting in periodic vibration of a source causes _ in a medium.

• A. complex wave
• B. stationary wave
• C. electromagnetic wave
• D. periodic waves✓

Explanation: Wave is in the form of a pulse which is set up by a single disturbance in a medium like the snapping of one end of a rope or a coil spring. Continuous, regular, and rhythmic disturbances in a medium result from periodic vibrations of a source which cause periodic waves in that medium

Q178. The conditions for the application of Boyle's law hold good in

• A. adiabatic
• B. isothermal✓
• C. isobaric
• D. isochoric

Explanation: The correct option is B) isothermal, as Boyle's law holds good when the temperature remains constant. In an isothermal process, where the temperature is held constant, Boyle's law accurately describes the relationship between pressure and volume for a given amount of gas.

Q179. Electric intensity due to charge distribution is calculated using which of the following?

• A. Ohm's law
• B. Faraday's Law
• C. Gauss’s law✓
• D. Ampere's Law

Explanation: Gauss's law allows us to calculate the electric field or electric intensity due to a given charge distribution.

Q180. The SI unit of potential difference is

• A. volt✓
• B. Coloumb
• C. watt
• D. eV

Explanation: The "volt" is the SI unit of potential difference, also known as voltage.

Q181. Ohm-meter is the unit of

• A. resistance
• B. resistivity✓
• C. conductance
• D. conductivity

Explanation: Resistivity is a property of a material and is measured in ohm-meters (Ω·m).

Q182. The total resistance of wire is inversely proportional to

• A. length
• B. area✓
• C. temperature
• D. time

Explanation: he resistance of a wire is inversely proportional to its cross-sectional area. This means that as the area of the wire increases, the resistance decreases. This relationship is described by the formula R = ρ(L/A), where R is the resistance, ρ is the resistivity of the material, L is the length of the wire, and A is the cross-sectional area of the wire. As A increases, R decreases, so it is correct to say that resistance is inversely proportional to area.

Q183. The force exerted on the charged particle will be maximum when it enters the magnetic field at

• A. 60°
• B. 90°✓
• C. 0°
• D. 45°

Explanation: Force on moving charge will be maximum if the direction of the velocity of charge is perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field (when θ=90∘).

Q184. The SI unit for magnetic induction (B) is tesla and tesla is equal to

• A. NA-1 m-1✓
• B. NmA-1
• C. N-1mA
• D. NmA

Explanation: SI unit of tesla is NA-1 m-1.

Q185. The gradient of velocity time graph is equal to

• A. Distance
• B. Force
• C. Acceleration✓
• D. Speed

Explanation: The gradient of velocity with respect to time represents the rate of change of velocity over time, which is defined as acceleration. Acceleration is the measure of how quickly an object's velocity is changing, whether it's speeding up, slowing down, or changing direction.

Q186. Two cars travelling on straight road in opposite direction with speed 70km/hr, 60km/hr their relative velocity will be

• A. 10km/h
• B. 130km/h✓
• C. 65 km/h
• D. 5km/h

Explanation: When two objects are moving in opposite directions, their relative velocity is the sum of their individual velocities. In this case, one car is traveling at 70 km/hr and the other at 60 km/hr.To find the relative velocity, we add the two velocities together:Relative velocity = Velocity of car 1 + Velocity of car 2Relative velocity = 70 km/hr + 60 km/hrRelative velocity = 130 km/hr

Q187. The angle of a projection at which it’s maximum height and horizontal range are equal is:

• A. 86°
• B. 46°
• C. 66°
• D. 76°✓

Explanation: In projectile thrown at angle θ Range R and maximum height H are given as :Range, R= u2 (sin2θ)/g = u2 2sinθcosθ/gMaximum Height, H= u2sin2 θ/2gGiven: H=R u2(2sinθcosθ)/g = u2sin2θ/2g4cosθ=sinθtanθ=4θ=76∘

Q188. What is the velocity of a projectile at the highest point?

• A. vx= 0, vy=0
• B. vx= 0, vy constant
• C. vx= constant, vy= constant
• D. vx= constant, vy=0✓

Explanation: Vx/ horizontal component of velocity is always constant in absence of air resistance, as in absence of air friction we consider ax=0 and no other force acts in that direction. (FACT) While, for the Vy/ vertical component of velocity at highest point of projectile motion is zero because ay=g, the object experiences constant acceleration due to gravity. Hence, it has zero velocity.

Q189. Work done will be negative if the angle between force and displacement is:

• A. 0°
• B. 45°
• C. 60°
• D. 180°✓

Explanation: When the angle between the force and displacement is 180°, cos(180°) = -1. The work done will be negative because the force and displacement vectors have opposite directions. In this case, the work done is considered negative because the force acts against the displacement.

Q190. In inter-conversion of energy, the work done against the friction is:

• A. f+h
• B. f-h
• C. fh✓
• D. f/h

Explanation: Work done is always equal to the distance moved in the direction of force taken as the product of force and distance. Hence W=fh.

Q191. In fleming's right hand rule, the second finger indicates:

• A. Option A: Force
• B. Option B: Induced current✓
• C. Option C: Magnetic field
• D. Option D: Motion

Explanation: In Fleming's right hand rule, the fingers of the right hand are used to determine the direction of induced current in a conductor moving through a magnetic field. The thumb indicates the direction of motion, the index finger represents the direction of the magnetic field (from North to South), and the middle finger, which is the second finger, indicates the direction of the induced current in the conductor. Therefore, option B is correct as it accurately reflects the role of the second finger in this rule. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they misattribute the functions of the fingers to different concepts related to electromagnetism.

Q192. The efficiency of the transformer is:

• A. 60
• B. 70
• C. 80
• D. 90✓

Explanation: The efficiency of the transformer is 100%. This theoretical efficiency cannot be obtained in practice, although the transformer is a very good machine with efficiency in the region of 90%.

Q193. A process in which only one half of the alternating current is converted into direct current such process is called

• A. Full wave rectification
• B. Amplification
• C. Half wave rectification✓
• D. Magnification

Explanation: Half wave rectification is a process in which only one half of the alternating current (AC) waveform is converted into direct current (DC). It involves using a diode to block or eliminate the negative half cycles of the AC waveform, allowing only the positive half cycles to pass through and convert into DC. The result is an output waveform that consists of a series of positive pulses or half cycles.

Q194. The conversion of alternating current into direct current is called rectification and circuit is called rectifier. Which component of electronics act as a rectifier?

• A. Diode✓
• B. Transistor
• C. Transformer
• D. Inductor

Explanation: A rectifier used a diode in its circuit, the diode allows one-directional flow of current in the circuit hence converting AC to DC.

Q195. Which photons carry the most energy?

• A. Blue
• B. Violet✓
• C. Red
• D. Green

Explanation: Violet light has the highest frequency among the options provided (higher than blue, red, and green), making it the photon with the most energy (frequency is proportional to energy). Hence, option B is correct.

Q196. Which X-ray photon will have the longest wavelength?

• A. K alpha
• B. K beta
• C. K gamma
• D. M series✓

Explanation: M X-ray photons will have the longest wavelength because they correspond to transitions involving lower energy differences compared to Kα, Kβ, and Kγ photons.

Q197. The half-life of caron is 5730 years. How much carbon will be left after 22920 years?

• A. 1/32
• B. 1/16✓
• C. 1/64
• D. 1/4

Explanation: Amount of Carbon decayed= 22920/5730=4 half lifes passed. The half lifes left are ½ *½ * ½* ½ = 1/16th.

Q198. All hammers are tools. Some tools are useless things. All useless things are trash. Which of the following is NECESSARILY TRUE given only the information above?ConclusionsI. Some hammers are trash. II. Some tools are trash.III. All useless things are tools.

• A. I and III
• B. I and II
• C. II and III
• D. II✓

Explanation: Now look at the conclusions provided, For I, if we look at the diagram some hammers are not trash hence I is wrong. For II, Some tools are trash as indicated in the yellow-shaded region hence II is correct. For III, Not ALL useless things are tools rather some useless things are tools so III is also wrong. The only option correct according to the above analyses is D ( only conclusion II).

Q199. The government has increased the taxes on all businesses in Pakistan.Many small businesses will have to close their operation in Pakistan.

• A. Statement I is the cause and Statement II is the effect.✓
• B. Statement II is the cause and Statement I is the effect.
• C. Both statements I and II are independent causes.
• D. Both the statement I and II are the effects of independent causes.

Explanation: Here by reading out the two statements, it’s clear that because the government has increased taxes on all businesses in Pakistan (1), as a result, many small businesses will have to close their operation. Majorly because small businesses do not have capital large enough to pay increased taxes. Hence, Statement 2 here is the effect of Statement 1 i.e. the cause.

Q200. Read the following and choose the correct answer.X, Y and Z are three whole numbers less than 24 but greater than 11. X is the smallest prime number. Y is the largest number divisible by 3. Z is the smallest number divisible by 11.

• A. X is 13, Y is 24, Z is 11
• B. X is 13, Y is 21, Z is 22✓
• C. X is 11, Y is 21, Z is 11
• D. X is 11, Y is 24, Z is 22

Explanation: As the question states, the whole number is less than 24, hence options A and D are eliminated. Let's list the numbers in question, 12,13,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22,23. X is the smallest prime number. Among the numbers listed 13 is the smallest prime number so X is 13. Y is the biggest number divisible by 3. 21 is the largest number among these but it is divisible by 3. So Y is 21. Z is the number divisible by 11. Amongst all these numbers only 22 is divisible by 11. This is what makes option B the most appropriate choice.

Q201. 2e represents:

• A. α-rays✓
• B. β-rays
• C. γ-rays
• D. X-rays

Explanation: a-rays are helium nucleus that's why, 2e+ is correct.

Q202. The half-life of Iodine - 131 is:

• A. 8 days✓
• B. 10 days
• C. 60 days
• D. 131 days

Explanation: 8 days

Q203. The relation between the decay constant λ and the half-life T1/2 is

• A. λ = T1/2
• B. T1/2 = 0.693/λ✓
• C. λ = T1/2/0.693
• D. λ = T1/2 x 0.693

Explanation: The relationship between the decay constant (λ) and the half-life (T₁/₂) is given by the following equation:T₁/₂ = ln(2) / λ Where:T₁/₂ is the half-life λ is the decay constantln(2) is the natural logarithm of 2, which is approximately 0.693 This equation can also be written as:T₁/₂ ≈ 0.693 / λ In simpler terms, the half-life is inversely proportional to the decay constant. A larger decay constant means a shorter half-life, and vice versa.The decay constant represents the probability of decay of a nucleus per unit time. The half-life is the time it takes for half of the radioactive nuclei in a sample to decay.

Q204. Skin burn, loss of hair, drop in white blood cell and induction of cancer are example of _ of radiation:

• A. Zener effect
• B. Biological effect
• C. Somatic effect✓
• D. Genetic effect

Explanation: These effects such as skin burn, loss of hair, drop in white blood cells, and induction of cancer are examples of the somatic effects of radiation. These effects are related to the impact of ionizing radiation on living tissues and organisms.

Q205. Leptons are the group of particles which are:

• A. Less massive than the lightest hadrons✓
• B. More massive than the lightest hadrons
• C. Less massive than the heaviest hadrons
• D. More massive than heaviest hadrons

Explanation: Leptons are a group of elementary particles that are less massive than the lightest hadrons. Here's a bit more detail:Leptons: These are fundamental particles, meaning they are not made up of smaller constituents. They include electrons, muons, taus, and their corresponding neutrinos. They interact through the weak force and (if charged) the electromagnetic force, but not the strong force. Hadrons: These are composite particles made up of quarks and gluons. They interact through the strong force. Hadrons are divided into baryons (like protons and neutrons, made of three quarks) and mesons (made of a quark and an antiquark). The lightest hadrons are the pions (mesons), which are significantly more massive than the electron (the lightest charged lepton). Neutrinos are even lighter than electrons, having very small or even zero mass.Therefore, the correct answer is Less massive than the lightest hadrons.

Q206. A meson consists of a

• A. Quark and an antiquark✓
• B. Only quarks
• C. Anti-quarks
• D. Quarks and hadrons

Explanation: A meson consists of a quark and an antiquark.Mesons are a type of hadron, which means they are composite particles made of quarks. Unlike baryons (such as protons and neutrons) which are made of three quarks, mesons are made of one quark and one antiquark bound together by the strong force.

Q207. Geiger Muller Counter's wire is maintained at:

• A. Positive 1000 V✓
• B. Negative 1000 V
• C. Positive 10,000 V
• D. Negative 10,000 V

Explanation: This is fact.

Q208. One Becquerel is equal to:

• A. One decay per second✓
• B. Two decay per second
• C. Three decay per second
• D. Four decay per second

Explanation: One Becquerel (Bq) is defined as one decay per second. It's the SI unit of radioactivity, and it measures the rate of radioactive decay.If a radioactive sample has an activity of 1 Bq, it means that one nucleus in that sample decays (emits radiation) every second, on average.

Q209. When an object starts from rest, then the first equation of motion is given as:

• A. v = u + at✓
• B. v = u - at
• C. v = u + 1/2 at
• D. v = √(at)

Explanation: The first equation of motion is:v = u + atWhere:v = final velocityu = initial velocitya = accelerationt = timeIf an object starts from rest, its initial velocity (u) is 0. Therefore, the equation simplifies to:v = atSo the correct answer is v = u + at, which simplifies to v = at when u = 0.

Q210. Acceleration of light traveling in vacuum:

• A. 3 x 10^10 cm/s^2
• B. 1,86000 miles/s^2
• C. Zero✓
• D. 299792458 m/s^2

Explanation: Since the speed of light is always same and never changes so since there is no change in speed so it acceleration will be zero

Q211. Ignoring air resistance, Acceleration of a projectile is:

• A. Zero
• B. 10 m/s^2 vertically upward
• C. 10 m/s^2 vertically downward✓
• D. 10 m/s^2

Explanation: Ignoring air resistance, the acceleration of a projectile is constant and is equal to the acceleration due to gravity (approximately 9.8 m/s² downwards). Here's why: Only force acting: When air resistance is ignored, the only force acting on a projectile after it's launched is gravity. Constant gravitational force: The force of gravity is constant near the Earth's surface, resulting in a constant downward acceleration.No horizontal acceleration: Since there are no horizontal forces acting on the projectile (again, ignoring air resistance), there is no horizontal acceleration. The horizontal velocity remains constant. Therefore, the acceleration of a projectile (ignoring air resistance) is entirely vertical and constant, directed downwards

Q212. Two bodies having the same mass undergo elastic collision then their velocities after collision will be:

• A. v1' = 0, v2' = 0
• B. v1' = v2, v2' = 0
• C. v1' = v1, v2' = v2
• D. v1 = v2, v2' = v1✓

Explanation: a one-dimensional elastic collision between two bodies of equal mass, their velocities are exchanged. This means:The first body's velocity after the collision (v₁') is equal to the second body's velocity before the collision (v₂).The second body's velocity after the collision (v₂') is equal to the first body's velocity before the collision (v₁).Therefore, the correct relationship is:v₁' = v₂ v₂' = v₁So the correct answer from the provided options is v1 = v2, v2' = v1. It seems there's a small typo in the options you provided (it should likely be v1' = v2).

Q213. Momentum is the product of mass and velocity then momentum and velocity are:

• A. Parallel✓
• B. Perpendicular
• C. Antiparallel
• D. Independent

Explanation: Momentum is defined as the product of mass and velocity (p = mv).1. Since mass is a scalar quantity, the momentum vector (p) will always have the same direction as the velocity vector (v).2. Therefore, momentum and velocity are parallel

Q214. The angle between velocity and acceleration at maximum height is:

• A. 0°
• B. 60°
• C. 90°✓
• D. 180°

Explanation: At the maximum height of a projectile's trajectory, the angle between velocity and acceleration is 90 degrees. Here's why:Velocity at maximum height: At the highest point, the vertical component of the projectile's velocity is zero. However, the horizontal component of the velocity remains constant throughout the motion (assuming no air resistance). Therefore, the velocity vector at the maximum height is purely horizontal. Acceleration: The acceleration of a projectile (ignoring air resistance) is always directed vertically downwards due to gravity. Since the velocity is horizontal and the acceleration is vertical, the angle between them is 90 degrees.

Q215. To improve the jumping record the long jumper should jump at an angle of:

• A. 30°
• B. 45°✓
• C. 60°
• D. 90°

Explanation: improve the jumping record, the long jumper should jump at an angle of 45°.Here's why:Range of a projectile: The horizontal distance a projectile travels (its range) is maximized when the launch angle is 45 degrees, assuming the launch and landing points are at the same height and air resistance is negligible.Long jump as projectile motion: A long jump can be modeled as projectile motion. The jumper launches themselves at an angle, and their distance is determined by their initial velocity and launch angle.The formula for the range (R) of a projectile is:R = (v₀² * sin 2θ) / gWhere:v₀ is the initial velocityθ is the launch angleg is the acceleration due to gravityThe maximum value of sin 2θ is 1, which occurs when 2θ = 90°, or θ = 45°.While in real-world long jumping, factors like air resistance and the jumper's ability to generate both vertical and horizontal velocity play a role, the optimal theoretical launch angle for maximum distance is still 45°.

Q216. The time taken by a projectile to reach its maximum height is:

• A. T = 2v₀sinθ/g
• B. T = v₀sinθ/g✓
• C. T = v₀sinθ/2g
• D. T = v₀sin²θ/g

Explanation: The time taken by a projectile to reach its maximum height is given by:t = (v₀ * sin θ) / gWhere:t is the time to reach maximum height v₀ is the initial velocity θ is the launch angle g is the acceleration due to gravity This formula is derived from the first equation of motion (v = u + at) applied to the vertical motion of the projectile. At the maximum height, the vertical component of velocity (v_y) becomes zero. Here's the derivation:Consider the vertical motion: v_y = u_y + a_y * tAt maximum height, v_y = 0. The initial vertical velocity component is u_y = v₀ * sin θ. The vertical acceleration is a_y = -g (negative because it's downwards). Substituting these values into the equation:0 = v₀ * sin θ - g * tSolving for t:t = (v₀ * sin θ) / gThis formula tells us that the time to reach maximum height depends on the initial velocity and the launch angle. A higher initial velocity or a larger launch angle (closer to 90 degrees) will result in a longer time to reach the maximum height.

Q217. The slope of velocity-time graph give us:

• A. Speed
• B. Velocity
• C. Acceleration✓
• D. Distance

Explanation: The slope of a velocity-time graph gives us acceleration.Here's why:Slope: In a graph, the slope is defined as the change in the vertical axis divided by the change in the horizontal axis (rise over run).Velocity-time graph: In this type of graph, the vertical axis represents velocity (v), and the horizontal axis represents time (t).Therefore, the slope of a velocity-time graph is:Slope = (Change in velocity) / (Change in time) = Δv / ΔtBy definition, the change in velocity over time is acceleration (a):a = Δv / ΔtThus, the slope of a velocity-time graph directly represents acceleration.

Q218. Rockets accelerate in space using which principle:

• A. Principle of thermodynamics
• B. Principle of conservation of energy
• C. Principle of momentum✓
• D. Principle of conservation of force

Explanation: Option C is correct because the loss of mass by the rocket results in an increase in the speed which makes the value of mv=p a constant. Thus, this speeding up of the rocket is according to law of conservation of momentum.

Q219. In explosions:

• A. Total K.E is conserved
• B. Total P.E is conserved
• C. Total momentum is conserved✓
• D. Total momentum + K.E is conserved

Explanation: In explosions, total momentum is conserved. Here's why:Conservation of Momentum: In a closed system (where no external forces are acting), the total momentum before an event is equal to the total momentum after the event. This principle applies to all interactions, including explosions. Explosions as internal forces: Explosions involve internal forces within the system. These internal forces cause the fragments to move apart. However, they do not change the total momentum of the system. Here's why the other options are not generally true:Total momentum + K.E is conserved: Kinetic energy is generally not conserved in explosions. Explosions convert other forms of energy (chemical potential energy, for example) into kinetic energy of the fragments. Thus, kinetic energy increases. Total P.E is conserved: Potential energy is also generallynot conserved in explosions. Potential energy is converted into kinetic energy and other forms of energy (heat, sound, etc.).Total K.E is conserved: As mentioned above, kinetic energy increases in an explosion as other forms of energy are converted into it.Therefore, only momentum is conserved in explosions (in a closed system).

Q220. Slope of displacement time graph gives the values of:

• A. Displacement
• B. Velocity✓
• C. Acceleration
• D. Distance

Explanation: The slope of a displacement-time graph gives the value of velocity.Here's why:Displacement-time graph: In this graph, displacement (change in position) is plotted on the vertical axis (y-axis), and time is plotted on the horizontal axis (x-axis).Slope: The slope of any graph is calculated as "rise over run," which is the change in the y-value divided by the change in the x-value.In a displacement-time graph:Slope = (Change in displacement) / (Change in time)Since velocity is defined as the rate of change of displacement with respect to time, the slope of a displacement-time graph directly represents velocity.

Q221. Work done is negative when θ is:

• A. 0°
• B. 45°
• C. 90°
• D. 180°✓

Explanation: Work done is negative when θ is greater than 90 degrees and less than or equal to 180 degrees (90° < θ ≤ 180°). Here's why:The formula for work done (W) is:W = Fd cos θ Where:F is the force applied d is the displacement θ is the angle between the force and displacement vectors The cosine function (cos θ) is:Positive when 0° ≤ θ < 90° Zero when θ = 90°Negative when 90° < θ ≤ 180° Therefore, when the angle between the force and displacement is greater than 90 degrees, the cosine of that angle is negative, making the work done negative. This physically means that the force is acting in a direction that opposes the displacement.

Q222. Which one of the following is a non-conservative force?

• A. Electric force
• B. Elastic spring force
• C. Gravitational force
• D. Frictional force✓

Explanation: Conservative forces, such as gravitational, electric, and elastic spring forces, depend only on the initial and final positions of an object, meaning the work done is independent of the path taken. On the other hand, frictional force is a non-conservative force because the work done by friction depends on the path taken. This is because frictional forces convert kinetic energy into thermal energy, which is dissipated and cannot be recovered, making the process path-dependent.